29-06-2025

5001CJA101029250009 JA

PHYSICS

SECTION I

1) A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance 1.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V dc supply
using a series resistor of 6.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the storage battery during charging ?

(A) 8V
(B) 29V
(C) 13V
(D) 21V

2) In the given circuit find the magnitude of current flowing through arm 'AB' :

(A) 4.5A
(B) 1.5 A
(C) 3.5A
(D) 4 A

3) In the given circuit which resistor consumes maximum power :-

(A) 2Ω
(B) 3Ω
(C) 4Ω
(D) All consumes equal/over

4) If resistivity of all four wire connected in parallel is different as given in figure and all other
dimensions of wire are same then current i is (resistance of wire having resistivity ρ is R0) :-
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Two wires AB and BC, Each of length L/2 are made of the same material. The radius of wire AB is
2r and of wire BC is r. Current I flows through the composite wire (see Fig.) Choose the correct

statement from the following.

(A) Potential difference across BC is twice that across AB

(B) Power dissipated in BC is four times the power dissipated in AB
(C) Current densities in AB and BC are equal
(D) Electric fields in AB and BC are equal

6) Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2 (< Q1) respectively. If they are
brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C, the potential difference
between them is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Identical metal plates are located in air at equal distances d from one another. The area of each
plate is equal to A. If plates are interconnected as shown in figure, then the capacitance of system

between points P and Q is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

8) In wheat stone's bridge shown in the adjoining figure galvanometer gives no deflection on

pressing the key, the balance condition for the bridge is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) In the circuit diagram shown all the capacitors are in μF. The equivalent capacitance between

points A & B is :- (in μF)

(A) 14/5
(B) 7.5
(C) 3/7
(D) None of these

10) A satellite of mass m is circulating around the earth with constant angular velocity. If radius of
the orbit is R0 and mass of the earth is M, then the ratio of angular momentum of the satellite about
the centre of the earth and its kinetic energy will be :-

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

11) A body of mass m is projected vertically upwards from earths surface with near earth orbital
speed. Find the maximum height from earth's surface reached by the body. (Radius of earth = R)

(A)

(B) 2R

(C)

(D) R

2
12) A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area 1m each, and a separation of 0.1 m. If the electric
field between the plates is 100 N/C, the magnitude of charge each plate is :-

0
(Take ε =8.85×10–12 )

(A) 7.85 × 10–10 C

(B) 6.85 × 10–10 C
(C) 9.85 × 10–10 C
(D) 8.85 × 10–10 C

13) The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 8Ω and RΩ respectively, then the

balancing length is cm. If the resistance R is shunted with another resistance 2R then the new

balancing length will be :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None
14) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b

and c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15) Point charge q, -q, 2Q and Q are placed in order at the corners A, B, C, D, of a square of side 2b.

If the field at the midpoint of CD is zero, then is-

(A) 1
(B) 2

(C)

(D)

16) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. The electric field strength is :

(A) 100 V/m along x-axis

(B) 100 V/m along y-axis
(C) 400 V/m at an angle 120° with x-axis

(D)
V/m an angle 120° with x-axis

17) Find the force experienced by the semicircular rod charged with a charge q, placed as shown in
figure. Radius of the wire is R and the line of charge with linear charge density λ is passing through
its centre and perpendicular to the plane of wire.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) In the following circuit, the current through the resistor R = 2Ω is I Amperes, the value of I (in

A) is :-

(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

19) Electrostatic potential at a point due to a uniformly charged solid sphere

(A) Is constant inside the sphere

(B) Is directly proportional to the distance from the center for inside points
(C) Is maximum at the center of the sphere if its positively charged
 At the surface of the given sphere ,the electrostatic potential is around 66.7 percent lesser than
(D)
that at the center.

20) Two soap bubble of radius 2r and 3r are in contact with each other. The radius of curvature of
the interface between the bubble is :

(A) 2r
(B) r
(C) 3r
(D) 6r

SECTION II

1) Equivalent capacitance between A & B is αC then find value of α?

2) An Earth satellite revolves on a circular orbit at a linear speed v0. A missile device increases the
absolute value of this speed to 1.5v0, and the satellite goes into an unknown path as shown (Fig).
With what speed will the satellite leave the gravitational field of earth? The resistance of the cosmic

dust is not taken into account. Mass of earth is M. If your answer is , fill a in OMR sheet.
3) Reading of water rises in capillary is 2 cm when it is kept vertical. If the tube is tilted 60° from
vertical, the reading in capillary tube is - (Reading of capillary means length of water column in
tube)

4) A point charge +q is placed on the axis of a closed cylinder of radius R and height 25R/12 as

shown. If electric flux coming out from the curved surface of cylinder is , then calculate x.

5) A thin spherical soap bubble has surface tension S. Its surface is uniformly charged with charge
Q, its volume is V. It is found that when Q2 = 16nπε0SV, the excess pressure inside the bubble
becomes zero. Find n.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

1) Which of the following compounds produces an optically inactive compound on hydrogenation ?

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

2)
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) X and Y are geometrical isomers

(B)
X racemic mixture

(C)
Y meso compound
(D) X is more stable than Y

3) Reaction incorrectly matched with its major product is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

4) 2-Methylbutane on reacting with bromine in the presence of sunlight gives mainly

(A) 2–bromo-2–methylbutane
(B) 1–bromo-2–methylbutane
(C) 1–bromo-3–methylbutane
(D) 2–bromo-3–methylbutane

5) Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give -

(A) A mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br

(B) A mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
(C) A mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br
(D) A mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br

6) In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound ‘B’ :-

CH3CH = CHCH3 A B.
The compound B is

(A) CH3CH2CHO
(B) CH3COCH3
(C) CH3CH2COCH3
(D) CH3CHO

7) Which of the following compound do not undergo any substituion by SN1 & SN2 mechanism?

(A)

(B)

(C) CH3–O–CH2–Cl

(D)

8) Which of the following represent pair of enantiomers

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

9) A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's law:

(A) A - B attraction force is greater than A - A and B - B

(B) A-B attraction force is less than A-A and B-B
(C) A-B attraction force remains same as A - A and B-B
(D) Volume of solution is different from sum of volume of solute and solvent

10) For which of the following pair, the heat of mixing, ΔHmix, is approximately zero?

(A) CH3COOCH3 + CHCl3

(B) CH3COOH + H2O
(C) C2H5OH + CH3OH
(D) CH3COCH3 + C6H6

11) PA = (235 y – 125 xy) mm of Hg, PA is partial pressure of A, x is mole fraction of B in liquid phase
in the ideal solution of two liquids A and B and y is the mole fraction of A in vapour phase, then P°B
in mm of Hg is :

(A) 235
(B) 140
(C) 110
(D) 125

12) In a titration of H2O2 , certain amount of it exactly requires 'y' mole of KMnO4 in acidic medium.
The mole of H2O2 in solution will be -

(A) 2y

(B)

(C) 5y
(D) 4y

13) When BrO3– ion reacts with Br– in acid medium, Br2 is liberated. The equivalent weight of Br2 in
this reaction is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

14) Which of the following statement is correct about MnO4–

–
(A) MnO4 titrations in presence of HCl are unsatisfactory since HCl is oxidised to Cl2
(B) KMnO4 should be kept in dark brown bottles and standardise just before use
– 3
(C) MnO4 has d s hybridisation and tetrahedral structure
(D) All of these

15) Which of the following having highest density among the following?

(A) Zn
(B) Co
(C) V
(D) Cr

16) Match the catalysts to the correct processes :-

Catalyst Process
(A) TiCl3 (i) Wacker process
(B) PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler-Natta polymerization
(C) CuCl2 (iii) Contact process
(D) V2O5 (iv) Deacon's process
(A) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(B) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(C) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(D) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

17) Generally First IE of 5d series elements are higher than those of 3d and 4d series elements. This
is due to :

(A) bigger size of atoms of 5d-series elements than 3d-series elements.

greater effective nuclear charge is experienced by valence electrons because of the weak
(B)
shielding of the nucleus by 4ƒ-electrons in 5d series.
(C) (A) and (B) both.
(D) None of these.

18) The number of unpaired electrons in Gadolinium [Z = 64] is :-

(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 3
19) The lanthanide ion that would show colour is-

(A) Sm3+
(B) La3+
(C) Lu3+
(D) Gd3+

20) The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are :-

(A) 6 and 4
(B) 7 and 6
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 6 and 7

SECTION II

1)
Find the sum of elimination products including stereoisomers (X + Y + Z + P)?

2) How many reagents are nucleophiles

, , , , H2O , AlCl3 , , CH2 = CH2

3) Liquid A and B form an ideal solution. The boiling point of solution is 72° C, when the external
pressure is 0.6 bar. If then solution contains 200 moles of liquid A, then moles of liquid B is :
[Given : = 0.4 bar and = 1.0 bar at 72° C ]

4) Number of tetrahedral species which are diamagnetic in nature.

[Ni(CO)4] , CCℓ4 , CℓO3 , XeO4 , K4[Ni(CN)4] , [PtCℓ4]2–
5) The difference between bond orders of CO and is where x = _______.

MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

1) If ; then at x = 0

(A) f(x) is continuous, when a = 0

(B) f(x) is continuous, when a = 8
(C) f(x) is discontinuous for every value of a
(D) none of these

2) If , then the number of points of discontinuity of |f(x)| is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None of these

3) Let f : (1, 3) → R be a function defined by , where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x.
Then the range of f is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) f : R → Y, is onto function, then Y is

(A)

(B)

(C) (–1, 0]
(D) (–1, 1]

5) If f : R → R be a function satisfying f(x – 1) + f(x + 1) = f(x); ∀ x ∈ R, then period of f(x) is

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) Not defined

6) The complete solution set of the inequality [cot–1x]2 – 6[cot–1 x] + 9 ≤ 0, where [.] denotes greatest
integer function, is

(A) (–∞, cot 3]

(B) [cot 3, cot 2]
(C) [cot 3, ∞)
(D) (–∞, cot 2]

7) The domain of is R – (a, b), then

(A)

(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) –3

8) =

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9)

Let f : R R be a function satisfying f(x) + 2f(1 – x) = x2 + 2 for all . Then f(x) is

(A) 1/3
(B) 1/2
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/2

10) is equal to :

(A)

(B) 0

(C)

(D) 1

11) If then is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None

12) Let and terms of a non -constant A.P. be respectively the and terms of a
G.P. If the first term of the A.P. is 1, then the sum of first 20 terms of this A.P. will be

(A) 990
(B) 980
(C) 960
(D) 970

13) If the sum of the first 20 terms of the series is 460, then x is
equal to:

(A) 746/21
(B) 71/2
(C) e2
(D) 72

14) If , then the value of α is:

(A) 1

(B)

(C) 6
(D)

15) If f(x) is continuous and , then the value of is

(A)

(B)

(C) 0
(D) data insufficient

16) Let . For what values of a, f(x) is continous at x = 0.

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

17) defined by . If then a =

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

18) Range of the function where {.} is fractional part function

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) equals -

(A) 1
(B)

(C) e
(D)

20) Let {x2 + 2x + 3, x ℝ } and . Then value of is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) N.O.T.

SECTION II

1) The value of , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), is equal to:

2) The sum of the series 12 + 1 + 22 + 2 +32 + 3 + …. + n2 + n is Find a + b + c ____.

3) Given the relation R = {(2,3),(3,4)} on the set {2,3,4}. The number of minimum number of
ordered pairs to be added to R so that R is reflexive and symmetric

4) If the function is continuous at each point in its domain and then

k is _________ .

5) The least integral value in the range of is:

 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B D B A B D B B A D D D A B D C B B C D

SECTION II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 4.00 2.00 4.00 7.00 6.00

CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B D A A B D D C C C C B C D B D B C A D

SECTION II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 8.00 6.00 100.00 4.00 0.00

MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. B A D C C A C A A D C D D C A C A A D C

SECTION II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 0.00 6.00 5.00 6.00 2.00
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
112 = I(8)
I = 14 Amp
T.p.d. = V + IR

= = 29 volt

2)

Current in branch AB 4 A

3)

Question Explanation :
We have to identify the resistor consuming maximum power in the given circuit.

Concept :
This question is based on Electric power and circuit analysis.

Solution :
For 2Ω resistor

P1 =
For 2Ω resistor

P2 =
For 4Ω resistor

P3 =
Maximum power will be consumed in 3Ω resistor.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

4) = =

5)

& current will be same in both wire

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

6)

Within the plates electric fields due to charges Q1 and Q2 are

E1 = and E2 =
As these fields are in opposite directions and Q1 > Q2, the net electric field within the plates is

E = E1 – E2 =

Hence V = Ed = (Q1 – Q2) =

7)
C(y – V) + C(y – x) + Cy = 0
3y – x = V
C(x – 0) + C(x – y) + C(x – V) = 0
3x – y = V

⇒ 8x = 4V ⇒ x = ,y=

⇒ ΔQ =

8)

For zero deflection.

9)
10) where v =

11)
h=R

12) E =
Q = AE∈0
Q = (1)(100)(8.85×10–12)
Q = 8.85 × 10–10C

13)

14)

15)

16)
17)

18)

19)

20) ,

=
R = 6r
21)

22) ......(1)

......(2)

23)

24)

25) ........... (1)

............ (2)

............ (3)
p – p0 = 0............ (4)
 ⇒ n=6

CHEMISTRY

26)

27) 'X'

'Y'
→ H2pd/BaSO4 ( Lindlar's catalyst) leady to syr addtion of hydrogen to Alkyne producing the
'cis' isomer
→ Na liq NH3 (sodium in liq. ammonia) leads to the anti addition of hydrogen reasulting in the
trans isomer.
A) correct - 'X' and Y are geometrical isomer (Diastereomers)
B) correct - formation of two chiral centres leading to a racenic mixture of the 'd' and 'l'
isomers.
C) correct - also forms two chiral centres, due to symmetry in the molecule producet will be
nexmesocompound
D) Incorrect - Trans is more stable than cis because in c is more steric finderance occrs
between the methyl groups.

28)

29)
30)

31)

32) Due to steric hindrance and Bredt's rule, compound D undergoes neither SN2 nor SN1
reaction.

33)

34)

Conceptual.

35)

For ideal gas mixture.

36) PA = y (235 – 125 x)

or, PA = yA [235 – 125 (1 – XA)]
or, PA = yA [110 + 125 xA]

or,
∴ PT = 125 xA + 110 ⇒ P°B = 110.

37)
n=2 n=5

38) 6Br2 + 6H2O

–
10 mole e required for formation of 6 moles of Br2

∴ n-factor of
 eq. wt. =

39) (1) MnO4– + HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + H2O

(2) Other wise it decomposes to give MnO2.

40)

Correct Answer is (C)

41)

TiCl3 ⇒ Used as the Ziegler-Natta catalyst in the production of polythene.

PdCl2 ⇒ Wacker process for converting
C2H4 + H2O + O2 CH3CHO + 2HCl + Pd
CuCl2 = Deacon's process of making Cl2 from HCl.

4HCl + O2 Cl2 + H2O

V2O5 = Converts SO2 to SO3 in the Contact Process for making H2SO4

42) The order of shielding effect of various orbital electrons is s > p > d > f. Due to the poor
shielding effect of 4f- electrons in 5d-series elements, there is enhanced increase in effective
nuclear charge. As a result of this the valence electrons are tightly bound with the nucleus and
thus their removal require higher energy.

43) Gd64 ⇒ 5f7 5d1 6s2

Total unpaired e– = 8

44) (1) Sm+3 ⇒ (Xe) 6s

0
(2) La+3 ⇒ (Xe) 4f
0 0
(3) Lu3+ ⇒ (Xe) 4f14 5d 6s
0 0
(4) Gd+3 ⇒ (Xe) 4f7 5d 6s

45) Element O.S.

U ⇒ +3, +4, +5, +6
Pu ⇒ +3, +4, +5, +6, +7

46) These reactions will occur as :

47)

Nucleophiles = , , , H2O , , CH2 = CH2

48)

At 72ºC external pressure = vapour pressure = 0.6 bar

0 0
Ps = 0.6 bar = XA.P A + (1 – XA) P B

= × 0.4 +
where x is the moles of liquid B

= 1.0 – (1.0 – 0.4)

0.6 = 1.0 – 0.6

0.6 = 1.0
0.6 (400 + x) = 200 + x
0.4x = 40
⇒ x = 100 moles

49)

[Ni(CO)4] , CCℓ4 , XeO4 , K4[Ni(CN)4]

50) Bond order of CO = 3

Bond order of NO+ = 3

Difference = 0 =
 x = 0.

MATHEMATICS

51) LHL = 8
RHL = 8
∴ a=8

52)
discontinuous at x = 1.
∴ number of points of discontinuous 1.

53)
f(x) is decreasing function

⇒
(4) Option

54)

for x < 0,

f(x) ∈ (–1, 0). Range of f(x) is (–1, 0]

55) f(x – 1) + f(x + 1) = f(x) ......(1)

x → x – 1 ⇒ f(x – 2) + f(x) = f(x – 1) .....(2)
x → x + 1 ⇒ f(x) + f(x + 2) = f(x + 1) .....(3)
2f(x) + f(x – 2) + f(x+2)= (f(x – 1) + f(x + 1))
2f(x) + f(x – 2) + f(x + 2) = 3 f(x)
 f(x + 2) + f(x – 2) = f(x)
x→x+2 f(x + 4) + f(x) = f(x + 2)
f(x + 4) + f(x) = f(x) – f(x – 2)
f(x + 4) = – f(x – 2)
x→x+6 f(x + 10) = – f(x + 4)
f(x + 10) = + f(x – 2)
x→x–2
f(x + 12) = f(x) ∴ T = 12

56) [cot–1x]2 – 6[cot–1 x] + 9 ≤ 0

Let [cot–1x ] = t
t2 – 6t + 9 ≤ 0
(t – 3)2 ≤ 0
t=3
[cot–1x ] = 3
[cot–1x] = 3
x ∈ (–∞, cot 3]

57) (Reference to Jee-Main 2024)

58) = 3/5

59)

- 3 f(x) = x2 + 2 - 2 (1 + x2 -2x + 2)
- 3 (fx) = -x2 + 4x - 4

f(x) = + (x - 4x + 4)
2

60) Given limit is of 1∞ form

So,
So, ℓ = exp (0) (from sandwich theorem) = 1

61)

62)

=970

63) 460 = log7x · (2 + 3 + 4 + ..... + 20 + 21)

⇒ 460 = log7 x ·
⇒ 460 = 230 · log7x
⇒ log7x = 2 ⇒ x = 49

64)

65) ,
 .

66)

67) f(x) = x

[Exercise-3, Q.5]

68)

69)
70) {x2 + 2x + 3, x ℝ}
a=2

71)

72)

73) R = {(2,3),(3,3),(2,3),(3,2),(3,4),(4,3),(4,4)}

74)
⇒

⇒
⇒K=6

75)
Let (ex)2 + 1 = t

where t > 1
Minimum value = 3 – 1 = 2