RUSTOMJIE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, JALGAON
Final Exam - Science
Date : 14/01/2026 Revision Paper Grade : 9
General Instruction.
[Link] question paper consists of questions in 3 sections.
Section. A is Biology, Section B is Chemistry, Section C is Physics,
2. All questions are compulsory, however an internal choice provided for some questions. A
student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
3. Section A. carries 30 marks
4. Section B. carries 25 marks
5. Section C. carries 25 marks
SECTION – A Biology
Q.1) MCQS
1) Select the correct statement.
(a) Broilers are maintained for getting meat.
(b) Layers are man aged for the purpose of getting eggs.
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of the above.
2) Mitosis cell division is seen during
(a) Replacement of old and dead cells
(b) During tissue healing
(c) Formation of gamets
(d) Both A and B
3) Mitochondria is called as semiautonomous organalle because
(a) It has its own DNA.
(b) It has its own ribosomes
(c) It syn the size ATR
(d) Both A and B
4) Which of the following statement is true
(a) Most abundant animal tissue is muscular tissue.
(b) Most abundant animal tissue is connective tissue.
(c) Most abundant animal tissue is connective tissue.
(d) None of the above.
Question no 5 to 8 consist of two statements…. A) assertion and R) reason. Answer
the following questions by selecting appropriate options given below.
(a) Both Assertion(A) and reason(R) are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and reason(R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) Assertion A is true but reason R is false.
(d) Assertion A is false but reason R is true.
5) Assertion A) Multicellular organisms have higher survival value than the unicellular
organisms.
Reason R) Dead cells are replaced by new cells in Multicellular organisms
6) Assertion A) Compost is also prepared by using earthworm. Reason R) Earthworm are
used in vermicomposting to hasten the process of the decomposition.
7) Assertion A) Chloroplast perform photosynthesis. Reason R) Chloroplast comprises
photosynthesis pigments.
8) Assertion A) Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary. Reason R) Skeletal muscles
are striated and involuntary.
Q.2) Very short answer type questions
1) What is the function of nucleus in cell.
OR
1) Write down the function of plasma membrane.
2) Write down the difference between the tendons and ligament
Q.3) Short questions
1) Write down the difference between mitosis and meiosis.
2) Draw the diagram of Mitochondria, label it, and give its function
OR
2) Draw the diagram of chloroplast label it and given its functions.
3) Define following
(a) Green manure
(b) Hybridization
(c) Composting
Q.4) Long answer type question.
1) Large amount of food grains get spoiled every year in India due to improper storage
of food grains. What factors are responsible for losses of food grains during storage?
How can this be avoided?
OR
1) Write down the different methods of crop variety improvement.
Q.5) Case Study
In case of humans body consists of 4 types of tissue. Amongst that connective tissue is
the most abundant tissue. Connective tissue are further classified into loose, dense and
specialised connective tissues
1. The maximum body weight is due to which type of connective tissue.
2. Which tissue is responsible for providing the shape of body.
3. Which is responsible for body movement.
4. Which is responsible for sensing the environment.
SECTION – B Chemistry
Q.1) MCQS.
1) The conditions under which air is liquefied are.
(A) Height temparature, low pressure
(B) Low temparature, height pressure
(C) height temparature, height pressure
(D) Low temparature, low pressure.
2) Aquatic animals using oxygen dissolved in water because of the phenomenon of
(A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion (C) Sublimation (D) Transpiration
3) The tincture of iodine is made by dissolving?
(A) Iodine in potassium iodide.
(B) Iodine in vaseline
(C) Iodine in water.
(D) Iodine in alcohol.
Question no 4 to 6 consist of two statements Assertion A) and Reason R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate options given below
(A) Both assertion A) and Reason R) are true and assertion is the correct explanation
for reason.
(B) Both assertion A) and Reason R) are true but reason R) is not the correct
explanation for the assertion A).
(C) Assertion A) is true but Reason R) is false.
(D) Assertion A) is false but Reason R) is true.
4) Assertion A) Ions are always positively charged. Reason R) Ions are farmed by losing
or gaining of electrons.
5) Assertion A) – the correct symbol of gold is au Reason R) – the latin name of gold is
kalium.
6) Assertion A) colloidal pasticles do not show tyndall offect.
Reason R) – colloidal solutions are stable and colloidal partiones do not settle down.
Q.2) Very Short answers type questions
1) a) Is ice water homogeneous or heterogeneous substance? Is it pure or impure
substance?
b) Is fresh air free of dust particles and impurities of all other kind, a pure substance?
2) State the laws of chemical combined on. Name the sclentist who psoposed them.
OR
2) Nrite down the cationas and anions present (If any) in the following compounds
a) CH3 coo Na b) Nacl c) H2 d) NH4 No3
Q.3) Short answer type questions.
1) Compare the properties of solids Liquids, and Gases with respeet to shape, volume,
compressibility, Diffusion and fluidity or Rigidity.
2) Give the Difference between Homogeneous mixture and Heterogeneous mixture.
OR
2) Give the difference between True solution and colloidal solution.
Q.4) Long answer type question.
1) Deseribe Rutherfordis X-particle scatering experiment and mention the important
observations and conclusions drawn from this experiment.
OR
1) Define and give example
a) Valency b) Valance electrons c) Isotopes Isobars d) What is the different
between Na and Na+ in terms of number of electrons?
e) An atom of an element has 5 electrons in L shell- what is the atomic number of the
element and give its latency.
Q.5) Case study
The teacher instructed three students Aaditya, ved, parth respectively to prepare a 50%
(Volume by Volume) Solution of NaoH. Aaditya dissoparth dissolves 50ml of NaoH in
100ml of water, ved dissolves 100ml of NaoH in 500ml of water white parth dissolves
50ml of NaoH in water to make 100ml of solution which one of them has made the
desired solution?
a) Define 50% volume by volume solution of NaoH
b) Analyse solution made by Aaditya
c) Analyse solution made by ved
d) Analyse solution made by parth which one is desired solution.
SECTION – C Physics
Q.1) MCQS
1) The area under the velocity – time graph of a body gives
a) The speed ok the body
b) The retardation of the body
c) The acceration of the body
d) The distance travelled by the body.
2) A body is thrown vertically with velocity u, the greatest height in to which it will rise
is.
a) µ/g b) µ2/2g c) µ2/g d) µ/2g
3) 4 passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls behind him It means that
motion of the train is.
a) Accelerated b) Uniform c) Retarted d) Along circular tracks
4) At what place on the Earth’s surface is the weight of a body minimum?
a) At the equator b) At all places the weight is equal
c) At the north pole d) At the south pole.
Question 5 to 6 consist of two statements Assertion A) and Reason R). Answer these
question by selecting the appropriate options given below.
a) Both assertion A) and Reason R) are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
b) Both Assertion A) and Reason R) are correct but reason is not the correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion A) is true but Reason R) false.
d) Assertion A) is false but Reason R) is correct.
5) Assertion A) 4 balloon filled with hydrogen gas floats in the air.
Reason R) the up thrust acting on the balloon is grater than its weight.
6) Assertion A) – work done by the force can be positive or negative.
Reason R) Force is taken as positive when it acts opposite to the direction of
displacement.
Q.2) Very Short question
1) Define work write an expression for work in terms of force and displacement. State
S.I. Unit of work done.
2) When a stone is thrown into a pond what type of wayes are produced? Draw its
displacement – time graph. Label crest, trough and wavelength an the graph.
OR
2) How do bats nove about freely even in dark nights and search out prey? Name the
sound wave used by them with their frequency
Q.3) Short answer questions
1) A hospital uses an Ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. What is the
wavelength of sound in a tissue in which the speed is 1cientific.7 km/s the operating
frequency of the scamer is 4.2 MH2 ( l MH2 = 106H2)
2) What is inertia ? Give types of inertia which example.
OR
2) What is work done? Give Scientific concept of work Explain positive negative and
zero work done.
Q.4) Long answer question
1) State the law of conservation of energy? Explain with the help of free fall of object
OR
1) What is Echo? What will be the minimum distance between the source of sound and
the obstacle? Explain why? What is Reverberation. Mention the uses of multiple
reflection of sound.
Q.5) Case study
Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.
A 1000 kg car moving at 30m/s come to a stop in 5 Sec when brakes are applied the
force required to stop the car is calculated using new tons second law to motion.
a) What is the equation used to calculate the force using new tons second law (l mark)
b) Calculate the force needed to stop the car (2 mark)
c) How does this concept explain the importance of applying brakes gradually instead
of suddenly?
RUSTOMJIE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, JALGAON
Final Exam – Math
Date : 14/01/2026 Revision Paper Grade : 9
RUSTOMJIE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, JALGAON
Final Exam – English
Date : 14/01/2026 Revision Paper Grade : 9
RUSTOMJIE INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL, JALGAON
Final Exam – Social Science
Date : 14/01/2026 Revision Paper Grade : 9
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections - A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40
words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question
should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section
B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.
Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
SECTION A HISTORY (20 marks)
1. Hitler's ideas of racialism were based on which of the following thinkers [1]
a) Charles Darwin b) Pluto
c) Rousseau d) Aristotle
2. On the political map of France, A is marked as a place from where the volunteers marched into the French [1]
capital. Identify it from the following options.
a) Nantes b) Bastille
c) Marseillaise d) Paris
3. The Great Depression was a period of [1]
a) Political Crisis b) Social Crisis
c) Global Crisis d) Economic Crisis
4. What was the Russian Parliament called? [1]
a) Tsar b) Weimar Republic
c) Duma d) Reichstag
5. What do you know about the Estates General? [2]
OR
'The eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of the middle class'. Who were they and what were their
ideas?
6. Highlight the ideology of Liberals? [3]
OR
Highlight the ideology of Conservatives?
7. What was the contribution of the French philosophers in the outbreak of the Revolution of 1789 in France? [5]
OR
Who formed the Jacobin Club? What measures had he taken to remove discrimination in the French society and form
a French Republic?
8. Read the given text and answer the following questions: [4]
Under the shadow of the Second World War, Germany had waged a genocidal war, which resulted in the mass
murder of selected groups of innocent civilians of Europe. The number of people killed included 6 million Jews,
200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans. Nazis devised an unprecedented means of killing
people, that is, by gassing them in various killing centers. The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven
leading Nazis to death. Many others were imprisoned for life. The retribution did come, yet the punishment of
the Nazis was far short of the brutality and extent of their crimes. The Allies did not want to be as harsh on
defeated Germany as they had been after the First World War.
i. What is a genocidal war?
ii. Name the killing centers employed for mass killing.
iii. What was the reason behind killing these 70,000 Germans?
9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of the world. Identify then and write their [2]
correct names on the lines drawn near them
A. Name a country which faced the Nuclear bomb.
B. The national anthem of France got its name from the name of this place.
SECTION B GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)
10. Sambhar Lake is situated in: [1]
a) Haryana b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan d) Maharashtra
11. The following table shows the Magnitude and Rate of India’s Population Growth. Read the data and select the [1]
appropriate option from the following:
Total Population (in Absolute Increase in the Decade (in Annual Growth Rate
Year
million) million) (%)
1951 361.0 42.43 1.25
1961 439.2 78.15 1.96
1971 548.2 108.92 2.20
1981 683.3 135.17 2.22
1991 846.4 163.09 2.16
2001 1028.7 182.32 1.97
2011 1210.6 181.46 1.64
Since which year has the rate of growth started declining gradually?
a) 1981 b) 2001
c) 1971 d) 1991
12. On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. [1]
On the physical map, A is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada. Identify it from the
given options.
a) Chotanagpur plateau b) Central Highlands
c) Malwa plateau d) Deccan Plateau
13. Find the odd one out with respect to Brahmaputra River System. [1]
a) Tibet, Mansarowar lake, Namcha Barwa, b) Meghna, Ambala, Farakka, West Bengal
Arunachal Pradesh
c) Tsang Po, Majuli, Assam, Bangladesh d) Dihang, Dibang, Lohit, Jamuna
14. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with [1]
a) China b) Myanmar
c) Nepal d) Bhutan
15. Which of the following range is the most continuous and consists loftiest peaks? [1]
a) Plateau b) Shiwaliks
c) Himadri d) Himachal
16. What are the problems faced by adolescents in India? [2]
17. Why is monsoon considered a unifying bond? [5]
OR
Write a note on South-west Monsoon season or Rainy season.
18. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The Indian landmass has a central location between East and West Asia. India is a southward extension of the
Asian continent. The trans-Indian Ocean routes, which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the
countries of East Asia, provide a strategic central location to India. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the
Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western
coast and with Southeast and East Asia from the eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on the
Indian Ocean as India has and indeed, it is India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean, which justifies the
naming of an Ocean after it. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, India’s distance from Europe has been
reduced by 7000 km. India’s contacts with the World have continued through ages but her relationships through
the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. The various passes across the mountains in the north
have provided passages to the ancient travellers, while the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time.
These routes have contributed to the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times.
i. When did the Suez Canal first open? How has it helped India? (1)
ii. State any two reasons that make India's strategic location at the head of the Indian Ocean so important. (1)
iii. Which peninsula helps India to establish easy contact with West Asia, East Africa, and Europe from the
Western coast? (2)
19. On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols. [3]
I. Any one of the following:
i. Largest state according to area
ii. Sariska - Wildlife Sanctuaries
II. Any two of the following:
iii. Western Ghats
iv. Wular - Lake
v. Coastal Plains - Coromandel
SECTION C POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)
20. Which of the following is true with reference to ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’ ? [1]
A. Every person has a right to profess and propagate the religion he/she believes in.
B. All are free to sacrifice animals as offerings to supernatural forces or gods.
a) A is true but B is false b) Both A and B are true
c) Both A and B are false d) A is false but B is true
21. How many seats are reserved for the SC in the Lok Sabha? [1]
a) 81 b) 84
c) 80 d) 78
22. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitution? [1]
a) 36 members b) 299 members
c) 101 members d) 206 members
23. Assertion (A): True democracy means no one goes hungry to bed. [1]
Reason (R): Democracy deals only with decision-making.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
24. Why is it said that rights acquire meaning only in a society? [2]
25. Who are Cabinet Ministers? [2]
26. Why does the Election Commission have so much power? Is this good for democracy? [3]
27. Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true. [5]
a. The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
b. Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
c. Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.
d. A constitution is about institutions, not about values.
OR
Why is the Preamble very important?
28. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by
ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, ruled the country since
independence. Elections were held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF. President Mugabe was popular but
also used unfair practices in elections. Over the years his government changed the constitution several times to
increase the powers of the President and make him less accountable. Opposition party workers were harassed
and their meetings disrupted. Public protests and demonstrations against the government were declared illegal.
There was a law that limited the right to criticise the President. Television and radio were controlled by the
government and gave only the ruling party’s version. There were independent newspapers but the government
harassed those journalists who went against it. The government ignored some court judgments that went against
it and pressurised judges. He was forced out of office in 2017. The example of Zimbabwe shows that popular
approval of the rulers is necessary for a democracy, but it is not sufficient. Popular governments can be
undemocratic. Popular leaders can be autocratic. If we wish to assess a democracy, it is important to look at the
elections. But it is equally important to look before and after the elections. There should be sufficient room for
normal political activity, including political opposition, in the period before elections. This requires that the state
should respect some basic rights of the citizen. They should be free to think, to have opinions, to express these in
public, to form associations, to protest and take other political actions. Everyone should be equal in the eyes of
law. These rights must be protected by an independent judiciary whose orders are obeyed by everyone.
i. Since Zimbabwe's independence, which party has ruled the country? (1)
ii. How did Zimbabwe's constitution change under President Mugabe? Explain it with any two points. (1)
iii. What is shown by the example of Zimbabwe? (2)
SECTION D ECONOMICS (20 marks)
29. In the secondary sector which of the following is the most labour absorbing? [1]
a) Small scale manufacturing b) Quarrying
c) Trade d) Mining
30. Ramlal is a villager living in a kacchha house. He was not getting any work leading to the condition of poverty. [1]
Subsequently, a new scheme was launched in the village and Ramlal got the assured work of 100 days. Based on
the above case, name the scheme launched in the village.
a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana.
Employment Guarantee Act
c) Rural Employment Generation Programme d) Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana
31. Fill in the blank: [1]
Poverty alleviation scheme Objective
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana Bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line
Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana ?
a) Creating self-employment opportunities in b) Adopting modern technology in education
rural areas in rural areas
c) Providing food at subsidized rates in rural d) Providing insurance in crop failure in rural
areas areas
32. Which of the following states achieved the highest growth rate in agriculture during the Green Revolution era? [1]
a) Punjab and Bihar b) Punjab and Haryana
c) West Bengal and Haryana d) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
33. Read the given table that shows some important features of PDS in India. Read the data and select the [1]
appropriate option from the following.
Year of Coverage target Issue Price
Name of Scheme Latest Volume
introduction group (Rs per kg.)
Wheat: 2.34
PDS Up to 1992 Universal -
Rice: 2.89
Wheat: 2.00
AAY 2002 Poorest of the poor 35 kg of foodgrains
Rice: 3.00
Indigent senior
APS 2000 10 kg of foodgrains Free
citizens
Wheat: 2.00
National Food Security Act 5 kg per person per Rice: 3.00
2013 Priority households
(NFSA) month Coarse grains:
1.00
[Source: Economic Survey]
Which scheme targeted the poorest of the poor?
a) AAY b) PDS
c) NFSA d) APS
34. Shyamlal is a farmer and is engaged in the cultivation of sugarcane. When the sugarcane is harvested all his [1]
production of sugarcane is transported to Ramlal who is a factory owner. In the factory, the sugarcane is
converted into jaggery and transported to market for the sale to consumers. Based on the above case, identify the
sector in which Ramlal is engaged.
a) Tertiary sector b) Secondary sector
c) All of these d) Primary sector
35. Study the given figure carefully, and answer the following questions: [3]
i. Which area/country of the world had the largest concentration of poor in 1981?
ii. Name the regions/countries where poverty has decreased (any two).
iii. Whether the poverty in South Asia is increasing or decreasing. Give reason.
36. What is Issue Price? [3]
37. How were the income disparities responsible for the increase in poverty in India? [3]
38. What does unemployment mean? What types of unemployment do we have in rural areas? [5]
OR
Describe the unfavourable effects of population growth in a country like India.