27-10-2025
4602CJA105021250013 JM
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I
1) A block of mass 2kg is moving with 10 m/s velocity on smooth fixed horizontal plane, what will the
maximum compression in spring ?
(A) 1 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 1 m
(D) 0.1 cm
2) A force is applied on the body of mass 2 kg which varies with displacement of body according to
the given graph. If initial kinetic energy is zero then final kinetic energy :-
(A) 60 J
(B) 30 J
(C) 100 J
(D) 120 J
3) Particles of masses 1, 2 and 3kg respectively are arranged at the corners of an equilateral triangle
as shown in figure. Obtain the moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the
centre of mass of the system and perpendicular to its plane. The side of the triangle is 1m :-
(A) 4 kg-m2
(B)
kg-m2
(C)
kg-m2
(D) 3.5 kg-m2
4) A triangular plate is shown. A force is applied at point P. The torque at point P
with respect to point 'O' and 'Q' are :-
(A) – 15 – 20 , 15 – 20
(B) 15 + 20 , 15 – 20
(C) 15 – 20 , 15 + 20
(D) –15 + 20 , 15 + 20
5) A uniform solid sphere rolls up (without slipping) the rough fixed inclined plane, and then back
down. Which is the correct graph of acceleration 'a' of centre of mass of solid sphere as function of
time t (for the duration sphere is on the incline) ? Assume that the sphere rolling up has a positive
velocity :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6) Which of the following are correct expression for torque acting on a body?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
( = position vector;  = linear momentum;
= angular momentum;
(A) B, D and E Only
(B) C and D Only
(C) B, C, D and E Only
(D) A, B, D and E Only
7) The following bodies of same mass 'm' and radius 'R' are allowed to roll down without slipping
simultaneously from the top of the inclined plane. The body which will reach first at the bottom of
the inclined plane is ______. [Mark the body as per their respective numbering
given in the question]
(A) a ring
(B) a disc
(C) a solid cylinder
(D) a solid sphere
8) Ι1, Ι2, Ι3 and Ι4 are the moment of inertial of square plate about the axis marked 1, 2, 3 and 4
respectively and Ι is the moment of inertia about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the
plate, Relation between them is given as :- (i) Ι = Ι1 + Ι2 (ii) Ι = Ι1 +
Ι3
(iii) Ι = Ι2 + Ι4 (iv) Ι = Ι1 + Ι2 + Ι3 + Ι4
Which of ṭhe following options is incorrect?
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (iv)
9) A bead can slide on a smooth straight wire and a particle of mass m attached to the bead by a
light string of length ℓ. The particle is held in contact with the wire and with the string taut and is
then let fall. If the bead has mass m then when the string makes an angle θ with the wire, the bead
will have slipped a distance :-
(A) ℓ(1 – cos θ)
(B) (ℓ/2) (1 – cos θ)
(C) (ℓ/3) (1 – cos θ)
(D) (ℓ/6) (1 – cos θ)
10) A bullet of mass 50 g is fired from below into the bob of mass 450 g of a long simple pendulum
as shown in Figure. The bullet stays inside the bob and the bob rises through a vertical height 1.8
m. What was the speed of bullet when it striked the bob?
(A) 40 m/sec
(B) 50 m/sec
(C) 60 m/sec
(D) 35 m/sec
11) Find the x coordinate of the centre of mass of the bricks shown in figure :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12) A system of three particles having masses m1 =1 kg, m2 = 2 kg and m3 = 4 kg, respectively,
connected by two springs. The accelerations of A, B and C at any instant are 1 m/sec2, 2m/sec2 and
(1/2) m/sec2, respectively, directed as shown in the figure. The external force acting on the system is
:-
(A) 1 N rightward
(B) 3 N rightward
(C) 3 N leftward
(D) Zero
13) A bead of mass m is free to slide on a fixed horizontal circular wire of radius R. At time t = 0, it
is given a velocity v0 along the tangent to the circle. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the
bead and the wire is µk, then magnitude of tangential acceleration at t = 0 will be :-
(A) µkg
(B)
(C)
(D)
14) The displacement-time graph of a moving particle with constant acceleration shown in figure.
The velocity graph is given by :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15) An aircraft is flying with 500 m/s in vertically upward direction. When it’s at 1 km from the
ground, a bullet is fired aiming to hit the aircraft with 700 m/s. Find minimum acceleration of
aircraft in vertical direction such that it just escapes the bullet :-
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
16) In the figure shown, a small ball hits obliquely a smooth and horizontal surface with speed u
whose x and y components are indicated. If the coefficient of restitution is , then its x and y
components vx and vy just after collision are respectively :-
(A) 4 m/s, 1 m/s
(B) 2 m/s, 1 m/s
(C) 2 m/s, 2 m/s
(D) 4 m/s, 2 m/s
17) Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on a fixed horizontal surface which is perfectly
smooth. The block B and C are at rest while the block A is approaching towards B with a uniform
velocity of 10 m/s. The coefficient of restitution for all the collisions is 0.5. The block C just after the
collision moves with the speed of :-
(A) 3.75 m/s
(B) 5.6 m/s
(C) 7.5 m/s
(D) zero
18) In case of pure rolling, what will be the velocity of point A of the ring of radius R ?
(A) vcm
(B)
(C)
(D) 2vcm
19) A solid cylinder starts rolling from a height h on an inclined plane. At some instant t, the ratio of
its rotational K.E. and the total K.E. would be :-
(A) 1:2
(B) 1:3
(C) 2:3
(D) 1:1
20)
A mass 'm' is supported by a massless string wound around a uniform bellow cylinder of mass m and
radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on
release?
(A)
(B) g
(C)
(D)
SECTION-II
1)
In the given figure the bar is uniform and weighing 500 N. How large must W (in N) be if T1 and T2
are to be equal ?
2)
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is I. Four such spheres are arranged as
shown in figure. Moment of inertia of the system about the axis XX'. (radius of each sphere is 2R) is
KI, then find K :-
3) Figure shows a smooth curved track terminating a smooth horizontal part. A spring of spring
constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to the wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A 40 gm.
mass is relased from rest at a height of 4.9 m. on the curved track. Find the maximum compression
of the spring (in cm) :-
4) A small frictionless block slides with velocity on the horizontal surface as shown in the
figure. The block leaves the surface at point C. The angle then find x :-
5) A ball is projected with horizontal velocity at the bottom most point attached with
inextensible string of length R and fixed at O as shown. Tension in the string in horizontal position is
kmg. Find the value of k :-
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I
1) What is the relationship between the given compounds :- and
(A) Positional isomer
(B) Functional Isomer
(C) Chain Isomer
(D) Metamer
2) The given following structures are :-
(a) (b)
(A) Chain isomer
(B) Ring-chain isomer
(C) Position isomer
(D) Not isomer
3) The IUPAC name of neopentane is :-
(A) 2–Methylpropane
(B) 2, 2–Dimethylbutane
(C) 2–Methylbutane
(D) 2, 2–Dimethylpropane
4) One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under 1 atmospheric pressure. It is
heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is :-
(A) 1.2 atm
(B) 2.4 atm
(C) 2.0 atm
(D) 1.0 atm
5) If Ka of HCN = 4 x 10-10, then the pH of 2.5 x 10-1 molar HCN (aq) is :-
(A) 4.2
(B) 4.7
(C) 0.47
(D) 5.0
6)
In which of the following combination, is buffer action expected ?
(a) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(b) HCl + NaCl
(c) NH4OH + HCl in 2 : 1 mole ratio
Select the correct answer using the code given below :-
(A) a & b
(B) a & c
(C) a, b & c
(D) None of these
7) (NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
The value of Kp for above equilibrium is 64 atm4.
The equilibrium pressure of the system is (consider initially only (NH4)2CO3 is present in container) :-
(A) 4 atm
(B) 8 atm
(C) 2 atm
(D) 6 atm
8) Heat evolved by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is :-
(A) 107 π J
(B) 106 π J
(C) 102 π J
(D) 104 π J
9) The IUPAC name of the given compound is
CH3 − CH = CH − C ≡ CH :-
(A) Pent-3-en-1-yne
(B) 2-Penten-4-yne
(C) 3-Pentyn-1-ene
(D) 2-Pentyn-1-ene
10) The enthalpy of neutralization of acetic acid and sodium hydroxide is –55.4 KJ/mol. What is the
enthalpy of ionization of acetic acid ?
(A) –1.9 KJ/mol
(B) +1.9 KJ/mol
(C) + 5.54 KJ/mol
(D) –5.54 KJ/mol
11) Find the number of moles of KMnO4 needed to oxidise one mole Cu2S in acidic medium. The
reaction KMnO4 + Cu2S → Mn+2 + Cu+2 + SO2
(A) 1.9
(B) 2.1
(C) 1.6
(D) 3
12) The correct structure of 6-ethyl-2, 3, 5-trimethylnonane is :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13) The density of O2 at NTP is 16. At what temperature it's density will be 14 ? [P=constant]
(A) 50°C
(B) 39°C
(C) 57°C
(D) 43°C
14) identify which type of bonds and how many bonds present in this NH4Cl compound?
(A) 2 Ionic bonds, 1 covalent bond, 1 dative bonds
(B) 1 ionic bond, 3 covalent bonds, 1 dative bond
(C) 2 ionic bonds, 2 covalent bonds, 1 dative bond
(D) 2 ionic bonds, 3 covalent bonds, 1 dative bond
15) The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula :-
(A) 3,3,3-Trimethyl-1-propene
(B) 1,1,1-Trimethyl-2-propene
(C) 3, 3-Dimethyl-1-butene
(D) 2, 2-Dimethyl-3-butene
16) Which of the following pairs of compounds are not positional isomers ?
(A)
and
(B)
and
(C)
and
(D) All of these
17) 518 g of an aqueous solution contains 18g glucose (M = 180). The molal concentration will be:
(A) 2m
(B) 1.5m
(C) 0.2m
(D) 4m
18) Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19) Which among the following is likely to show geometrical isomerism?
(A) CH3CH=CH2
(B) CH3CH=N–OH
(C) CH3C(Cl)=C(CH3)2
(D) CH2=CH–CH=CCl2
20)
Which of the following has chiral structure :-
(A)
(B) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(C)
(D) CH3–CHOH–CH2CH3
SECTION-II
1) Total how many structural isomers are possible from C3H6BrCl :-
2) How many functional groups are present in given compound :-
3)
1 M benzoic acid (pKa = 4.2) and 1M C6H5 COONa solutions are given separately. What is the volume
of benzoic acid required to prepare a 93 mL buffer solution of pH = 4.5 ?
4) The bond dissociation energy of XY, X2, and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1 :
0.5 and of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be
5)
Among the following, the number of species which are isostructural is_____
XeO3, CH4, SO3, NO3–, CO32–, BF3, PF5, BC 3
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I
1) The sum of last thirteen coefficients in the
expansion of (1 + x)25 is
(A) 225
(B) 224
(C) 223
(D) 0
2) If A denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of (1 – 3x + 10x2)n and B denotes the
sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of (1 + x2)n, then
(A) A = B3
(B) 3A = B
(C) B = A3
(D) A = 3B
100
3) Cr . 200C150+r is equal to
300
(A) C50
100
(B) C50
100
(C) C50.200C50
(D) None of these
4) Find numerically greatest term in the expansion
of (2 + 3 x)9, when .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5) 18 points are indicated on the perimeter of a triangle ABC (see figure). How many triangles are
there with vertices at these points?
(A) 331
(B) 480
(C) 710
(D) 711
6) If all the letters of the word “QUEUE” are arranged in all possible manner and the words formed
are written as in a dictionary, then the rank of the word QUEUE is
(A) 15th
(B) 16th
(C) 17th
(D) 18th
7) Two families with three members each and one family with four members are to be seated in a
row. In how many ways can they be seated so that the same family members are not separated ?
(A) 2!3!4!
(B) (3!)3.(4!)
(C) (3!)2.(4!)
(D) 3!(4!)3
8) Six cards and six envelopes are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and cards are to be placed in envelopes
so that each envelope contains exactly one card and no card is placed in the envelope bearing the
same number and moreover the card numbered 1 is always placed in envelope numbered 2. Then
the number of ways it can be done is
(A) 264
(B) 265
(C) 53
(D) 67
9) If the circumcentre of a triangle lies at origin and the centroid is the middle point of the line
segment joining the points (a2 + 1, a2 + 1) and (2a, –2a), then orthocentre will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
10) The image of the point (3, 5) in the line x – y + 1 = 0, lies on
(A) (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 = 12
(B) (x – 4)2 + (y + 2)2 = 16
(C) (x – 4)2 + (y – 4)2 = 8
(D) (x – 2)2 + (y – 4)2 = 4
11) The sum is equal to
(A) 101 × (10!)
(B) (11)!
(C) 10 × (11!)
(D) 11 × (11!)
12) Let x, y be positive real numbers and m, n positive integers. The maximum value of the
expression is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 1
13) If a1, a2, a3, ......, an are in A.P. and
a1 + a4 + a7 + ...... + a16 = 114,
then a1 + a6 + a11 + a16 is equal to
(A) 38
(B) 98
(C) 76
(D) 64
14) The values of 'a' for which the quadratic equation
(a2 – a – 2)x2 + 2ax + a3 – 27 = 0 has roots of opposite signs are
(A) (–1, 2) ∪ (3, ∞)
(B) (–∞, –1) ∪ (2, 3)
(C) R \ (–1, 2)
(D) R \ (2, 3)
15) If α, β are the roots of the equation, x2 – 3x – 15 = 0
and , then is equal to
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 15
(D) None
16) Let x = sin 1°, then the value of the expression
+ .... + is equal to
(A) x
(B)
(C)
(D)
17) If α = then the value of is equal to
(A)
(B)
–
(C)
(D)
–
18) Number of values of x satisfying
tanx + tan2x + tan3x = tanx tan2x tan3x on the interval [0, π] is/are
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
19)
If then x belongs to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20)
The number of values of 'x' for which
is satisfied
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 0
SECTION-II
1) For natural numbers m and n,
if and
, then (m + n) =
2) The number of distinct permutations of the letters of the word STATISTICS that begin and end
with the letter S is
3) The number of solutions of xyz = 120 are, when x, y, z ∈ N
4) Number of solution(s) of the equation
in the interval [–π, π] is
5) If the area of parallelogram formed by lines
4y – 3x – a = 0, 3y – 4x + a = 0, 4y – 3x – 3a = 0
and 3y – 4x + 2a = 0 is then value of α is
ANSWER KEYS
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B A D A D A D D B C B B C A A C B B B C
SECTION-II
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 1500.00 9.00 9.80 6.00 7.00
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I
Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B D D B D B B C A B C A B B C C C B B D
SECTION-II
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 5.00 4.00 31.00 300.00 5.00
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. B A A A D C B C A D C B C B B B A A C A
SECTION-II
Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 80.00 3360.00 90.00 8.00 7.00
SOLUTIONS
PART-1 : PHYSICS
1)
Explanation Question: The problem asks to find the maximum compression in a spring when
a block of mass 2kg moving with 10 m/s velocity hits it on a smooth horizontal fixed horizontal
plane. The spring constant is given as K = 2000 N/m.
Concept: This question is based on work energy theorem.
Solution:
20000 x2 = 2 × (10)2
x= = 10 cm
Final Answer :
The correct option is (2)
2) Question Explanation: Find the final speed of a body given the F−x graph and initial
kinetic energy.
Concept: Work-Energy Theorem (Wnet=ΔKE).
Solution: KEfinal=Area. Area is 100J.
3)
I = IC + mrC2 = 1 × 12 + 3 × 12
IC = 4 –
=4–
= = 3.5 kg-m2
4)
and
Torque about 'O'
Torque about 'Q'
5)
6) Conceptual
7) Mg sinθ R = (mk2 + mR2) α
α= ⇒
=
for least time, k should be least & we know k is least for solid sphere.
8) Using perpendicular axis theorem and also, hence option
4 is wrong.
9)
mx – my = 0
x=y
also x + y = ℓ (1 – cos θ)
10) Let the speed of bullet be v. Let the common velocity of the bullet and bob after the bullet
is imbedded into the bob is V. By principle of conservation of momentum
The string becomes loose and bob will go up with a deceleration, g =
10 m/sec2. As it comes to rest at a height 1.8 m we have v2 = u2 + 2as, or v = 60
m/sec.
11)
12)
The acceleration of centre of mass of the system
The net force acting on the system
13)
Net normal force
fk = µN
14) Refer class notes.
15)
16) vx = constant, vy = e × 4 = × 4 = 2 m/s
17)
A&B:
10 = v1 + v2 ....(1)
e= = 0.5 ⇒ v2 – v1 = 5 ....(2)
∴ v2 = 7.5 m/s
B&C:
7.5 = v3 + v4 ...(1)
e= = 0.5
v4 – v3 = 3.75 ...(2)
2v4 = 11.25 ⇒ v4 = 5.6 m/
18)
19) KεT = mν2
KεR = Iω2 =
Kεnet = KεT + KεR =
⇒ .
20)
mg – T = mq ..... (i)
..... (ii)
21)
Taking torque about attachment point for
W - T1 (0.4 L) + T2 (0.3 L) + 500 (0.2 L) = 0
T = 1000, where T1 = T2 = T
ΣFy = 0
2T - W - 500 = 0
W = 1500 N
22)
IYyx = 2I + 2I + 2mR2
2I + 2I + = 9I = KI = K = 9
23)
24)
–ΔU = ΔK
mg r (1 – cos θ) = ....(1)
mg cos θ = ....(2)
25) by conservation of momentum
3u + 0 = 3 u + mv ... (1) ... (2)
by solving both equation m = 1 kg.
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
26)
Functional Isomer
27) (a) and (b) are not isomer because they have different molecular formula. Molecular
formula of (a) is C8H18 & mol for. of (b) is C8H16.
28)
neopentane
29)
Answer is 2.4 atm
30) Ans.-(4)
31)
Combination of weak base (NH4OH) and its salt with strong acid (NH4Cl) act as basic buffer
solution
1 mole NH4OH & 1 mole NH4Cl are present in mixture after reaction. Hence it will also act as basic
buffer
32) Explanation:
Given:
Asked: Equilibrium pressure of system
Concept:
This Question is based on Equilibrium constant (Kp)
Solution:
(NH4)2CO3(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
2p p p
2
Kp = (2p) p.p = 64 atm
p = 2 atm
ptotal = 2p + p + p = 8 atm
Final Answer: Option: 2
33)
Magnitude of work done = Area under P – V curve
= 100π (KPa – L)
= 100π × = 102π J
∆U = 0 (for cyclic process)
∆U = q = W
|q| = 102 π J
34)
Pent-3-en-1-yne
35) Heat of ionization of weak acid
= 57.3 – 55.4
= 1.9 KJ
36)
KMnO4 + Cu2 S → Mn+2 + Cu+2 + SO2
(+7) (+1) (–2) (+2) (+2) (+4)
equivalents of oxidant = equivalents of reductant
∴ n × 5 = 1 × (2 × 1 + 6)
or n = 8/5 = 1.6 mol
37)
38)
39)
40)
3, 3-Dimethyl-1-butene
41) and
42) Correct answer is (C)
43)
Presence of α hydrogen is necessary for tautomerisation
44)
45)
Explain Question is asking about the chiral molecule.
Concept: This question is based on conditions of chiral molecule.
Solution: A chiral structure refers to a non - super imposable molecule on its mirror image.
Chiral molecules often contain stereogenic centers, usually a carbon atom bonded to four
different groups(i.e. chiral carbon).
Among the given molecules only option (4) has chiral center and molecule is chiral.
CH3–CH - CH2 - CH3
|
OH
Final answer: option (4).
46)
47)
48)
V = 31 ml
49)
The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be 300
50)
SO3, , BF3, BCl3
are iso-structural having trigonal planar geometry.
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
51) Sum of last thirteen coefficients
= 25C13 + 25C14 + 25C15 + ...... + 25C25
We know that
25
C0 + 25C1 + 25C2 +...... + 25C25 = 225
2(25C0 + 25C1 + ....... + 25C12) = 225
⇒ 2(25C25 + 25C24+ ..... + 25C13) = 225
⇒ 25C13 + 25C14 + .........+ 25C25 = 224
52)
Sum of coefficients in the expansion of
(1 – 3x + 10x2)n = A
then A = (1 – 3 + 10)n = 8n (put x = 1)
and sum of coefficients in the expansion of (1 + x2)n = B
then B = (1 + 1)n = 2n
A = B3
100
Cr 200C150 + r = 100
53) Cr 200C50–r = 300C50
54) (2 + 3x)9
r=6
55) 18C3 – 3 . 7C3
56) E ---------------- ; QE -------------
QUEEU ------- 1
QUEUE
So rank is 17th
Option C is correct.
57) Total numbers in three familes = 3 + 3 + 4 = 10
so total arrangement = 10!
Favourable cases
∴ Probability of same family memebers are together
so option(2) is correct.
58)
where D6 = Derangement of 6 persons
59)
then,
also,
Given orthocentre (O) will be
60)
So, x = 4, y = 4
Hence, (x - 2)2 + (y - 4)2 = 4
61)
=
= 10(11!) Ans.
62)
using AM GM
63)
⇒ a1 + a16 = 38
⇒ a1 + a6 + a11+ a16 = 2(a1+a16) = 76
64) < 0, i.e., f(0) < 0 after dividing by a2 – a – 2
65)
x2 – 3x – 15 = 0
⇒ α2 – 3α = 15 & β2 – 3β = 15
f(n) = αn + βn
66)
+ (tan 3° – tan2°) + (tan4° – tan3°) + ...+ (tan 45° – tan 44°)]
67)
68) tanx + tan2x + tan3x = tanx tan2x tan3x
⇒ 6x = nπ
But
Number of solutions are 4
69)
so
70)
put then
or t = 1
71) .....
On differentiating w.r.t.y, we get
On putting in Eq. (i), we get
.............(ii)
On differentiating Eq. (i), we get
(iii)
On putting y = 0 in Eq. (iii), we get
= 20
.............. (iv)
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get
and n = 45
m + n = 80
72) 5P5 – (4P4 + 3P3) ; as 4P4 numbers begin with 4 and 3P3 with 54.
73) xyz = 120 ⇒ xyz = 23 × 3 × 5
Now, number of soution is equivlaent to distribution of 2, 2, 2, 3, 5 in three different boxes x, y
and z.
When none of the factors is assigned to any varible, then that variable will be considered 1.
Now, 3 can be distributed in three boxes in 3 ways , and similarly, 5 in 3 ways.
Now, 2 , 2, 2 are three idenitcal objects which can be distributed in 3+3–1C3–1 = 5C2 = 10 ways.
Hence total number of solutions = 3 × 3 × 10 = 90.
74) Let , then t2 – 12t + 27 = 0
t = 9 or t = 3
⇒ or
No of solutions = 8
75) Use formula