05-10-2025

5001CMD303032250013 MD

PHYSICS

1) Assertion : Kinetic energy of a body becomes four times, when its linear momentum is doubled.
Reason : This is because, K.E. = p2 /2m.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

2)
Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

(P) a(m/s2) (1) 25

(Q) N (newton) (2) 30

(R) fL(newton) (3) 50

(S) fK (newton) (4) 3

(1) P → 3, Q → 4, R → 2, S → 1
(2) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1
(3) P → 1, Q → 2, R → 3, S → 4
(4) P → 4, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 3

3) Statement-I :- A person walking on a horizontal road with a load on his head does no work on
the load against gravity.
Statement-II :- No work is said to be done, if directions of force and displacement of load are
perpendicular to each other.

(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true, statement-II is a correct explanation for statement-I.
Statement-I is true, statement-II is true, statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.

4) As shown in diagram, there are 5 blocks each of the mass 1 kg resting on a smooth horizontal
surface. Match the columns and select the correct
option :

Column I Column II

Acceleration of system
A. P. 4
is (in m/s2)

Normal force between B and

B. Q. 2
C is (in N)

Normal Force between A and

C. R. 6
B is (in N)

Normal Force between C and

D. S. 8
D is (in N)
(1) A-Q; B-R; C-S; D-P
(2) A-S; B-R; C-Q; D-P
(3) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S
(4) A-R; B-S; C-P; D-Q

5) Statement-I :- Work done by friction on a body sliding down an incline plane is positive.
Statement-II :- Work done is greater than zero, if angle between force and displacement is acute.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

6) Ratio of weight of a man in a stationary lift and weight of a man in a lift moving downward with an
acceleration is 3 : 2 then acceleration of lift is :

(1) g / 3
(2) g / 2
(3) g
(4) 2g

7) The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :-

(1) 24 Ns
(2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns
(4) 6 Ns

8) A 600 kg rocket is for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed of gases is 1000 m/sec then the gas
ejected per second to supply the thrust needed to overcome the weight of the rocket is (g = 10
m/s2):-

(1) 3 kg/sec
(2) 6 kg/sec
(3) 2 kg/sec
(4) 5 kg/sec

9) Three block are connected as shown in fig., on a horizontal frictionless table and pulled to
the right with a force T3 = 60 N. If m1 = 10 kg. m2 = 20 kg. and m3 = 30 kg. the tension T2 is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 60 N

10) Assertion : The potential energy can be defined only in conservative field.
Reason : The value of potential energy depends on the reference level (level of zero potential).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) In the following figure, two masses P and Q are joined with a string. The tension in the string in

between PQ in newton will be :-

(1) g
(2) g/15
(3) 16g/15
(4) 32g/15
12) A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string

(in kg wt) is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 2

13) A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two light spring balances A and B. Then A and B will

read respectively :-

(1) 4 kg and zero kg

(2) Zero kg and 4 kg
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg

14) A string of length L and mass M is lying on a horizontal table. A force F is applied at one of its
ends. Tension in the string at a distance y from the end at which the force is applied is :-

(1) zero
(2) F

(3)

(4)

15) If coefficient of friction between block A and surface is 0.2. Minimum value of mass of block B to
just slide the system on the surface :-
(1) 0.6 kg
(2) 0.8 kg
(3) 0.10 kg
(4) 0.2 kg

16) A body is sliding down an inclined plane (angle of inclination 45°). If the coefficient of friction is
0.5 and g = 9.8 m/s2. then the acceleration of the body downwards in m/s2 is :-

(1)

(2) 4.9

(3)

(4) 19.6

17) In the situation shown in fig., value of frictional force acting on the block and acceleration of

block is (µs = 0.20, µk = 0.15) :-

(1) 8 N, 0 m/s2
(2) 32 N, 6 m/s2
(3) 8 N, 6 m/s2
(4) 32 N, 2 m/s2

18) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

19) A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed 14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 9 m.
How much work is done by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent (g = 9.8 m/s2)?

(1) –19.6 J
(2) –4.9 J
(3) –10 J
(4) –9.8 J

20) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U = , where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of field. For the equilibrium, the distance
of particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Under the action of force, 3 kg body moves such that x = where position x is in meter and t is
in second. The work done by the force in first 3 second is :-

(1) 13.5 J
(2) 27 J
(3) 81 J
(4) 109 J

22) A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The work done by the force in

moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6m is :-

(1) 18.0 J
(2) 13.5 J
(3) 4.5 J
(4) 9.0 J

23) A stone is projected vertically up to reach maximum height ‘h’. The ratio of its kinetic energy to

potential energy, at a height will be :-

(1) 5 : 4
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1
24) A current I flows in a wire of circular cross-section with the free electrons travelling with a drift
velocity v. The drift velocity of electrons when a current 2 I flows in another wire of twice the radius
and of the same material is :

(1) v/2
(2) v
(3) 2v
(4)

25) Net resistance between points A and B is-

(1) R/4
(2) R/2
(3) R
(4) 2R

26) In the given circuit, the ammeter A assumed to have negligible resistance, reads 0.1 A. The value

of R is :-

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

27) If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, then the percentage change in resistance is
approximately :

(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.2%
(3) 0.4%
(4) 0.8%

28) Two nonideal batteries are connected in parallel. Consider the following statements
(I) The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
(II) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistance.

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) I is correct but II is wrong
(3) II is correct but I is wrong
(4) Each of I and II is wrong

29) In a typical Wheatstone network, the resistances in cyclic order are A = 10 Ω, B = 5Ω, C = 4Ω

and D = 4Ω. For the bridge to be balanced

(1) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel with A

(2) 10 Ω should be connected in series with A
(3) 4 Ω should be connect in series with C
(4) 5 Ω should be connected in parallel with B

30) The potential difference between A and B in the figure is :

(1) 5V
(2) 4V
(3) 3V
(4) 2V

31) In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point D is taken to be zero, the potential at

point C is :-

(1) +1V
(2) –1V
(3) +2V
(4) –2V

32)

Find the value of i

(1) 3 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 4 A

33) In given circuit according to Kirchoff voltage law equation will be-

(1) –IR1 + E1 – IR2 + IR3 – E2 = 0

(2) –IR1 + E1 – IR2 – IR3 + E2 = 0
(3) –IR1 + E1 – IR2 – IR3 – E2 = 0
(4) IR1 + E1 + IR2 + IR3 + E2 = 0

34) Assertion (A) : According to kirchoff's voltage law algebraic sum of potential drop and emf of
cell in a closed loop is zero.
Reason (R) : kirchoff's voltage law is based on conservation of energy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) In the network shown in figure, points A, B, C are at potentials of 70V, zero and 10V

respectively, (a) point D is at potential of 40V

(b) the current in the sections AD, DB and DC are in ratio 3 : 2 : 1.
(c) current in the sections AD, DB and DC are in ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(d) point D is at potential of 20 V
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) a & b
(2) a & c
(3) only d
(4) a, b & d

36) Assertion : In the given circuit if lamp B or C fuses then light emitted by lamp A decreases.

Reason : Voltage on A decreases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

37) A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is converted into ammeter by connecting a low

resistance (shunt) of value 1 Ω in parallel to the galvanometer S. If full scale deflection current
of galvanometer is 10 mA, then the maximum current to be measured by the ammeter is -

(1) 500 mA
(2) 510 mA
(3) 610 mA
(4) 490 mA

38) Magnetic field at point 'P' due to both infinite long current carrying wires is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) For the loop as shown below, the value of is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

40) Match the Column for equivalent resistance between A and B :

Column I Column II

A. P.

B. Q. 5Ω

C. R. 4Ω

D. S.

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-R

(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-Q

41) PQRS is a square loop made of uniform conducting wire. If the current enters the loop at P and
leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be :-

(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop

(2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop

42) Find net magnetic field at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2π cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3
ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in
weber/m2 at the centre of the coils will be (μ0 = 4 × 10–7 Wb/A.m):-

(1) 5 × 10–5
(2) 7 × 10–5
(3) 12 × 10–5
(4) 10–5

44) A current is flowing in a hexagonal coil of side a (Fig.). The magnetic induction at the centre of

the coil will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) B along the axis of a solenoid is given by which of the following diagrams ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The hybridization of O in H3O+ is:

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3

2) The shape of XeF3+ is :-

(1) Trigonal planar

(2) Pyramidal
(3) T shape
(4) See saw

3) Which molecular orbital have same energy :-

(1) π2px = σ2s

(2) π2py = σ2s
(3) π2px = π2py
(4) σ2s = σ*2s

4) The molecule does not have zero dipole moment :-

(1) CO2
(2) CCl4
(3) BF3
(4) HCl

5) Which of the following show different bond length :

(1) XeF4
(2) SF6
(3) XeF2
(4) ClF3

6) Correct match is :

Molecular
Molecule
Geometry

Bent T-
(a) BrF3 (p)
Shape

+ Trigonal
(b) NH4 (q)
planar

Trigonal
(c) BF3 (r)
bipyramidal

(d) PCl5 (s) Tetrahedral

a b c d

(1) p r q s

(2) p s q r

(3) r p q s

(4) p q s r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which molecule have highest bond angle.

(1) CH4
(2) NH3
(3) H2O
(4) All are equal

8) Which is diamagnetic in Nature :

+
(1) O2
+2
(2) O2
(3) NO
+
(4) F2

9) Correct order of Bond order :

+ – +2
(1) O2 > O2 > O2
+2 – +
(2) O2 > O2 > O2
+2 + –
(3) O2 > O2 > O2
– + +2
(4) O2 > O2 > O2

10) Assertion (A) : Ionisation energy order of N2 > N.

Reason (R) : Homo of molecular nitrogen is BMO which has lower energy than atomic orbital of
nitrogen.

(1) A is correct but R is incorrect

(2) Both A & R is correct and R is correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R is incorrect.
(4) Both A & R is correct but R is not correct explanation of R

11) Among the following which compounds will show the highest lattice energy ?

(1) KF
(2) NaF
(3) CsF
(4) RbF

12) Which of the following has maximum hydration energy?

(1) Na+
(2) K+
(3) Mg+2
(4) Al+3

13) Maximum EN is :

(1) F
(2) Li
(3) Na
(4) K

14) Which is largest ion :-

(1) Na+
(2) Mg+2
(3) O–2

(4) F

15) The element with atomic number Z=118 will be :–

(1) Noble gas

(2) Transition metal
(3) Alkali metal
(4) Alkaline earth metal

16) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

17) Correct order of acidic strength

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > II > IV > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) IV > II > I > III

18) Which of the following compound can not show tautomerism ?

(1)

(2) CH2=CH–OH

(3)

(4)

19)

Correct order of acidic strength of following compound is :-

(1) I > III > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II

20) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism :-

(1) 2-Butene
(2) Propene
(3) Ethylene
(4) 2-Methyl-2-butene

21) What is the absolute configuration of given compound :-

(1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2S, 3R
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2S,3S

22) Relation between (A) and (B) is:-

CH3–CH2–CH2–CN ;
(A) (B)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Metamers

23) Which compound (s) out of the following is/are not aromatic ?

(1) (B), (C) and (D)

(2) (C) and (D)
(3) (B)
(4) (A) and (C)

24) Identify the alkene which have highest value of Heat of Hydrogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2 = CH2

25) The correct basic strength order is:

(CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3;

(1)
(in aqueous phase)
(CH3)3 N > (CH3)2 NH > CH3—NH2 > NH3 ;
(2)
(in gaseous phase)
(C2H5)2 NH > (CH3CH2)3 N > CH3CH2NH2 > NH3 ;
(3)
(in aqueous phase)
(4) All of these

26) Decreasing –I effect of given groups is :

(i) –CN (ii) – NO2
(iii) –NH2 (iv) –F

(1) iii > ii > i > iv

(2) ii > iii > iv > i
(3) iii > ii > iv > i
(4) ii > i > iv > iii

27)
Correct order of stability of resonating structure is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > I > II
(3) III > II > I
(4) I = II = III

28) CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N are which type of isomers

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

29) and are

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Functional isomer

30) Which one of the following is a Z isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which one of the following is not a redox reaction:-

(1) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

(2) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

(3)
Na + H2O → NaOH + H2

(4)
MnCl3 → MnCl2 + Cl2

32) In oxidation reduction reaction, MnO4– + C2O4–2 + H+ → Mn+2 + CO2 + H2O the balance equation
coefficient for MnO4–, C2O4–2, H+ are :–

(1) 2, 5, 16
(2) 16, 5, 2
(3) 2, 16, 5
(4) 5, 2, 16

33) Oxidation number of Fe in Fe3O4 are :

(1) +2 and +3
(2) +1 and +2
(3) +1 and +3
(4) None

34) A compound containing x, y and z atoms oxidation no of x is +3, y is –5 and z is +1 then the
possible formula of compound is :-

(1) xyz
(2) xyz2
(3) x2yz
(4) (xy)2z

35) At constant pressure the addition of argon to N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 will

(1) Shift the equilibrium in forward direction

(2) Shift the equilibrium in backward direction
(3) Not affect the equilibrium
(4) Stop the reaction

36) The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction ;

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) is given by . The reaction will proceed from right to left if :-

(1) Q = 0
(2) Q = Kc
(3) Q < Kc
(4) Q > Kc

37) Assuming the reaction A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ C(g) to be exothermic, the yield of the product (C)
increases with :-
(a) Increase of temperature
(b) Increase of pressure
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(e) Removal of (C)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b
(3) b & e
(4) a & e

38) Assuming that the system is at equilibrium, which of the following reactions goes most nearly to
completion ?

(1) C(s) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g) KC = 6.5 × 10–23

(2) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g) KC = 0.176
(3) 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO(g) KC = 1 × 1016
(4) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) KC = 54.5

39) For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), Kc is 2 then Kc for the reaction, 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
will be :

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.5
(3) 2
(4) 5

40) Which is most stable oxide :-

(1) 2NO2 N2 + 2O2 K = 6.7 × 1016

(2) N2O2 N2 + O2 K = 2.2 × 1030
(3) 2N2O3 2N2 + 3O2 K = 1.2 × 1034
(4) 2N2O 2N2 + O2 K = 3.5 × 1033

41) Value of KC → 10–5 10–2

Temperature → 400 K 500K
What would you consider by above information :-

(1) Equilibrium constant increases with increase in concentration.

(2) Heat is absorbed.
(3) Heat is released.
(4) None

42) For a reversible reaction, the rate constants for the forward and backward reactions are 3 ×10–4
and 9 × 10–5 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is –

(1) 0.33
(2) 3.3
(3) 0.4
(4) 4

43) A + B ⇌ C + D. If initially the concentration of A and B both are equal but at equilibrium
concentration of D will be twice of that of A then what will be the equilibrium constant of reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4

44) One mole each of PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are taken in 1 litre flask at 400K . When equilibrium is
attained, molar concentration of Cl2 is found to be 1.5 M. Calculate equilibrium constant of
the equilibrium :- PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(1) 2.5
(2) 3.5
(3) 4.5
(4) None
45) Kc = 16, for the reaction,
A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g), If one mole of each A and B are taken, then amount of C in equilibrium is
:

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.25 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 10 M

BIOLOGY

1) A person passes excessive urine and drinks a lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is due
to

(1) increased secretion of glucagon

(2) fall in glucose released in urine
(3) reduction in insulin secretion
(4) reduction in vasopressin secretion by posterior pituitary

2) Which of nitrogenous waste also eliminated through saliva ?

(1) Urea
(2) Creatine
–
(3) HCO3
(4) Uric acid

3) Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory material in :-

(1) Adult Amphibians

(2) Turtles
(3) Tadpoles
(4) Reptiles

4) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry minimum amount of urea ?

(1) Renal Vein

(2) Dorsal Aorta
(3) Hepatic Vein
(4) Hepatic Portal Vein

5) In nephrons there is complete absorption of

(1) Urea
(2) Salt
(3) Glucose
(4) Water

6) The medullary gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) NaCl and Urea

(2) H+ and K+
(3) Urea and K+
(4) Urea and H+

7) RAAS is stopped by :-

(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ANF
(4) Renin

8) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) c-PCT, d-DCT, a-afferent arteriole, b-efferent arteriole, f–henle's loop, e-vasa recta
(2) d-PCT, c-DCT, b-afferent arteriole, a-efferent arteriole, e-henle's loop, f-vasa recta
(3) c-PCT, d-DCT, b-afferent arteriole, a-efferent arteriole, f–henle's loop, e-vasa recta
d-PCT, c-DCT, a-afferent arteriole,
(4)
b-efferent arteriole, e-henle's loop, f-vasa recta

9) Choose the incorrect one :-

(1) PCT → In cortex of kidney

(2) DCT → In cortex of kidney
(3) Loop of henle → In medulla of kidney
(4) Collecting duct → Completely in the cortex of kidney

10) If a person drinks excess water, then ADH release will be :

(1) Stimulated
(2) Suppressed
(3) Not affected
(4) First stimulate then suppressed
11) (A) and (B) pairs of ribs are called floating ribs ?

(1) 11th and 12th

(2) 1st to 7th
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th
(4) 10th to 12th

12)

During stimulation of skeletal muscle calcium is immediately made available for binding to troponin
from :-

(1) Blood
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lymph
(4) Bone

13) Functionally heart muscle is similar to ?

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) White muscle
(4) Voluntary muscle

14) Arrange the following steps of muscle contraction in the sequence of events occurring first : (A)
Receptor sites on sarcolemma
(B) Nerve impulse
(C) Release of Ca++
(D) Acetylcholine release
(E) Shortening of sarcomere
(F) Synaptic cleft (G) Spread of impulse over sarcolemma on T-tubule The correct option is :

(1) B→D→F→A→G→C→E
(2) B→D→A→F→G→C→E
(3) B→D→A→F→G→E→C
(4) D→B→A→D→G→E→C

15) The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is :-

(1) Cross bridge

(2) Myofibril
(3) Sarcomere
(4) Z–band

16) Assertion (A) :- In osteoporosis bone mass decreased and chances of fractures increased.
Reason (R) :- Decreased level of estrogen is a common cause of osteoporosis in old age people.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) Each organised skeletal muscle is made of a number of muscle bundles or Fasiculi
(B) Each muscle fibre has many parallely arranged myofibrils.
(C) Each myofibril contains many serially arranged units called sarcomere.
(D) Each sarcomere has a central "A"–band and two half "I" bands.

(1) Statements (B), (C) and (D)

(2) Statements (A) and (B)
(3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) Statements (A), (B), (C), (D)

18) How many of the following statement are correct regarding muscle contraction ?
(a) A-band retain its length
(b) I-band gets reduced
(c) sarcomere gets shorter
(d) Actin & myosin filaments gets shorter
(e) Thick filament slide over thin filament

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

19)

ATPase activity found in

(1) Myosin filament

(2) Actin filament
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

20)

In resting state, the central part of thick filament which is not overlapped by thin filament is called

(1) A-band
(2) M-line
(3) H-zone
(4) I-band
21)

Correctly match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tetany (i) Autoimmune disorder.

Progressive degeneration of skeletal

(B) Osteoporosis (ii)
muscle.

(C) Muscular dystrophy (iii) Inflammation of joints

(D) Arthritis (iv) Rapid spasms in muscle.

(E) Myasthenia Gravis (v) Bone mass decreased.

(1) A→(i), B→(ii), C→(iii), D→(iv), E→(v)
(2) A→(iv), B→(v), C→(i), D→(iii), E→(ii)
(3) A→(iv), B→(v), C→(ii), D→(iii), E→(i)
(4) A→(ii), B→(iii), C→(i), D→(v), E→(iv)

22) Match the columns and pick out the correct answer.

Column-A Column-B

(1) Atlas/axis (A) Saddle joint

(2) Carpal/metacarpal (B) Hinge joint

(3) Between phalanges (C) Fibrous joint

(4) Femur/acetabulum (D) Ball and socket joint

(5) Between cranial bones (E) Pivot joint

(1) A-1-E B-2-A C-3-B D-4-C E-5-D
(2) A-1-E B-2-A C-3-B D-4-D E-5-C
(3) A-1-E B-2-A C-3-D D-4-B E-5-C
(4) A-1-E B-2-A C-3-D D-4-C E-5-B

23) Assertion : Methods of locomotion performed by animals vary with their habitats and the
demand of the situation.
Reason : Locomotion is generally for search of food, shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds,
favourable climatic conditions or to escape from enemies/predators.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Fill in the blanks from the options given below :-

All ....A... are movements but all .....B..... are not .......C....... .
(1) Movement, Locomotion, Locomotion
(2) Locomotion, movement, Locomotion
(3) Locomotions, Locomotion, movement
(4) Movement, Movement, Movement

25) Which character is not associated with red muscle fibres ?

(1) High quantity of myoglobin

(2) Amount of Sarcoplasmic reticulum is low
(3) Mitochondria are more in number
(4) Contraction is more powerful

26)

Head of the humerus articulates with :-

(1) Acetabulum of pectoral girdle.

(2) Acetabulum of pelvic girdle.
(3) Glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle.
(4) Glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle.

27)

How many cranial nerves are found in Human____

(1) 8 Pairs
(2) 10 Pairs
(3) 12 Pairs
(4) 6 Pairs

28) Intercalated discs are characterstics of muscles that are found in :-

(1) Brain
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Stomach
(4) Heart
29) Identify A,B,C and D respectively :-

(1) Tibia, Fibula, Coxal bone, Sacrum

(2) Fibula, Tibia, Sacrum, Coxal bone
(3) Fibula, Tibia, Coxal bone, Sacrum
(4) Tibia, Fibula, Sacrum, Coxal bone

30) Blood-brain barrier is formed by :-

(1) Oligodendrocyte
(2) Schwann cell
(3) Microglial cell
(4) Astrocyte

31) Nissl's granules are found in ............ and helps in ............ :-

(1) Cyton only, lipid synthesis respectively

(2) Cyton and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(3) Dendron and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(4) Dendron and Cyton, Protein synthesis respectively

32) Pons varoli is characterised by a centre called :-

(1) Hunger centre

(2) Thirst centre
(3) Cardiac acceleratory centre
(4) Pneumotaxic centre

33) The neural system is composed of highly specialised cells which can detect, receive and transmit
different kinds of stimuli are called as.

(1) Nerve
(2) Neuron
(3) Dendritic cells
(4) Axon

34) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called as :-

(1) Corpus albicans

(2) Thalamus
(3) Corpus Callosum
(4) 2 & 3 both

35) Which of the following have many Centers like temperature regulation, hunger and thirst
centers?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebrum

36) Which type of neuron found in the retina of eye and cerebral cortex, respectively?

(1) Multipolar neuron and Bipolar neuron

(2) Unipolar neuron and Multipolar neuron
(3) Bipolar neuron and Multipolar neuron
(4) Pseudounipolar and Multipolar neuron

37) Read the following statements (A-D) -

(A) Neural system provides a point to point rapid coordination among organs.
(B) Response in chemical co-ordination is usually slow.
(C) Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce
hormones.
(D) The neural system and the endocrine system jointly coordinate and regulate the physiological
functions in the body.
How many of the above statements are true?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

38) Repolarisation of neuron is occurred due to :-

(1) Influx of Na+

(2) Influx of K+
(3) Efflux of Na+
(4) Efflux of K+

39) Synaptic vesicles are found in :-

(1) Post synaptic dendron
(2) Pre synaptic neuron
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) Both (1) & (2)

40) In severe stress condition all changes occur in our body except-

(1) Heart beat increases

(2) Dilates blood vessels of brain, heart and striated muscles
(3) Bronchodilation
(4) Micturition is done

41) Assertion : Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for
many more neurons
Reason : The medulla oblongata control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True & Reason is False
(4) Assertion is False & Reason is True

42) Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called

(1) Cerebrospinal fluid

(2) Blood
(3) Neurotransmitters
(4) Lymph

43) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

(1) Membranes of synaptic vesicles

(2) Pre-Synaptic membrane
(3) Tips of axons
(4) Post-synaptic membrane

44) A canal passes through the midbrain is

(1) Cerebral aqueduct

(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Neural Canal
(4) Membranous Canal

45) The meninges in contact with the brain tissue called

(1) Piamater
(2) Duramater
(3) Arachnoid
(4) Skull

46) Monocot plants are characterised by the presence of

(1) Tap roots

(2) Fibrous roots
(3) Annulated roots
(4) Stilt roots

47) Which of the following fruit arises from monocarpellary superior ovary?

(1) Mango
(2) Strawberry
(3) Fig
(4) Mulberry

48) Function of petiole is :-

(1) Hold the leaf blade

(2) Allow leaf blades to flutter in wind
(3) Bringing fresh air to leaf surface
(4) All of the above

49) Family fabaceae is concerned with

(1) Diadelphous stamen, marginal placentation, obliquely placed ovary and vexillary corolla
(2) Diadelphous stamen, marginal placenta and large posterior petal
(3) Basal placentation, versatile stamens, spikelet inflorescence
(4) Axile placentation, non-endospermic seed, legume fruit

50)

C1 + 2 + (2) represents

(1) Cruciform corolla; Valvate aestivation

(2) Epipetalous stamens; Brinjal
(3) Papilionaceous corolla; Vexillary aestivation
(4) Epiphyllous stamens; Trifolium

51) Assertion:- In racemose type of inflorescence limited growth of floral axis occur
Reason :- In racemose inflorescence main axis (Peduncle) terminates in a flower.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

52) Twisted aestivation is found in :-

(1) Cassia
(2) Pea
(3) China rose
(4) Calotropis

53) Based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium in respect of the ovary on thalamus, the
flowers are described as hypogynous, perigynous and epigynous. The following condition is found

in:-

(1) Guava, Cucumber, Pumpkin

(2) Rose, Plum, Peach
(3) Mustard, China rose and brinjal
(4) Peach, Guava, Apple

54) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic.

(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit.
(3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain.
(4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode.

55) Which of the following is correct pair ?

(1) Fabaceae – Petunia, Indigofera

(2) Solanaceae – Ashwangandha, Aloe
(3) Liliaceae – Tulip, Asparagus
(4) Cruciferae – Mustard, Lupin

56) Select the pair which contains monocot family :-

(1) Solanaceae and Cruciferae

(2) Cruciferae and Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae and Fabaceae
(4) Liliaceae and Poaceae

57) Statement-I : Generally monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic but some as in orchids are
non endospermic.
Statement-II : In the monocotyledonous seeds, the endosperm is bulky and stores food.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

58) Floral formula of Cruciferae is –

(1) Br⊕ K2+2 C4 A(2+4)

(2) Ebr% K2+2 C4 A2+4

(3) Ebr⊕ K(2+2) C4 A2+4

(4) Ebr⊕ K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)

59) shows which of the following condition ?

(1) Epipetalous
(2) Epiphyllous
(3) Epicalyx
(4) Gynandrous

60) Which of the following floral feature is shown by both floral formula and floral diagram ?

(1) Aestivation of sepals in floral bud

(2) Adhesion between parts of floral whorls
(3) Number of locule/s in ovary
(4) Arrangement of ovule(s) within the ovary

61) Statement-I : Epitepalous stamens are found in Allium cepa.

Statement-II : Tetradynamous stamens are found in mustard.

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct

(2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

62) Read the following 4 statement A-D and select the option which includes correct ones :-
(A) Stipules are small leaf like structure present at the base of petiole.
(B) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called pulvinus.
(C) The veins are parallel in parallel venation. (D) Leaf orginates from root apical meristem.

(1) Statement A, B, C
(2) Statement B, C, D
(3) Statement C, D
(4) Statement A, C, D

63) Match the type of placentation with the correct examples ?

Column-I Column-II

i Marginal a. Mustard

ii. Axile b. Tomato

iii. Free central c. Pea

iv. Pariental d. Dianthus

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

64) In mustard ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to formation of the false
septum and ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part. In this case,
placentation is :-

(1) Parietal
(2) Marginal
(3) Axile
(4) Basal

65) Which of the following statement is correct.

(1) The direct elongation of the radicle leads to formation of adventitious root.
(2) Stem of maize produces roots from the lower nodes, called climbing roots.
A bud is present in the axil of petiole in both simple and compound leaves, but not in the axil of
(3)
leaflets of the compound leaf.
In a pinnately compound leaf, incision of leaf lamina is directed from lamina margin to apex of
(4)
the petiole and all leaflets are attached at a common point.

66) Which of the following family has trimerous flowers?

(1) Brassicaceae - Mustard

(2) Liliaceae - Tulips
(3) Solanaceae - Potato
(4) Fabaceae - Pea

67) Single shield shaped cotyledon of maize seed is called :-

(1) Coleorrhiza
(2) Coleoptile
(3) Scutellum
(4) Epiblast

68) Statement- I : In plants such as gram and pea, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds.
Statement- II : In the seeds of cereals such as maize the seed coat is fused with the fruit wall.

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct

(2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

69) Endospermous seeds, axile placentation, epipetalous stamens are found in:

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Solanaceae

70) When filaments of stamens are united and anthers are free, the condition is called as........and
found in family..... :

(1) Syngenesious, Liliaceae.

(2) Synandrous, Fabaceae
(3) Syngenesious, Asteraceae
(4) Adelphy, Malvaceae

71) Which of the following is true regarding China rose ?

A. Imbricate aestivation
B. Alternate Phyllotaxy
C. Superior ovary
D. Diadelphous Cohesion of Stamen
E. Axile placentation

(1) B, C, D & E only

(2) A, C, D & E only
(3) B, C & E only
(4) C & D only

72)

The diagram below is representation of cells found in many herbaceous plants.

Which one of the following descriptions applies to the cells shown above?

(1) Epidermal cells with cuticle

(2) Endodermal cells with casparian strip.
(3) Sclerids with thick walls
(4) Pericycle cells with secondary thickenings

73) The youngest layer of secondary xylem lies :-

(1) Between pith and primary xylem.

(2) Just outside the vascular cambrium.
(3) Just inside the vascular cambium.
(4) Just inside the cork cambrium.

74) Starch sheath is starch rich

(1) Endodermis of monocot stem

(2) Semilunar patches of pericycle in dicot stem
(3) Innermost layer of cortex of dicot stem
(4) Ground tissue of monocot stem

75) Assertion : Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem.

Reason : A large number of scattered vascular bundles are found in monocot stem.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Guard cells

I. Are always bean-shaped and enclose stomatal pore.
II. Have differential thickening in their walls and possess chloroplast.

(1) Both I and II are incorrect

(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) II is correct but I is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are correct

77) Read the following four statement (a-d) and select correct statements:-
(a) Embryonic meristem is an example of primary meristem
(b) Apical meristem are responsible for primary growth
(c) Intercalary meristem occures between mature tissue
(d) Fascicular vascular cambium is example of lateral meristem

(1) statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct

(2) statements (b), (c) and (d) is correct
(3) statements (c), (d) and (a) is correct
(4) statements (a) and (d) is correct

78) Which tissue forms the major component within organs?

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Meristem

79) Vascular bundle which is shown in given diagram is found in :-

(1) Roots
(2) Sunflower stem
(3) Maize stem
(4) Maize leaf

80)

Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column
Column II Column III
I

Exarch Radial vascular

(i) Root
xylem bundles

Mesarch Conjoint vascular

(ii) Stem
xylem bundles

Endarch Conjoint open

(iii) Leaf
xylem vascular bundles
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

81) Read the following statements about the dicot root:

(a) The cortex consists of several layers of thin walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
(b) Endodermis is composed of single layer of barrel shaped cells without intercellular spaces.
(c) The pith is small or inconspicuous
(d) The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called medullary rays.
(e) There are usually two to four xylem and phloem patches.
Select the correct from options given below :-
(1) Only (a), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) Only (a), (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) Only (b), (c), (d) and (e) are correct

82) Which of the following are the features of a typical dorsiventral leaf ?
(a) Mesophyll differentiated into pallisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
(b) Presence of parenchymatous bundle sheath.
(c) The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than adaxial surface.
(d) Vascular bundles are open type.

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

83) Which one is false about monocot stem?

(I) Vascular bundles are scattered, conjoint, close, surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
and with water cavity
(II) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(III) Peripheral vascular bundles are smaller than centrally placed ones
(IV) Ground tissue is differentiated into cortex, pericycle, pith, etc
(V) Homogeneous parenchymatous ground tissue

(1) I, III, V
(2) III, IV
(3) IV only
(4) V only

84) Which of the following is responsible for leaf rolling and unrolling in monocot :

(1) Bundle sheath

(2) Bulliform cell
(3) Spongy tissue
(4) Palisade tissue

85) Read the following statements with respect to Annual ring formation and select the correct
option.
(a) In the spring season, cambium is very active & produces a large number of xylary elements
(b) The wood formed during spring season is called late wood.
(c) Early wood having vessels with wider cavities.
(d) Autumn wood is lighter in colour and has a higher density.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only
86) Palisade parenchyma in leaf is / has

(1) Towards abaxial epidermis

(2) Made up of elongated cells, arranged vertically
(3) Numerous large spaces present between cells
(4) No chloroplasts

87) Thin-walled, vacuolated living cells with intercellular spaces are present in
(i) Epidermis
(ii) Hypodermis
(iii) Cortex and pith
(iv) Endodermis and pericycle
(v) Mesophylls

(1) (iii), (v)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) All, except (ii)

88) The first formed primary xylem elements are called protoxylem & the later formed primary
xylem is called metaxylem, which of the following is correct regarding their position?

In stem protoxylem lies towards the centre & metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the
(1)
organ.
(2) In roots the protoxylem lies towards periphery & metaxylem towards the centre.
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) In roots protoxylem is present towards centre while metaxylem is present towards periphery

89) How many of the following is/are true for ground tissue system :-
(A) It is made up of simple permanent tissues.
(B) Vascular tissue is a part of ground tissue system in leaf.
(C) Undifferentiated ground tissue is present in monocot stem and monocot root.
(D) Medulla is a part of ground tissue system of dicot stem.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

90)

Which of the following cells are parenchymatous

(a) Hypodermal cells in dicotyledons
(b) Medullary ray cells
(c) Epidermal cells
(d) Xylem fibre

(1) Only b & c are correct

(2) Only a & b are correct
(3) Only b & d are correct
(4) Only a & c are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explanation:
We need to verity whether doubling the linear momentum results in a fourfold increase in

kinetic energy using the given formula KE =

Concept:

Kinetic energy is related to momentum is :

KE =
if p is double, we check how KE changes.

Formula:

KE =

Brief Calculation:

Let initial momentum be p, then kinetic energy is:

KE1 =
if momentum is doubled, p' = 2p:

KE2 = = = 4KE1
Thus, kinetic energy becomes four times when momentum is doubled.

2)
N = 50 N
fL = 0.6 × 50 = 30 N
fK = 0.5 × 50 = 25 N

3) W = FS cosθ
If θ = 90°, W = 0
4) Acceleration of system =
Normal force between B and C is = 3 × 2 N = 6 N
Normal force between A and B is = 4 × 2 = 8 N
Normal force between C and D is = 2 × 2 = 4 N

5)

correct answer

6)

7) Change in momentum,

Δp =
= Area of F-t graph

= ×2×6–3×2+4×3
= 12 N-s

8)

9)
T2 = (m1 + m2) a
= (20 + 10) 1 = 30 N

10)

correct answer

11)
12)
T2 cos30°=T1
T2sin30 = 2kg-w.t.
T2 = 4kg-wt

13)

Reading of spring balance = Tension in each spring

= 4 kg

14)

15)

MBg ≥ μMAg
M ≥ 0.2(4)
M ≥ 0.8 kg

16) a = g sin θ – μg cosθ

 = g[sin45° – 0.5 × cos 45°]

= 1

17)

As flim = µ Nw = 0.2 × 64 = 12.8 N

fs = 48 - 40 = 8 N (static)
acceleration = 0 m/s2

18) Question Explanation: Find KE increase percentage for 200% momentum increase.

Concept: This question is based on relation between kinetic energy and momentum.

Solution:

p1 = p
Percentage increase in kinetic energy

= = =
= 800%

Final answer: The correct option is (3).

19) Energy loss =

= 4.9 J

20)

For equilibrium
F=0
21) x =

V=
V(t = 3) = 3m/s

W.D. =

W.D =
= 13.5 J

22) Explain :- F – x graph is given and work done by force is asked.

Concept :- Work done by a variable force
Formula :- W = area under F – x graph

Calculation : - W = Area = [3 × 3] + = 9 + 4.5

= 13.5J

23) Question Explanation: Find KE to PE ratio at a specific height for a vertically projected
stone.

Concept: This question is based on conservation of mechanical energy.

Solution:

At height =

∴ KE : PE = 1 : 4

Final answer: The correct option is (3).

24) 1. Question Explanation:

The problem involves two wires with different currents and radii: We need to find the drift
velocity of electrons in the second wire, given the current and radius changes.
2. Concept Based:
The drift velocity is related to current cross-sectional area, and material properties. When
current and radius change, drift velocity changes inversely with area for constant material
properties.
3. Formula Used:

4. Calculation:
For the first wire:
1. For the second wire:

Dividing gives:

Thus,
Answer: Option 1 is correct

25)
Re-Draw

26) 1. Question Explanation-

The circuit contains resistors in series and parallel, and the ammeter reads 0.1 A We need to
determine the unknown resistance R.

2. Concept-
Based Explanation Using Ohm's Law V = IR and the equivalent resistance of the circuit, we
can calculate R by equating total resistance to V/I.

3. Formula Used :
Step(1) : We should find voltage drop across the 20Ω Resistance

Using voltage division

parallel with (50+30)Ω

Step (2) : put the values of Ammeter current into the following eq.

Calculation -

Step (1) Using voltage division rule:

Step (2) Using ohm's law

Answer : option 2

27) 1. Question Explanation

The question is asking for the percentage change in resistance when a copper wire is
stretched by 0.1%. The problem involves understanding the relationship between resistance,
length, and volume.

2. Concept-Based
This question based on the relationship between resistance and the physical dimensions.

3. Formula Used
The resistance of a wire is given by:

For a constant volume, the volume of the wire remains the same. Thus, we have the volume
equation:

When the wire is stretched, its volume stays constant, so:

From this, the relationship becomes:

4. Calculation
The percentage change in resistance is approximately double the percentage change in
length ΔL/L:

Given , we find:

Answer: (2) 0.2%

28) Explanation:
We have two non- ideal batteries connected in parallel. Non-ideal batteries have both an emf
(electromotive force) and an internal resistance. We need to determine how the equivalent emf
and equivalent internal resistance of this parallel combination compare to the individual emfs
and internal resistances of the batteries.

Concept:
 When batteries are connected in parallel the positive terminals are connected together and
the negative terminals are connected together.
Equivalent Internal Resisatance:
For parallel resistors (including internal resistances) the reciprocal of the equivalent
resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
Formula

Calculation:
1. Equivalent Internal Resistance (r_eq):
1/r_eq = 1/r1 + 1/r2
r=eq =(r1+r2)/ (r1+r2)
This is the standard formula for parallel resistors. The equivalent internal resistance is always
smaller than either of the individual internal resistnces.
2. Equivalent EMF (E_ eq):
E_eq = (E1* r2 + E2* r1) / (r1+r2)
If E1 = E2, then E_ eq = E1 = E2
Therefore the equivalent emf is not always smaller than either of the two emfs.
Correct option: (3)

29)

⇒ ⇒ A' = 5Ω
10Ω resistance should be connected in parallel with A resistance.

30) VA – 5 – (2 × 3) + 15 – (3 × 3) = VB
VA – VB = 5 Volt

31) VD – VC – iR = 0
0 – VC – 1(2) = 0
VC = –2V

32)

33)

Explanation:
In this question, we have to write the correct Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) equation.
Concept: Kirchhoff's Voltage Law: The algebraic sum of all voltage differences around any
closed loop is zero.
Calculations: The given figure is
Using sign convention as per K.V.L.
⇒
Conclusion: The correct answer is option - 3

34) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.

35)
VD = 40V

IDC =

36) When lamp B or C get fused equivalent resistance of B and C increases. In series voltage
distributes in the ratio of resistance, so voltage appearing across B increases or in other words
voltage across A decreases.

37)

I=
I – 10m = 500 m
I = 510 mA

38)

Explaining the Question :-

The problem asks to determine the net magnetic field at a point 'P' due to two long, parallel
wires carrying upward currents of 5A and 2.5 A.
Concept:-
The magnetic field produced by straight current-carrying conductors and the principle of
superposition
Solution :-

Let I1 = 5A and magnetic field due to this wire is B1 =

and I2 = 2.5A and magnetic field due to this wire is B2 =

Final Answer :- (2)

39)

Explaining the Question :-

The problem asks to calculate the line integral of the magnetic field around a given
circular loop, considering currents flowing through and outside the loop.
Concept:-
Applications of Ampere's Circuital Law and

0
Ampere's circuital law = µ Ienclosed
Solution :-
The net current enclosed by the loop is Ienclosed = (2i) + (i) + (–2i) = i

Final Answer :- (1)

40) Explanation :

In this questions we have to find the equivalent resistance between A and B.

Concept : Same as given in ID : 287848

Formula : Same as given in ID : 287848

Calculation :

In the figure are the there resistor are in parallel.

Therefore it can be redraw as

∴ Req =
⇒
Now find Req between A and B
⇒ 7Ω and 3Ω resistor are in series.
∴ Req = 7Ω + 3Ω = 10Ω
Now this 10Ω is in parallel with the 10Ω resistor between A and C.

∴ Req =

41)
As potential difference is same between A & B due to length of two paths current distribution

at A is such that i1 = , i2 = so magnetic field at centre is zero.

42)

∵ BAB = BPQ = BRS = 0

 43)

Explaining the question : We are given two concentric coils with radii of 2π cm. The
currents are 3 A and 4A in each coil respectively. We need to calculator the magnetic
induction at the center of the coils.

Concept : Biot - Savart law

Solution :
The magnetic field at the center of each coil is:

For each coil :

Resultant magnetic field:

Final Answer : Hence, option (1) is correct.

5 × 10–5

44)

45)

Theoritical

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Explanation

A. VSEPR theory predicts molecular shape based on minimizing electron pair repulsion
 around the central atom.

Concept

A. Count valence electrons: Xe (8) + 3F (3 x 7) - 1 (positive charge) = 28 electrons (14

pairs).

B. Central atom and bonding pairs: Xe is central, bonded to 3 F atoms (3 bond pairs).

C. Lone pairs: 14 total pairs - 3 bond pairs = 11 electrons / 2 = 5 electron regions. 5

electron regions - 3 bonding regions = 2 lone pairs.

D. Electron pair geometry: 5 electron regions arrange in a trigonal bipyramidal shape.

E. Molecular geometry: To minimize lone pair repulsion, the 2 lone pairs occupy equatorial
positions. This leaves the 3 bonding pairs in an axial and two equatorial positions,
forming a T shape.

Answer option 3, (T shape).

48)

Explanation -
The question asks which pair of molecular orbitals from the given options have the same
energy level (are degenerate).

Concept - (Degenrate energy level)

π2px and π2py molecular orbitals are degenerate, meaning they have the same energy. They
are formed from the sideways overlap of 2p atomic orbitals. Other orbital combinations listed
have different energy levels.

Final Answer - Option (3)

49) Explanation:- depole moment is asked

concept :- eq direction is used

solution:-

;hence it is a polar
50)

Conceptual

51)

Conceptual

52)

Conceptual

53)

Conceptual

54)

Conceptual

55) If the molecule last e– is remove from of B.M.O. it IE1 is greater than corresponding atom.

56) Explain Question : lattice energy is asked

Concept :
Solution :
not t
thus L.E order
∴ has highest lattice energy
Final Answer : option (2)

57)

Conceptual

58)

Conceptual

59)

Conceptual

60) Explain Question : The question asks to classify the element with atomic number 118
based on its position and properties on the periodic table.
Concept : This Question is based on Periodic table
Solution : The element with atomic number z=118 will be a 1, Noble gas.
Final Answer option (1)

61)

Basic strength
Question Explanation: Arranging compounds in decreasing basic strength.
Concept: Basicity
Solution: The basicity of an amine is determined by the availability of the lone pair on the
nitrogen atom. Electron-donating groups increase basicity. The methyl group (CH3​) is an
electron-donating group. The nitro group (NO2​) and the cyano group (CN) are electron-
withdrawing. The correct order is IV > I > III > II. Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 3

62) Question Explanation: Ordering the acidic strength.

Concept: Acidic Strength Solution: The acidity of a compound is determined by the stability
of its conjugate base. The order of acidity is influenced by the electron-withdrawing and
electron-donating effects of substituents. The correct order is II > IV > III > I.
Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 2

63)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64) Question Explanation:

Correct order of acidic strength of given compounds.
Concept: Acidic Strength a stabilifyed conjugated base
Solution:

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

Ortnoeffect strongestfied.

Final Answer (2)

65) Both sp2 hybridized carbon of 2-butene have different atom or group.

66)

67)
∴ Parent chain is different.

68) is aromatic; (4×0+2)=2πe– in conjugation and are anti-aromatic

due to 4πe–.
 is non-aromatic due to the presence of sp3 carbon.

69)

70)

NCERT, Amine Page No.# 391

71) –NO2 > – CN > –F > – NH2.

72) Ist is most stable due to non polarity, IInd is more stable than IIIrd since –ve is on more
electronegativity & +ve is on less electronegative.

73)
Both are functional isomer.

74)

Question Explanation :
Relation between given compound.

Concept :
This question is based on structural isomerism.

Solution :

&

metamers
Polyvalent : SO3-functional group are identical but attached alkyl or aryl pant are different.
So, there are metamers.

Final Answer : (3)

 75)
H.P. : Higher priority according to CIP rule

76)

77) Explain the question:The question asks us to balance a redox reaction in an acidic
medium.
Concept:Balancing redox reactions
Calculation:

A. Identify oxidation and reduction half-reactions:

A. Oxidation: C₂O₄²⁻ → 2CO₂ + 2e⁻ (Carbon's oxidation state increases)

B. Reduction: MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O (Manganese's oxidation state decreases)
B. Balance atoms and charges in each half-reaction:

A. In this case, the atoms and charges are already balanced.

C. Balance electrons:

A. Multiply the oxidation half-reaction by 5 and the reduction half-reaction by 2 to have 10

electrons on both sides.
B. Oxidation: 5C₂O₄²⁻ → 10CO₂ + 10e⁻
C. Reduction: 2MnO₄⁻ + 16H⁺ + 10e⁻ → 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O
D. Combine half-reactions:

A. Add the two half-reactions, canceling out the electrons:

B. 2MnO₄⁻ + 16H⁺ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O

Final answer:The balanced equation is: 2MnO₄⁻ + 16H⁺ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ +
8H₂OTherefore, the coefficients for MnO₄⁻, C₂O₄²⁻, and H⁺ are 2, 5, and 16, respectively.

78)

Fe3O4 is a mixture of 1 : 1 ratio of FeO & Fe2O3.

79) (1) xyz

+3 –5 +1 ≠ 0
(2) xyz2
+3–5+1×2 = 0
(3) x2yz
3x2 – 5 + 1 ≠ 0
(4) (xy)2z
(+3–5)×2 + 1 ≠ 0

80) Question Explanation : N2 + 3H2 ≓ 2NH3

Given:
• Inert gas (angon) is added
• Pressure is kept constant
• The system is gaseous and dynamic equilibrium exists
Concept:
affecting factor of Equilibrium

Explanation :
At constant pressure, adding an inert gas increases the total volume to keep pressure
constant.
This leads to a decrease in partial pressures of the reacting gases
The system will now shift to the tide with more moles of gas to increase pressure again In the
given reaction
• Reactants: 1 mol N2,+ 3 mol H2 = 4 mols
• Products 2 mol NH3
So, since the reactant side has more gas molecules, equilibrium will shift towards the left
(backward) to increase the total number of gas molecules

Final Answer: 2. Shift the equilibrium in backward direction

At constant pressure, adding argon cures the equilibrium to shift backward.

81)

Reaction proceed in backward direction. When reaction quotient is greater than equilibrium
constant.
∴ Q > Kc

82) Given:
• Reaction is exothermic
• Gaseous reactants and products
• Changes include temperature, pressure, catalyst, inert gas, and removal of product
Concept:
Le Chatelier's Principle

Explanation :
(a) Increase of temperature: Shifts equilibrium backward (exothermic) decreases yield
(b) Increase of pressure. Total gas moles decrease (2 →1), so equilibrium Shilts forward
increases yield
(c) Addition of catalyst: No effect on equilibrium, only increases rate no change in yield
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume: No effect on partial pressures ⇒ no change in
yield
(e) Removal of C. Equilibrium shifts forward to replace C ⇒ increases yield
Final Answer:
3. b & e
Only increase in pressure and removal of product C increase the yield.

83) Explanation find correct reactions goes most nearly to Completion.

Concept
K ≫ 1 (most nearly to Completion)
Correct option (3)

84)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3 K=2

2NH3 N2 + 3H2 ;

= = 0.5

85)

Explain Question : Compare given equilibrium constants for oxide → elements reaction to
determine most stable oxide.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of reactant ∝ 1/K(c)

Solution :
Given K values:
Option 1: K = 6.7 × 1016
Option 2: K = 2.2 × 1030
Option 3: K = 1.2 × 1034
Option 4: K = 3.5 × 1033
Smallest K = 6.7 × 1016 → highest stability.

Final Answer : option (1)

86)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question provides values of the equilibrium constant (Kc) at two
different temperatures (400 K and 500 K) and asks what conclusion can be drawn from this
data regarding the nature of the reaction or process.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is the temperature dependence of the
equilibrium constant (Kc) and how it relates to the reaction being endothermic or exothermic.
According to Le Chatelier's principle and van 't Hoff's equation, the equilibrium constant
changes with temperature based on the heat absorbed or released during the reaction.

Relevant Formulas: Van 't Hoff equation relates the change in the equilibrium constant with
temperature: Where: - are equilibrium constants at
temperatures - is the enthalpy change - is the gas constant. If increases with
increasing temperature, indicating an endothermic reaction.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given: Since

increases from to with rising temperature, it implies the reaction absorbs heat
(endothermic).

Tips and Tricks: Link the trend of K with temperature to the reaction enthalpy: increasing K
with temperature means endothermic; decreasing K means exothermic.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the effect of concentration changes with changes in

equilibrium constant. Equilibrium constant depends on temperature, not on concentration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Equilibrium constant increases with increase in
concentration' is incorrect because K depends on temperature, not concentration. 'Heat is
released' is incorrect because K increases with temperature only if heat is absorbed
(endothermic). 'None' is incorrect since data clearly suggests heat absorption.

87) Kc =

88)

A + B ⇌ C + D
t=0 a a
teq (a – x) (a – x) (x) (x)
∵ [D] = 2 [A]
⇒ x = 2 (a – x)
⇒ x = 2a/3

Now kc =

89)

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

t=0 1 mol 1 mol 1 mol
m
at eq 1–x 1+x 1+x
∵ [Cl2] = 1 + x = 1.5 M
∴ x = 0.5

Keq = =
 90) Explanation
Calculate the concentration of product by using equilibrium constant (Kc).
Given Data
• Equilibrium constant Kc = 16
• Reaction: A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g)
• Initial moles:
[A] = 1 M, [B] = 1 M, [C] = 0 M, [D] = 0 M
Concept
• Equilibrium constant:

Calculation
Let the change in concentration of C and D at equilibrium be x.
So, the equilibrium concentrations will be:
[A] = (1-x), [B] = (1-x), [C] = x, [D] = x
Substituting into the equilibrium expression:

Kc =

Kc =

16 =
Taking square root on both sides:

4=
4 = 5x

x = = 0.8 M
Answer option 3, (0.8 M)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 298

93)

correct answer

94) Question Explanation: Identifying the vessel with the least urea.
Concept: Excretory system and circulation
Solution: The renal vein carries blood away from the kidneys. Since the kidneys filter urea
and other waste products from the blood, the blood leaving the kidneys will have the lowest
concentration of urea. The hepatic vein carries blood away from the liver, where urea is
produced. The dorsal aorta supplies blood to the entire body, and the hepatic portal vein
carries blood from the intestine to the liver.
Final Answer: Renal Vein

95)

correct answer

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 296

97)

correct answer

98)

NCERT Page # 207 (Fig. 16.3)

99) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 293, para-2

100) NCERT Pg.#297

101)

Floating ribs are the last two pairs of ribs in the human rib cage. These ribs (11th and 12th) are
called floating ribs because they are only attached to the vertebrae at the back and not to the
sternum in the front.

Therefore, the correct answer is : (1) 11th and 12th.

102)

Here's why: Sarcoplasmic reticulum: The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized

endoplasmic reticulum within muscle cells that stores calcium ions (Ca2+). Upon stimulation of
the muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm. This calcium then
binds to troponin, which triggers the muscle contraction process.
The correct answer is 2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

103) Module, Pg. # 163

104) NCERT XIth Pg.#306,307,308

105)

Explain Question : This question asking about the functional unit of contractile system in
striated muscle is
Concept : This question is based on Voluntary muscles
Explanation : A muscle fibre contains myofibrils, which are divided into repeating units
between two Z–lines. This unit, called the sarcomere, is the structural and functional unit of
contraction.
Final answer : 3

106)

correct answer

107)

correct answer

108)

NCERT Pg. # 221, 222

109)

correct answer

110)

Solution: In a resting sarcomere, the central part of the A-band where only thick filaments
(myosin) are present and there is no overlap with thin filaments (actin) is called the H-zone.

111)

correct answer

112)

NCERT BASED

113) NCERT Pg. No. # 302(E), 303(H)

114)

NCERT XI Pg.# 217

115)

NCERT Based
116) Module, Pg. # 141

117)

NCERT BASED

118)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which type of muscle has a special structure
called intercalated discs. It provides four options where muscles are found: Brain, Spinal cord,
Stomach, and Heart, and we need to identify the correct one.

Underlying Concept: Intercalated discs are unique structural features found in cardiac
muscle cells. These discs are specialized connections that link adjacent cardiac muscle cells,
allowing synchronized contraction of the heart. They are not present in muscles of other
organs like the brain, spinal cord, or stomach.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: intercalated discs are unique to cardiac muscle, which is found
only in the heart. So the keyword 'heart' should lead you to the correct answer.

Common Mistakes: Confusing muscles in other organs like the stomach (which has smooth
muscle) or assuming muscles in the brain or spinal cord have intercalated discs.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Brain and spinal cord contain nervous tissue, not
muscle tissue. Stomach contains smooth muscle, which lacks intercalated discs. Only the heart
has cardiac muscle with intercalated discs.

119)

Let's identify the bones labeled A, B, C, and D in the image.

A, B

A. These are the two long bones in the lower leg.

B. The larger one is the Tibia.

C. The smaller one is the Fibula.

A. This is the large, hip bone.

 B. It is formally known as the Coxal bone.

A. This is the triangular bone at the base of the spine.

B. It is called the Sacrum.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1. Tibia, Fibula, Coxal bone, Sacrum

120)

The correct answer is Option 4: Astrocyte.

Astrocytes are star-shaped glial cells that play a crucial role in forming the blood-brain
barrier. They create a tight seal between the blood vessels and the brain tissue, restricting the
passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain.

121) Explain Question :

Nissl's granules are found in ... and help in ...

Concept :
This question is based on Structure of neuron.

Explanation :
Nissl's granules occur in cyton and dendrites (not in axon) and are involved in protein
synthesis.

Final answer : 4

122)

Explain Question :
Pons varolii is characterised by a centre called -

Concept :
This question is based on Regulation of respiration.

Explanation :
Pons varolii contains the pneumotaxic centre, which regulates breathing rhythm.

Final answer: 4

123) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 316

124)

Explain Question : TO IDENTIFY THE TERM USED FOR tract of nerve fibres THAT
CONNECTS THE Cerebral hemispheres
Concept : This question based on FOREBRAIN
Explanation : Corpus Callosum ARE THE tract of nerve fibres THAT CONNECTS THE
Cerebral hemispheres
Final answer : 3

125) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 321

126)

NCERT PAGE NO. 232

127)

NCERT based

128) NCERT Page No. # 318

129) NCERT Page No. # 319

130)

NCERT based

131)

NCERT based

132)

NCERT Based

133)

NCERT Based

134)

NCERT Based

135)
NCERT Based

136) NCERT (XI) Pg.# 66

137) NCERT 11, Pg.# 68

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 70

139) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 71

140) NCERT Pg.76

141)

NCERT XI Pg. No.#72

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 74

143) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 73, Para - 1, line-1,2,3,4,5

144)

Concept :-
Androecium ,fruit and seed
1. The seed in grasses is not endospermic.-Incorrect
Grasses seeds are endospermic
2. Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit.-Incorrect
Mango is drupe fruit
3. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain.-correct
4. A sterile pistil is called a staminode. Incorrect
A sterile stamen is called staminode.
Answer :- 3
NCERT Pg. # 66, 67

145) NCERT Pg. # 79, 80, 81

146) NCERT Pg. # 78, 79, 80, 81

147) NCERT XI Pg # 77

148)
Explain Question : Question asking about to select the correct floral formula for the
Cruciferae (Brassicaceae) family.

Concept : This question is based on Cruciferae (Brassicaceae) family.

Solution :
correct floral formula of Cruciferae (Brassicaceae) family-

Ebr Ebracteate (no bract) - bract absent

⊕ → Actinomorphic flower
K 2 + 2 → 4 sepals, in two whorls (2 outer +2 inner)
C 4× → 4 petals, cruciform arrangement (free, cross-shaped)
A 2 + 4 → Tetradynamous stamens (4 long + 2 short)
G(2) → Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary, superior ovary.

Final Answer : option (4)

149) NCERT XI Eng Pg # 71 para 4 line 8

NCERT XI Eng Pg # 72 para 1 line 1

150) NCERT XI Pg # 78, 80-81

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 81

152) Question Explanation : The question asking select correct statements about leaf.
Concept:
This question is based on THE LEAF.

Solution:
(A) Stipules are small, leaf-like structures at the base of the petiole - Correct
(B) In some leguminous plants, the leaf base becomes swollen and is called a pulvinus -
Correct
(C) "The veins are parallel in reticulate venation" - Incorrect
(D) Leaf originates from the shoot apical meristem - Correct
The leaf originates from shoot apical meristem.

Final answer: 1. Statement A, B, D

153) The correct answer is:

i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
Explanation:
• Marginal placentation: Found in pea ( option c ). The ovules are attached along the margin of
the ovary.
• Axile placentation: Found in tomato ( option b ). The ovules are attached to the central axis
in a multilocular ovary.
• Free central placentation: Found in Dianthus ( option d). Ovules are attached to a central
column without partitioning the ovary.
• Parietal placentation: Found in mustard ( option a). Ovules are attached to the inner walls of
the ovary.

154)

NCERT XI Page No. # 75

155)

NCERT-XI, Page # 65, 67, 70

156)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 71

157) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the specific name of the single cotyledon found in a maize (corn) seed.

Concept :
This question is based on Monocotyledonous Seed.

Solution :
"The embryo in maize grain is situated on one side of the endosperm. It consists of one large
and shield-shaped cotyledon known as scutellum"

Final Answer :
Option (3)

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 77

159)

NCERT Page # 68

160)

Explain Question : Question asking about floral characters of Malvaceae family

Concept : This question is based on Malvaceae family

Solution :

When filaments of stamens are united and anthers are free, the condition is called as........and
found in family.... Monoadelphous ,Malvaceae family.
The presence of Monoadelphous stamens is a characteristic feature of the Malvaceae
family.

Final Answer : option (4)

161)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given statements about China rose (a
plant) are true. It lists various botanical features such as leaf arrangement (phyllotaxy), ovary
position, stamen structure, and placentation type, and asks you to select the correct
combination.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding the botanical characteristics
of China rose, focusing on leaf arrangement (phyllotaxy), flower anatomy (including ovary
position and stamen cohesion), and placentation types within the ovary. These are basic plant
morphology concepts important in identifying and classifying angiosperms.

Tips and Tricks: Remember key morphological features unique to China rose: alternate
phyllotaxy and axile placentation are quite distinctive. Also, focus on the position of the ovary
(superior vs inferior) as a quick identification trait.

Common Mistakes: One common error is assuming the ovary is inferior or mistaking the type
of stamen cohesion. Also, confusing leaf arrangement types can lead to wrong answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mentioning imbricate aestivation or

diadelphous cohesion of stamens are incorrect because China rose has valvate aestivation and
monadelphous stamens, respectively.

162) NCERT Pg. # 91

163)

NCERT XI Page # 95

164) Pg # 68

165)

Question Explanation: Arrangement of vascular bundles.

Concept: Plant Stem Anatomy.

Solution:
The Assertion is correct; dicot stems have vascular bundles arranged in a ring. The Reason is
also correct; monocot stems have their vascular bundles scattered. However, the reason
describes the arrangement in a monocot stem, which is a contrasting feature, not an
explanation for why dicot stems have a ring arrangement. Therefore, both statements are true,
but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.

Final Answer: Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

166) NCERT Pg. # 88

167) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 85

168)

NCERT XI Pg.86

169) NCERT XI, Page # 90

170) Question Explanation :

The question asks you to identify the correct row from a table that matches a plant organ
(Column I) with its characteristic vascular tissue arrangement (Column II) and overall vascular
bundle type (Column III).
Concept :
This question is based on Types of Vascular Bundles.
Solution :
In roots, xylem is exarch and vascular bundles are radial.
Final Answer :
Option (1)

171)

NCERT-XI Pg#91

172) NCERT XI Pg. # 93, 6.3.5

173) NCERT (XI) Pg # 93

174) NCERT XI Pg # 92

175) NCERT-XI Pg. # 96

176) NCERT based

177) NCERT Pg.#86

178) Question Explanation: Position of protoxylem and metaxylem.

Concept: Xylem tissue arrangement
Solution: The arrangement of xylem is known as endarch in stems and exarch in roots. In
endarch arrangement (stems), the protoxylem (first-formed) is positioned toward the center,
while the metaxylem (later-formed) is positioned toward the periphery. In exarch arrangement
(roots), the protoxylem is toward the periphery and the metaxylem is toward the center. Both
statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Final Answer: Both 1 and 2

179)

Explain Question: The Question asks to select correct statement about ground tissue system.
Concept: This question is based on ground tissue system.
Solution:
(A) It is made up of simple permanent tissues.-correct
(B) Vascular tissue is a part of ground tissue system in leaf.-Incorrect
All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue. It consists of
simple tissues such as parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
(C) Undifferentiated ground tissue is present in monocot stem and monocot root.-Incorrect
The anatomy of the monocot root has epidermis, cortex, endodermis, pericycle, vascular
bundles and pith
(D) Medulla is a part of ground tissue system of dicot stem.-correct
Final answer: option (3)

180)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 89, 86