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Domain 3 - Risk Management - Compressed

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to risk management concepts, including the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA), SWOT analysis, and insurance types. Each question is followed by a correct answer and a brief explanation of the relevant risk management principle. The document serves as an educational resource for understanding various aspects of risk management.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
11 views163 pages

Domain 3 - Risk Management - Compressed

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to risk management concepts, including the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA), SWOT analysis, and insurance types. Each question is followed by a correct answer and a brief explanation of the relevant risk management principle. The document serves as an educational resource for understanding various aspects of risk management.

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09/28/2023 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Cybersecurity Framework encompasses five areas:
Identify, Protect, Detect,Respond, and?

A. Archive
B. Recover
C. Prosecute
D. Insure

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Solution
1. Identify: Make a list of all equipment, software, data, etc.
2. Protect: Control who uses the data, use security software, encrypt data, etc.
3. Detect: Monitor computers for unauthorized access, investigate unusual activities.
4. Respond: Have a business continuation plan, investigate and contain an attack, report an attack to police,
prepare for physical events (storms, earthquakes, terrorism, etc.)
5. Recover: repair and restore equipment, keep people informed.

The correct solution is B.

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07/27/2023 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is used to gather which type of information?

A. Trailing indicators are used to identify problem causes after they happen.
B. Leading indicators identify potential problems in a process or system before they occur.
C. Disaster recovery plans.
D. Statistical tool used to assess the likelihood of an event within a random sample or population.

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Solution
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis is used to identify potential problems in a process or system before they occur.

The correct solution is B.

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05/18/2023 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What does a SWOT analysis accomplish in business?

A. Whether or not a business is viable


B. Direct security threats
C. Planning for future operations and goals
D. Nothing; it is used solely in rescue operations

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Solution
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats.

A company's strengths and weaknesses are internal, while opportunities and threats are external influences. SWOT
analysis can help a leader to shape current and future operations and develop strategic goals.

The correct solution is C.

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03/23/2023 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Four liability theories can render a defendant liable for injuries they may have caused. These are intent, recklessness,
negligence, and ________________.

A. Criminal behavior
B. Ignorance
C. Strict liability
D. Poor management

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Solution
Strict liability covers certain situations where someone can be held liable for the harm they cause, no matter their
mental state.

The first three theories involve the mental state of the defendant:
• Intent – they acted with the intent to cause harm.
• Recklessness – they knew (or should have known) that their action was likely to cause harm.
• Negligence – they acted or failed to act in violation of a duty to someone else, thus causing harm to that person.

The correct solution is C.

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01/19/2023 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is umbrella insurance?

A. A specific policy designed to cover roof leaks in commercial buildings


B. An insurance that covers above and beyond normal insurance limits
C. A special type of worker’s compensation that is typically less expensive
D. A re-insurance that covers high deductibles on health insurance plans

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Solution
Liability insurance is typically subject to financial limits.

Umbrella insurance can cover costs above and beyond normal liability insurance limits.

The correct answer is B.

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10/13/2022 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The first step in a risk assessment is to identify the hazards. What is the second step?

A. Assess the financial risk


B. Identify who is at risk and how
C. Brainstorm for possible solutions
D. Assign weighted values to the hazard

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Solution
After identifying the risk, the next step is identifying who is at risk and how. Evaluating or assessing the risk would be
step three, followed by reviewing the results of any risk mitigation and updating the assessment.

The correct solution is B.

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06/30/2022 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Which type of risk management is the use of a TPA (Third Party Administrator) for processing medical insurance
claims?

A. Acceptance
B. Avoidance
C. Reduction
D. Transference

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Solution
Third Party Administrators are used when a company chooses to be self-insured but does not want to directly bear
the risks associated with adjudicating and settling claims. Instead, they transfer these risks to the TPA.

The correct solution is D.

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05/05/2022 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
An effective risk management program includes risk identification, risk analysis, and risk response. One example of
risk identification is:

A. Building a retainer wall to prevent flooding


B. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire
C. Contacting families and insurance companies
D. Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations

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Solution
Building a retainer wall would be considered risk avoidance, a response.
Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire falls under risk analysis.
Contacting families and insurance companies would be a response to a disaster.
Researching local weather patterns and geological formations would be considered risk identification.

The correct solution is D.

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02/10/2022 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Which of the following would be considered a trailing indicator?

A. FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis)


B. JSA (Job Safety Analysis)
C. RCA (Root Cause Analysis)
D. Risk Assessment Matrix

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Solution
FMEA is the process of reviewing systems down to the component level to determine potential failures, their causes,
and possible effects. JSA is used to assess workplace hazards. Risk Assessment Matrices are used to determine the
severity and probability of an event. These tools are used to predict failures, hazards, and risks and are therefore
leading indicators. RCA is an investigative tool effective in identifying the cause of an event after the fact.

The correct solution is C.

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12/30/2021– Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The two basic types of FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) are:

A. Leading and trailing indicators


B. Failure analysis and effects analysis
C. Process and design
D. Hazard and Risk

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Solution
In a process FMEA, risks are process failures. In a design FMEA, risks are product or system-related failures

The correct solution is C.

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10/28/2021 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the difference between insurance and a bond?

A. There is no real difference.


B. Insurance protects a specific person and project while bonds protect a person, business, or company.
C. Bonds cost more.
D. A bond protects a contractor who hires someone for a specific project while insurance protects people or
businesses from a covered loss.

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Solution
Insurance protects entities – people and businesses- from loss whenever a covered claim occurs.

Bonds, specifically surety bonds, protect an individual who contracts specific work on a project by compensating the
contractor or “obligee” whenever a claim occurs.

The correction solution is D.

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7/22/2021 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Under what type of risk management does the installation of a video surveillance system qualify?

A. Sharing
B. Transferring
C. Risk retention
D. Loss prevention

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Solution
An example of risk sharing would be a service agreement from a vendor. Risk transfer could be accomplished
through a warranty or by purchasing insurance. An example of risk retention would be self-insurance. Cameras are
typically installed for two reasons: physical security, and loss prevention.

The correct solution is D.

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05/20/2021 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Antwan is planning to clean the lab floor with a caustic 10% sodium hydroxide solution. He doesn’t have gloves or a
respirator. The safety manager stops the activity stating that it is unsafe. What should Antwan do?

A. Go to the safety manager to get permission to use the caustic soda


B. Substitute a less hazardous cleaner
C. Find gloves and a respirator and continue using the caustic soda
D. Nothing

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Solution
The hierarchy of controls is given below:
1. Eliminate the hazard
2. Substitute a less severe hazard
3. Use engineering controls
4. Use administrative controls
5. Use PPE

The correct solution is B.

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03/11/2021 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Purchasing pollution insurance is an example of which risk management approach?

A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk retention

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Solution
Insurance doesn’t help to avoid or reduce risk. You can argue that insurance is a form of retention or acceptance;
however, insurance is a form of risk sharing like a warranty.

The correct solution is C.

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01/14/2021 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Four effective methods of risk mitigation are: Avoidance, Acceptance, Reduction, and Transference. One example of
risk transference would be:

A. Purchasing a service contract on a large air compressor


B. Performing an FMEA
C. Diversifying into multiple customers and/or processes
D. Raising the price to overcome the effects of failure

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Solution
Purchasing a service contract would transfer the risk to a third party.

Performing an FMEA could result in risk reduction by lowering the probability of failure.

Diversifying would reduce or control the financial risk associated with customer dissatisfaction.

Raising the price to overcome the effects of failure is risk acceptance.

The correct solution is A.

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12/24/2020 – Risk Management


Category Emergency Preparedness, Fire Prevention, Security
Risk Management

Question
A company that adds a fire suppression system in a room where ethanol-based hand sanitizer is filled into one-gallon
jugs is practicing:

A. Risk Management
B. Risk Avoidance
C. Risk Elimination
D. Risk Evaluation

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Solution
A pro-active risk evaluation should provide a clear picture of which risks can be avoided, if not eliminated. Remaining
risk, or residual risk, must be managed to reduce the severity of the risk. Fire suppression systems manage residual
risk by limiting damage after a fire has occurred.

The correct solution is A.

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11/19/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the difference between warranty and insurance?

A. There is no difference.
B. Warranty is an assurance that a product is free from defects while insurance covers damages that occur.
C. Warranty is typically free while insurance carries premiums.
D. Insurance is more about reliability and warranty is about liability.

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Solution
Insurance and warranty are both “promises.” Insurance is a promise that if a covered risk occurs, the insurer will pay
for the damage caused by the event. Warranty is a promise that a product is free from defects.

The correct solution is B.

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10/15/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Risk that remains after preventative measures have been taken is called:

A. Acceptable risk
B. Residual risk
C. Managed risk
D. Zero Risk

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Solution
Risk that remains after preventative measures have been taken is called residual risk. Residual risk may or may not be
acceptable and certainly should be analyzed.

The correct solution is B.

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08/20/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
An insurance inspector requires a sprinkler flow test to be performed. What is the goal of the flow test?

A. Ensure that the water riser valves are working and open.
B. Ensure that the sprinklers will activate properly.
C. Ensure that the fire alarm will activate at the proper time.
D. Ensure that enough water pressure exists to extinguish a fire.

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Solution
A sprinkler flow test is performed using a test valve that is calibrated to simulate water flow from a single sprinkler.
When the valve is opened, the fire alarm and any existing fire pumps should activate within 90 seconds.

The correct solution is C.

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06/18/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
A systematic risk management program includes risk identification, risk analysis and risk response. One example of
risk analysis would be:

A. Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations


B. Building a retainer wall to prevent flooding
C. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire
D. Contacting families and insurance companies

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Solution
Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations would be considered risk identification.

Building a retainer wall would be considered risk avoidance, which is a response.

Estimating likelihood and cost of a disaster falls under risk analysis.

Contacting families or insurance companies would be a response to a disaster.

The correct solution is C.

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04/09/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
When an insurance company subrogates a claim, it:

A. Exercises a legal right to pursue a third party that actually caused a loss.
B. Agrees that the claimant is being fraudulent.
C. Automatically goes to trial.
D. Requests arbitration from a federal negotiator.

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Solution
When doubt arises about who is liable for a claim, most insurance companies have a legal right to subrogate the
claim against a third party who actually caused the loss. It is very common, for example, for an employee to file with
his or her personal medical insurance for expenses following an illness or injury. Then, when evidence arises that
points to the claim being work-related, a worker’s compensation claim will be filed. At that point, the medical
insurance company will subrogate the claim to the worker’s compensation insurance company.

The correct solution is A.

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02/20/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The safety manager at Bowen Foundry is concerned about hazardous exposures when working near the blast
furnace. Which of the following is the best risk management strategy for reducing exposures during blast furnace
operation?

A. Provide the employee with heat shielding while working near the furnace
B. SWOT analysis
C. Job Safety Analysis
D. FMEA

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Solution
Follow the hierarchy of controls to solve this problem.

1. Eliminate the hazard


2. Substitute something less hazardous
3. Install engineering controls
4. Establish administrative controls
5. Personal protective equipment

Heat shielding PPE is the lowest form of controlling risk and should only be utilized after all other options have been
implemented.

SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats) analysis is a way to evaluate risks. It is geared more
toward business strategy in general instead of specific tasks. It is not a control method.

FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) is a structured approach for finding problems with a process or product. It
is not a direct control method.

Job Safety Analysis (JSA) measures the inherent risk of each step in a work process and assigns risk levels to each
step and ways to minimize the risk. It is a form of administrative control. This is the best choice since it is a control
above the use of PPE in the hierarchy.

The correct solution is C.

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01/23/2020 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Which liability concept requires proof that a product was defective, the defect existed at the time the product left the
defendant’s hands, and that the product caused injury or harm?

A. Implied warranty
B. Negligence
C. Strict liability
D. Express warranty

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Solution
Warranty, either implied or express, deals with function, fitness, or characteristic of a product and not whether it
caused injury or harm. While negligence does address the three characteristics listed above, it also adds a behavioral
component requirement in that bad behavior must have caused the product to be defective. Strict liability focusses
“strictly” on the product and, as the claimant is not required to prove that negligent behavior caused the product to be
defective, is generally much easier to prove.

The correct solution is C.

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12/12/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
While on a tour of ABC chemical manufacturer, the liability insurance inspector observes a material handler placing
55-gal drums of a non-flammable liquid in a general-purpose warehouse containing several drums of NFPA class 1-B
flammable materials. The room is about 5000ft2 and is protected by sprinklers which meet NFPA requirements. The
room does not have emergency vents, berms, or a drain. Should the inspector have a problem with this arrangement?
Why or why not?

A. Yes: non-flammables should not be stored in the same room with class 1B flammables
B. No: a protected general-purpose warehouse is exempt from room size limitations, quantity stored, berms, vents,
or drains
C. Yes: the room should be no larger than 500ft2
D. No: the non-flammables offset the risk of fire

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Solution
The first place to look for an answer is the NFPA. In the 2018 edition of NFPA 30, section 12.8, this issue is no longer
addressed as it was in prior editions. OSHA does address it in 29CFR 1910.106(d)(5)(v). Class 1B flammables may
be stored in a general-purpose warehouse that is protected by fire suppression meeting NFPA 30 Chapter 16
requirements. There are no requirements for pressure vents, berms, drains, or fire-rated walls or doors. There are also
no limitations on room size or quantity stored.

The correct solution is B.

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10/10/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Company BCD hired an outside source to provide active shooter training to their employees. Which risk management
technique are they using?

A. Avoidance (eliminate)
B. Reduction (mitigate)
C. Sharing (outsource or insure)
D. Retention (accept/budget)

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Solution
Active shooter training seeks to minimize the impact of an incident through knowledge and prescribed actions.

The correct solution is B.

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08/22/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
According to NFPA 497 Recommended Practice for the Classification of Flammable Liquids, Gasses or Vapors and
Hazardous (Classified) Locations for Electrical Installations in Chemical Processing Areas, a Class-1 Division-1
condition exists when a combustible material is present, it is mixed with air in the proportions necessary to produce
an ignitable mixture, and there is a release of sufficient energy to ignite the mixture, and:

A. The material is at its boiling point


B. The material is present under normal conditions
C. The material is a corrosive liquid
D. The material is present under abnormal circumstance

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Solution
A Class 1 flammable hazardous atmosphere exists when a combustible material is present, it is mixed with air in the
proportions necessary to produce an ignitable mixture, and there is a release of sufficient energy to ignite the mixture.
Division 1 exists when the ignitable mixture is likely to be present under normal circumstances.

The correct solution is B.

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06/27/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The first step in creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) would be:

A. Local criminal activity history


B. FMEA
C. Survey of local weather patterns
D. Risk Analysis

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Solution
The first step in creating a viable BCP would be a thorough risk analysis, which would identify and assign priority
levels to potential risks. Depending on the risk, action items could conceivably include a Failure Mode and Effects
Analysis, local criminal activity, and a survey of local weather patterns, tectonic analysis, and many other factors.

The correct solution is D.

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06/06/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Liability insurance inspector on an annual audit observed four stacks of wooden pallets, 12ft. tall placed adjacent to
each other in a receiving area of a manufacturing plant. The plant was equipped with ESFR (Early Sensing Fast
Response) sprinklers spaced to cover 75 sq. ft. per sprinkler. Water pressure in the system was steady at 125 psi. The
inspector returned a non-conformance stating that the pallets must be removed. Was this correct and why?

A. It was not correct. Assuming that a ceiling height of 30’ or less, the system described was adequate fire
protection for that situation.
B. It was correct. The fire load for that number of wooden pallets was too high.
C. It was not correct. Any sprinkler installation would suffice to extinguish a fire.
D. It was correct. Any stack of wooden pallets over 6ft. tall is considered to be an unacceptable fire risk.

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Solution
All liability insurance inspectors interpret any deviation of sprinkler systems from NFPA requirements installations as
a non-functional system. In a non-functional system, in order to maintain an acceptable fire load, the limitation would
be to stack one or two stacks of wooden pallets no more than 6ft. high with stacks spaced 8ft. apart and no
combustible materials between stacks. In this case however, the system described above is NFPA compliant. 12ft.
stacks are acceptable. The inspector made a mistake.

The correct solution is A.

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02/21/2019 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the first action to take in minimizing the risk of a building fire?

A. Lower the likelihood of a fire getting started


B. Developing safe means of egress in the event of a fire
C. Installing a sprinkler system
D. Installing a fire alarm system

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Solution
The first step in minimizing the risk of a building fire is to lower the likelihood that a fire will get started. If we have no
fire, then the other precautions are not necessary.

Of course, we know we cannot eliminate the possibility of a building fire, and we still must notify people and establish
a safe means of egress. We must also incorporate methods to slow the spread of the fire and put it out.

The correct solution is A.

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12/27/2018 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Acme Manufacturing has a facility in California near an active earthquake fault line. Reviewing the choices below,
which one is the number one priority in managing the risk of an earthquake?

A. The number one priority is to store emergency provisions in the event employees are trapped during an
earthquake.
B. The number one priority is to establish an onsite fire response and search and rescue team.
C. The number one priority is to train employees on the best response during an earthquake.
D. The number one priority is to ensure the factory is designed and built to withstand the forces from an
earthquake.

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Solution
Follow the hierarchy of controls in selecting the priority in managing risk choosing actions closest to the top first.

1. Eliminate the risk


2. Substitute a hazard with lower risk
3. Use engineering controls to manage risk
4. Use administrative controls to manage risk
5. Use personal protective equipment to manage risk

Each of the options offered may be considered by Acme Manufacturing. Option D should be the highest priority. It is
an engineering control to minimize damage to the facility.

The correct solution is D.

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09/27/2018 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Ordering a hamburger at a restaurant and assuming it is edible is an example of:

A. Implied warranty
B. Expressed warranty
C. Product liability
D. Assumed risk

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Solution
An implied warranty is an unwritten guarantee that a product or service works as expected. An implied warranty is
a lot like an assumption. For example, when you buy a new car from a car dealer, the implied warranty is that the car
works. When you order a hamburger at a restaurant, it comes with the implied warranty that it is edible.

The correct solution is A.

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08/16/2018 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
If the frequency of loss is low and the severity is high, what is generally the most appropriate risk management tool to
use?

A. Risk transfer
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk assumption
D. Risk avoidance

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Solution
Risk transfer is a risk management and control strategy that involves the contractual shifting of a pure risk from one
party to another. One example is the purchase of an insurance policy, by which a specified risk of loss is passed from
the policy holder to the insurer.

Risk reduction is the measures taken to reduce the frequency or severity of losses, also known as loss control.
Examples include engineering, fire inspections, safety inspections and claims management.

Risk avoidance is the elimination of hazards, activities, and exposures that can negatively affect an organization’s
assets. Whereas risk management aims to control the damages and financial consequences of events, risk
avoidance seeks to avoid compromising events entirely.

The correct solution is A.

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05/24/2018 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is a contractual provision in which one party agrees to answer for any specified or unspecified liability or harm
that the other party may incur?

A. Transfer of risk
B. Indemnification agreement
C. Assumption of risk
D. True risk

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Solution
Risk transfer can also be accomplished through non-insurance agreements such as contracts. These contracts often
include indemnification provisions.

An indemnity clause is a contractual provision in which one party agrees to answer for any specified and unspecified
liability or harm that the other party might incur. An indemnity clause also can be termed a hold-harmless or save-
harmless clause.

Indemnification agreements are completely independent of insurance coverages and transfer the financial
consequences of legal liability from one party, the indemnitee, to another, the indemnitor. In addition to direct financial
losses, some contracts may also transfer legal defense or product recall costs.

The correct solution is B.

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03/22/2018 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
A safety and health team was asked to use the risk management process to evaluate a highly flammable solvent with
known health effects. The company is planning to use and store the solvent for an upcoming project. The team listed
the likelihood and consequences associated with each of the risks associated with the solvent. The team also
developed an understanding of the nature of the risk and its potential to affect the project goals and objectives.
Which step in the risk management process best describes what the team has done?

A. Risk elimination
B. Risk analysis
C. Financing risk
D. Risk reduction

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Solution
Risk management process steps: risk identification, risk analysis, risk reduction or elimination, financing risk and
then administering the risk management process.

Risk identification: Recognition and description of risks that might affect out come

Risk analysis: Once risks are identified, the determination of the likelihood and consequences of each risk and it’s
potential to affect the goals and objectives of the project

Financing risk: What is the cost of the investment and what will it cost the company in the event there is a
catastrophic loss, change in market value, etc. Does the process require special insurance?

Risk reduction: Steps needed to reduce the overall risks associated with the project, examples include implementing
the hierarchy of controls

The correct solution is B.

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10/19/2017 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What are the three sections of an insurance contract?

A. Declarations, Exceptions, Conditions


B. Conditions, Exceptions, Authority
C. Assets, Exclusions, and Declarations
D. Declarations, Conditions, Exclusions

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Solution
Declarations: identifies who is an insured, the insured's address, the insuring company, what risks or property are
covered, the policy limits (amount of insurance), any applicable deductibles, the policy period and premium amount.

Conditions: These are specific provisions, rules of conduct, duties, and obligations which the insured must comply
with in order for coverage to incept, or must remain in compliance with in order to keep coverage in effect. If policy
conditions are not met, the insurer can deny the claim.

Exclusions: Takes coverage away from the insuring agreement by describing property, perils, hazards or losses
arising from specific causes which are not covered by the policy.

The correct solution is D.

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08/24/2017 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
A manufacturing plant cost $2 billion to build. There is a one in a million chance each year of the plant being
catastrophically destroyed without loss of life or injury through a process malfunction. What is the annual cost of the
risk to the plant due to the process malfunction?

A. $2
B. $20
C. $200
D. $2,000

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Solution
Risk = probability x severity

The probability is 1 in a million or 0.000001.

The severity is $2 billion or $2,000,000,000.

0.000001 x $2,000,000,000 = $2,000.

The correct solution is D.

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07/27/2017 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The best method to control the risk of injury related to a chemical exposure is to:

A. Substitute a less toxic substance.


B. Require the use of an air purifying respirator.
C. Eliminate the toxic chemical if possible.
D. Install air tight process piping and a local exhaust ventilation system.

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Solution
Follow the hierarchy of controls.

1. Eliminate the hazard


2. Substitute something less hazardous.
3. Install engineering controls.
4. Implement administrative controls.
5. Require the use of personal protective equipment.

The correct solution is C.

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06/29/2017 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the first step in risk management?

A. Finance the risk


B. Identify the risk
C. Analyze the risk
D. Rank the risk

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Solution
Risk management begins with identifying the risks followed by analysis, and then taking steps to eliminate or
minimize the risk.

Financial risks that cannot be eliminated may be transferred to another organization.

The correct solution is B.

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05/18/2017 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Which choice below is NOT an objective of risk management for a business?

A. Reducing anxiety prior to a loss


B. Meeting responsibilities as a good corporate citizen
C. Continued growth after suffering a loss
D. Attracting investment capital

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Solution
Risk management is focused on minimizing all risks for an organization. Risk management objectives can be broken
into two broad categories pre-loss objectives and post-loss objectives.

Pre-loss objectives are focused on minimizing economic costs, reducing anxiety, meeting regulatory requirements,
and meeting social responsibilities.

Post-loss objectives are focused on survival, maintaining operations, stabilizing earning, continued growth of the
company, and meeting social responsibilities.

The correct solution is D.

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08/11/2016 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Who is allowed to possess the master key on a multi-lock job?

A. The affected employee


B. The authorized employee
C. A master key is not allowed for LOTO
D. The site supervisor

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Solution
A master key for lock out/tag out locks is not permitted for an effective LOTO program.

The correct solution is C.

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07/21/2016 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The component of a table saw that is most responsible for preventing kick-back is __

A. Blade guard
B. Rip fence
C. Splitter
D. Cross cut fence

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Solution
Kick-back from a table saw occurs when the wood that is being pushed through the saw blade that is spinning toward
the operator catches the wood and hurls the wood toward the operator. The splitter keeps the wood pieces separated
as they go through the blade so that the wood can’t get pinched against the saw blade.

The correct solution is C.

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12/26/2013 – Insurance
Category Risk Management

Question
What is the best example of contributory negligence?

A. An employee fails to follow a safety rule and is injured.


B. By accepting a job, the employee assumed all the risks that came with it.
C. A co-worker’s error led to an employee’s injury.
D. Both A and B.

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Solution
All of these are examples of common law defenses used by employers to defend claims prior to workers’
compensation. Answer B describes Assumption of Risk and answer C describes the Fellow Servant Rule.

The correct solution is A.

Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, Roger Brauer

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12/05/2013 – Insurance
Category Risk Management

Question
An example of __________ would be the repair costs of equipment involved in an accident.

A. Direct costs
B. Indirect costs
C. Hidden costs
D. Uninsured costs

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Solution
Direct costs are the costs associated with an incident such as medical expenses, compensation paid to an injured
employee for time away from work, and repair and replacement costs of damaged equipment. These costs are
typically covered by insurance.

The correct solution is A.

Source: Safety and Health for Engineers, Roger Brauer.

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10/24/2013 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the first choice to protect an employee from exposure to chlorine gas in a water treatment facility?

A. Required the use of Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)


B. Substitute ozone for chlorine
C. Install a local exhaust ventilation system in the chlorine storage room
D. Train employees in proper operating and emergency response procedures for chlorine

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Solution
The hierarchy of controls for occupational hazards is listed below in order of preference:

1. Eliminate the hazard


2. Substitute a less hazardous alternative
3. Engineering controls
4. Administrative controls
5. Personal protective equipment

Substituting ozone for chlorine is a less hazardous alternative and ranks higher than the other options offered.

The correct solution is B.

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10/25/2012 – Risk Assessment


Category Risk Management

Question
The Bowenville High School Drama Club is setting up a haunted house to raise money for their spring production of
“Gone with the Wind.” The club rented an old, abandoned mansion from an eccentric old man that made his fortune
selling fruitcakes.

The house is set up with the following rooms: Dracula’s Dungeon, Frankenstein’s Fallacy, Invisible Inkwell, Devil’s
Kitchen, and Boris’s Bedroom. The club is using dry ice immersed in water to create a fog that covers the floor of the
old mansion.

They intend to keep the dry ice sealed in a glass jar until the nights of the haunted house production.

What is the greatest risk associated with using the dry ice in creating the haunted house fog?

A. Over exposure to carbon dioxide

B. Frozen skin from handling the dry ice

C. Fire

D. Explosion

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Solution
Dry ice has a vapor pressure of 844 PSIA. It will certainly cause the glass jar to explode.

The correct solution is D.

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06/07/2012 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
An anonymous Certified Safety Professional (CSP) was working on a home improvement project during the recent
holiday weekend. The CSP was installing a coaxial cable running from his living room wall to the attic. This cable
would connect an attic antenna to the television receiver in the living room. This installation involved drilling a hole
from the crawlspace into the interior of the wall in which the coaxial connector was to be installed. The CSP knew it
was critical to correctly position himself in the crawlspace.

Unfortunately, the anonymous CSP drilled his first hole directly into a stud. The second hole he drilled missed the wall
entirely and came through into the floor of the doorway between the hall and the living room. At this point, the
anonymous CSP realized he had incorrectly positioned himself in the crawlspace. His third attempt was successful.

When the anonymous CSP explained to his wife that he made an error, she merely shrugged and asked if he could fix
it. She did not yell or chastise him in any way.

What risk management error was made by the CSP?

A. Failure to identify the hazard

B. Failure to implement an effective control strategy

C. Failure to notify management

D. Failure to use personal protective equipment

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Solution
The anonymous CSP knew the risks, but he failed to implement an effective control strategy.

He notified management (his wife) after the event. Fortunately for him, he is blessed to be working with an effective
and mature manager.

Personal protective equipment had no bearing on the incident.

The correct solution is B.

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02/02/2012 – Risk Assessment


Category Risk Management

Question
Choose the greatest risk from the choices below.

A. An auto accident with an annual probability of 0.06 that will cost $2,500

B. A diagnosis of lung cancer with an annual probability of 0.00074 that will cost $35,000

C. A disabling accident at home with an annual probability of 0.012 that will cost $12,000

D. A fire-related injury in the home with an annual probability of 0.000052 that will cost $60,000

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Solution
Cost of Risk = probability of event x the severity

A. 0.06 x $2,500 = $150

B. 0.00074 x $35,000 = $25.90

C. 0.012 x $12,000 = $144

D. 0.000052 x $60,000 = $3.12

The correct solution is A.

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11/23/2011 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Aunt Mildred is roasting a 12 lb. turkey in her kitchen oven for the annual Thanksgiving Dinner. She is also planning to
have yams, green bean casserole, cranberries, a fresh vegetable relish tray and homemade pumpkin pie for the feast.

Aunt Mildred maintains a fire alarm in her kitchen. Shortly after she opened the oven door to baste the turkey, the fire
alarm sounded with a 3200 Hz tone at 85 dBA at a distance of 10 feet.

What would you recommend to Aunt Mildred to deal with this problem if you follow the hierarchy of control?

A. Use earplugs while in the kitchen

B. Turn on the kitchen ventilation

C. Remove the batteries from the smoke alarm

D. Take your family to the local café for Thanksgiving dinner

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Solution
The hierarchy of controls is given below:

1. Eliminate the hazard


2. Substitute a less severe hazard
3. Use engineering controls
4. Use administrative controls
5. Use PPE

Aunt Mildred would eliminate the fire hazard and the noise hazard in her home by taking the family to the local café.

The correct solution is D.

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07/07/2011 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
The city of Garner, NC, held their annual fireworks display in an open park on July 3 this year. Numerous uniformed
police officers and EMS personnel were on site including the Wake County mobile emergency command center.
Somewhere between 15,000 and 20,000 persons attended the event. What was the purpose of having the EMS
(emergency medical service) personnel at the event?

A. EMS personnel were there to eliminate the probability of injuries or illnesses of attendees.

B. EMS personnel were there to lower the probability of severe injuries or illnesses of attendees.

C. EMS personnel were there to eliminate the severity of injuries or illnesses of attendees.

D. EMS personnel were there to minimize the severity of injuries or illnesses of attendees.

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Solution
EMS personnel have the main function of providing emergency medical services. They were available to quickly treat
injured or ill attendees thus helping to minimize their severity.

It is impossible to eliminate the possibility of injuries or illnesses in such an event.

The correct solution is D.

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02/17/2011 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Who should be the primary (most frequent) contact with the media during a large-scale hazardous material
emergency?

A. Incident Commander

B. Safety Officer

C. Financial Officer

D. Public Relations Specialist

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Solution
The Incident Commander should be available to the media for short periods each day. It is important for this person
to directly answer questions from the media. However, the most frequent contact throughout the event should be
someone well versed in working the media.

The correct solution is D.

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08/24/2010 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
Which solution describes claims-made insurance?

A. Coverage that applies to liabilities incurred and asserted during the policy period.

B. Coverage after the termination of the policy that applies to liabilities that occur during the policy period.

C. Coverage after the termination of the policy for liabilities that occur after the policy period.

D. Coverage that applies to liabilities during the policy period and for a period of 10 years after termination of
the policy.

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Solution
Occurrence insurance covers incidents that occur during the policy period. The policy in force on the date of the
event must cover the loss.

Claims made insurance covers incidents based on the date that the insured becomes aware of the claim and notifies
the insurance carrier.

The correct solution is A.

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07/15/2010 – Risk Assessment


Category Risk Management

Question
Which organization determines carcinogenicity of chemicals?

A. ASTM

B. ANSI

C. NFPA

D. IARC

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Solution
ASTM International was is the American Standards for Testing and Materials

ANSI is the American National Standards Institute

NFPA is the National Fire Protection Association

IARC is the International Agency for Research on Cancer

The correct solution is D.

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04/22/2010 – Risk Management


Category Risk Management

Question
What is the first choice in managing risks of motor vehicle accidents in a fleet?

A. Lower the probability of accidents happening

B. Lower the severity (injuries and property damage) of accidents

C. Transfer risk to a third party

D. Only purchase vehicles with ROPS

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Solution
Risk is generally defined as the product of the probability of an event and the severity of the event.

The best way to lower risk is lower the probability as close to zero as reasonably possible.

However, effective risk management will utilize a variety of techniques to lower both probability and severity.

The correct solution is A.

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11/13/2009 – Risk Assessment


Category Risk Management

Question
Which US industry has the highest work-related fatality rate?

A. Agriculture, forestry, fishing, and hunting

B. Construction

C. Transportation and warehousing

D. Utilities

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Solution
According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, agriculture, forestry, fishing and hunting had a fatality rate of 30.5
per 100,000 workers in 2004. The construction fatality rate in 2004 was 12.0 per 100,000 workers, the transportation
and warehousing fatality rate was 18.0 per 100,000 workers and the utilities fatality rate was 6.1 per 100,000 workers.

Mining is also very dangerous. The fatality rate of mining in 2004 was 28.3 occupational fatalities per 100,000
workers.

The correct solution is A.

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03/11/2004 – Risk Assessment


Category Risk Management

Question
Name the 2 key components in assessing risks.

A. Probability of the event and severity of the event

B. Probability of the event and frequency of the event

C. Severity of the event and event mitigating factors

D. Bayesian exposure analysis and injury/illness probability

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Solution
The two key components in risk assessment is the severity of an event and the event probability.

The correct solution is A.

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DOMAIN 3 (CSP NEW SYLLABUS FROM 2017):
RISK MANAGEMENT (QUESTIONS & ANSWERS)

656 When designing a safety program, it is essential that psychological factors


like individual differences, motivation, emotion, attitudes, and ________________ be
considered.

1) Reward
2) Punishment
3) Learning
4) Negativism

Ans.3 Learning underlies much of what makes for differences and similarities among people.
Through learning, people have developed certain kinds of psychological needs, habitual
patterns of behavior, ways of reacting to emotion, and the attitudes which brought them into
the workplace. It is essential to consider learning because training is a major consideration in
safety programming.

657 Non-regulatory consequences of failure to adequately clean-up chemical releases include


all EXCEPT:

1) Decreased property values


2) Difficulties in selling the affected property
3) Reduced collateral value of the property in borrowing situations
4) Reduced charges to waste disposal budget

Ans.4 Reduced charges to waste disposal budget is not possible.(Most likely, costs will
increase.) Chemical contamination can cause a property to have a negative economic value
because the costs of remediation exceed the market value of the property, once remediated.
There are legal/regulatory consequences as well.
658 The total value estimated to be at risk as a result of a particular hazard being evaluated is
called:

1) Loss exposure
2) Total risk exposure
3) Risk unit
4) Loss expected

Ans.2Total risk exposure is the total number of dollars estimated to be at risk as a result of a
particular hazard being evaluated.

659 In assessing risk, one of the analytical techniques used by systems safety is called hazard
risk. It is:

1) A means used to identify and measure the hazard


2) A way to measure potential hazard conditions in the operational phase
3) A method for calculating the effect of a hazard if allowed to become an accident
4) The product of hazard severity and hazard possibility of occurrence

Ans.4Risk assessment techniques use mainly system-oriented inductive and deductive


analyses. The system safety analytical technique called hazard risk is the product of hazard
severity and hazard possibility of occurrence (frequency).

660 System availability is defined as:

1) A measure of the degree to which an item is in an operable and committable state.


2) The hardware which maintains the higher state of productivity
3) The average degree of reliability needed maintain to status quo
4) Simply stated by the formula: As = (An)(Aq)(Ai)

Ans.1 System availability is defined as a measure of the degree to which an item is in an


operable and committable state.
661When using a FTA for accident investigation, the accident is the top event. What is a
significant reason for using this technique to analyze the accident?

1) All the events are identified


2) The probability that the accident can occur again can be calculated
3) It speeds up the investigation
4) Events that have a zero probability of occurrence are eliminated and the remainder
are investigated

Ans.4 Often it is important to eliminate those items that did not contribute to an accident so
they do not become the focus of investigation and change.

662 Statistically, when several events are independent they:

1) Are also mutually exclusive


2) Do not affect one another
3) Are not capable of happening at the same time
4) Are also conditional on one another

Ans.2Independent events do not have an effect on the probability of occurrence of any other
event. Mutually exclusive events cannot happen together. It is possible that independent
events could happen at the same time.

663Two events that cannot occur together are called:

1) Independent events
2) Non-random events
3) Mutually exclusive events
4) Bayseian events

Ans.3 Mutually exclusive means that the events cannot occur at the same time. Sometimes
this is confused with independent events where one event does not influence another event.
664 Which of the following is not an element of a risk assessment?

1) Hazard identification
2) Exposure assessment
3) Risk communication
4) Dose-response assessment

Ans.3 Risk communication is the process of informing the public in a understandable and
effective manner of the potential harm from a given exposure situation and/or particular
agent. Hazard identification, dose-response assessment, and exposure assessment are all
elements of risk assessment as outlined by the National Academy of Sciences.

665 The most appropriate method of analysis to completely evaluate a product in a safety
program is:

1) Failure mode and effects analysis


2) Fault-tree analysis
3) Preliminary hazard analysis
4) No single method of analysis

Ans.4While all are appropriate techniques for use in evaluation of a product, no single
method can be used to completely evaluate a product.

666 When using system safety techniques to evaluate a product, the most appropriate time to
conduct the first analysis is:

1) When the patent is applied for


2) When the product is first conceived
3) When the product prototype is developed
4) When the first products are manufactured but before it is distributed

Ans.2While system safety techniques may be employed throughout the manufacturing


process, the first analysis should be done at the time the product is conceived. This helps
assure that safety is built in from the start and may help avoid costly decisions to re-engineer
the product or perhaps even drop plans for the manufacture and distribution of the product.
667 Systems safety techniques employ the use of four categories of analysis. Fault tree
analysis is ALWAYS a member of which category:

1) Deductive analyses
2) Inductive analyses
3) Quantitative hazard analyses
4) Qualitative hazard analyses

Ans.1A fault tree analysis is an example of a deductive analysis. Deductive analyses start
with a top-level event, and logically determine its specific causes. Some FTA's can be
qualitative - some can be quantitative. No FTA is inductive.

668 The technique that provides a means for quantitatively evaluating the contribution of
human error to the degradation of product quality is called a:

1) Fault hazard analysis


2) Failure modes effects analysis
3) Fault tree analysis
4) THERP

Ans.4THERP, a technique for human error predictions was developed by the Scandia
Corporation. It provides a means for quantitatively evaluating the contributions of human
error to the degradation of product quality. It can be used for human components in systems
and can be combined with either failure modes effects or fault tree analysis.

669 In system safety you would use which Boolean gate to connect the causative agents
"exothermic reaction" and "outside heat source" to the end product "heat".

1) "AND"
2) "OR"
3) Either
4) Neither

Ans.2 You would utilize an "OR" gate because either an "exothermic reaction" OR an
"outside source" will cause heat.
670 In performing a quantitative fault tree analysis, the first step is to define the top event to
be investigated by the tree. Then you must gain an understanding of the system. Which of the
following is NOT one of the remaining steps?

1) Construct the tree


2) Collect qualitative data
3) Evaluate the probability of the event chosen as the event to be investigated
4) Analyze computer output

Ans.2Quantitative data collection is the fourth step, not qualitative data collection.

671 The first step of a system-level fault tree analysis is to define the top event. The failure
selected to define the event must be:

1) Major system failures


2) Procedure failures
3) Component failures
4) All failures

Ans.1Major system failures are chosen because they will determine key improvements that
must be made in system safety. Selection of other, lower-level failures would result in
overlooking much of the system for potential failures.

672 The value of  in a fault tree analysis indicates:

1) An event expected to happen during normal use.


2) The hazard rate
3) The failure rate
4) The error rate

Ans.3 The Greek letter "" represents the probability of a failure of a component of a part of a
system. It can also indicate the mean time between failures.
673 The method that uses mathematical simulation, chance processes, and random numbers
to determine whether and how frequently the outcome of an event or complex relationship
will occur is known as:

1) Mathematical Simulation
2) Monte Carlo Method
3) Modeling Method
4) Computer Simulation

Ans.2The Monte Carlo Method of simulation is the name of the method used to analyze
complex trees. It requires the use of a computer since a reasonably complex tree will require
significant calculations to get a reliable answer for the reliability of the main event.

674 The "bathtub" curve is a stress related depiction that describes the relationship between
component failure and exposure. Failures occurring during early stages of use occur in the
debugging period, which is also called:

1) Experimental period
2) Burn-in period
3) Burn-out period
4) Assessment period

Ans.2Failures occurring during early stages of use occur during the burn-in period.

675If the mean time between failures of a system is 5,000 trials, what is the reliability of the
system over 15,000 trials?

1) 0.05
2) 0.23
3) 0.33
4) 3.00

Ans.1Using the reliability formula: Rt = e-λτ


= 1/mean time between failures
Rt = e (-15,000/5,000)
Rt = 0.0498
676If the reliability of a system over 15,000 trials is 0.05, what is the probability of failure of
the system?

1) 67%
2) 76%
3) 95%
4) 100%

Ans.3Using the formula: P(f) = 1 - R(t), where:


P(f) is the probability of failure and R(t) is the reliability over time.
P(f) = 1 - 0.05
= 0.95 or 95%

677The reliability of a component that has two parallel redundant circuits (each redundant
system has a reliability of 0.85) is:

1) 1.00
2) 0.98
3) 0.89
4) 0.85

Ans.2The probability of failure of each leg is calculated as R = (1 - 0.85) = 0.15


The probability of a system failure is:
Pf = 0.15 * 0.15 = 0.0225
The system reliability is Rs = 1 - 0.0225 = 0.9775

678A system that has multiple units that must operate in order for a given output to occur is
said to have:

1) Parallel redundancy
2) Fail safe characteristics
3) High failure rates
4) Series redundancy

Ans.4Such a system has series redundancy, and as such, has a low probability for a failure to
occur.
679A system with two components in parallel, each with a reliability of 0.70, would have a
reliability of:

1) 0.30
2) 0.50
3) 0.70
4) 0.91

Ans.4 Rseries = R1 R2
Rparallel = 1 - (U1 U2)
U1 = 1 - 0.70 = 0.30
U2 = 1 - 0.70 = 0.30
Rparallel = 1 - (0.30)(0.30)
= 1 - 0.09
= 0.91
If one component fails, another can act as a backup.

680If a system consists of 100 components in series, each with a reliability of 0.9900, the
reliability of the entire system is:

1) 0.366
2) 0.634
3) 0.990
4) 0.999

Ans.1In series, multiply the reliabilities of all components.


R = 0.99100
= 0.366
366 times out of 1,000 the system would be able to properly perform its function.
681For reliability purposes, adding components in parallel:

1) Decreases reliability in the system


2) Has no effect on reliability in the system
3) Increases the reliability of the system
4) Depends on other subsystems

Ans.3Rseries = R1R2
Rparallel = 1 - (U1 U2)
U1 = 1 - R1
U2 = 1 - R2
Assume R1 = 0.9 and R2 = 0.8
In a series system the system reliability is:
Rs = 0.9 * 0.8 = 0.72
In a parallel system the system reliability is:
Rp = - (0.1 * 0.2) = 0.98

682For system (A) to fail, components (B) and (C) which are in parallel, must fail. If the
reliability of (B) and (C) are both 0.70, then what is the reliability of system (A)?

1) 0.49
2) 0.51
3) 0.91
4) 0.97

Ans.3In a parallel arrangement the reliability of system


RA = 1 - (1 - 0.70) (1 - 0.70)
= 0.91

683The reliability of a system is enhanced by adding a component in:

1) Parallel
2) Series
3) Sequence
4) Progression

Ans.1The reliability is enhanced by adding a component in parallel. The additional


component, which performs the same function within a given system, makes it redundant (or
parallel).
684 A switch has 5 components. Each part has a failure rate of 0.3. Failure of any part causes
the switch to fail. What in the reliability of the switch system?

1) 1.50
2) 0.168
3) 0.150
4) 0.00243

Ans.2Reliability is defined as (1 - failure rate). The reliability of this system is the product of
the reliabilities of the components.
R = (1 - 0.3)5 = 0.168

685A switch has 5 components, all redundant to one another. The component failure rates are
1 x 10-3, 1 x 10-2, 1 x 10-1, 1 x 10-3, and 1 x 10-2, respectively. What is the system failure rate?

1) 1 x 10-11
2) 5 x 10-11
3) 1.21 x 10-1
4) 1.21 x 10-2

Ans.1 Given the parallel construction, the total failure rate is multiplicative.
Failure Rate = (1 x 10-3) (1 x 10-2) (1 x 10-1) (1 x 10-3) (1 x 10-2) = 1 x 10-11

686You are asked to recommend a parallel or series design for a critical switch. The switch
has two components with a failure rate of 1 x 10-5 and 1 x 10-8. Which should you choose?

1) Parallel construction
2) Series construction
3) Double parallel construction
4) Double series construction

Ans.1To reduce the failure rate you would choose the parallel construction.
The parallel failure rate is:
Failure Rate = (1 x 10-5) (1 x 10-8) = 1 x 10-13
The series construction failure rate is:
Failure Rate (s) = (1 x 10-5) + (1 x 10-8) = 1 x 10-5
687When assessing the reliability of a system, all of the following are considered appropriate
EXCEPT:

1) Part usage
2) Functional requirements
3) Environmental requirements
4) Reliability bonding

Ans.4Reliability bonding is not considered appropriate when assessing the reliability of a


system.

688In a large sample of components, 5% were found to be defective. If 7 components are


sampled, what is the probability that exactly 3 will be defective?

1) 0.999
2) 0.036
3) 0.001
4) 0.0001

Ans.4P(d) = Qy [P(s)(n-y)]
y = # of successes
n = # of trials
Q = Probability of Failure
P(s) = Probability of Success
P(d) = Probability of Defective
P(d) = (0.05)3[0.95(7-3)]
= 0.000125 * 0.95)4
= 0.000125 * 0.857
= 0.000107

689When performing a hypothesis test, a Type I error is:

1) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is true


2) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
3) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false
4) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false

Ans.2Statistically it is possible to get a sample where the sample statistic falls outside the
acceptance region but the null hypothesis is indeed true. This is called a Type I error.
690Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false is called a:

1) Type I Error
2) Type II Error
3) Type III Error
4) Type IV Error

Ans.2Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false is called a Type II error and is
symbolized by the Greek letter beta.

691When testing an assumption about a population mean and we accept the alternative
hypothesis:

1) The sample mean must have fallen within the acceptance b region
2) The sample mean must have fallen within the rejection region
3) The population mean must have fallen within the acceptance region
4) The population mean must have fallen within the rejection region

Ans.2 If the sample mean falls within the rejection region, we reject the null hypothesis and
accept the alternative hypothesis.

692 In a behavioral observation process, the principle method of feedback is usually


considered to be:

1) Posting group data on percent of safe behaviors observed


2) Discipline when an employee is seen doing something incorrectly
3) Posting individual employee results
4) Supervisors are informed of their group's performance

Ans.1 In a behavioral observation process, feedback is generally given by posting group


results such as the percent of safe behaviors observed.
E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

693The psychologist considered to be the "father" of behavior modification is:

1) Sigmund Freud
2) B. F. Skinner
3) Douglas McGregor
4) Frederick Herzberg

Ans.2 B. F. Skinner is generally considered to be the father of behavioralism.


Dan Petersen, Safety Management: A Human Approach
694Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning human behavior?

1) There is no such person as an average person


2) Best approach is to design systems to fit percentiles of the population
3) In fitting personnel to a job consider both the physical and personality characteristics
4) Attitude is an important characteristicof fitting the worker to the task

Ans.4Attitude is not an important characteristic of fitting the worker to the task.

695Which of the following is NOT true concerning critical incident technique when
evaluating human behavior?

1) Take a structured sample of employees


2) Interview to collect accident information on near misses, difficulties in operations,
and conditions that could have resulted in death or property loss
3) Incidents are classed into hazard categories and problem areas or behaviors are
identified
4) Periodically repeat the procedure as conditions or populations change

Ans.1Taking a RANDOM sample of employees is a critical incident technique when


evaluating human behavior.

696Which one of the following is NOT true concerning behavior sampling when evaluating
human behavior?

1) Use a behavior or activity sampling sheet


2) Do walk-around inspections and record the number and types of behavior observed
3) Make the observations at the same time each day
4) Calculate the percentage of times certain behaviors are observed

Ans.3 Making observations at DIFFERENT times of the day, days of week, and shifts is true
when using behavior sampling.

697"Risk analysis" is normally conducted before

1) Dose response modeling


2) Environmental analysis
3) Fault tree analysis
4) Risk management

Ans.4The methodology of risk analysis is quite different from risk management. Risk
analysis is a scientific activity, the result of which is an estimate of risk. Risk management
must determine whether the risk is acceptable and if not, what methods will be used to reduce
the risk to an acceptable level.
698If the chi-square statistic of a sample corresponds to a p of 0.01, what may one infer?

1) The result will occur 1% of the time


2) The mean of the sample will occur 1% of the time
3) The result is statistically significant at the p = 0.01 level
4) The result is most likely a matter of chance

Ans.3A chi-square statistic equal to 0.01 means that the result is statistically significant with
a probability of error of 1% (0.01).

699An inductive technique that explores different responses to "challenges" is called:

1) Event tree analysis


2) Fault tree analysis
3) Logic analysis
4) Bottom-up assessment

Ans.1An event tree analysis is an inductive technique that explores different responses to
"challenges".

700 This technique envisions a "primitive" or unprotected system and systematically


evaluates the effects of adding various controls through a brainstorming approach.

1) Brainstorming
2) Primitive analysis
3) Naked man
4) Hazard control review

Ans.3Naked man is the technique that envisions a "primitive" or unprotected system and
systematically evaluates the effect of adding various controls through a brainstorming
approach.
701A technique that utilizes a method of developing job procedures that includes a
systematic task analysis that examines each step, and identifies preventive or corrective
actions required to ensure a safe operation is called a(n):

1) Job safety analysis


2) Task analysis
3) Operability study
4) Systematic task analysis

Ans.1A job safety analysis is a technique that utilizes a method of developing job procedures
that includes a systematic task analysis that examines each step, and identifies preventive or
corrective actions required to ensure a safe operation.

702This technique utilizes a six-step process to analyze and control human errors. The
process involves selecting an event, identifying the tasks associated with the event, separating
specific behaviors of each task and assigning basic error rates. This is called a(n):

1) Behavioral assessment
2) Job safety analysis (JSA)
3) Technique for human error rate prediction (THERP)
4) Operability study

Ans.3"Technique for human error rate prediction", (THERP) utilizes a six-step process to
analyze and control human errors.

703A technique that provides formal documentation and feedback to a safety analysis
performed on changes to the end product throughout the life cycle is called a:

1) Life cycle analysis


2) Change analysis
3) Project evaluation tree
4) PERT

Ans.2A change analysis is a technique that provides formal documentation and feedback of
safety analyses performed on changes (to the end product) throughout the life cycle.
704The combined couplet of frequency and severity is defined as:

1) Accident severity
2) Risk
3) Incident rate
4) Frequency rate

Ans.2Risk is universally defined as the combination of frequency and severity, or


consequence.

705The uncertainty of risk has which of the following components?

1) Likelihood and consequence


2) Consequence and exposure
3) Exposure
4) Exposure, consequence, and likelihood

Ans.4Exposure, consequence, and likelihood contribute to the uncertainty of risk.

706 Three categories of hazards in hazard analysis studies are:

1) Errors of omission, errors of commission, and inherent properties


2) People, machines, and the environment
3) Environmental issues, human and material failure, and inherent properties
4) Material or human failure, environmental failure, and properties

Ans.3The three broad categories are: environmental issues that create stress, inherent
properties that create hazards, and failures of people and materials.
707 A FMEA (failure modes and effects analysis) is extremely effective when applied to:

1) Multiple failures of a system


2) Multiple failures of a product
3) Single failures of a unit
4) Analyze non-critical events
5)

Ans.3A FMEA is the right systems safety tool to use to analyze a single failure or a single
unit failure. Often FMEA is used in conjunction with a fault tree analysis to evaluate a
product's safety. Fault tree logic can identify possible failures and a FMEA can be used to
analyze each failure event.

708 Which of the following is NOT a formal method for assessing risk?

1) Maintenance Mode Analysis


2) Preliminary Hazard Analysis
3) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
4) Fault Tree Analysis

Ans.1Many hazards are still possible in spite of product design efforts. They may result from
component failures, malfunctions, operational methods, environments encountered,
maintenance, and operation errors. These hazards can be identified by one or more of the
analyses listed, all of which serve to accomplish a common function identified as risk
assessment. The differences between the listed analyses is in that they occur at different times
during a system safety program. A maintenance mode analysis is not a risk assessment
method.

709 The technique in which the failure or malfunction of each component is considered and
the effects of the failure traced upward through the system is identified with:

1) Failure modes and effects analysis


2) Preliminary hazard analysis
3) Fault tree analysis
4) THERP

Ans.1A failure modes and effects analysis is an analytical technique in which the failure or
malfunction of each component is considered, including the mode of failures. The effects of
the failure are traced upward through the entire system and its effect on the system
performance is evaluated.
710 A system safety analysis can clarify a complex process by:

1) Making a step-by-step evaluation of each component that makes up the system


2) Developing a conceptual model of the system
3) Employing the use of applicable statistics
4) Both 1 and 3

Ans.2An analysis of the system can clarify a complex process by devising a chart or model
that provides a comprehensive, overall view of the process by showing its principal elements
and the ways in which they are interrelated.

711 An event tree analysis is best defined as:

1) A method for identifying various possible outcomes


2) A system of numerical analysis
3) A method utilizing true and false options
4) A system of statistical analysis

Ans.1An event tree analysis is a logic method that breaks down the possible outcomes of a
single event.

712The first step in an event tree analysis is termed the:

1) Failure event
2) Primal event
3) Logic inhibit
4) Initiating event

Ans.4The initial event in any event tree is termed the "initiating event".

713The effects of the failure are traced through the system and the ultimate effect on task
performance is evaluated. This process is called a:

1) Preliminary hazard analysis


2) Fault hazard analysis
3) Failure modes and effects analysis
4) Critical item

Ans.3When the effects of the failure are traced through the system and the ultimate effect on
task performance is evaluated, this process is called a failure modes and effects analysis.
714The mobility of a system, subsystem, component or part from performing its function
within specified limits, under specified conditions for a specified duration is called (a):

1) Malfunction
2) Hazard
3) Risk
4) Failure

Ans.4 When a system, subsystem, component, or part departs from its intended design
parameters, the departure from design is called a failure. For example, if an electric motor is
designed to produce 100 horsepower (+/- 1 horsepower) with a 40 amp current draw (+/- 1
amp), then the electric motor has experienced a failure if it produces only 50 horsepower
when drawing 50 amps.

715A process to identify hazards and recommend risk reduction alternatives in procedurally
controlled activities during all phases of intended use is called a(n):

1) Preliminary hazard analysis


2) Risk assessment
3) Operating and support hazard analysis
4) Fault tree analysis

Ans.3 An operating and support hazard analysis is a process to identify hazards and
recommend risk reduction alternatives in procedurally controlled activities during all phases
of intended use.

716A single item of hardware, the failure of which would lead directly to loss of life, vehicle,
or mission is called a:

1) Critical hardware item


2) Risk item
3) Single failure point
4) Failure event

Ans.3A single failure point is a single item of hardware, the failure of which would lead
directly to loss of life, vehicle, or mission.
717Those computer software components whose errors can result in a hazard or loss of
predictability or control of a system are called:

1) Software code critical


2) Single failure point
3) Unsafe error
4) Safety-critical computer software components

Ans.4Safety-critical computer software components are those computer software components


whose errors can result in a hazard or loss or predictability or control of a system.

718The formal analysis of a system and the interrelationships among its various parts to
determine the real and potential hazards within the system, and to suggest ways to reduce and
control those hazards is called a:

1) Fault hazard analysis


2) Subsystem hazard analysis
3) System hazard analysis
4) Failure modes and effects analysis

Ans.3A system hazard analysis is a formal analysis of a system and the interrelationships
among its various parts to determine the real and potential hazards within the system, and to
suggest ways to reduce and control those hazards.

719 An analysis technique that is used primarily to evaluate multiple failures that may be
caused by a single event or causal factor common to or shared by multiple components is a:

1) Failure modes and effect analysis


2) Common cause failure analysis
3) Fault hazard analysis
4) Fault tree analysis

Ans.2A common cause failure analysis is an analysis technique that is used primarily to
identify a single event or causal factor common to or shared by multiple components. This
analysis is looking for failures that can cause multiple "independent" safeguards to fail . For
example, a common cause failure of redundant cooling water pumps may be the loss of
electricity to both pumps.
720 A technique to determine an unintended energy route, which can allow an undesired
function to occur, prevent functions from occurring, or adversely affect the timing of
functions is called a:

1) Sneak circuit analysis


2) Fault hazard analysis
3) Fault tree analysis
4) Energy route review

Ans.1A sneak circuit analysis is a technique to determine an unintended energy route that can
allow an undesired function to occur, prevent functions from occurring, or adversely affect
the timing of functions.

721 An example of an inductive analysis is a:

1) Fault tree analysis


2) Failure mode and effects analysis
3) Accident investigation
4) Qualitative hazard analysis

Ans.2Inductive analyses begin with a component or function, and then attempt to determine
possible outcomes of failures of the function or component. It is a predictive tool for the user
and does not rely on a history of failures to determine the future failures.

722Many of the potential failures of a system can be determined before manufacturing of the
product by using a technique known as a:

1) PHA
2) FMEA
3) JSA
4) FHA

Ans.1A preliminary hazard analysis is a technique used to conduct an initial hazard


evaluation that can then be used to make informed decisions about the product's design and
manufacture.
723 The system safety technique that starts with an undesired event and analyzes the way the
undesired event occurs is:

1) SADT
2) Fault tree analysis
3) PERT
4) Job Safety Analysis

Ans.2A fault tree analysis starts with the undesired event - the top-level event.

724 The most commonly used systems safety analysis technique is:

1) Fault tree analysis


2) Failure mode and effect analysis
3) Preliminary hazard analysis
4) Fault hazard analysis

Ans.3Preliminary hazard analysis is the most common tool used by the systems safety
practitioner. It is used at the beginning stages of the development of a product.

725An example of an inductive analysis technique is the:

1) Quantitative fault tree analysis


2) Qualitative fault tree analysis
3) Failure Modes, Effects, and Criticality analysis
4) Top-down analysis

Ans.3FMECA is an example of an inductive analysis.

726 Which of the following is not an inductive analysis technique?

1) FTA
2) JSA
3) FMEA
4) FMECA

Ans.1The fault tree analysis (FTA) is an example of a deductive analysis technique.


727In order to use Boolean logic to simplify the calculations needed to analyze a fault tree:

1) An entry can only be in one of two possible modes: on-off, will occur-will not occur,
closed-not closed
2) Intermediate conditions can be expressed and analyzed
3) Events are dependent on each other
4) Cause-effect relationships are never used

Ans.1Entries are either on or off and can have no intermediate condition for a fault tree to be
analyzed using Boolean logic.

728 When determining the relative safety of a product using fault tree analysis, a quick way
to evaluate this safety is to:

1) Count the number of "OR" gates


2) Subtract the number of "OR" gates from the number of "AND" gates
3) Count the number of "AND" gates
4) Add the total number of gates in the tree except for the "inhibit" gates

Ans.3"AND" gates require that all events must occur in order for the failure to occur
therefore, the probability of failure is the product of all the individual input probabilities. This
value is much smaller than from the same events going through an "OR" gate .

729 A bleeder valve on a furnace fails after 20,000 days of operation. If the valve operates
once per day what has been its success rate?

1) 0.99995
2) 0.99999
3) 0.99900
4) 0.99000

Ans.1 Success Rate = 19,999 successes / 20,000 attempts


= 0.99995 success rate
730 A bleeder valve on a furnace fails after 20,000 days of operation. If the valve operates
once per day, what is its failure rate?

1) 1 x 10-4
2) 5 x 10-4
3) 1 x 10-5
4) 5 x 10-5

Ans.4 Failure Rate = 1 failure / 20,000 attempts


= 0.00005
= 5 x 10-5

731A door hinge fails 4 times out of 1,000,000 operations. What is the failure rate?

1) 4 x 10-7
2) 4 x 10-9
3) 4 x 10-6
4) 4 x 10-5

Ans.3Failure Rate = 4 failures / 1,000,000 attempts


= 4 x 10-6

732 A door hinge fails 4 times out of 1,000,000 operations. What is its success rate?

1) 99.9996 x 10-2
2) 99.9999 x 10-2
3) 99.9 x 10-3
4) 99 x 10-2

Ans.1 Success Rate = 999,996 successes / 1,000,000 attempts


= 0.999996
= 99.9996 x 10-2

733 A switch has 4 components. Each has a failure rate of "a". The components are
connected in series. What is the switch's failure rate?

1) (4a) + 1
2) a4
3) 4a
4) a(a+4)

Ans.3For n components in series, the overall failure rate is the sum of the single components'
failure rates.
734 A method of identifying errors and unsafe conditions that contribute to both potential and
actual injurious accidents within a given population by means of a stratified, random sample
of participants and observers selected from within this population is called:

1) Job safety analysis


2) Procedural analysis
3) Critical incident technique
4) Operating and support hazard analysis

Ans.3Critical incident technique is a method of identifying errors and unsafe conditions that
contribute to both potential and actual injurious accidents within a given population by means
of a stratified random sample of participants and observers selected from within this
population.

735 The major cause of on-the-job fatalities in the United States is:

1) Employee slips, trips, and falls


2) Employee motor vehicle use
3) Logging
4) Machinery

Ans.2The single largest cause of on-the-job fatalities is from motor vehicles. They account
for about a third of all deaths.

736 The difference between a mock-up and a breadboard model is:

1) The mock up is operational but not the same size as a full scale model. The
breadboard is also operational but does not resemble the product
2) A breadboard functions and a mock-up does not
3) There are no differences
4) One is used to simulate a failure and one to simulate a product design

Ans.2A mock-up looks like the product but does not function. A breadboard works but does
not resemble the final product.
737 The degree of safety achieved in a system depends directly on:

1) Good design practices


2) Employing systems safety techniques
3) Management emphasis
4) Meeting set objectives

Ans.3The degree of safety achieved in a system depends directly on management emphasis.


Government and contractors will apply management emphasis to safety during the system
acquisition process and throughout the life cycle of each system, making sure mishap risk is
understood and risk reduction is always considered in the management review process.

738 The uncertainty factor approach (i.e., derivation of a risk reference dose or RFD) is used
to derive guidelines for exposure to ______________ agents.

1) Carcinogenic
2) Noncarcinogenic
3) Toxicologic
4) Pharmacologic

Ans.2Use of the RFD is based on the presumed threshold nature of these effects and uses
uncertainty factors to attempt to account for intraspecies and interspecies variation.

739Children are generally _________ susceptible to the effects of a number of heavy metals
as compared to adults.

1) Less
2) More
3) Equally
4) Variably

Ans.2Children have an immature blood-to-brain (BTB) barrier. Mature BTB's are effective at
preventing lead and other heavy metals from reaching the brain and spinal areas.
740A type of toxic reaction common in acute exposure to solvents is:

1) Spontaneous aborted pregnancy


2) Narcosis
3) Anemia
4) Pneumonitis

Ans.2Acute exposure to a variety of solvents produces disturbances including disorientation,


euphoria, giddiness, confusion, and eventually unconsciousness, paralysis, convulsions, and
death if the exposure is not discontinued.

741The primary target tissue in methanol toxicity is the:

1) Cornea
2) Cerebellum
3) Nasal epithelium
4) Retina

Ans.4Methanol intoxication is characterized by initial mild inebriation followed by an


asymptomatic period of 12 to 24 hours after which metabolic acidosis develops. Visual
problems include eye pain, blurred vision, reduced visual fields, and blindness (due to
damage to the retinal tissue).

742 The most common type of cancer produced by ionizing radiation in children under 10
years of age is:

1) Osteogenic sarcoma
2) Myeloid leukemia
3) Chronic lymphatic leukemia
4) Thyroid cancer

Ans.2 Myeloid and acute leukemias are the most readily induced of the radiation-caused
cancers; however, the incidence of chronic lymphatic leukemia does not appear to be affected
by radiation.
743Which of the following designs will NOT allow equipment to operate?

1) Fail-active
2) Fail-passive
3) Fail-safe
4) Fail-operational

Ans.2A fail-passive system shuts down the equipment.

744 Which system design is intrinsically safe?

1) A non-redundant system
2) Double parallel system
3) Cost effective system
4) Single parallel system

Ans.2 The only intrinsically safe system listed is a double parallel system.

745 In system safety design, which design philosophy is the closest to "perfect" safety?

1) Intrinsically safe
2) Fail-safe
3) Fail-passive
4) Fail-operational

Ans.1 The design philosophy which is closest to "perfect" safety is intrinsic safety. This
design philosophy seeks to limit failures to an extremely small percentage. All of the others
allow failure, but seek to engineer out the hazard a failure would bring.

746 This system safety design reduces the system to its lowest energy level given a failure:

1) Intrinsically safe
2) Fail-passive
3) Fail-active
4) Fail-operational

Ans.2In fail-passive designs, the system is brought to its lowest energy level, given a
component failure. The other options do not reduce the system energy level to its lowest
potential.
747 Which of the following designs are NOT examples of fail-safe design philosophy?

1) Fail-passive
2) Fail-active
3) Fail-operational
4) All are fail-safe designs

Ans.4 Fail-safe designs include all of the above as design philosophies.

748 All of the following are examples of malfunctions which impact a system EXCEPT:

1) Structural
2) Mechanical
3) Power
4) Human

Ans.4 The potential malfunctions in any system include structural failure, mechanical
malfunctions, power failures, and electrical malfunctions. The human component, though
critical, is not considered to be a malfunction.

749A design that automatically reduces the system to its lowest energy level is considered:

1) Fail-active
2) Fail-ceased
3) Fail-passive
4) Fail-non-operational

Ans.2Fail-passive is a design that automatically reduces the system to its lowest level.
750Epidemiological studies are either descriptive or experimental. Descriptive epidemiology
helps in preventing disease by:

1) Observing outcomes among study groups not created experimentally


2) Observing outcomes among study groups created experimentally
3) Examining dose response relationships in terms of time, place, and exposed
individuals
4) Both 1 and 3

Ans.4Descriptive epidemiology is the observation of outcomes among study groups not


created experimentally followed by an examination of dose response relationships. The key
concept is that the epidemiologist observes existing groups of people and obtains observation
data. No hypothesis is being tested as in an experimental study.

751In determining the probability of a cause/effect relationship between an illness and an


agent in the workplace, the first consideration must be to:

1) Examine the interplay between the physical environment and biological effects
2) Examine dose relationships in terms of time and place
3) Establish that a disease condition does exist
4) Determine toxicity of the chemical agent

Ans.3The first consideration in determining the probability of a cause/effect relationship


between an illness and an agent in the workplace is to establish that a disease condition
actually exists or that the particular manifestations of the disease are the result of exposure to
a specific harmful agent.

752 Which factor will LEAST likely determine whether or not an individual exposed to a
biohazard will actually contract the disease?

1) The number of organisms in the work environment


2) The exposed individual's blood type
3) The resistance of the workers to the organism(s)
4) The virulence of the organism(s)

Ans.2 The combination of the number of organisms in the environment, the virulence of
these organisms, the resistance of the workers to the organisms, and the presence of other
chemical or physical stresses in the environment ultimately determines whether or not a
person exposed to a biohazard will actually contract the disease. Blood type is the least likely
factor.
753 Anthropometric data are widely used in:

1) Epidemiology
2) Ergonomics/human factors engineering
3) Biomechanics
4) Both 2 and 3

Ans.4Anthropometry is concerned with measurement of the human body. Included in these


measurements are body dimensions, range of body members, and muscle strength. Also
considered are dimensions taken statically and dynamically. Viewed in physical terms, the
body is a complex system of levers and motors attached to a frame. Biomechanics deals with
the study and function of the body in relation to dynamics of men-machine systems.
Ergonomics/HFE professionals use anthropometric data to design and construct equipment,
tools, etc., that work safely and efficiently with humans.

754 The three primary methods, or types, of epidemiology studies are retrospective studies,
prospective studies, and:

1) Case control studies


2) Cross-sectional studies
3) Cohort studies
4) Incident studies

Ans.2 Cross-sectional studies are, by definition, conducted on a sample which is drawn from
one point in time (e.g., the population currently working in a manufacturing plant). The
association between an exposure and effect at one specific point in time is studied.
Employees that are no longer working within the subject area are not considered in the
analysis. Therefore, since this type of study is based on a sample of subjects from one point
in time, its ability to identify cause-effect relationships is very limited. These studies are
quick and inexpensive, however, and can provide hypotheses for later comprehensive studies.

755 The amount of make-up air volume in most cases is determined by:

1) The number of air changes required


2) The total volume of air removed
3) The required comfort conditions
4) Carbon dioxide concentration

Ans.2 In most cases, make-up air volume should equal the total volume of air removed from
the building by exhaust ventilation systems, process systems, and combustion processes.
Determination of actual volumes of air removed usually requires an inventory of exhaust
locations.
756 Automatic sprinkler systems seldom fail to control fires, however, when a failure does
occur the dominant cause is:

1) Foreign material obstructing the piping system


2) Freezing of water in the piping system
3) Improperly closed supply valve
4) Inadequate supply of water

Ans.3 Factory Mutual records cite improperly closed PIV's to be the dominant cause for
automatic sprinkler system failure. This occurs most often because of maintenance related
actions that necessitate system shutdown followed by failure to open the valve after work has
been completed. Shutting off the supply valves prematurely during a fire is another leading
cause for failure.

757 Which of the following portable fire extinguishers should not be used to extinguish a
small fire in a confined space?

1) ABC dry chemical


2) Carbon dioxide
3) Water
4) BC dry chemical

Ans.2 The carbon dioxide will replace oxygen in a confined space and could lead to
asphyxiation.

758 All of the following are steps in a chemical risk analysis EXCEPT:

1) Identification of risk
2) Dose-response
3) Exposure assessment
4) Personal protective equipment required

Ans.4 Chemical risk analyses classically involve risk identification, quantification, dose-
response development, and exposure assessment.
759 A life-threatening disease epidemic has increased the normal annual death rate from 18
deaths per 1,000 people to 28 deaths per 1,000. This is:

1) A death by disease rate of 1.0%


2) A death by disease rate of 1.8%
3) An increased threat to the population of 2,800 per year
4) Both 2 and 3

Ans.1 The 10 deaths per 1,000 people increase in the death rate is attributed to the life-
threatening disease epidemic. Therefore, the death by disease rate is 10 per 1,000 people, or
1%. The usual death rate includes deaths by everything EXCEPT the disease.

760 "The equipment operator failed to shut down the boiler when the high pressure alarm
activated in the control room". During an accident investigation, this will end up being a(n):

1) Causal factor
2) System effect
3) Accepted risk
4) Recognized fault

Ans.1 Causal factors are key events in the chain leading to an accident. If a causal factor is
eliminated, the accident would likely not have happened. Causal factors are always in the
form of "subject - verb".

761 Descriptions of the potential accidents that could result from the hazard in terms of
number of persons affected, environmental impacts, and effects on other subsystems or the
total system are called:

1) Causal factors
2) Hazards
3) System effects
4) Events

Ans.3 A description of potential accidents that could result from the hazard in terms of
number of persons affected, environmental impacts, and effects on other subsystems of the
total system are system effects.
762 A widely recognized protocol utilized to prevent the transmission of the HIV virus is
called:

1) Aids quarantine
2) Universal precautions
3) Aids awareness
4) HBV vaccination

Ans.2 The terminology "universal precautions" is a set of work practices adopted by health
care and related workers to prevent the spread of the HIV and other pathogenic organisms. 29
CFR 1910.1030 (d)(1)

763 In the late 1980s and early 1990s, which vaccine was identified as important for
personnel at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

1) Tetanus
2) HIV
3) HBV
4) HAV

Ans.3The Hepatitis B vaccine was determined to be critical to offer to healthcare workers. In


1991 it was made mandatory for workers at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens in the
United States. 29 CFR 1910.1030 (f)(1)

764 Human factors engineering or ergonomics is fitting the worker to a task or the task to the
worker. In a man/machine system, the machine is better at all of the following EXCEPT:

1) Memory
2) Language ability
3) Exerting large forces smoothly
4) Rapid computations

Ans.2 Man is better at language ability.

765 Safety behavior modification programs have the following purpose:

1) Eliminate unsafe acts


2) Increase safe acts
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of the above

Ans.3 Behavior modification programs generally try to eliminate unsafe acts and increase
safe acts.
Dan Petersen, Safety Management: A Human Approach
766 The most important sensory input for human decision-making is:

1) Visual
2) Auditory
3) Tactile
4) Olfactory

Ans.1 Visual input is the most important. Eye-hand coordination is required for the
successful completion of most workplace operations.

767 In behavioral terms, "ABC" refers to:

1) Activator, behavior, consequence


2) Attitude, behavior, consequence
3) A nice way of saying, "keep it simple stupid"
4) The ease with which people's behavior can be understood

Ans.1 ABC refers to the activator, behavior, consequence model of behavior.

E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

768 Behavior is most influenced by:

1) Activators
2) Consequences
3) Discipline
4) Feedback

Ans.2 While all four answers have an impact on behavior, consequences, in general, have the
most impact. Discipline and feedback can be considered types of consequences, but there are
others to be considered including positive reinforcement and reward.

E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety.


769 Which of the following characteristics of consequences have the most influence on
increasing desired behaviors?

1) Negative, future, uncertain


2) Negative, immediate, certain
3) Positive, future, certain
4) Positive, immediate, certain

Ans.4 Consequences which are positive, immediate, and certain have the most impact on
behavior.
E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

770 Which one of the following is NOT a recommended engineering control method?

1) Isolation or enclosure
2) Substitution of less toxic materials
3) Use of NIOSH-approved respirators
4) Local exhaust ventilation

Ans.3 Use of respirators is not an engineering control.

771 In doing a risk assessment for your hazard analysis, what is the most appropriate
definition of risk?

1) The product of hazard severity and hazard probability


2) Psychrometric hazard perception
3) Anthropologic perception of hazard
4) Hazard fault

Ans.1 In hazard analysis the correct definition of risk is the hazard severity times the hazard
probability. Answers 2 and 3 are social risk parameters that have little value in system safety.

772 Reliability-centered maintenance (RCM) is an approach to equipment maintenance


starting with a facility or system analysis to develop a cost-effective regime for:

1) Repairing/maintaining systems when they fail


2) Repairing/maintaining systems based on historical failure data
3) Repairing/maintaining systems based on the results of constant equipment
monitoring data
4) Both 2 and 3

Ans.4 RCM is a high-level process for maintaining equipment that focuses on preventing
problems through equipment monitoring (vibration tests, oil tests, thermography, etc.) as well
as considering the criteria for equipment routine and preventive maintenance frequency (from
equipment criticality data, etc.). RCM is designed for maintenance resources to be used in a
highly structured way, focused on critical equipment and critical monitoring.
773 A system safety technique that starts with an undesired event and an analysis of how that
event can occur is called?

1) Fault tree analysis


2) Boolean algebra
3) Preliminary hazard analysis
4) Both 1 and 3

Ans.1 Fault tree analysis starts with an undesired event (top-level event) and analyzes its
antecedents.

774 In systems safety, logic gates are used in fault tree construction. An "AND" gate is used
when:

1) Outputs occur if any inputs are present


2) Outputs occur if an input and a condition exist
3) Outputs occur if two or more necessary inputs are present
4) Outputs occur if all necessary inputs are simultaneously present

Ans.4 An "AND" gate is used if all inputs are present at the same time.

775 An "inhibit" gate is used in fault tree construction when:

1) An input produces an output all the time


2) An output inhibits another output
3) An output occurs if an input and a condition exist at the same time
4) An input does not always produce an output

Ans.3 An inhibit gate shows an input and an output along with the condition that must exist
for the output to occur.

776 In systems safety fault tree analysis, a "random" gate is a variation of what type of gate?

1) AND
2) OR
3) NOT
4) Inhibit

Ans.4 A random gate is similar to an inhibit gate. In a random gate, it is drawn as a hexagon
like an inhibit gate but an ellipse is attached to the side and shows the probability for the
random event to occur.
777 Two valves are placed in parallel on a tank. Valve "A" has a failure rate of 1 x 10-3.
Valve "B" has a failure rate of 1 x 10-2. The likelihood of both devices failing simultaneously
is:

1) 1 x 10-2
2) 1 x 10-3
3) 1 x 10-5
4) 1 x 10-10

Ans.3 To determine the probability of this failure, two simultaneous events must occur,
therefore, the probability of the two events is the product of the two probabilities.
Failure Rate = (1 x 10-3)(1 x 10-2)
= 1 x 10-5

778 Valve system V1 has the following valve component failure rates:
X1 = 0.4
X2 = 0.1
X3 = 0.2
X4 = 0.5
The fault tree of the valve system indicates that valve subsystem SS1 contains series
components X1, X2, and X3. Valve component X4 and SS1 are parallel and redundant. What is
the anticipated failure rate of V1?

1) 0.35
2) 0.65
3) 0.75
4) 0.95

Ans.1 Add the series components for the failure rate of SS1.
SS1 = 0.4 + 0.1 + 0.2
= 0.7
Multiply the failure rate of SS1 with redundant valve component X4 to calculate the failure
rate of V1.
V1 = 0.5 x 0.7
= 0.35
779A switch is operated twice per day. If the switch fails after 10 years of operation, what is
its failure rate?

1) 2.7 x 10-1
2) 1.8 x 10-2
3) 1.9 x 10-3
4) 1.4 x 10-4

Ans.4 Total Number of Ops = 10 years * 365 days/year * 2 ops/day


= 7,300 operations
Failure Rate = 1 failure/7,300 operations
= 0.00014
= 1.4 x 10-4

780 Given a failure rate per year of 3 x 10-3 for a valve, if the valve operates once per year,
how many failures will you expect in 1,000 years?

1) 0.03
2) 0.3
3) 3
4) 30

Ans.3 Multiply the failure rate per year by the number of years.
Failure Rate = 3 x 10-3 failures/year * 1,000 years
= 3 failures

781 A automotive parts distributor purchases parts from overseas locations and markets these
parts in the United States. The distributor receives 25% of its parts from country "A" who has
a 10% reject rate, 25% from country "B" who has a 5% reject rate, 12.5% from country "C"
with a 15% reject rate, and 37.5% from country "D" with a 1% reject rate. If you purchase a
defective part what is the probability it came from country "D"?

1) 42%
2) 31%
3) 21%
4) 6%
5)

Ans.4 Basis: 100,000 parts


Country "A" 25,000 * 10% = 2,500 rejects
Country "B" 25,000 * 5% = 1,250 rejects
Country "C" 12,500 * 15% = 1,875 rejects
Country "D" 37,500 * 1% = 375 rejects

P(A) = 2,500 / 6,000 = 0.4167


P(B) = 1,250 / 6,000 = 0.2083
P(C) = 1,875 / 6,000 = 0.3125
P(D) = 375 / 6,000 = 0.0625
782 The reliability department has determined that the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
for a computer disk drive is 95,000 hours. What is the probability that the disk drive will
experience at least one failure in the first 10 years of operation (87,000 hours)?

1) 75%
2) 60%
3) 25%
4) 2%

Ans.2 Pf = 1 -
Pf = 1 - e (-87,000 / 95,000)
Pf=1-.40
Pf= 0.60 or 60%

783 A major failure requires that two conditions, A and B, exist. Condition A occurs if Event
1 and Event 2 exist. Condition B exists if any one of Events 3, 4, or 5 occur. The probability
for Events 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are as follows:
E1 = 0.98
E2 = 0.95
E3 = 0.20
E4 = 0.29
E5 = 0.50
What is the probability that the major failure will occur?

1) 0.931
2) 0.922
3) 0.056
4) 0.027

Ans.2To get the answer, E1 and E2 are multiplied together to get the probability for Condition
A.
P(A) = 0.98 * 0.95
= 0.931
The probability for Condition B to exist is the sum of E3, E4, and E5.
P(B) = 0.20 +0.29 + 0.50 = 0.99
The probability of Condition A and Condition B are then multiplied to get the probability of a
major failure.
P(major) = 0.931 * 0.99
= 0.9216
784 The probability of failure of a system is 0.922. The system fault tree requires both "A"
and "B" to occur. "A" occurs when Events 1 and 2 occur. "B" occurs when either Events 3, 4
or 5 occur. The probability of each event occurring are as follows:
E1 = 0.98
E2 = 0.95
E3 = 0.20
E4 = 0.29
E5 = 0.50
What is the probability of failure if the events generating "B" had to happen in parallel?

1) 0.922
2) 0.27
3) 0.056
4) 0.027

Ans.4 Condition B events are multiplied together to get the probability of Condition B.
Condition A events are also multiplied together to get the probability of Condition A. The
respective probabilities of Condition A and Condition B are then multiplied together to get
the system failure probability.
P(A) = 0.98 * 0.95 = 0.931
P(B) = 0.20 * 0.29 * 0.50 = 0.029
P(major) = P(A) * P(B)
= 0.931 * 0.029
= 0.027

785 When applying the concept of system safety to fire prevention and protection, the system
characteristics include all the following EXCEPT:

1) Boundary
2) Input and output
3) The environment
4) Variables and structure

Ans.3 This does not mean that the system does not interact with the environment, but outside
events do not necessarily govern the behavior of the system.

786 In the context of pure systems safety, the fire safety concept tree is similar to:

1) Preliminary hazard analysis


2) Fault tree analysis
3) Failure mode and effect analysis
4) Decision trees
Ans.2 The fire safety concept tree uses "AND" and "OR" gates to determine the probability
of events. However, the top event may be a positive action, not a failure or fault.
787 Air brakes on a railroad train is an example of a device that is:

1) Fail-safe
2) Fail-passive
3) Fail-redundant
4) Fail-operational

Ans.1 These brakes are fail-safe and fail-active. If air is lost the brakes are automatically set.

788 A good safety design feature that helps to overcome failures or malfunctions is a:

1) Safety margin
2) Safety factor
3) Maximum foreseeable failure margin
4) Maximum permissible failure factor

Ans.2 By definition, a safety factor is the ratio of the ultimate (breaking) strength of a
member, or piece of material, to the actual working stress or to the maximum permissible
(safe load) stress when in use. The magnitude of the safety factor depends on how great the
cost of failure will be in terms of life or damage.

789 In product safety, the safety professional must give consideration to the design
parameters involving malfunctions, operator errors, environmental differences, and:

1) Safety margins
2) Ergonomics
3) Loss minimization
4) Structural failure

Ans.3 The design factors that must be considered include: - minimizing loss - malfunctions -
operator error - environmental conditions. MINIMIZING LOSS is a provision of protective
methods which can be applied to product safety for the purpose of containment and damage
minimization. Examples include bumpers, seat belts, explosion barriers, and other forms of
energy absorbing mechanisms or personal protective safety devices.

790 Fail-safe designs try to ensure that a failure will leave the product unaffected or will
convert it to a state in which no injury or damage will occur. Which design does NOT meet
this criterion?

1) Fail-passive arrangements
2) Fail-active design
3) Fail-operational arrangements
4) Fail-mode design

Ans.4 All of the following designs may be considered fail-safe:


FAIL-PASSIVE ARRANGEMENTS are similar to fuses and circuit breakers; they reduce
the system to its first level.. FAIL-ACTIVE DESIGN maintains any condition that will keep
the system in a safe mode until corrective or overriding action occurs.
FAIL-OPERATIONAL ARRANGEMENTS allow functions to continue safely until
corrective action is possible.
791 A system that is designed to shut down when one or more critical components fail is
called:

1) Fail-safe
2) Interlock
3) Circuit breaker
4) Fuse

Ans.1 There are times when a system, guard, elevator, and other high risk equipment is
designed to shut down when one or more critical components fail. When this occurs, it will
do so in a safe position or condition without the experience of a major loss.

792 The interaction of component parts to perform a function or task that accomplishes
something defines:

1) An analysis
2) A system
3) A planning method
4) A subsystem

Ans.2 A system is an orderly arrangement of components that are interrelated and that act
and interact to perform some task or function. As parts of a system, the components usually
interact and complement each other. However, it is essential to recognize that a malfunction
of one component can affect others, which impacts the total system.

793 A key advantage of Boolean algebra is considered to be:

1) It is superfluous
2) It is deceptively simple
3) It can utilize AND/OR/NOT connectors
4) A calculator is not needed

Ans.3 Boolean algebra is widely used to develop probabilities involving AND/OR/NOT


situations.

794 An example of a fail-passive device is the:

1) Fuse
2) Emergency generator
3) High temperature limit switch
4) Both 1 and 3

Ans.1 A fuse would be the best example of a fail passive device as its failure brings the
system to its lowest energy state (no current flow). The other devices do not necessarily bring
the system to its lowest energy state given a failure.
795 This system safety design philosophy, given a failure, keeps the system energized in a
safe mode until corrective or overriding action can take place:

1) Intrinsically safe
2) Fail-passive
3) Fail-active
4) Fail-operational

Ans.3 The fail-active design philosophy keeps the system energized and in a safe mode until
corrective action or an override can take place. Intrinsic safety eliminates failure, fail passive
knocks the system to its lowest energy level, and fail operational allows the system to operate
without interruption.

796 The following system is an example of a fail-active design:

1) Cylinder with rupture disc


2) Class I, Division 1 wiring
3) Chirping smoke detector
4) Either 2 or 3

Ans.3 A fail-active design normally creates redundancy by the use of standby equipment. A
chirping smoke detector is the classic example of a fail-active design. When the battery starts
to run down, most ionizing smoke detectors for home use will chirp periodically to warn the
occupants that the battery is failing. The smoke detector may not function (depending upon
the actual battery status), but the chirp design actively informs the occupant that a failure has
occurred or will soon occur.

797 A system safety design concept that allows functions to continue safely given a failure is:

1) Intrinsically safe
2) Fail-active
3) Fail-passive
4) Fail-operational

Ans.4 A fail-operational design allows a system that is experiencing a failure to continue to


operate safely until corrective action is possible. Limited disruption, if any, is experienced.
798 Water feed valves for boilers that remain open during a control failure to allow the boiler
to operate and not build up excess pressure are:

1) Intrinsically safe devices


2) Fail-passive devices
3) Fail-active devices
4) Fail-operational devices

Ans.4 Water feed valves that remain open during boiler control failure, allowing the boiler to
operate and not build up excess pressure are fail-operational devices.

799 An example of a non-fail-safe device would be:

1) Any single point failure


2) Deadman switches
3) Circuit breaker
4) GFCI

Ans.1 Any single point failure is an example of a non-fail-safe device.

800 A battery operated smoke detector is an example of what type of design?

1) Interlock
2) Fail-active
3) Fail-passive
4) Fail-operational

Ans.2 A battery operated smoke detector is an example of a fail-active design.

801 An "AND" gate implies:

1) Boolean division
2) Boolean addition
3) Boolean multiplication
4) Boolean introspection

Ans.3 If A and B are required for C to operate, and A and B are joined by an "AND" gate,
then the probability of C is AB.
802 How would you perform the Boolean connection of "heat", "fuel", and "oxygen" to the
output "fire?"

1) "AND"
2) "OR"
3) "NOR"
4) "NOT"

Ans.1 As you must have "heat" AND "fuel" AND "oxygen" to have a fire, the "AND" gate is
necessary.

803 The technique of probabilistic risk assessment was developed by what industry?

1) Electronics
2) Transportation
3) Aerospace
4) Nuclear power

Ans.4 Many of the techniques in PRA were applied and developed by the nuclear power
industry in the 1970's. The techniques were developed to estimate failure rates, develop
maintenance schedules, assess population safety, etc.

804 Which of the following is NOT correct Boolean logic?

1) AA = A
2) A+A=A
3) A+1=1
4) A + (AB) = AB

Ans.4 A + (AB) = A (A + B)

805 A current problem with risk and its perception is that the public's estimation of risk
________ the government or experts.

1) Is often not the same as


2) Is much less valid
3) Is usually not financially acceptable
4) Cannot be calculated by

Ans.1 The public's perception of risk associated with a given technology may vary widely
from the perception of the government or risk experts. The view may be based on partial
information. The differences are real and must be addressed as thoroughly and carefully as
the scientific analyses associated with the risk assessment.
806 The least likely term which describes designing the job to fit the worker is:

1) Human factors
2) Human engineering
3) Ergonomics
4) Human systems
5) \

Ans.4 Ergonomics, human factors, human engineering, biomechanics, and engineering


anthropometry are terms common to the objective leading to designing a work station,
display, or job, to fit the worker and avoid unnecessary environmental stresses. The desired
results of this design is a decrease of injury/illness and an increase in productivity.

807 What is the most appropriate definition of human factors engineering?

1) Discipline dealing with man/machine interface


2) Discipline related to industrial psychology
3) Discipline seeking to improve worker happiness
4) Discipline to increase worker efficiency

Ans.1 Human factors engineering is the discipline which is concerned with the man/machine
interface. Factors it considers include sensory inputs, operator response, operator movements,
work/rest cycles, and whether speed and accuracy are required.

808 As part of a valid and complete hazard communication program, the employer must do
all of the following EXCEPT:

1) Prepare MSDS's for all substances in the process


2) Have MSDS's for substances with employee exposure
3) Have a written Hazard Communication Program
4) Train employees in the hazards of the chemicals

Ans.1 Employers are not required to prepare MSDS's for the substances they use. The
manufacturer has that responsibility. The employer is required to have MSDS's on hand and
readily available to the employee for all the substances to which he or she is exposed.
809 One characteristic of system safety is that it includes all other types of safety. A second
characteristic of system safety is that:

1) It is performed before mishaps occur


2) It is effective only on complex designs
3) It is most effective during testing
4) There is no second characteristic of system safety

Ans.1 System safety is always conducted before mishaps actually occur. This factor, plus the
fact that the system safety practitioner may use information from all other safety areas, makes
this discipline unique.

810 Systems safety analytical techniques to determine foreseeability include:

1) Use of biorhythms
2) Use of fault finding
3) Use of statistical techniques including determination of mean, mode, standard
deviation
4) Use of preliminary, failure modes and effects, fault hazard, and fault-tree analysis

Ans.4 All the techniques in Answer 4 are legitimate techniques for the safety professional.
Biorhythms were used in Japan with questionable results for predicting bus accidents. Fault
finding is not a legitimate technique. Statistical techniques may be used as part of the
analyses done when applying other appropriate systems safety techniques.

811 Risk is an expression of probable loss over a specific time period. It can be expressed in
accidents, deaths, dollars, or other units. If a company operates a fleet of 25 trucks worth
$22,000 each, and each operates 1,600 hours per year, what is the risk due to total loss per
year if the replacement cost for a new truck is 1.2 times the old truck, and accidents occur 4.5
times per 10,000 hours of operation?

1) $118,800 per year


2) $475,200 per year
3) $396,000 per year
4) $2,970,000 per year

Ans.2 Risk = D * M * N where


D = loss per accident
M = Accident rate
N = time of measurement

Risk = (1.2 * $22,000 / truck)(4.5 x 10-4 per hour) (25 trucks * 1,600 hr/yr)
= $475,200 / yr
812 System safety is defined as:

1) A method to detect and eliminate potential hazards


2) An engineering method
3) An analysis of major components
4) A statistical analysis of the safety system

Ans.1 Systems safety is the utilization of systematic scientific engineering and management
principles to identify and minimize potential hazards.

813 Within a Management Oversight Risk Tree (MORT) analysis, what is NOT considered
part of the management system factors?

1) Policy
2) Implementation
3) Risk assessment
4) Barriers LTA

Ans.4 Barriers are considered part of specific control factors.

814 Within a Management Oversight Risk Tree (MORT) analysis, what is NOT considered
part of specific control factors?

1) Amelioration LTA
2) Persons or objects in an energy path
3) Assumed risks
4) Unwanted energy flow

Ans.3 Assumed risks are considered as a separate tree path.

815 Which is not part of the risk assessment system defined within a MORT analysis?

1) Safety program review


2) Hazard analysis process
3) Unwanted energy flow
4) Information systems

Ans.3 Unwanted energy flow is considered under specific control factors and is not a part of
the risk assessment system defined within a MORT analysis.
816 TRADITIONAL safety program components utilized to influence employee attitudes and
behavior are identified with:

1) Written procedures
2) Posters, booklets, awards
3) Education and training
4) Provision of free personal protective equipment

Ans.2 Traditional safety programs attempt to communicate with employees for the purpose
of motivating them to change their attitudes, or better yet, their behavior. To do this, posters,
booklets, slide shows, displays, signs, bulletin boards, awards, dinners, and prizes are
utilized.

817 You have been appointed safety director of a company with 4 plants. These plants are
subject to annual safety audits which are scored. You want to determine if success in the
audit program correlates to success in injury prevention. Based on the data provided in the
Table below, what is the Spearman rank coefficient of correlation between the safety audit
score and injury rates?

PLANT A PLANT B PLANT C PLANT D


AUDIT
75 86 45 90
SCORE
INJURY
3.2 4.4 4.8 5.6
RATE

1) 1.4
2) 0.40
3) -0.40
4) -0.60

Ans.3 First, determine the difference in rank of each set, and square that difference. Use a
chart like this one.

Audit Score Injury Rate


Plant Rank Rank D D2
A 3 1 2 4
B 2 2 0 0
C 4 3 1 1
D 1 4 -3 9
The sum of the squares of the differences is
 D2 = 4 + 0 + 1 + 9 = 14

The symbol "N" represents the number of data points. N is 4.

Use the following formula to calculate the Spearman rank:

 = 1 - 6 {D2 / [N (N2 - 1)]}


= 1 - 6 {14 / [4 (42 - 1)]}
= 1 - 1.40
= -0.40

818 If a Spearman rank coefficient = -0.4 for injury rates and plant audit scores, what is your
conclusion regarding the correlation between the injury rates and audit scores?

1) There is a weak direct correlation


2) There is a strong direct correlation
3) There is no meaningful correlation
4) It is not possible to correlate injury rates and audit scores

Ans.3 The Spearman rank is a reflection of correlation between two sets of numbers. Since
the Spearman rank is negative, the injury rates and audit scores are mathematically inversely
related. When dealing with plant scores and injury rates, though, this inverse relationship is
somewhat meaningless. If taken with mathematical literalness, the Spearman rank of -0.4
implies that there is a weakly related INCREASE in injury rates when the plant audit scores
are good.

819 A study collected 161 death certificates of former workers at a plant. Of these 161
deaths, 38 workers died of cancer where 27.9 would normally be expected to do so. The rest
of the workers died of other causes where where 133.1 would normally be expected to do so.
Compute the 2 (chi-square) statistic.

1) 2.79
2) 4.42
3) 9.21
4) 13.3

Ans.2 2 =  [(observed-expected)2 / expected]


= (38 - 27.9)2 / 27.9 + (123 - 133.1)2 / 133.1
= 4.42

Explanation of the 2 Statistic:


We have only one degree of freedom in this study since we can only set one of the two death
rates (the second rate is dependent on the first). Use the Upper Percentage Points of the?2
Distribution table and determine the "p" associated with a degree of freedom of 1 and a 2
statistic of 4.42.

The "p" will be between 0.05 and 0.01 (closer to 0.05). If you want a better estimate of "p,"
you could interpolate to derive a better estimate based on this 2 statistic.

The "p" of approximately 0.05 means that the data are statistically significant at the p = 0.05
level. In other words, there is only a probability of 0.05 that the data are NOT significant.

820 In behavioral terms, a safety poster:

1) Is an activator
2) Is "visual noise"
3) Has no impact on behavior
4) All of the above

Ans.1 As an activator which serves to direct desired behavior, safety posters have only a
small impact on behavior.

E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

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