ST226 Week1 Complete
ST226 Week1 Complete
Contents
Present Value (PV): The current worth of a future sum of money or stream of cash
flows given a specified rate of return.
Future Value (FV/AV): The value of a current asset at a future date based on an
assumed rate of growth over time.
Discounting: The process of determining the present value of future cash flows.
Financial Intuition:
Why is £100 today worth more than £100 in one year?
2. Inflation: £100 today buys more than £100 will buy next year
Accumulation Factor
A(n) = (1 + i)n
The discount factor v gives the present value of a payment of £1 due at time n:
Discount Factor
1
v= = (1 + i)−1
1+i
1
v(n) = v n = = (1 + i)−n
A(n)
Key relationship: A(n) · v(n) = 1
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Financial Interpretation:
accumulate
Time 0 −−−−−−−→ Time n
A(n)=(1+i)n
1 −−−−−−−−→ (1 + i)n
discount
vn ←−−−−− 1
A capital C invested at time 0 at a constant annual effective interest rate i will have
accumulated value at time t:
F V = C(1 + i)t
The compound interest earned is:
F V = 500 × (1.0447)6
= 500 × 1.3 = 650
Interest = 650 − 500 = 150
PV and FV Relationships
Future Value:
F V = P V · A(n) = P V · (1 + i)n
Present Value:
P V = F V · v(n) = F V · (1 + i)−n
Summary Table:
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Time 0 Time n
×(1+i)n
1 −−−−−→ A(n)
×(1+i)−n
v(n) ←−−−−−− 1
×(1+i)n
PV −−−−−→ A(n) · P V
×(1+i)−n
v(n) · F V ←−−−−−− FV
Worked Example 1: How much is £100 worth in one year’s time at 5% p.a.?
Solution:
F V = P V × (1 + i)t = 100 × (1.05)1 = 105
Worked Example 2: How much is £100 in one year’s time worth now at 5% p.a.?
Solution:
100
P V = F V × (1 + i)−1 = 100 × (1.05)−1 = = 95.24
1.05
Worked Example 3: How much is £100 in 6 years’ time worth now at 5% p.a.?
Solution:
P V = 100 × (1.05)−6 = 100 × 0.746215 = 74.62
Financial Meaning: The proceeds at time t2 should not depend on whether you:
A(1) − 1
i= = A(1) − 1
1
For compound interest: A(1) = 1 + i
Interpretation: i is the rate of return per unit time.
Example: If you invest £100 and receive £106 after one year:
106 − 100
i= = 0.06 = 6%
100
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Rate of Discount
The rate of discount d is the interest paid at the beginning of a time period divided by
the capital at the end of the time period:
1 i
d=1−v =1− =
1+i 1+i
Relationships:
v =1−d
i= d
1−d
Example: If i = 7%:
0.07
d= = 0.065421 = 6.54%
1.07
Time 0 1
Interest Rate i
Amount 1 1+i
Interest paid i
Discount Rate d
Amount 1−d=v 1
Interest paid d
Key Difference:
Worked Example: Suppose the IR is 7%. If we borrow £1000 for a year and we pay
interest at the start of the year, how much interest do we have to pay?
Solution:
Method 1 (using d):
i 0.07
d= = = 0.065421
1+i 1.07
Interest = 1000 × 0.065421 = 65.42
Method 2 (from first principles):
So X = 1000
1.07 = 934.58
i(p) = p · i[p]
Solving for i: !p
i(p)
i= 1+ −1
p
Important Note: For p > 1, we have i(p) < i. The nominal rate is less than the effective
annual rate.
Example 1: Convert effective annual rate 6% to nominal rate convertible quarterly.
Solution:
!4
i(4)
1.06 = 1 +
4
i(4)
1.061/4 = 1 +
4
i(4)
1.014674 = 1 +
4
(4)
i = 4 × 0.014674 = 0.058696 = 5.87%
0.06 12
i= 1+ − 1 = (1.005)12 − 1 = 1.061678 − 1 = 6.17%
12
δ = lim i(p)
p→∞
The force of interest is the nominal rate as the compounding frequency approaches infinity
(continuous compounding).
Key relationships:
δ = ln(1 + i)
1 + i = eδ
v = e−δ
A(t) = eδt
v t = e−δt
Example: If i = 6%:
δ = ln(1.06) = 0.058269 = 5.83%
£100 at t = 1
£200 at t = 3
£300 at t = 5
1 −δt n 1 − e−δn
Z n
1 − vn
−δt
PV = e dt = − e = =
0 δ 0 δ δ
Now accumulate to t = 1:
R1
AV = P V × e 0 (0.05+0.01u)du
= 100[1 − e−0.055 ] × e0.055 = 100[e0.055 − 1]
Important Note: A payment rate of ρ(t) = 365 means 1 per day. A rate of 1 per day for
a year totals £365. Payments more frequent than monthly are typically treated as continuous.
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Nominal Rates:
!p !p
i(p) d(p)
1+i= 1+ 1−d= 1−
p p
i(p) = p[(1 + i)1/p − 1] d(p) = p[1 − (1 + i)−1/p ]
To →
i v d δ
From ↓
i — (1 + i)−1 i
1+i ln(1 + i)
v v −1 − 1 — 1−v − ln(v)
d
d 1−d 1−d — − ln(1 − d)
δ eδ − 1 e−δ 1 − e−δ —
Cash Flows:
n
X
P Vdiscrete = Ctj (1 + i)−tj
j=1
Xn
AVdiscrete = Ctj (1 + i)T −tj
j=1
Z T
P Vcontinuous = ρ(t)e−δt dt
0
Z T
AVcontinuous = ρ(t)eδ(T −t) dt
0
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F V = P V · (1 + i)t
1 + i = 1.31/6
Using a calculator:
1 + i = 1.044736
Step 4: Calculate i (1 mark)
Solution:
Step 1: Identify the discount factor (1 mark)
At i = 0.05:
v = (1.05)−1 = 0.952381
Step 2: Calculate PV of each payment (2 marks)
Payment 1 (t = 1):
Payment 2 (t = 3):
Payment 3 (t = 5):
Solution:
Part (a): Nominal rate convertible quarterly
Step 1: Use the conversion formula (1 mark)
!4
i(4)
1+i= 1+
4
!4
i(4)
1.06 = 1+
4
i(4)
1+ = 1.061/4 = 1.014674
4
i(4)
= 0.014674
4
i(4) = 4 × 0.014674 = 0.058696
Answer (a): i(4) = 5.87%
Part (b): Force of interest
Step 1: Apply the formula (1 mark)
δ = ln(1 + i) = ln(1.06)
A debtor borrows three sums of money: £150 to be repaid in 3 years, £200 to be repaid in
5 years, and £250 to be repaid in 8 years. The amounts will be repaid with interest using the
formula above. Find:
(b) The constant effective rate of interest earned by the lender over the whole transaction (4
marks)
Solution:
Part (a): Calculate repayment amounts
For the accumulation factor with time-dependent δ(t):
Z t
A(0, t) = exp δ(u) du
0
R3
From before: 0 = 0.33
Step 2: Calculate second integral (0.5 marks)
5 5
0.01u3
Z
(0.05 + 0.01u2 ) du = 0.05u +
3 3 3
125 27
= 0.25 + − 0.15 +
300 300
= 0.41667 − 0.24 = 0.17667
8 8
0.01u3
Z
2
(0.05 + 0.01u ) du = 0.05u +
5 3
5
512 125
= 0.4 + − 0.25 +
300 300
= 2.10667 − 0.66667 = 1.44
Try i = 0.09:
For part (b), showing your trial values demonstrates understanding even if you don’t find
the exact rate
d=1−v
1
Step 2: Substitute v = 1+i (1 mark)
1
d=1−
1+i
Step 3: Simplify (1 mark)
1+i−1 i
d= =
1+i 1+i
Step 4: Factor out v (1 mark)
1
We know v = 1+i , so:
1
d=i· =i·v
1+i
Step 5: Conclusion (1 mark)
Therefore: d = iv ■
Alternative Method 2: Using timeline
Consider a loan of £1:
Time 0 Time 1
grows by factor (1+i)
Amount: v −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Amount: v(1 + i) = 1
Interest paid: d Interest paid: i
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d = vi
Examiner’s Note: Either method is acceptable. The second method shows deeper under-
standing of the financial meaning, but the first is more direct algebraically.
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Example of error:
Example:
Example:
Example:
Watch for:
i Cash Flows:
d= =1−v
1+i X
d PV = Ct v t
i=
1−d
Z
+ ρ(t)e−δt dt
δ = ln(1 + i)
X
i = eδ − 1 AV = Ct (1 + i)T −t
d = iv
Z
+ ρ(t)eδ(T −t) dt
CONVERSION TABLE
To → i v d δ
From ↓
i — (1 + i)−1 i
1+i ln(1 + i)
v −1
v −1 — 1−v − ln v
d
d 1−d 1−d — − ln(1 − d)
δ δ
e −1 e−δ 1 − e−δ —
KEY RELATIONSHIPS
A(n) · v(n) = 1
i = 8.45%
Solution 3:
Solution 4:
0.12 12
i= 1+ − 1 = (1.01)12 − 1 = 1.1268 − 1 = 12.68%
12
Solution 5: Start with:
(1 + i)h − 1
δ = lim
h→0 h
ln y
Let y = (1 + i)h , so ln y = h ln(1 + i) and h = ln(1+i) .
As h → 0, y → 1. Using L’Hôpital’s rule or the standard limit:
(1 + i)h − 1
lim = lim (1 + i)h ln(1 + i) = ln(1 + i)
h→0 h h→0
Therefore δ = ln(1 + i) ■