08-01-2025

4504CMD303003240010 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

1) Equal volume of H2, O2 and He gases are at same temperature and pressure. Which of these will
have large number of molecules :-

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) He
(4) All the gases will have same number of molecules

2) Relation PV = RT is given for following condition for real gas -

(1) High temperature and high density

(2) Low temperature and low density
(3) High temperature and low density
(4) Low temperature and high density

3) In the diagrams (i) to (iv) of variation of volume with changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken
along the path ABCDA. The change in internal energy of the gas will be:-

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) Positive in all cases (i) to (iv)

(2) Positive in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv)
(3) Negative in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv)
(4) Zero in all the four cases
4)

The root mean square velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) Temperature versus pressure graph of an ideal gas is shown in figure. During the process AB :-

(1) Internal energy of the gas increases

(2) Volume of gas is increased
(3) Work done by the atmosphere on the gas is positive
(4) Pressure is directly proportional to volume.

6) The reason for the absence of atmosphere on moon is that the :

(1) Value of vrms of the molecules of gas is more than the value of escape velocity
(2) Value of vrms of gas is less than escape velocity
(3) Value of vrms is negligible
(4) None of the above

7) The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 127°C and 1.0 × 105
N/m2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 227°C and 0.05 ×
105 N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules is :

(1) ms–1

(2)
ms–1

(3)
ms–1
(4) ms–1

8) In a cyclic process shown on the P – V diagram, the magnitude of the work done is :-
(1)

(2)

(3) (P2 – P1) (V2 – V1)

(4) π (P2V2 – P1V1)

9) The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is :

(1) Independent of its pressure but directly proportional to its Kelvin temperature
(2) Directly proportional to the square roots of both its pressure and its Kelvin temperature
Independent of its pressure but directly proportional to the square root of its Kelvin
(3)
temperature
(4) Directly proportional to both its pressure and its Kelvin temperature

10) According to Maxwell's law of distribution of velocities of molecules, the most probable velocity
is :-

(1) greater than the mean speed

(2) equal to the mean speed
(3) equal to the root mean square speed
(4) less than the root mean square speed

11) If the total number of H2 molecules is double that of the O2 molecules then ratio of total kinetic
energies of H2 to that of O2 at 300 K is :

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 16

12) For an adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas, the value of ΔP/P is equal to :–

(1) – ΔV/V
(2) –ΔV/V
(3) –γ ΔV/V
(4) –γ2 ΔV/V
13) The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius 'r') is inversely proportional to :-

(1) r3
(2) r2
(3) r
(4)

14) The root mean square velocity of a gas molecule of mass m at a given temperature is
proportional to –

(1) mo
(2) m
(3)

(4)

15) If hydrogen gas is heated to a very high temperature (one vibrational mode), then the fraction of
energy possessed by gas molecules correspond to rotational motion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following statement is true according to kinetic theory of gases ?

The collision between two molecules is inelastic and the time between two collisions is less than
(1)
the time taken during the collision.
(2) There is a force of attraction between the molecules
(3) All the molecules of a gas move with same velocity
The average of the distances travelled between two successive collisions is called mean free
(4)
path.

17)

The specific heat of an ideal gas depends on temperature is -

(1)

(2) T
(3)
(4) Does not depends on temperature

18) If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M, then
:-
where R is the molar gas constant

(1) cp – cv = R
cp – cv =
(2)

(3) cp – cv = MR
cp – cv =
(4)

19) Pressure-temperature relationship for an ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change is (γ = Cp/Cv)

(1) = constant
(2) = constant
(3) = constant
(4) = constant

20) Two moles of monoatomic gas are mixed with 1 mole of a diatomic gas. Then γ for the mixture is:

(1) 1.4
(2) 1.55
(3) 1.62
(4) 1.67

21) One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from
0°C to 100°C. Then the change in the internal energy is

(1) 20.80 × 102 J

(2) 12.48 × 102 J
(3) 832 × 102 J
(4) 6.25 × 102 J

22) In the given (V – T) diagram of given sample of ideal gas, what is the relation between pressure

P1 and P2 ?

(1) Cannot be predicted

(2) P2 = P1
(3) P2 > P1
(4) P2 < P1
23) One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1 expends according to the law = a (constant). The
work done by the gas till temperature of gas becomes T2 is :

(1)
R(T2 – T1)

(2)
R(T2 – T1)

(3)
R(T2 – T1)

(4)
R(T2 – T1)

24) A vessel contains 1 mole of O2 gas (molar mass 32) at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is
P. An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at a temperature 2T has a
pressure of -

(1) P/8
(2) P
(3) 2P
(4) 8P

25) The volume of a gas expands by 0.25 m3 at a constant pressure of 103 N/m2 . The work done is
equal to

(1) 2.5 erg

(2) 250 J
(3) 250 W
(4) 250 N

26) The ratio of the specific heats in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A horizontal cylinder has two sections of unequal cross-sections, in

which two pistons can move freely. The pistons are joined by a string. Some gas is trapped between
the pistons. If this gas is heated, the pistons will

(1) move to the left

(2) move to the right
(3) remain stationary
(4) either (a) or (b) depending on the initial pressure of the gas

28) Relation between pressure (P) and energy density (E) of an ideal gas is -

(1)
P=

(2)
P=

(3)
P=
(4) P = E

29) In kinetic theory of gases, it is assumed that molecules :-

(1) Have same mass but can have different volume

(2) Have same volume but masses can be different
(3) Have both mass and volume different
(4) Have same mass but negligible volume

30) A box contains N molecules of a gas. If the number of molecules is doubled, then the pressure
will :-

(1) Decrease
(2) Be same
(3) Be doubled
(4) Get tripled

31) For a thermodynamic process ΔQ = – 50 calorie and W = –20 calorie. If the initial internal
energy is –30 calorie then final internal energy will be :-

(1) 191.20 calorie

(2) –60 calorie
(3) 100 calorie
(4) –100 calorie

32) The equation of state for 7g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T occupying a volume V,
will be :– (where R is the gas constant)

(1) PV = 7 RT
(2) PV = (7/2) RT
(3) PV = (7/16) RT
(4) PV = (7/32) RT

33) Gas exerts pressure on the walls of container because the molecules-

(1) Are loosing their Kinetic energy

(2) Are getting stuck to the walls
(3) Are transferring their momentum to walls
(4) Are accelerated towards walls.

34) PV versus T graph of equal masses of H2, He and O2 is shown in fig. Choose the correct
alternative :-

(1) A corresponds to H2, B to He and C to O2

(2) A corresponds to He, B to H2 and C to O2
(3) A corresponds to He, B to O2 and C to H2
(4) A corresponds to O2, B to He and C to H2

35) At N.T.P. volume of a gas is changed to one third volume, at constant temperature then the new
pressure will be :

(1) 2 atm.
(2) 35/3 atm.
(3) 3 atm.
(4) 1/3 atm.

SECTION-2

1) Three ideal monoatomic gases at absolute temperatures T1, T2 and T3 are mixed. The masses of
molecules are m1, m2 and m3 and the number of molecules are n1, n2 and n3 respectively. Assuming
no loss of energy, the final temperatures of the mixture is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A gas is taken through the path A → B → C → A, as shown, What is the work done by the gas for A
→ B → C path ?

(1) –2000 J
(2) 2000 J
(3) 1000 J
(4) Zero

3) A cylinder of 200 litre capacity is containing H2. The total translational kinetic energy of
molecules is 1.52 × 105 [Link] pressure of H2 in the cylinder will be in N m-2 :-

(1) 2 × 105
(2) 3 × 105
(3) 4 × 105
(4) 5 × 105

4) Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong

statement.

(1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i).

(2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii).
(3) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii).
(4) None of the above.

5) The root mean square and most probable speed of the molecules in a gas are :

(1) same
(2) different
(3) cannot say
(4) depends on nature of the gas

6) At constant pressure oxygen is having temperature of 427 °C. Till what temperature it is to be
cooled so that the rms velocity of its molecules becomes half of the earlier value ?

(1) –98°C
(2) 98°C
(3) –175°C
(4) 0°C
7) At 127°C temperature, the kinetic energy of an ideal gas is E1. If the temperature is increased to
527°C, then kinetic energy would be

(1) 2 E1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300 K is 3860 m/s. Then the r.m.s.
velocity of oxygen molecules at 1200 K will be :

(1) 482.5 m/s

(2) 965.0 m/s
(3) 1930 m/s
(4) 3860 m/s

9) According to the second law of thermodynamics :

(1) heat energy cannot be completely converted to work

(2) work cannot be completely converted to heat energy
(3) for all cyclic processes we have dQ/T < 0
(4) the reason all heat engine efficiencies are less than 100% is friction, which is unavoidable

10) If the pressure of a gas is doubled at constant temperature, then the mean square velocity will
become :-

(1) No change
(2) double
(3) Four times
(4) None of the above

11) If the rms velocity of molecules of a gas in a container is doubled then the pressure will :-

(1) Become four times

(2) Also get doubled
(3) Be same
(4) Become one half

12) An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic change in volume (V) with pressure (P). Then :-

(1) PγV = constant

(2) PVγ = constant
(3) (PV)γ = constant
(4) PV = constant
13) Two containers A and B contain molecular gas at same temperature with masses of molecules
are mA and mB, then relation of momentum PA and PB will be :-

(1) PA = PB

(2)
PA = PB

(3)
PA = PB

(4)
PA = PB

14)

The average energy of the molecules of a monoatomic gas at temperature T is :- (k = Boltzmann

constant )

(1)
kT
(2) kT

(3)
kT

(4)
kT

15) A gas undergoes an isothermal process. The specific heat capacity of the gas in the process is:

(1) 0.5
(2) zero
(3) 1
(4) infinity

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

1) Conversion of CH4 to CH3Cl is an example of :

(1) Electrophilic substitution reaction

(2) Free radical addition reaction
(3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(4) Free radical substitution reaction

2) The electrophile in the nitration of benzene is

+
(1) NO2
(2) NO2
(3) NO+
–
(4) NO2

3) The carbon atom attached with nitrogen in nitrobenzene is

(1) sp3 hybridized

(2) sp2 hybridized
(3) sp hybridized
(4) None

4) The IUPAC name of product formed in the following reaction is:

CH3–CH=CH2 + HCl Product

(1) 2–Chloropropane
(2) 1–Chloropropane
(3) n–Propane
(4) 1, 2–Dichloropropane

5) Arrange following anions in order of their leaving group tendency :

(I) FӨ (II) ClӨ (III) BrӨ (IV)IӨ

(1) III > I > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II > I > III > IV

6) Aniline is:

(1) Ortho directing only

(2) Ortho and para directing
(3) Para directing only
(4) Meta directing only

7) Maximum C–O bond length is in:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of:

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction

(2) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(4) Electrophilic substitution reaction

9) The intermediate in the Electrophilic addition–reaction is

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) Free radical
(4) Carbene

10) major product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In the following reaction, the major product is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The bond dissociation energy of the C–H* bond for the compounds:
(I) CH3–H* (II) CH3CH2–H*
(III) CH2=CH–CH2–H* (IV) C6H5–H*

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) II > I > IV > III

13) Substitution can takes place at which position (major product).

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

14) Which is most reactive for SN1 reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) Acidic dehydration of alcohol involves:

(1) E1 elimination mainly

(2) Carbocation rearrangement if possible
(3) Saytzeff's product is formed as major product
(4) All of these

16) Which of the following alkene is most reactive for acidic hydration?

(1) Ethene
(2) Propene
(3) 1–Butene
(4) 2–Methyl propene

17) Which of the following ring is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Nitration of benzene is

(1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

(2) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(3) Electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction
(4) Electrophilic addition reaction

19) Consider the following compounds: Correct order of

their reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions would be:

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) III > IV > I > II

20) In SN1 reaction the first step involves the formation of:

(1) Free radical

(2) Carbanion
(3) Carbocation
(4) Final product

21) The reaction, CH3Br + OH– CH3OH + Br– obeys the mechanism:

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) E1
(4) E2

22) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their SN2 reactivity?

(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)

(2) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)
(3) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a)
(4) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a)

23) CH3–Br undergoes homolytic fission to produce:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

Which is not an electrophile?

(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) SO3
(4) Br–

25) Which of the following intermediate has complete octet :-

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) Free radical
(4) Carbene
26) Which of the following has strongest –I effect?

(1) –CH2–CH2–CH3
(2) –CH2–CH3
(3) –CH3
(4) –NO2

27) Which of the following is a temporary effect?

(1) Resonance
(2) Hyperconjugation
(3) Inductive effect
(4) Electromeric effect

28) The total number of +M groups are

(a) –OCH3 (b) –NH2

(c) –CHO (d)

(e) –NO2 (f)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 0

29) Arrange the following carbocations in decreasing order of stability : -

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i > ii > iv > iii
(3) ii > i > iv > iii
(4) ii > i > iii > iv

30) The major product formed in the reaction :

+ HNO3

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) During E2 reaction:

(1) Carbocation is formed

(2) Carbonion is formed
(3) Carbon free radical is formed
(4) Transition state is formed

32) Which of the following carbocation does not undergo rearrangement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following carbocations is likely to rearrange ?

(I) (II)

(III)

(1) I Only
(2) II Only
(3) III Only
(4) I and III
34) Statement I: Neopentane, (CH3)4C, forms only one monochlorinated product.
Statement II: Neopentane has four identical methyl group attached to a quaternary carbon.

(1) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is a correct explanation for Statement–I
Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–I
(3) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is False
(4) Statement–I is False, Statement–II is True

35) + CH3CH2CH2–Cl ?
Identify the product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-2

1) The major product in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form:

(1) Xylene
(2) Toluene
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Benzylchloride

5) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft's reaction easily:

(1) Toluene
(2) Ethylbenzene
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Nitrobenzene

6) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7)
Product of given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)
Product of given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) In the given reaction

the product P is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
Product is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)
'A' is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

12) Which of the following group is ortho para director:

(1)

(2)

(3) –CΞN

(4)

13)
The product A is:

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Major product A is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) Statement–I : Aniline is more basic than methylamine.

Statement–II : Lone-pair on N-atom in aniline is not delocalised.

(1) Both Statements are true and but statement–II is the correct explanation of statement–I.
(2) Both Statements are true and but statement–II is not the correct explanation of statement–I.
(3) Statement–I is true but Statement–II is false.
(4) Both Statements are false.

BOTANY

SECTION-1

1) How many ATP will be produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1
molecule of pyruvic acid ?

(1) 3 ATP
(2) 5 ATP
(3) 8 ATP
(4) 38 ATP

2) The formation of acetyl coenzyme-A from pyruvic acid is the result of its

(1) Reduction
(2) Dehydration
(3) Dephosphorylation
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation

3) 2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy

The RQ of above reaction is

(1) 1
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.45
(4) 1.62

4) Which molecule is common in breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins during respiration?

(1) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate

(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Acetyl CoA
(4) Glucose - 6 - phosphate

5) EMP pathway occurs in the

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondrion
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosome

6) In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Inner membrane
(3) Inter membrane space
(4) Matrix

7) The net gain of ATP obtained when a molecule of glucose undergoes fermentation is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 36
(4) 38

8) When proteins are respiratory substrate, RQ will be

(1) 0.7
(2) 1.0
(3) 0.9
(4) More than one

9) In Kreb’s cycle, OAA accepts acetyl CoA to form

(1) Citric acid

(2) Oxalosuccinate
(3) Fumaric acid
(4) Succinyl COA

10) Which one of the following is complex V of the ETS of inner mitochondrial membrane ?

(1) NADH dehydrogenase

(2) ATP synthase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Ubiquinone

11) The details of tricarboxylic acid pathway was worked out by

(1) Meischer
(2) Hans Krebs
(3) Pasteur
(4) None of these

12) Beyond 13% alcohol concentration is achieved in beverages by

(1) Reverse osmosis

(2) Centrifugation
(3) Distillation
(4) Electrophoresis

13) In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same thing ?

(1) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle

(2) Kreb’s cycle and Calvin cycle
(3) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
(4) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle

14) For gaseous exchanges, plants have

(1) Stomata
(2) Lenticels
(3) Hydothodes
(4) Both 1 and 2

15) RQ (respiratory quotient) is defined as

(1) Volume of CO2 evolved = volume of O2 consumed

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which act as final hydrogen acceptor in E.T.S.?

(1) Oxygen
(2) NAD+
(3) FAD+
(4) NADP+

17) The common pathway between aerobic & anaerobic respiration is :-

(1) TCA cycle

(2) Kreb's cycle
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Photorespiration

18) Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires.

(1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Cobalt
(4) Magnesium

19) Which of the following is not a product of glycolysis?

(1) Pyruvate
(2) NADH + H+
(3) ATP
(4) FADH2

20) Which enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis, converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Pyruvate kinase
(3) Citrate synthase
(4) ATP synthase

21) During one turn of Krebs’ cycle, how many number of CO2 molecules are released?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Why plants do not have specialized organs for gaseous exchange?

(1) They have a high rate of respiration.

(2) Each plant part takes care of its own gas-exchange needs.
(3) They have a complex system for the transport of gases
(4) Their roots, stems, and leaves require a lot of gases.

23) The term glycolysis has been originated from _____, in which glycos refers to _____.

(1) Greek word, splitting

(2) Latin word, sugar
(3) Greek word, sugar
(4) Latin word, splitting
24) The metabolic pathway through which the electrons passes from one carrier to another is called:

(1) Electron transport system

(2) Respiratory quotient
(3) Link reaction
(4) Fermentation

25) During glycolysis, the number of CO2 released are ______

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6

26) Two copper centres are present in:

(1) Complex - II
(2) Complex - III
(3) Complex - V
(4) Complex - IV

27) Identify the cytochrome which acts as a mobile carrier for the transfer of electrons between
complex III and IV?

(1) Cytochrome a
(2) Cytochrome a3
(3) Cytochrome b C1
(4) Cytochrome c

28) How many ATP are formed from complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic acid during
aerobic respiration?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 15

29) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about

(1) 5%
(2) 13%
(3) 8%
(4) 6%
30) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-

(1) a—F1, b—F0, c—intermembrane space, d—outer mitochondrial membrane

(2) a—F0, b—F1, c—intermembrane space, d—inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) a—F1, b—F0, c—matrix, d—inner mitochondrial membrane
(4) a—F0, b—F1, c—matrix, d—inner mitochondrial membrane

31) In muscle cells the enzyme that reduces pyruvate into lactic acid?

(1) Pyruvic dehydrogenase

(2) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(3) Lactate dehydrogenase
(4) Alcoholic dehydrogenase

32) In which of the following reaction of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the
substrate?

(1) Frucoste-6-phosphate to Fructose 1, 6- phosphate

(2) 3-phosphate glyceraldehyde to 1, 3- biphospho-glyceric acid
(3) PEP to Pyruvic acid
(4) 2-phosphoglycerate to PEP

33) Which of the following is a reducing agent in both alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation ?

(1) Pyruvic acid

(2) NADH + H+
(3) Acetyl CoA
(4) Molecular oxygen

34) Complex I and II in ETS respectively are:

(1) NADH dehydrogenase, succinate dehydrogenase

(2) NADH decarboxylase, ubiquinone
(3) NADH deoxygenase, FADH2
(4) None of these

35) Complex IV in ETS is termed as

(1) NADH dehydrogenase

(2) FADH2 dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome bc1
(4) Cytochrome C oxidase

SECTION-2

1) Identify A, B and C in the given figure:

(1) A = pyruvic acid, B = ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide, C = lactic acid
(2) A = carbon dioxide and water, B = bacteria, C = ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
(3) A = carbon dioxide and water, B = ethyl alcohol and lactic acid, C = fungi
(4) A = ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide, B = lactic acid, C = carbon dioxide and water

2) In the process of oxidative phosphorylation one molecule of NADH + H+ and one molecule of
FADH2 produces

(1) 4 and 2 molecules of ATP respectively

(2) 18 and 36 molecules of ATP respectively
(3) 36 and 18 molecules of ATP respectively
(4) 3 and 2 molecules of ATP respectively

3) During oxidation of one glucose, 38 ATP can be obtained by which of the following distribution?

(1) Glycolysis-2, Oxidative decarboxylation (link reaction)-6, Kreb's cycle-28

(2) Glycolysis-8, Oxidative decarboxylation (link reaction)-6, Kreb's cycle-24
(3) Glycolysis-8, Oxidative decarboxylation (link reaction)-6, Kreb's cycle-22
(4) Glycolysis-4, Oxidative decarboxylation (link reaction)-6, Kreb's cycle-26

4) FADH2 is produced during conversion of

(1) -ketoglutarate → Succinyl CoA

(2) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(3) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(4) Fumaric acid → Malic acid

5) How many ATP will be formed by ETS from 1 molecule of acetyl CoA during complete oxidation in
mitochondria.
(1) 22 ATP
(2) 12 ATP
(3) 24 ATP
(4) 11 ATP

6) Choose the correct combination of labelling the number of carbon compounds in the substrate

molecules, involved in the citric acid cycle.

(1) (A) 4C, (B) 6C, (C) 5C, (D) 4C, (E) 4C
(2) (A) 6C, (B) 5C, (C) 4C, (D) 3C, (E) 2C
(3) (A) 2C, (B) 5C, (C) 6C, (D) 4C, (E) 4C
(4) (A) 4C, (B) 6C, (C) 4C, (D) 4C, (E) 5C

7) Statement I: Oxidative decarboxylation (link reaction) occurs in mitochondrial matrix.

Statement II: Kreb's cycle occurs in cristae of mitochondria.

(1) Only statement II is correct

(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

8) In aerobic respiration, total number of ATP molecules formed from 20 glucose molecules are

(1) 420
(2) 160
(3) 760
(4) 3340

9) Assertion: Respiratory pathway is considered as an amphibolic pathway.

Reason: Amphibolic pathway involves both anabolism and catabolism.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

10) Identify the product marked as (A) in the following pathway

(1) Aceyl CoA

(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) 2-Phosphoglycerate

11) Complete the following biochemical equation of respiration and select the correct answer :-

(1) 6CO2 + Energy

(2) 12CO2 + 4H2O + Energy
(3) 6H2O + Energy
(4) 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

12) Assertion (A): TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid
(OAA) and water to yield citric acid.
Reason (R): During the conversion of -ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA a molecule of NADH+H+
is synthesised

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

13) In Krebs cycle, GTP is formed during conversion of

(1) Isocitrate to oxalosuccinate

(2) Succinyl-CoA to succinic acid
(3) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid

14) Statement-I : The compounds that are oxidised during respiration process are known as
respiratory substrates.
Statement-II : Respiratory substrate in plant is only organic acid.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

15) Respiration is the breakdown of:

(1) N–H bonds

(2) C–C bonds
(3) H–H bonds
(4) C–N bonds

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1

1) Which is not true for reptiles?

(1) They respire by lungs

(2) All have 4 – chambered heart
(3) They are chordate animals
(4) They have closed type of circulatory system

2)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II

I Corvus a Vulture

II Columba b Ostrich

III Psittacula c Parrot

IV Struthio d Pigeon

V Neophron e Crow
(1) I-d, II-e, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d, V-e
(3) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(4) I-e, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-a

3) Lampreys & Hag fishes belong to :-

(1) Class Amphibia
(2) Subphylum-Cyclostomata
(3) Class Cyclostomata
(4) Class Chondrichthyes.

4) Identify the incorrect statement regarding Osteichthyes :-

(1) Skin is covered with placoid scales

(2) Air bladder is present
(3) Four pairs of gills with operculum
(4) They are mostly oviparous

5)

Which of the following is a correct feature for the given animal?

(1) It has gill slits are separate and without operculum.

(2) It has claspers.
(3) Heart is three chambered.
(4) It has air bladder.

6) The following given animals of chordates belongs to which taxonomic catagories, given in option.
Clarias, Exocoetus, Pristis, Testudo, Delphinus

(1) Pisces, Reptilia only

(2) Pisces, Amphibia and mammalia
(3) Pisces, Reptilia and mammalia
(4) Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia

7) Which of the following option is incorrect for chondrichthyes ?

(1) Mouth is located ventrally

(2) Notochord is persistent throughout life
(3) Gill slits are seperate and without operculum
(4) Air bladder is present
8)

Which of the following is correct match of animal with it's common name ?

(1) Exocoetus - Flying frog

(2) Betta - Fighting fish
(3) Clarias - Rohu
(4) Pterophyllum - Saw fish

9) Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

(1) Scoliodon – Dog fish

(2) Calotes – Wall lizard
(3) Chameleon – Tree lizard
(4) Aptenodytes – Penguin

10) Frog which lives on the trees :-

(1) Alytes
(2) Bufo
(3) Hyla
(4) Rana

11) Lancelet is the member of

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Urochordata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) Cyclostomata

12) Observe the given diagram and select correct for the labelled part-A :-

(1) It is nerve cord and ectodermal in origin

(2) It is a notochord and is mesodermal in origin
(3) It persists throughout the life in all craniates
(4) It is replaced by a vertebral column in all chordates

13) Which of the following pairs of Animals non glandular skin ?

(1) Snake and Frog

(2) Chameleon and Turtle
(3) Frog and Pigeon
(4) Crocodile and Tiger

14) How many of the following statements are true for given figure ?

(a) Notochord is persistent throughout life

(b) Gill slits are seperate and without operculum
(c) In males pelvic fins bear claspers
(d) They are viviparous

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

15)

Notocord present on:

(1) Dorsal to nerve cord

(2) Ventral to alimentary canal
(3) Ventral to heart
(4) Ventral to nerve cord

16) (A) Pneumatic bones (B) Well developed wings

(C) Feathers
(D) Four chambered heart
(E) Homoiothermus
(F) Internal fertilization
(G) Air-sacs connected to lungs
(H) Crop & gizzard
How many of the above characters are found in all the flying birds ?

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3

17) All vertebrates have the following characteristics:-

(1) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, triploblastic, open circulatory system

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, diploblastic or triploblastic
(3) Open circulatary system, diploblastic or triploblastic, coelom and bilaterally symmetrical
(4) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelom present triploblastic with closed circulatory system

18) Urochordate animals have :-

(1) Notochord that extends from head to tail region
(2) Notochord is present throughout larval stages and adult life
(3) Notochord present only in adult stages
(4) Notochord present only in larval stages

19) Fill in the blanks marked in the classification table from the choices in the box with respect to

A,B,C,D,E and F and choose the correct option: I. Pisces

II. Osteichthyes III. Agnatha IV. Gnathostomata
V. Chondrichthyes VI. Cyclostomata

A B C D E F

(1) VI I V II III IV

(2) III IV VI I V II

(3) I VI IV II III V

(4) IV V III II IV I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

Which one show internal fertilisation and poikilothermic nature ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) Identify the organism and their respective classes correctly :-

(A) (B) (C)

Scoliodon Pristis Petromyzon

(1)
Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata Osteichthyes

Pristis Scoliodon Petromyzon

(2)
Osteichthyes Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata

Hippocampus Pristis Scoliodon

(3)
Osteichthyes Chondrichthyes Chondrichthyes

Scolidon Pristis Petromyzon

(4)
Chondrichthyes Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which one is kept in the aquarium ?

(1) Betta
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Pterophyllum
(4) Both (1) and (3)

23) In class 'Aves' the wings are the modification of:

(1) Forelimbs
(2) Hindlimbs
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Feathers

24) Claspers are present in :-

(1) Chondrichthyes (on pelvic fins)
(2) Chondrichthyes (on pectoral fins)
(3) Osteichthyes (on pelvic fins)
(4) Osteichthyes (on pectoral fins)

25) Which of the following animal is not a vertebrate

(1) Fishes
(2) Sparrow
(3) Amphioxus
(4) Aptenodytes

26) Identify the given diagram and choose the correct option about it.

(1) Scales and paired fins are present on the body.

(2) Body bears 4 pair of gills.
(3) They are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(4) Mouth is sucking and circular with jaw.

27) For the following figure which one is correct:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D is animal with 3 chambered Heart

(2) C is cold blooded animal in which fertilization is external
(3) A is marine and gills not covered with operculum
(4) B is oviparous with external fertilization

28) In class Amphibia, respiration occurs through:-

(1) Gills
(2) Lungs
(3) Skin
(4) All of these

29) Limbless amphibian is :-

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Hyla
(3) Rana
(4) Salamandra

30) In some chordates, the notochord is modified as the vertebral column. Such animals are called
vertebrates.
Which one of these statements makes sense ?

(1) All chordates are vertebrates, but all vertebrates are not chordates.
(2) All vertebrates are chordates, and all chordates are vertebrates.
(3) All vertebrates are chordates, but all chordates are not vertebrates.
(4) Chordates are not vertebrates and vertebrates are not chordates.

31) Which of the following organism have electric organ?

(1) Trygon
(2) Torpedo
(3) Carcharodon
(4) None of these

32) Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly :-

(1) Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat

(2) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
(3) Shrew, bat, kiwi, cat
(4) Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

33) Fill in the blanks:

(a) In birds, air sacs connected to ....1.... supplement respiration.
(b) The class name reptilia refers to their creeping or ....2.... mode of locomotion.
(c) In amphibians, the eyes ....3.... eyelids.
(d) Cyclostomes are ....4.... but migrate for spawning to ....5.... water.

1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–do not have,

(1)
4–marine, 5– fresh
(2) 1–pneumatic bones, 2–swimming, 3–do not have, 4–marine, 5–fresh
(3) 1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–have, 4–fresh water, 5–marine
1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–have, 4–marine,
(4)
5–fresh

34) Sub-phylum Urochordata are also called as ?

(1) Cephalochordata
(2) Aves
(3) Tunicata
(4) Pisces

35) Vertebral column is formed in place of

(1) Dorsal nerve cord

(2) Ventral nerve cord
(3) Outgrowth of cranium
(4) Notochord

SECTION-2

1) Which of the following animals is not viviparous?

(1) Delphinus
(2) Ornithorhynchus
(3) Macaca
(4) Pteropus

2) Choose correct option about figure (a) and (b) :-

(1) In both, skin is covered by placoid scales

(2) In both, gill slits are covered by operculum
(3) Air bladders are found in both
(4) (a) is viviparous and (b) is oviparous

3)

Among the following set of animals, cold blooded or poikilothermic animals are __________.

(1) Amphibians, Reptiles and Mammals

(2) Reptiles and Mammals
(3) Fishes, Amphibians and Reptiles
(4) Aves and Mammals

4)
3-Chambered heart, shed their scales as skin cast, external ear opening is absent

It is true for
(1) Naja, Hemidactylus
(2) Chelone, Calotes
(3) Crocodilus, Chameleon
(4) Vipera, Testudo.

5) External ear pinna is found in:-

(1) Reptiles
(2) Mammals
(3) Amphibians
(4) Fishes

6) In birds, scales are present in :-

(1) Fore limbs

(2) Hind limb
(3) Head
(4) Neck

7) Identify the name of given animals from the given option.

A B C D

(1) Struthio Neophron Pavo Psittacula

(2) Neophron Struthio Pavo Psittacula

(3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo

(4) Pavo Struthio Psittacula Neophron

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Identified the organisms A, B, C and D.

(1) Balaenoptera, Macropus, Pteropus & Ornithorhynchus

(2) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus & Balaenoptera
(3) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Balaenoptera & Pteropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus, Balaenoptera, Pteropus & Macropus

9) Two chambered heart is the feature of :-

(1) Mammals
(2) Aves
(3) Amphibia
(4) Pisces

10) Four chambered heart is observed in which of these :-

(1) Sycon
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Naja

11) Poisnous snake is :-

(1) Naja
(2) Vipera
(3) Bangarus
(4) All of these

12) The teeth of dog fish are modified __________ scales and directed ________.
Fill in the blanks with correct option :

(1) Placoid, Forwardly

(2) Placoid, Backwardly
(3) Cycloid, Forwardly
(4) Cycloid, Backwardly
13) Assertion (A) : Birds possess moist skin.
Reason (R) : Birds possess oil glands throughout their body.

If both statements A and R are true and the statement R is the correct explanation of statement
(1)
A
If both statements A and R are true but the statement R is not the correct explanation of
(2)
statement A
(3) If statement A is true but statement R is false
(4) If both statements A and R are false statements

14) Which of the following fishes is also known as "Great white shark'?

(1) Pristis
(2) Trygon
(3) Clarias
(4) Carcharodon

15) Assertion: Bats and whales are classified as Mammals.

Reason: Bats and whales have four chambered heart.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 3

SECTION-2

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 1 3

SECTION-2

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 4

BOTANY

SECTION-1

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 2 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 4

SECTION-2

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-1

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 1 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 1 1 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 4 3 4

SECTION-2

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) At same temperature pressure and volume

(N1=N2=N3) Avogadro law

2) High temperature and low density. Note : All real gas behave as an ideal gas at high
temperature, low pressure and low density.

3) For cyclic process

ΔU = Uf – Ui = 0
Zero in all the four cases.

4)

5) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 320, Part-XI, 13.3

6) Value of vrms of the molecules of gas is more than escape velocity.

7) v ∝

⇒
⇒v= m/s

8) W = Area of ellipse

9) Independent of its pressure but directly proportional to the square root of its kelvin
temperature.

10) vrms > vavg > vmp

11) Total K.E =

Total K.E ∝ N (no. of gas molecule)

15)
H2 is a diatomic and at very high temperature diatomic gas has degree of freedom = 7 and

rotation degree of freedom = 2 fraction of energy rotation = .

16) The average of distances travelled between two successive collisions is mean free path.

17) specific heat of an ideal gas is independent on temperature

20)
γmix = 1.55

21) ΔU = μCVΔT = 1 × R × 100

ΔU = 1 × × 8.31 × 100 ≈ 12.48 × 102 J

22) PV = μRT ⇒ As θ2 > θ1 so

23) For polytropic process

Here x=–2

26) γ = 1 + (Here degree of freedom → n)

27)

The pressure of the gas remains constant, and is equal to the atmospheric pressure(for
equilibrium of the ‘gas plus pistons’ system). If the temperature of the gas is increased , its
volume must increase. For this the pistons must move to the right.

36)

As DOF is not stated, we will assume Cv is same for all gases

Ui = Uf
⇒ n1 CV T1 + n2 CV T2 + n3 CV T3 = (n1 + n2 + n3)CVT
 ⇒T=

37) WABC = Area enclosed with volume axis

=
= 2000 J

39)
Density ρ remains constant when P/T or volume remains constant. In graph (i) volume is
decreasing, hence density is increasing ; while in graphs (ii) and (iii) volume is increasing,
hence, density is decreasing.
The volume would have been constant in case the straight line in graph (iii) had passed
through origin.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

44) Heat cannot be converted in 100% work, but reverse is true.

47) Adiabatic equation in terms of P, V

PVγ = constant

50) ∵ Q = ms ΔT
as ΔT = 0
s = Q/mΔT = ∞

CHEMISTRY

55)

Leaving group tendency order ⇒

I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
Large sized I– can easily accomodate –ve charge so it is a good leaving group.

77) Electromeric effect is temporary effect.

78)

All the lone pair containing groups are electron donating group (EDG) and shows +M effect

Example:-

79) (i) > (ii) > (iv) > (iii)

 7α 5α 3α 1α
More α-hydrogen atoms, more the stability of carbocation.

82)

85) NCERT XI, Pg. # 403, Part - 2

BOTANY

116)

NCERT Pg. # 160

117)

NCERT Pg. # 156

118) NCERT pg # 159

121) NCERT Page no. 159

122)

Plants do not have specialized organs for gaseous exchange because each plant part is self-
sufficient in taking care of its own gas-exchange needs. There is minimal transport of gases
from one part of the plant to another, and the rate of respiration in plant parts is relatively low
compared to animals.

129) NCERT –157

 130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 161

131) Lactate dehydrogenase is the enzyme in muscle cells, that reduces pyruvate into lactic
acid.
NCERT Pg157 12.3 Fermentation.

133)

NCERT XI Pg.# 157

144) NCERT pg # 163-164 (Class-11)

146)

NCERT Pg. # 155

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT (XI) Pg# 58 Para: [Link]

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 59

159) NCERT (XI) Pg#57 Para:[Link]

162)

ALLEN MODULE : 38

166)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58-59

169) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 56

170) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

171) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56

174) NCERT (XI) Pg. #

175) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 55

177) NCERT Pg. # 57, 58, 59
fig.4.20(a), 4.21(b), 4.23(b), 4.22(b)

178) NCERT-XI, Pg # 53

179) NCERT-XI, Pg # 54-60

180) NCERT XI, Pg # 55

188)

NCERT XIth # 48, 49, 50

189) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 58

191)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

197) NCERT XI Pg. # 56