21-12-2025

1015CMD303053250057 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d. The resulting diffraction patten is observed on
a screen at a distance D. The linear width of the principal maximum is then equal to the width of the
slit if D equals

(1) d/λ
(2) 2 λ /d
(3) d2/2 λ
(4) 2 λ 2/d

2) For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 3 mm wide and the
wavelength is 500 nm ?

(1) 9 m
(2) 12 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 18 m

3) Find the half angular width of the central bright maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of
a slit of width 12 × 10–5 cm when the slit is illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength 6000
Å.

(1) 40°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

4) Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm–2 passes through three polarizers such that transmission
axes of the first and second polarizer makes an angle 30° with each other and the transmission axis
of the last polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of final emerging light will be

(1) 32 Wm–2
(2) 3 Wm–2
(3) 8 Wm–2
(4) 4 Wm–2

5) The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°, what will be critical angle for this :

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

6) The co-ordinates of the image with respect to the origin c will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

7)

Mark the correct statement(s) w.r.t. a spherical mirror.

(a) For real extended object, it can form a diminished virtual image for concave mirror
(b) For real extended object, it can form a magnified virtual image for concave mirror
(c) For real extended object, it can form a diminished virtual image for convex mirror

(d) For real extended object, it can form a magnified real image for convex mirror
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) c, d

8) A concave mirror of focal length 60 cm forms a real image of 3 times of size a real object then
Distance between mirror and object.

(1) 48 cm
(2) 80 cm
(3) 56 cm
(4) None of the above

9) An object is placed at (i) 10 cm, (ii) 5 cm in front of concave mirror of radius of curvature 15 cm.
The ratio of linear magnifications for the positions will be :-

(1) –1
(2) +1
(3) –1/3
(4) +1/3
10) Match the corresponding entries of Column-I with Column-II. [Where m is the magnification
produced by the mirror for a real object].

Column-I Column-II

(A) m = –2 (i) Convex mirror

(ii) Concave mirror

(B)

(C) m = +2 (iii) Real image

(iv) Virtual image

(D)
(1) A–i and iii; B–i and iv; C–i and ii; D–iii and iv
(2) A–i and iv; B–ii and iii; C–ii and iv; D–ii and iii
(3) A–iii and iv; B–ii and iv; C–ii and iii; D–i and iv
(4) A–ii and iii; B–ii and iii; C–ii and iv; D–i and iv

11) A luminous point object is moving along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12
cm towards it. When its distance from the mirror is 20 cm its velocity is 4 cm/s. The velocity of the
image in cm/s at that instant is :

(1) 6, towards the mirror

(2) 6, away from the mirror
(3) 9, away from the mirror
(4) 9, towards the mirror.

12) A light wave has a frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz and a wavelength at light 5 × 10–7 metres in medium.
The refractive index of the medium is :-

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.33
(3) 1.0
(4) .66

13) The critical angle of a prism is 30°. The velocity of light in the medium is :-

(1) 1.5 × 108 m/s

(2) 3 × 108 m/s
(3) 4.5 × 108 m/s
(4) None of these

14) Light traveling through three transparent substances follows the path shown in fig. Arrange the
indices of refraction in order from smallest to largest. Note that total internal reflection does occur
on the bottom surface of medium 2.

(1) n1 < n2 < n3

(2) n2 < n1 < n3
(3) n1 = n3 < n2
(4) n3 < n1 < n2

15) Two wires with currents 2A and 1A enclosed in a circular loop. Another wire with current 3A is

situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is :-

(1) µ0
(2) 3µ0
(3) 6µ0
(4) 2µ0

16) A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires J of work to turn it
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be :-

(1) N-m

(2)
N-m
(3) 2 N-m
(4) 3 N-m

17) A current I flowing through the loop as shown in figure. The magnetic field at centre O is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) Three uncharged capacitor of capacitance C1 = 3µF, C2 = 2µF and C3 = 1µF are connected to
each other between point A, B and D as shown in figure. Potential at point A, B and D are

respectively 10V, 25V and 20 V. Find potential at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric
constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as
to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be :-

(K + 3)
(1)

(K + 2)
(2)

(K + 1)
(3)

(4)

20) There is a magnetic material of coercivity 2 × 103 Am–1. What current should flow through
solenoid of length 15 cm having 150 turns to demagnetize the substance completely?

(1) 4 A
(2) 2.5 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 3.5 A

21) A closely wound solenoid of 1000 turns and area of cross-section 3 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of
1A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a
horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 'B'. When axis of solenoid making an angle 30° with the
field, then torque on solenoid is 1.2 ×10–2 Nm. Magnetic field will be

(1) 5 × 10–2 T
(2) 4 × 10–2 T
(3) 6 × 10–2 T
(4) 8 × 10–2 T

22) Electron moves right angles to magnetic field of 4.4 ×10–2 T with a speed of 6 × 107 m/s. If the
specific charge of the electron is 1.7 × 1011 C/kg, then number of cycles in one second will be.

(1) 119 × 106

(2) 6.28 × 106
(3) 1.19 ×108
(4) 1.19 ×109

23) A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 3 × 104 J T–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. If
magnetic field B = 4 × 10–4 T is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic moment of bar magnet,
then work done to rotate 30º from this position opposite to the magnetic field will be.

(1)
(2) 6 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 2 J

24) In figure a current I1 is established in the long straight wire 'AB'. Another wire 'CD' carrying
current I2 is placed in the plane of the paper. The line joining the ends of this wire is perpendicular

to the wire AB The force on the wire CD is represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) If electric field between the plates is E and Q is the charge on capacitor then the value of force
on each plate of the capacitor :

(1)

(2)

(3) QE
(4) 2QE

26) A charged capacitor is connected to battery then find work done by battery :-

(1) 80 µJ
(2) 40 µJ
(3) 5 µJ
(4) 20 µJ

27) For a spherical capacitor shown, at which points the electric field will be zero ? (r is the distance

of point from centre O)

(1) At point r > R2

(2) At point r < R1
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

28) The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium of a capacitor can withstand without break
down (of its insulating property) is called its

(1) polarisation
(2) capacitance
(3) dielectric strength
(4) None of these
29) Four identical capacitors are connected as shown in figure. When a battery of 6V is connected

between A and B, the charge stored is found to be 1.5 µC. The value of C1 is :-

(1) 2.5 µF
(2) 15 µF
(3) 1.5 µF
(4) 0.1 µF

30) In the figure given below, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 3.75 µF
(2) 5.25 µF
(3) 6.5 µF
(4) 10.5 µF

31)

A parallel plate condenser with plate area A and separation d is filled with two dielectric materials
as shown in the figure. The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. The capacitance will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of potential difference V. If the distance
between the plate is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Consider the following diagram ? Choose the correct statement from the given below according
to the given circuit.
(i) Charge on C1 = Charge on C2 + Charge on C3
(ii) Pontential difference across C1 = Potential difference across C2 + P.D. across C3

(iii) Energy stored in C1 = Energy stored in C2 + Energy stored in C3

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i)

34) Two similar coils of radius R and number of turns N are lying concentrically with their planes at
right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are I and I repectively. The resultant
2
magnetic induction at the centre will be (in Wb/m ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Same current I is flowing in three infinitely long wire along positive x, y and z-directions. The
magnetic field at a point (0, 0, – a) would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Two long parallel wires are a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of
the plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given by
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The unit vectors are as shown below. What will be the magnetic field at O in the

following figure:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) A long, straight and solid metal wire of radius 2mm carries a current uniformly distributed over
its circular cross section. The magnetic field at a distance 2 mm from its axis is B. Magnetic field at a
distance 1 mm from the axis of the wire is :-

(1) B
(2) 4B
(3) 2B
(4) B/2

39) The value of magnetic field at O is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed :-

(1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant

(2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes
(3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes
(4) its velocity and acceleration both change

41) A particle is moving in a circular path. The acceleration and velocity of the particle at a certain
moment are m/s2 and m/s respectively. The motion of the particle is :-

(1) Uniform circular motion

(2) Accelerated circular motion
(3) Retarted circular motion
(4) We can not say anything with only

42) A mass is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. It is attached to a string and rotates about a
fixed centre at an angular velocity ω0. If the length of the string and angular velocity are doubled,
the tension in the string which was initially T0, is now :-

(1) T0
(2) T0/2
(3) 4T0
(4) 8T0

43) A rod of length L is hinged at one end and it is rotated with a constant angular velocity in a
horizontal plane. Let T1 and T2 be the tensions at the points L/4 and 3L/4 away from the hinged end.

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) The relation between T1 and T2 depends on whether the rod rotates clockwise or anticlockwise

44)

A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :-

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

45) A car is going on an overbridge of radius R, maintaining a constant speed. As the car is
descending on the overbridge from point B to C, the normal force on it :

(1) increase
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases then decreases.

CHEMISTRY

1)

IF3 is formed in :-
(1) 1st excited state of iodine
(2) 2nd excited state of iodine
(3) Ground state of iodine
(4) All wrong

2) Hypervalent compounds is (are) :

(i) PCl5 (ii) SF6
(iii) BF3 (iv) ClF3
Correct option is :

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) All of these

3) Which have linear shape :-

(1) XeF2
–
(2) I3
(3) CO2
(4) All

4) Which p-orbitals overlapping would give the strongest bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which is correct order for π bond strength :-

(1) 2pπ-2pπ > 2pπ-3dπ > 3pπ-3pπ

(2) 2pπ-2pπ < 2pπ-3dπ < 3pπ-3pπ
(3) 2pπ-2pπ > 3pπ-3pπ > 2pπ-3dπ
(4) 3pπ-3pπ > 2pπ-2pπ > 2pπ-3dπ
6) Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorus doesn't form P2. The reason is :-

(1) weak pπ–pπ bonding

(2) multiple bond is formed easily
(3) strong pπ–pπ bonding
(4) triple bond is present in phosphorus atoms

7) Which of the following overlapping indicates formation of σ bonding molecular orbital -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of these

8) The d-orbitals which are involved in hybridisation of central atom in ICl4– :-

(1) dz , dx –y
2 2 2

(2) dx –y , dxy
2 2

(3) dz , dxy
2

(4) dxy, dxz

9) Which of the following is correct :-

(1) → sp3 hybridised

3
(2) XeOF4 → sp d hybridised
2
(3) SO2Cl2 → sp hybridised
2
(4) H3BO3 → dsp hybridised

10) The total number of lone pair/s of electrons is/are present in the SF4 molecule?

(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 13

11)

Match the column for molecular shape ?

Column-I Column-II

(a) SF6 (P) Tetrahedral

 (b) (Q) V-shape

(c) NH4+ (R) Trigonal Bipyramidal

(d) XeO3F2 (S) Octahedral

(1) a–P b–Q c–R d–S
(2) a–S b–Q c–P d–R
(3) a–S b–R c–P d–Q
(4) a–R b–S c–P d–Q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which of following has maximum number of dπ-pπ bonding :

(1) CO2
(2) SO3
–
(3) ClO4
(4) SO2

13)

In which of the following formal charge and bond order is equal to – and respectively :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14)

Which order of dipole moment is correct ?

(1) CCl4 < CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3

(2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) BF3 > NH3 > NF3
(4) o-dichlorobenzene < m-dichlorobenzene < p-dichloro benzene

15) Which has maximum dipole moment ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following compound is planar and non-polar :

(1) XeO4
(2) SnF2
(3) XeF4
(4) ClF3

17) Give the correct order of strength of H-bond

(a) O – H ----- O (b) F – H ------ F
(c) Cl – H ----- Cl (d) N – H ----- N

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) b > a > c = d

18) Out of the two compound A and B shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular

temperature is expected to be.

(1) higher than that of A

(2) lower than that of A
(3) same as that of A
(4) can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel tube.

19) Keesome force is present in :-

(1) CCl4 & H2O

(2) CHCl3 & CHCl3
(3) CCl4 & CCl4
(4) Xe & H2O

20) In which molecular orbital, there are two nodal planes :-

(1) σ2s
(2) π2py
(3) π*2py
(4) π2px

21) In , O2 & number of antibonding electron's respectively are -

(1) 3, 2, 4
(2) 7, 6, 7
(3) 7, 6, 8
(4) 8, 6, 8

22) Which comparision is correct ?

+
(1) O2 < O2 Bond order
– +
(2) O2 > O2 Stability
(3) B2 > N2 Number of π bonds
+
(4) H2 > H2 Stability

23) The lattice energy of the lithium halide is in the following order :

(1) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI

(2) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI
(3) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
(4) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

24) Correct order of covalent character :-

(1) BeCl2 > MgCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2

(2) BeCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2
(3) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2
(4) SrCl2 > BeCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2

25) A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into
electrical energy is known as :-

(1) Electrolytic cell

(2) Dynamo
(3) Ni-Cd cell
(4) Fuel Cell

26) When aq. solution of Cr2(SO4)3 is electrolysed by Pt electrodes, the products formed at the
cathode and anode, respectively are :-

(1) Cr and O2
(2) H2 and O2
(3) Cr and SO2
(4) H2 and SO2

27) Three faradays of electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron(II) bromide. The
mass of iron metal (Atomic mass 56) deposited at the cathode is :-

(1) 84 g
(2) 56 g
(3) 112 g
(4) 168 g

28) Same quantity of current is passed through molten NaCl and molten Al2O3. If 4.6 g of Na was
deposited in one cell, the mass of Al deposited in other cell is :-

(1) 0.9 g
(2) 1.8 g
(3) 2.7 g
(4) 3.6 g

29) Given :

Above cell reaction will be spontaneous if :-

(1) C1 > C2 and P1 = P2

(2) P2 = P1 and C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2 and P1 = P2
(4) P2 < P1 and C1 = C2

30)
Calculate the standard Gibbs free energy change for above cell reaction :

(1) –115.8 KJ/mole

(2) –38.6 KJ/mole
(3) –19.3 KJ/mole
(4) –77.2 KJ/mole

31) Calculate value of equilibrium constant for following reaction is :

Zn2+(aq.) + 4OH–(aq.) [Zn(OH)4]2–(aq)
given :
Zn2+(aq.) + 2e– → Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V
[Zn(OH)4]2–(aq.) + 2e– → Zn(s) + 4OH– (aq.); E° = –1.36 V
(1) 1010
(2) 2 × 1010
(3) 1020
(4) 5 × 1020

32)

The emf of a cell corresponding to the reaction,

Zn + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+ (0.1M) + H2(g)

is 0.28 volt at 25°C. Calculate the pH of the solution of the hydrogen electrode.
= –0.76 volt
(1) 8.6
(2) 5.4
(3) 9.3
(4) 4.7

33) Given the data at 25°C,

Ag + I– → AgI + e–, E° = 0.152 V
Ag → Ag+ + e–, E° = – 0.800 V
What is the value of logKsp for AgI ?

(1) –8.12
(2) +8.612
(3) –37.83
(4) –16.13

34)

Mole fraction of I2 in mixture of I2 and C6H6 is 0.2. The molality of I2 is :-

(1) 3.2
(2) 6.40
(3) 1.6
(4) 2.30

35) Density of 5M aquous solution is 1.5g/ml. Molecular weight of solute = 200. Calculate molality of
solution ?

(1) 5
(2) 2.5
(3) 10
(4) 15

36) What is the volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2?

(1) 4.8
(2) 8.4
(3) 3.0
(4) 8.0

37) 2 moles each of liquids A and B are dissolved to form an ideal solution. What will be the mole
0 0
fraction of B in the vapour phase :- pA = 120 torr; pB = 80 torr.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/5
(4) 3/5

38)

Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure of 0.6 atm and 0.2 atm respectively in pure state In ideal
solution of A and B, find mole fraction of A in solution if both A and B have equal partial vapour
pressure.

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.75

39) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound x was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular weight of x is : (K = 0.52 K Kg mol-1)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 100
(4) 342

40) If ΔTb is the elevation in BP of the solvent in a solution of non volatile solute of molality (m) the

quantity is equal :-

(1) Kf
(2) Kb
(3) 1
(4) All of above

41) An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186°C

(Kf = 1.86 KKgmol–1, Kb = 0.512 KKgmol–1). The elevation of boiling point of the solution is :-

(1) 0.186°C
(2) 0.512°C
(3) 0.0186°C
(4) 0.0512°C

42) Which of the following is a colligative property?

(1) Surface tension

(2) Viscosity
(3) Refractive index
(4) Osmotic pressure

43) The osmotic pressure of a 5% (mass/vol.) solution of cane sugar at 150°C is :

(1) 2.45 atm

(2) 5.078 atm
(3) 3.4 atm
(4) 4 atm

44) Calculate the percentage degree of dissociation of an electrolyte AB3 type (normal molar mass =
164) in H2O if observed molar mass is 65.6 :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

45) When 0.1 m CH3COOH is present in a solvent it shows elevation in boiling point of 0.75°C. Acid
dissociation constant will be – (Kb = 5 K kg mol–1) (1M = 1m)

(1) 5 × 10–2
(2) 5 × 10–3
(3) 10–2
(4) 10–3

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following is correct about serum ?

(1) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

(2) Serum = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(3) Serum = Plasma + WBC
(4) Serum = Plasma – Fibrinogen

2) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the

(1) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves

(2) Opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(3) Closure of semilunar valves
(4) Opening of semilunar valves

3) Assertion : Dubb is a short and sharp sound.

Reason : It is caused by closing of atria-ventricular valve.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

4) Valves are necessary in veins but not in arteries because–

(1) Blood flows with greater force in veins

(2) Blood in veins flows without jerk
(3) Blood from heart may not be pushed back into veins
(4) Pressure in veins is low, so blood can flow back

5)

Which of the following statement is incorrect about alveoli?

(1) lined by simple squamous epithelium

(2) primary sites of gaseous exchange
(3) partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 45 mmHg
(4) partial pressure of O2 in alveoli is 104 mmHg

6)

Exchange of O2 & CO2 at the alveoli & tissue occur by diffusion, rate of diffusion depends on :
(A) Partial pressure gradient of PO2 & PCO2
(B) Solubility
(C) Thickness of diffusion surface

(1) A, B & C
(2) Only B & C
(3) Only A & C
(4) Only A & B

7)

Arrange the following in order of increasing volume:

1. Tidal volume
2. Residual volume
3. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Vital capacity
(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4
(2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4
(4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3

8)

The respiratory centres, which control inspiration and forceful expiration are located in:

(1) Diencephalon
(2) Medulla Oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Spinal Cord

9)

In the given statements choose the odd one :

(1) Thoracic chamber is anatomically an air-tight chamber

(2) Any change in volume of the thoracic cavity is reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity
(3) The inner pleural membrane is in close contact with thoracic lining
(4) The inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface

10) Which of the following labelled structure is made up of phrenic muscles :

(1) W
(2) X
(3) Y
(4) Z
11) Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the above figure

(1) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg

(2) A = 45 mmHg, B = 40 mmHg, C = 104 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(3) A = 95 mmHg, B = 45 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(4) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 45 mmHg, D = 40 mmHg

12) Assertion : Low concentration of oxygen allow dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Reason : CO has more affinity with Haemoglobin as compares to oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13) Assertion : Gaseous exchanges continue in the lungs without interruption even during
expiration.
Reason : Residual volume of air can never be driven out by respiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

14) Match the following

1 Tidal volume (a) 2500-3000 ml

2 IRV (b) ERV + TV + IRV
3 FRC (c) 500 ml
4 VC (d) RV + ERV
5 IC (e) TV + IRV
Select the correct one :-
(1) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–d ; 4–b ; 5–e
(2) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–b ; 5–e
(3) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–e ; 5–b
(4) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–e ; 4–b ; 5–d

15) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Acidophilus secretes histamine, serotonin, heparin.
Statement-II : Platelets also called thrombocytes cell fragments of erythrocytes.
Select the correct option ?

(1) Statement-I is correct, but II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I & II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & II are incorrect.

16) Which of the following stage in cardiac cycle is of longest duration :-

(1) Atrial systole

(2) Ventricular diastole
(3) Joint diastole
(4) Atrial diastole

17) During ventricular systole –

Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
(1)
pulmonary artery
Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
(2)
the artery
Oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary
(3)
vein
Oxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
(4)
pulmonary artery

18) Which one is the correct route through which pulse making impulse travels in the heart ?

(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His →AV node → Heart muscles
(2) AV node →SA node →Purkinje fibres →Bundle of His → Heart muscles
(3) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node →Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(4) SA node →AV node → Bundle of His →Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles

19) Statement refers to systemic heart

(1) Right auricle & ventricle

(2) Heart that contracts under stimulation of nervous
(3) Entire heart of lower animals
(4) Left auricle & ventricle

20) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ? I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors found in interstial fluid.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

21) Statement-I :- The stroke volume can be defined as the volume of blood pumped out by each
ventricle per min and average 5000 ml or 5 lit.
Statement-II :- The QRS complex represents the repolarisation of the ventricles.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

22) Identify the option which possess correct statements.

(a) Mother being Rh positive and father being Rh negative can lead to erythroblastosis foetalis in any
of their babies.
(b) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes.
(c) The tunica media is thin in veins than arteries.
(d) Amphebia have neurogenic heart.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) only (b)
(3) (b) & (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

23) Assertion :- O2 gets bound to hemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues.
Reason :- Presences High PO2 and low PCO2 in lungs and high PCO2 and low PO2 in tissues.

(1) A & R both correct, and R is correct explanation of A

(2) A & R both correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

24) Assertion : The closure of tricuspid and bicuspid values occurs during the ventricular systole.
Reason : The closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid values prevent the back flow of blood into the
atria.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

25) If pituitary is surgically removed, blood level of sodium falls and that of potassium rises due to

(1) atrophy of adrenal medulla

(2) atrophy of adrenal cortex
(3) fact that LH from pituitary is no longer available
(4) fact that oxytocin from pituitary is no longer available

26) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) T4 Changes to T3 on reaching the tissues

(2) Due to hyposecretion of ADH blood becomes Hypertonic
(3) Hormone secreted from parafollicular cells of thyroid contains Iron
(4) A layer of cuboidal glandular cells is found in the wall of thyroid follicles

27) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A Parafollicular cells (i) Aldosterone

B Parathyroid gland (ii) Calcitonin hormone

C Thyroid gland (iii) Collips hormone

D Zona glomerulosa (iv) Tetra iodothyronine

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

28) Which of the following statement are False/True?

A. PTH, TCT & vit. D3 helps to maintain Ca2+ homeostasis
B. Oxytocin is also known as milk let down hormone
C. Dopamine inhibits PRH secretion
D. Insulin promotes lipolysis

(1) A and B are true, C and D are false

(2) A and C are true, B and D are false
(3) A, B and C are true, D only false
(4) B, C and D are false, A only true.

29) Secondary messengers :-

(1) Are substance that interact with first messengers inside cells
(2) Are substances that bind to first messengers in the cell membrane
(3) Are hormone secreted by cell in response to stimulation by another hormone
(4) Mediate the intracellular response to many different hormones and neurotransmitters

30) Which of the following is correct about human?

(a) Pars distalis produces GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH, FSH
(b) Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone called melatonin
(c) Posterior lobe of pituitary is also called as pars nervosa
(d) Posterior pituitary stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, c and d

31) Which of the following diseases are related to the deficiency of hormones
secreted from the structure marked 'A' in the above given figure:-
(A) Diabetes insipidus
(B) Dwarfism
(C) Acromegaly
(D) Gigantism
(E) Grave disease

(1) A,B,C,D and E

(2) C,D and E
(3) B only
(4) 'C' only

32) Which of the following are the functions of thyroxine :-

(A) Development of CNS
(B) Stimulates erythropoiesis
(C) Influence maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
(D) Regulates menstrual cycle

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) C and D
(3) Only D
(4) A and B only

33) Cortisol hormone is produced by __________ and stimulates __________.

(1) Adrenal medulla, gluconeogensis

(2) Adrenal cortex, gluconeogensis
(3) Adrenal medulla, glycogenolysis
(4) Anterior pituitary, glycogenolysis

34) Read the following 'a' & 'b' statements carefully :

(a) Adrenal medullary Hormones can also increases the cardiac out put.
(b) Hypertension is the term for blood pressure that is higher than normal.
Choose the correct choice w.r.t. given statements :

(1) Only statement 'a' is correct

(2) Only statement is is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Statement 'b' is incorrect

35) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A :- Hormones act as inter cellular messenger.
Reason R :- Hormones secreted from one gland act on another cell.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

36) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I :- Exophthalmic goiter is a form of hyperthyroidism characterised by enlargement of
the thyroid gland, protrusion protrusion of the eyeballs, increased basic metabolic rate and weight
loss.
Statement II :- In thyroid gland the follicular cells synthesis two hormones thyroxin and
thyrocalcitonin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

37) Assertion:- Homeostasis of glucose in blood is maintained jointly by two hormones insulin and
glucagon.
Reason:- Insulin stimulates the gluconeogenesis whereas glucagon stimulates the glycogenolysis.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

38) In which of the following organisms is the neural system composed of a network of neurons
without a brain?

(1) Insects
(2) Hydra
(3) Humans
(4) Earthworm

39) Which division of the peripheral neural system relays impulses from the CNS to the skeletal
muscles?

(1) Visceral neural system

(2) Autonomic neural system
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) Sympathetic neural system

40) The visceral nervous system comprises the complex of nerves, fibers, ganglia and plexuses that
transmit impulses :

(1) From the CNS to skeletal muscles only

(2) From the CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS
(3) From the autonomic system to the somatic system
(4) Between the two cerebral hemispheres

41) Nissl's granules are granular bodies found in the cell body and which other part of the neuron?

(1) Axon
(2) Synaptic knob
(3) Axon hillock
(4) Dendrites

42) Where are bipolar neurons (with one axon and one dendrite) typically found in the human body?

(1) Embryonic stage

(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Retina of the eye
(4) Spinal cord

43) Which statement is true regarding unmyelinated nerve fibers?

(1) They are not enclosed by Schwann cells

(2) They are enclosed by a Schwann cell
(3) They are found mainly in the spinal and cranial nerves
(4) They possess Nodes of Ranvier at regular intervals

44) When a neuron is in a resting state, the axonal membrane is :

(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ and nearly impermeable to Na+

(2) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ and nearly impermeable to K+
(3) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+
(4) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+
45) Which of the following is a characteristic of electrical synapses?

(1) They are very common in the human system

(2) The pre- and post-synaptic membranes are separated by a large synaptic cleft
(3) Impulse transmission is slower than in chemical synapses
(4) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other

46) Assertion : The limbic system is involved in the regulation of sexual behavior and expression of
emotional reactions like excitement and fear.
Reason : The limbic system is formed by the hypothalamus along with the inner parts of the
cerebellar hemispheres and deep structures like the amygdala and hippocampus.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

47) Association areas' in the cerebral cortex are responsible for complex functions like intersensory
associations, memory, and communication. How are these regions functionally classified in the text ?

(1) They are purely motor areas controlling voluntary movements.

(2) They are large regions that are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function.
(3) They are specialized sensory areas responsible for processing vision and hearing.
(4) They are part of the limbic system responsible for emotional regulation.

48) Regarding the Limbic System, which statement is accurately described:

(1) Composed of the Thalamus and Hypothalamus; regulates body temperature.

(2) Olfactory lobes are extension of limbic system
(3) Composed of the Corpora Quadrigemina and Midbrain; regulates visual reflexes.
(4) Composed of the Cerebellum and Pons; regulates coordination of muscles.

49) The cerebral cortex is referred to as "grey matter" specifically because :

(1) It contains a high concentration of myelinated nerve fibers which appear grey.
(2) It contains the "corpora quadrigemina" which are grey in color.
(3) The neuron cell bodies are concentrated here, giving it a greyish appearance.
(4) It lacks blood vessels, resulting in a dull grey color.

50) Which of the following statements correctly describes the structural characteristic of the
Cerebellum?

(1) It has a smooth surface to facilitate faster signal transmission.

(2) It contains the cerebral aqueduct.
(3) It has a very convoluted surface to provide additional space for many more neurons.
(4) It is the major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
51) Find out the Odd one regarding side effects of using anabolic steroids in female sportspersons

(1) Breast enlargement

(2) Excessive hair growth on face and body
(3) Deeping of voice
(4) Masculinisation

52) Which scientist condemn the "Good Humor Hypothesis" ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) (1) and (2)

53) Bean shaped large organ has the lymphocytes and phagocytes and is the reservoir for
erythrocytes. The organ is :-

(1) Thymus
(2) Spleen
(3) Liver
(4) Tonsil

54) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic disorder, life style and infection
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

55) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The T-cells do not secrete antibodies.

(2) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
When ready-made antigens are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is
(3)
called passive immunity.
The antibodies produced in the body against vaccines would neutralise the pathogenic agents
(4)
during actual infection.

56) How many of the following drugs/plants are hallucinogenic?

Atropa belladona, Datura, Cocaine, Morphine

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

57) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): To prevent pneumonia and common cold, close contact with the infected persons
should be avoided.
Reason (R): The infectious agents of pneumonia and common cold are transmitted through
contaminated food and water.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

58) Read the following statements A–D :-

(A) When we look at stars on a clear night sky we are in a way looking back in time
(B) In the solar system of milky way galaxy, earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5
millon years ago
(C) There was no atmosphere on early earth
(D) The dust and gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present day
universe.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

59) Which measure would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug
abuse among adolescents :-
(A) Avoid undue peer pressure
(B) Seeking professional and medical help
(C) Looking for cancer
(D) Education and counselling
(E) Seeking help from parents and drug addicted peers.

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D, E
(3) C, E
(4) A, B, C, D, E

60) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II
(i) Theory of biogenesis (a) Earth was 4000 year old
(ii) Special creation theory (b) Life came from dead, decaying rotting matter
(iii) Modern theory (c) Life came from prexisting life
(iv) Spontaneous generation theory (d) Life came from nonliving organic molecule
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
61) Assertion : Louis Pasteur, in his experiment demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing
life.
Reason : In his experiment life did not come from killed yeast in pre-sterilized flask.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

62) Given below are pairs of disease, pathogen and their causative agent. Which is incorrectly
matched ?

Causative
Disease Pathogen
agent

Haemophilus
(1) Pneumonia Bacteria
influenzae

(2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria

(3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm

Chikungunya
(4) Chikungunya Virus
Virus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life-style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness".
(d) In severe allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

64) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

65) Match disease/pathogen with vector or carrier.

(A) Filariasis (i) House fly (Mechanical carrier)

(B) Dengue (ii) Female anopheles

(C) Entamoeba histolytica (iii) Female culex

(D) Plasmodium falciparum (iv) Aedes mosquito

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Identify A, B and C.

A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine,
(1)
C → Morphine
(2) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, C → Heroine
(3) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine
A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids,
(4)
C → LSD

67) Identify the skeletal structure represented in the diagram and select the drug that represent it

and the main function performed by it.

(1) LSD – Synthetic drug – Hallucinogen

(2) Cannabinoid – Bhang – Affects cardio vascular system
(3) Opioid – Morphine – Pain killer
(4) Cocaine – Caffeine – Stimulant

68) Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where
all blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

69) Match the following

Column -
Column - II
I

a Opioids (i) Hallucinogen

Receptors present
b LSD (ii) in gastrointestinal tract
and brain

Interfere with the transport of

c Cocaine (iii)
the neurotransmitter dopamine

Effect on cardiovascular system

d Marijuana (iv)
of the body
(1) a - (ii) , b(i), c- (iii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(3) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)
(4) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (iii)

70) (a) Coke

(b) Diacetylmorphine
(c) Brown in colour
(d) Odourless
(e) Sweet compound
(f) Extracted from latex of hemp plant
How many statements/informations are correct for heroin :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

71) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Infection
1 Bacteria a Plasmodium i
of lungs

Wuchereria Fever
2 Virus b ii
bancrofti with chill
 Haemophilus Inflammation
3 Protozoa c iii
influenzae of lower limbs

Infection of
4 Helminth d Rhino virus iv upper respiratory
tract
(1) 2-c-i, 1-d-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(2) 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-i
(3) 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv
(4) 4-b-iii, 3-a-i, 1-c-ii, 2-d-iv

72)

Which of the following is correctly related about this diagram?

(a) Datura
(b) Hallucinogen
(c) Heroin
(d) White odourless bitter crystalline compound (e) Interfere with the transport of dopamine (f)
Diacetyl morphine
(g) Papaver somniferum
(1) a, b, e
(2) d, e, f, g
(3) c, d, f, g
(4) a, c, d, e

73)

The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving correct
identification
(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with integrase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

74) How many of the disease in the list given below are autoimmune disorders :-
Myasthenia gravis, I.D.D.M, osteoarthritis, Albinism, Hemophilia. Hashimoto disease

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

75) How many of the below statements are True for crack :-
(a) Substance is white odourless, bitter, crystalline compound
(b) Substance has potent stimulating action on CNS
(c) Generally taken by inhalation & oral ingestion
(d) Substance generally taken by snorting
(e) Substance is depressant and slow downs body function
(f) Substance causes hallucinations
(g) Substance interfere with transport of dopamin
(h) Substance is sedative

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

76)

Read the following statements and find out the true (T) or false (F) statement :-
(A) Study of history of life forms on earth is known as evolutionary biology.
(B) The universe is very old-almost 20 billion years old.
(C) Earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion years back.

(D) Spontaneous generation theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.

Options:-
A B C D

(1) T T F T

(2) T F T T

(3) T F T F

(4) F F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognised
till 1900 due to the reason (s)
(A) Communication was not easy in those days.
(B) His contemporaries did not accept factors as discrete units of heredity.
(C) Mathematical approach to explain inheritance, was totally new.
(D) Mendel could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors

(1) Only A and B are correct

(2) Only B and C are correct
(3) Only C and D are correct
(4) All are correct.

78) What percentage of offsprings would have the genotype AA Bb Cc in F2 generation of a trihybrid
cross -

(1) 12.5%
(2) 6.25%
(3) 25%
(4) 37.5%

79) What is the frequency of pure round seeded pea plants in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross -

(1) 4/16
(2) 6/16
(3) 1/16
(4) 2/16

80) In an experiment, individual homozygous for 'ab' gene, were crossed with wild type. The F1
hybrid was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :
++/ab → 896
ab /ab → 880
+a / ab → 108
+b/ab → 116
Calculate the distance between a and b gene :

(1) 22.4 cM
(2) 44 cM
(3) 11.2 cM
(4) 45 cM

81)

The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C - ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A -XO males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

82) Which one show same genotype and phenotype ratio?

(1) Incomplete Dominance

(2) Co-dominance
(3) Test cross
(4) All of the above

83) Which of the following options gives the correct category of six organisms/characters according
to the type of inheritance they show ?
 A B C
Pleiotropy Incomplete dominance Dominance
Eye colour in Drosophila Pod colour in garden pea, Flower colour in snapdragon,
(1)
Flower colour in sweet pea AB blood group in human beings sickle cell anaemia
Stem of garden pea,
Sickle cell anaemia, Seed shape in garden pea,
(2) colour blindness in human
Flower colour in garden pea Flower colour in snapdragon
beings
Seed of garden pea, Starch grain in seed of garden pea, Seed colour of garden pea,
(3)
sickle cell anaemia flower colour of snapdragon Flower colour of garden pea
Flower of garden pea, Flower colour of sweet pea, Eye colour in Drosophila,
(4)
sickle cell anaemia pod colour of garden pea Stem height of garden pea
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) How will you distinguish a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

(1) By presence of stink glands

(2) By presence of anal cerci
(3) By presence of anal styles
(4) By presence of boat shaped 7th sternum

85) On an average, female cockroach produce A oothecae with B mm; contain C eggs :-

A B C

(1) 9-10 3/8 14-16

(2) 9-10 8 14-16

(3) 13-14 6 5-6

(4) 14-16 3 9-10

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Spermatheca are present in which segment of Cockroach :-

(1) 7th
(2) 4th
(3) 6th
(4) 8th

87) Choose the statement which is not correct for cockroach?

(1) Blood vascular system of cockroach is a closed type.

(2) The abdomen in both males and females consists of 10 segments.
(3) On an average female produce 9-10 oothecae.
(4) Malpighian tubules help in excretion.

88) In the given diagram of female reproductive system, which labelled organ performs the function
of storage of sperms after copulation?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) A
(4) D

89) Assertion : In cockroach Mosaic vision is present.

Reason : Mosaic vision with more sensitivity but less resolution.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Read the following statements about cockroach carefully and choose the correct option -
Statement-1 : The crop follows gizzard or proventriculus. It has an outer layer of thick circular
muscles and thick inner 6 cuticular teeth.
Statement-2 : A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic caeca present at the junction of foregut and
midgut, which help in removal of excretory products.

(1) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.
(4) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 4 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 1 2 4 4 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 4 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒D=

2)

3) Half angular width

= × = 30°

4)

5)

μ = tan ip

6) Explain Question:
Object is at (0, 10cm). A plane mirror passes through origin making 30° with the x-axis.
We must find the coordinates of the image after reflection in this mirror.

Concept:
Reflection of a point across a plane using perpendicular distance method.

FORMUAL:
Image lies on the opposite side of mirror at equal perpendicular distance. If mirror makes
angle θ, then its normal makes angle θ + 90°.

Solution:

Co-ordinate of image (10 cos 30, –10 sin 30)

Final answer: option (3)

7)

– Concave mirror can not form diminished & virtual image of real object.
– Convex mirror can not form magnified real image of real object.

8)

m=

–3 =
u = – 80 cm

9)

10) A concave mirror forms real and virtual images, whose magnification can be negative or
positive depending upon the position of the object. If object is placed between focus and pole
the image obtained will be virtual and its magnification will be positive. In all other cases
concave mirror forms real images whose magnification will be negative.
A convex mirror always forms a virtual image whose magnification will always be positive.

11)

MT = –1.5

12)

13)

14)
Conceptual

15) By ACL

So,

16)

W = MB(cosθ1 – cos θ2) = MB (cos0° – cos 60°)

= MB = ⇒ MB = 2W
⇒ MB = N-m

τ = MB sin 60° =

17) The efective magnetic field at O

B = BPE +BRS =

⇒ B=
As per Fleming's Right Hand rule, direction of magnetic filed is perpendicular and in the plane
of paper.

18)
Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 0
C1(VA – V0) + C2(VB – V0) + C3(VD – V0) = 0
3µ(10 – V0) + 2µ(25 – V0) + 1µ(20 – V0) = 0
3(10 – V0) + 2(25 – V0) + 1(20 – V0) = 0
30 – 3V0 + 50 – 2V0 + 20 – V0 = 0
100 – 6V0 = 0

0 0
V = ⇒V =
19) The two condensers with K and with air are in parallel.
With air :

With medium :

∴ C' = C1 + C2

or

20)

Coercivity is H = 2 × 103 Am–1

For a solenoid, H = ni
Number of turns per unit length

21) τ = BINA sinθ θ = 30o

= 8 × 10–2 T

22)

= 1.7 × 0.1 × 7 × 109

= 1.19 × 109 per sec.

23) W = MB [cosθ1 – cosθ2] = MB [cos90° – cos120°]

= 3 × 104 × 4 × 10–4 = 6J

24) magnitude of force on left part of wire CD is greater than right part.

25)
Fplate = QEdue to one plate
= QE/2

26)

w = Qtrans V
= (Qf – Qi) V
= (5 × 4 – 5 × 3) 4
w = 20 μJ

27)

Electric field beyond either plate of capacitor is zero so r > R2 & r < R1

28) The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break down (of
its insulating property) is called its dielectric strength; for air it is about 3 × 106 Vm–1. For a
separation between conductors of the order of 1 cm or so, this field corresponds to a potential
difference of 3 × 104 V between the conductors. Thus, for a capacitor to store a large amount
of charge without leaking, its capacitance should be high enough so that the potential
difference and hence the electric field do not exceed the break down limits. Put differently,
there is a limit to the amount of charge can be stored on a given capacitor without significant
leaking.

29) The capacitance across A and B is

+ C1 + C1 = C1
As Q = CV

∴ 1.5µC = C1 × 6

∴ C1 = = 0.1µC

30)

31)
The figure shows series combination two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2, where

C1 = and C2 =

32) Energy stored = CV2

33)

V1 =

34) B1 =

B1 =

B1 = =

B1 =

35) Bz = 0

Bx = & By =

so B =

36) If the current flows out of the paper, the magnetic field at points to the right of the wire
will be upwards and to the left will be downward. Now magnetic field at C is zero. The field in
the region BX' will be upward (+ve) because all point lying in this region are to the right to
both the wires. Similarly, magnetic field in the region AX will be downwards (–ve). The field in
the region AC will be upward (+ve) because points are closer to A compared to B. Similarly
magnetic field in region BC will be downward (–ve). Graph (b) satisfies all these condition.

37) The field at O due to AB is and that due to DE is also .

However the field due to BCD is .

Thus the total field at O is

38)

Magnetic field at surface of conductor :-

BS = =B
Inside conductor distance r from centre :-

Bin =

, (BS = B)

39)
B=

40)

Explain : how the velocity and acceleration of a particle behave when it moves in a circle with
a uniform speed.

Concept : uniform circular motion.

Calculation : Velocity: Velocity is a vector quantity with both magnitude (speed) and
direction. While the magnitude (speed) is constant, the direction of the velocity vector (tangent
to the circle) changes continuously as the particle moves along the circular path.

Acceleration: Acceleration is also a vector quantity. In uniform circular motion, the

acceleration (centripetal acceleration) is directed towards the center of the circle. Its
magnitude is constant (a = v2/r), but its direction changes continuously as the particle moves
along the circular path.
Therefore, both velocity and acceleration change in direction
Ans (4) Difficulty level : easy

41)
=0
and are perpendicular to each other.
Centripetal acceleration and velocity are perpendicular to each other.

42) Explain question: Find the new tension when both string length and angular velocity of a
rotating mass are doubled.

Concept: Tension provides centripetal force:

T = mω2r

Solution:
Initial tension:
2
T0 = mω0 r
New length r' = 2r, new angular velocity ω' = 2ω0 :

Final answer: Option (4)

43)

T1 – T2 = (ω ) 2

T1 > T2

44)

Question Asking About:

The velocity ratio at points A, B and C in a vertical circle, given critical speed at C.

Key Concept:

• Energy Conservation =
• Critical Speed at C:

Formula & Calculation:

VA = ?, VB = ?, VC = ?
• At C:
• At B:

• At A:

• Velocity Ratio:

Final Answer:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

45) Explain Question: A car moves at constant speed down an overbridged of radius R;
 determine how the normal force changes between points B and C.

Concept: Normal force varies with vertical component of weight and required centripetal
force.

Solution:
Let the car looses the contact at angle θ with vertical

mg cosθ – N = ⇒ N = mg cosθ – During descending on overbridged θ is increase.

So cosθ is decrease therefore normal reaction is decrease.

Final Answer : Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation - The question asks in which excited state of iodine (1st, 2nd, or ground) the
IF3 molecule is formed.

Concept - (Excited State of Iodine)

Iodine's ground state has only one unpaired electron. To form IF3, iodine needs three unpaired
electrons. which occurs in the first excited state.

Final Answer - Option (1)

47) Explanation -
The question asks which of the given compounds (PCl5, SF6, BF3, ClF3) are hypervalent,
meaning they have more than an octet of electrons.

Concept - (Octet Rule)

Hypervalent compounds exceed the octet rule, having more than eight electrons around the
central atom. PCl5, SF6, and ClF3 all exhibit this characteristic. BF3, conversely, is hypovalent,
possessing fewer than eight electrons. Therefore, the hypervalent compounds are (i) PCl5, (ii)
SF6, and (iv) ClF3.
Final Answer : (3)

48)

Explanation

A. Linear shape occurs when the central atom has two bond pairs and zero lone pairs,
 resulting in a bond angle of 180°.

Concept

A. XeF₂: Xe has 8 valence electrons. It forms 2 bonds with F, using 2 electrons. This leaves
6 non-bonding electrons or 3 lone pairs. Arrangement is trigonal bipyramidal, but shape
is linear (F-Xe-F) due to lone pairs occupying equatorial positions.

B. I₃⁻: The central I has 7 valence electrons. It forms 2 bonds with other I atoms and has a
negative charge (1 extra electron), totaling 10 electrons. This means 2 bond pairs and 3
lone pairs. Arrangement is trigonal bipyramidal, but shape is linear (I-I-I) due to lone
pairs occupying equatorial positions.

C. CO₂: C has 4 valence electrons. It forms 2 double bonds with O atoms, using all 4
electrons. This means 2 bond pairs and zero lone pairs. Shape is linear (O=C=O).

Answer option 4,(All).

49)

Explanation

A. Overlap of atomic orbitals leads to bond formation. Greater overlap results in a stronger
bond.

Concept

A. Head-on overlap (sigma bond) is stronger than side-by-side overlap (pi bond).

B. Smaller orbitals provide better overlaps than larger orbitals.

C. Overlap of p-p orbitals will give the strongest bond because smaller orbitals provide
better overlap.

Answer option 3

50)

Less size of atomic orbital more π bond strength.

51) Page. 167 para 6th (Anamolous property of N)

52)
NCERT Pg # 124

53)

Explain Question: Identify the d-orbitals used for sp3d2 hybridization in ICl4–.
Concept: This question is based on Hybridization
Solution: The ICl4– ion has sp3d2 hybridization (octahedral electron geometry). For this
geometry, the two d-orbitals involved are dz2 and dx2-y2 as they lie directly on the bond axes.
Final Answer: Option (1)

54)

Explanation

Hybridization is determined by the number of electron pairs (bonding + lone pairs) around the
central atom (Steric Number).

A. Steric Number 2 → sp, Steric Number 3 → sp², Steric Number 4 → sp³

B. Steric Number 5 → sp³d, Steric Number 6 → sp³d²

Concept

A. I₃⁺:

A. Steric Number = 2 (bonds) + 2 (lone pairs) = 4.

B. Hybridization = sp³. Option 1 is correct.

B. XeOF₄:

A. Central Xe has 8 valence e⁻.

B. Steric Number = 5 (sigma bonds) + 1 (lone pair) = 6.

C. Hybridization = sp³d². Option 2 is incorrect (given as sp³d).

C. SO₂Cl₂:

A. Steric Number = 4 (sigma bonds) + 0 (lone pair) = 4.

 B. Hybridization = sp³. Option 3 is incorrect (given as sp²).

D. H₃BO₃:

A. Steric Number = 3 (sigma bonds) + 0 (lone pairs) = 3.

B. Hybridization = sp². Option 4 is incorrect (given as dsp²).

Answer option 1, ( I₃⁺ → sp³ hybridized).

55)

Question is Asking About :-

Total no. of lone pair of electron present in SF4.

Concept :-

Total no. of lone pair = (3×4)+1=13

Hence, option (4) is correct.

56)

57)

Explanation

A. dπ-pπ bonding occurs when a filled d-orbital of a central atom overlaps sideways with a filled
or vacant p-orbital of a surrounding atom. This is favored by:

A. Central atom with d-orbitals (typically from the 3rd period onwards).
B. Surrounding atom capable of pπ bonding (e.g., O, Cl).
C. Multiple bonds between the central and surrounding atoms.
Concept

A. CO₂: C has no d-orbitals. Only pπ-pπ bonding.

B. SO₃: S has d-orbitals. Each S=O bond involves one σ and one π bond. In the molecule there are
three S=O bonds, one pπ-pπ and two dπ-pπ bond.
C. ClO₄⁻: Cl has d-orbitals. Each Cl=O bond (formal charges indicate some double bond
character) involves dπ-pπ bonding. There are three dπ-pπ bond.
D. SO₂: S has d-orbitals. Each S=O bond involves dπ-pπ bonding. There are two S=O bonds, one
pπ-pπ and one dπ-pπ bond

Answer option 3, (ClO₄⁻).

58) EXPLANATION:- formal charge on each oxygen atom equal to −1/4

Concept Used: Formal charge

SOLUTION:- ClO₄⁻ (perchlorate ion)

• Total charge = –1
• 4 equivalent O atoms (due to resonance)
Formal charge=−1/4

Final Answer : Option (3)

59)

Correct order of dipole moment :

CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
BF3 < NF3 < NH3
O-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene > p-dichlorobenzene

60)

all vector in single side.

61) Explain Question :

Question is asking about the compound which is planar and non-polar.

Concept :
Question is based on VSEPR theory, Dipole moment.

Solution :
XeF4 is planar with a square planar geometry (sp3d2 hybridization) and non-polar because its
symmetrical structure cancels bond dipoles.

Final Answer : Option (3)

62)

Question is Asking About :-

We have to find correct order of strength of H – bond.
 Concept :- Strength of H – Bond ∝ Electronegativity difference.
Electronegativity ⇒ F > O > N > Cl
Strength of H – Bond F – H.......F > O – H .......... O > N – H ........ N > Cl – H ....... Cl

Hence, option (3) is correct.

63)

NCERT XI Pg. # 132 (Part-I)

64) Explain Question: Identify substances showing Keesom (dipole–dipole) forces.

Concept: This question is based on intermolecular dipole–dipole interaction
Solution: Keesom forces act between polar molecules. CHCl3 is polar, so CHCl3–CHCl3
molecules exhibit Keesom interactions.
Final Answer: 2

65) has 2 nodal plane one in x axis & second in y axis. (x–z plane & y-z plane)

66) Explanation -
The question asks you to determine the number of antibonding electrons present in the
molecular orbitals of three oxygen species
Concept - (Number of antibonding electron in O2, O⊖2 & O22–)
O2- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 7

O2 : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)1 (π*2py)1

A. Antibonding electrons: 6

O22- : (σ1s)2 (σ*1s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ*2s)2 (σ2pz)2 (π2px)2 (π2py)2 (π*2px)2 (π*2py)2

A. Antibonding electrons: 8

Final Answer - Option (3)

67) Stability ∝ B. Order

68) Question Explanation : Question is asking about the correct order of the lattice energy
of the lithium halides.
Concept: This question is based on lattice energy.

Explanation : Lattice energy

The less the size the more is the lattice energy so correct order would be LiF > LiCl > LiBr >
Lil

Final Answer: option (1)

69)
Covalent character ∝ Pol.
Pol. ∝ Size of cation

70)

Fuel cell converts combustion energy of fuels like H2 & CH4 directly into electrical energy.

71)

Cathode:
Cr+3 + 3e– → Cr(s)
Anode:
2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e–

72) W = = 84g

73) Due to same electricity

w2 = 1.8 g

74)

Anode:
Cathode:
_______________________________

_______________________________

When: C1 > C2 & P1 = P2

then
Ecell = +ve & ΔG = –ve

75) NCERT intext Example Q. 3.6

ΔGo =
= –2(96500) 0.2

=
ΔG = –38.6 KJ/mole
o

76) E° for required reaction = –0.76 + 1.36 = 0.6 V

77)

= 0.76 volt
Applying Nernst equation

Ecell = –

0.28 = 0.76 –

log 0.1 – log [H+]2 = 16.2436

2pH = 16.2436 – log 0.1

pH = = 8.62

78) Given
(i) AgI + e– → Ag + I– ;
(ii) Ag → Ag+ + e– ;
Cell reaction AgI ⇌ Ag+ + I–

[Ecell = 0 at equilibrium)
∴

or log Ksp = = –16.11

79)

= 3.2

80) use
m = molality, M = Molarity
Mw = mol. wt. of solute, d = density of soln

81)
Volume strength of H2O2 = N × 5.6
= 1.5 × 5.6
= 8.4

82) Given Data :- In Ideal solution moles of A (nA) = 2

In Ideal solution moles of B (nB) = 2
Vapour pressure of pure A = 120 torr
Vapour pressure of pure B = 80 torr
Concept :-Raoult's law and Dalton's law of partial pressures.
Calculation :-

mole fraction of A ⇒

mole fraction of B ⇒
Partial pressure of A ⇒ PA = = 0.5 × 120 = 60 torr
Partial pressure of B ⇒ PB = = 0.5 × 80 = 40 torr
Total vapour pressure ⇒ PT = PA + PB = 60 + 40 = 100 torr
(∵ YB = mole fraction of B in vapour)

Final answer :-
Correct option- (3)

83)

If XA = Z XB = 1-z
Now, PA = PB
⇒ 0.6 Z = 0.4 (1 – z) = 0.25

84)

Explaining the Question :-

The molecular weight of the compound is calculated using the elevation in boiling point.
Concept:-
This question is based on Elevation in boiling point
Solution :-
Elevation in boiling point (ΔTb​) = 0.52 °C
Mass of solute (w) = 6 g
Mass of solvent (W) = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Ebullioscopic constant (Kb​) = 0.52 K kg mol-1
Using the formula ΔTb​=Kb​×w/(M×W)​, we get 0.52=0.52×6/(M×0.1)​.
Solving for M gives M=60.
Final Answer : (2)
85)
m → 1 then ΔTb = Kb

86) ΔTf = Kf × m, 0.186 = 1.86 × m

m = 0.1
Now, ΔTb = Kb × m = 0.512 × 0.1
= 0.0512

87) Concept:
Colligative property

Solution:
Osmotic pressure (π) is a colligative property.

88)

Explaining the Question :-

Calculation of osmotic pressure
Concept:-
This question is based on Osmotic pressure
Solution :-
A 5% (mass/vol.) solution means 5 g of cane sugar in 100 mL of solution.
Molarity (C) = mass of solute/(molar mass of solute×volume of solution in L) ​
C = (5 g /342 g/mol)×(1000/100) ​=5/34.2​ mol/L
Osmotic pressure (π) = CRT=5/34.2​ mol/L×0.0821 L atm K−1 mol−1×423.15 K
π≈5.078 atm Final Answer : (2)

89)
n=4

i = 1 + (n–1) α
2.5 = 1 + (4–1) α
2.5 = 1 + 3 α

α = 0.5 or 50%

90) ΔTb = iKbm

0.75 = i × 5 × 0.1

i = 1.5 ; α =

Ka =
BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg.#279

92) NCERT Pg.#200

93) Module Pg. # 102

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 202

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 188

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 188

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 186, 187

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 190

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 186

100) NCERT, Pg # 271

101) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 273

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 189

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 187

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 186, 187

105) NCERT Pg. # 279, 280

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 199, 200

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 200

108)

NCERT XI Page No. # 284

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 197, 198

110) NCERT XI - Pg# 281

111) NCERT Pg. # 200

112) NCERT Page No. # 281, 282, 286

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 188

114) NCERT - 199,200

115)

NCERT Pg#241

116)

NCERT Pg#242

117)
NCERT Pg#242

118)

NCERT Pg#243

119)

NCERT Pg#247

120)

NCERT Pg#241

121)

NCERT Pg#241

122)

NCERT Pg#242

123)

NCERT Pg#244

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 287

125) XI NCERT Pg. No :- 331

126) NCERT Pg. No :- 334, 335

127) NCERT Pg. No :- 338

128) NCERT Page No. 231

The neural organisation is very simple in lower invertebrates ; in Hydra it is composed of a
network of neurons. Insects have a brain.

129) NCERT Page No. 231

The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles. The autonomic
system transmits to involuntary organs.

130) NCERT Page No. 231

The visceral nervous system comprises the whole complex by which impulses travel from the
CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS.

131) NCERT Page No. 232

The cell body contains Nissl's granules. Short fibres which branch repeatedly (dendrites) also
contain Nissl's granules.

132) NCERT Page No. 232

Bipolar neurons (with one axon and one dendrite) are found in the retina of the eye.

133) NCERT Page No. 232

Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon.

134) NCERT Page No. 232

When a neuron is resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to
potassium ions and nearly impermeable to sodium ions.

135) NCERT Page No. 234

At electrical synapses, electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other. They
are rare in our system.

136)

NCERT Page No. 236

137) NCERT Page No. 236

The text explicitly states that the cerebral cortex contains large regions that are neither
clearly sensory nor motor in function. These regions are called association areas.

138) NCERT Page No. 237

Olfactory lobes are extension of limbic system.

139) NCERT Page No. 236

The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance. The
neuron cell bodies are concentrated here giving the colour. The inner part (white matter)
appears white due to the myelin sheath.

140) NCERT Page No. 236

The Cerebellum has a very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for
many more neurons. (The major coordinating centre for signaling is the Thalamus)

141) NCERT Pg. No. 169

142) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about which scientist disproved the
"Good Humor Hypothesis"?
Concept:- Good Humor Hypothesis and It Disproof
Solution :-The "Good Humor Hypothesis" related to bodily fluids was disproved by William
Harvey, who discovered the circulation of blood, showing the old theory of humors was
incorrect.
Final Answer :- (3) William Harvey

143)

Question explanation: Identify the bean-shaped organ that stores erythrocytes and contains
lymphocytes and phagocytes.

Concept: Lymphoid organ.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2 – Spleen

A. Spleen → Bean-shaped organ located in the upper left abdomen.

A. Contains lymphocytes and phagocytes for immune defense.

B. Acts as a reservoir for erythrocytes (red blood cells).

Final answer: Option (2)

144) Explanation:
T-helper cells do not produce antibodies. They play a key role in stimulating B-cells to produce
antibodies, but they do not produce antibodies themselves.

The incorrect statement is: 2. T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also
stimulate B-cells to produce the same.

145)

Question explanation:
The question is asking to find the incorrect statement regarding immunity and antibodies.
Concept:
This question is based on immunity.
Solution:
When ready-made antibodies, not antigens, are directly given, it is called passive immunity →
Incorrect (misstatement).
Final answer: (3)

146)

Question Explanation : How many of the following drugs/plants are hallucinogenic?

Concept : Drug Abuse.
Solution :
Atropa Belladona → Hallucinogenic Datura → Hallucinogenic Cocaine → Hallucinogenic
Morphine → Not hallucinogenic → Acts as an analgesic, causing sedation rather than
hallucinations.
Final Answer : Option (3)

147) NCERT, Pg. # 131,133,134

148) NCERT Pg. # 126, 127, para-7.1

149) NCERT XII Pg. # 162, 163

150) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 127,128

151)

Explain Question : Pasteur's experiment and the principle of biogenesis.

Concept : This question is based on Theories about origin of life.

Solution : The assertion correctly states Pasteur's conclusion (biogenesis). The reason
correctly describes the result of his swan-neck flask experiment: when the pre-sterilized flask
was sealed off from airborne microbes, no life appeared in the nutrient broth (containing killed
yeast). This experimental result proved the assertion.

Final Answer : option (1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.

152)

Question explanation: This question asks to identify the incorrectly matched pathogen,
disease, and its classification.
Concept: Infectious Disease

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3 (Filariasis → Microsporum → Round worm).

A. Pneumonia → Haemophilus influenzae → Bacteria → Correct.

B. Typhoid → Salmonella → Bacteria → Correct.

C. Filariasis → Microsporum → Round worm → Incorrect.

A. Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, a roundworm, not Microsporum (which is a

 fungus causing skin infections).

D. Chikungunya → Virus → Chikungunya Virus → Correct.

Final answer: Option (3)

153) Correct Answer:

3. a, b, d
Explanation:
(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, lifestyle, and infections: This is true. All
three factors play a significant role in determining an individual's health status.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise are very important to
maintain good health: This is also true. These practices contribute to physical and mental
well-being.
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug: This is true. Adrenaline
(epinephrine) is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) as it helps to open
airways and reverse other dangerous symptoms.
• Why (c) is incorrect:
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness": This is a limited and
incorrect view of health.
Health is defined by the World Health Organization as "a state of complete physical, mental
and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." It encompasses more
than just the absence of illness or physical fitness.

154) Question Explanation: This question asks how many statements about pneumonia are
not correct.
Concept: Bacterial disease
Solution:
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae → Correct (common bacterial cause).
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs → Correct (alveoli fill with fluid/pus).
(c) Symptoms include fever, chills, cough, and headache → Correct. (d) In severe cases the lips
and fingernails may turn pinkish → Incorrect: They turn bluish (cyanosis), not pinkish, due to
lack of oxygen. So, one statement is incorrect.
Final Answer: Option (3)

155)

Question Explanation – The question asks to correctly match each disease or pathogen with
its respective vector or carrier.

Concept – Disease transmission and vectors

Solution –

A. (A) Filariasis – transmitted by female Culex mosquito → (iii)

B. (B) Dengue – transmitted by Aedes mosquito → (iv)

 C. (C) Entamoeba histolytica – spread via contaminated food/water, often by house fly
(mechanical carrier) → (i)

D. (D) Plasmodium falciparum – transmitted by female Anopheles mosquito → (ii)

Final Answer – 3

156)

Explain Question :

To Identify A, B and C. in given flow chart

Concept : Drugs and alcohol abuse

Explanation :

A: Interferes with dopamine → Cocaine (increases dopamine by inhibiting its reuptake)

B: Causes hallucination → LSD (a hallucinogenic drug)

C: Acts as a painkiller → Morphine (opioid analgesic)

Final answer : 3

157) Explanation :
Cannabinoid - Bhang - Affects cardiovascular system: The structure is consistent with a
cannabinoid. Bhang is a preparation of cannabis, which contains various cannabinoids. While
some cannabinoids can indirectly affect the cardiovascular system (e.g., THC can increase
heart rate), this is not the primary or defining function of all cannabinoids, especially non-
psychoactive ones like CBD.
The skeletal structure represents a Cannabinoid Option 2:

158)

Explain Question :
The question is asking about the correctness of two statements related to bone
marrow and thymus in the immune system.
Concept :
Lymphoid organs and lymphocyte maturation
Explanation :
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including
lymphocytes, are produced. (correct)
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the
development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. (correct)
Final answer : option (4)
159)

Pg. No. 143 XII-NCERT

160)

Question explanation: This question asks which statements correctly describe heroin
(diacetylmorphine).

Concept: Narcotic drugs.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 1 – Two.

A. (a) Coke → (Coke refers to cocaine, not heroin)

B. (b) Diacetylmorphine → (This is the correct chemical name of heroin)

C. (c) Brown in colour → (Pure heroin is white)

D. (d) Odourless → (Heroin is odorless)

E. (e) Sweet compound → (Heroin is bitter)

F. (f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant → (Bhang/cannabis is unrelated; heroin is from
opium)

Correct statements: (b) and (d) → 2 statements

Final answer: Option (1)

161)

Question explanation: This question asks to correctly match the type of organism with its
specific pathogen and the disease it causes.
Concept: Infectious Disease.

Solution: The correct match is Option 3: 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv

A. Bacteria → Haemophilus influenzae → Infection of lungs → 1-c-i

B. Virus → Rhino virus → Infection of upper respiratory tract → 2-d-iv

C. Protozoa → Plasmodium → Fever with chill → 3-a-ii

 D. Helminth → Wuchereria bancrofti → Inflammation of lower limbs → 4-b-iii

Final answer: Option (3)

162) NCERT Pg.# 158,159

163) Explanation:

A. A: This step represents reverse transcription. The viral RNA is used as a template to
synthesize viral DNA. This is a unique feature of retroviruses.
B. B: This step is the integration of the newly synthesized viral DNA (now called a provirus) into
the host cell's nuclear DNA. The enzyme integrase is crucial for this process.
C. C: This step involves the transcription and translation of the viral DNA to produce new
viral RNA and proteins, leading to the assembly of new virus particles.

Correct Answer : 1. B-lncorporation of viral DNA into host genome with integrase enzyme

164) Explanation:
The autoimmune disorders in the list are:

A. Myasthenia gravis: The body's immune system attacks acetylcholine receptors at

neuromuscular junctions, causing muscle weakness.
B. I.D.D.M. (Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus) or Type 1 Diabetes: The immune system
attacks the beta cells in the pancreas that produce insulin.
C. Hashimoto disease: The immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to
hypothyroidism.

Correct Answer: 2. Three

165) NCERT XII, Page # 158-159

166) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 126, 127(E), 137(H)

167)

The correct answer is (4) All are correct.

Mendel's work was ignored because his contemporaries didn't accept "factors" (B), his
mathematical approach was novel (C), and he lacked physical proof of the factors (D);
communication limitations (A) also played a role.

168)

The correct answer is (2) 6.25%.

For a trihybrid cross (AaBbCc x AaBbCc), the probability of getting the genotype AABbCc in
the F2 generation is.
169)

The correct answer is (1) 4/16.

In a dihybrid cross (YyRr x YyRr), the frequency of pure round-seeded (RR) pea plants in F2 is

(RR) × (YY or yy) =

for RRYY + RRyy, but for "pure" round (homozygous RR only) it is (RR) x 1 = considering
both YY and yy.

170)

NCERT Pg. # 67
The distance between two genes (map distance) in a test cross is calculated using the
recombination frequency:

Map distance = .
Here, the recombinants are +a/ab and +b/ab (108 + 116), and the total progeny is 896 + 880
+ 108 + 116 = 2000.

Recombination frequency =
Answer (3) 11.2 cM.

171)

The figure shows three types of sex determination systems:

• (A) Humans - XX females, XY males.
• (B) Grasshopper - XX females, XO males.
• (C) Birds/chickens - ZZ males, ZW females.
The correct identification is (1) C - ZZ males, ZW females.
Explanation of the categories in the table:
• Pleiotropy: A single gene affects multiple traits (e.g., sickle cell anaemia affects multiple
phenotypic effects).
• Incomplete dominance: The heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate blend of the two
homozygous phenotypes (e.g., flower colour in snapdragon).
• Dominance: One allele completely masks the other in the phenotype (e.g., seed shape in
garden pea - simple Mendelian dominance).

172)

In test cross incomplete Dominance and in Co dominance

same PR and GR
1.2.1

173)

NCERT-XIth, 60, 69, 54, 55

174)

As Theory

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114, 115

176)

Old NCERT # 115

177)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

178)

Old NCERT # 115

179) NCERT-XI, IInd PARA

180)

NCERT Page No. 113