Q1. कौन-सा document माना जाएगा?

1.​ Finger impressions

2.​ Photograph
3.​ A DVD

Correct answer: All three (1,2,3)​

✔ क्योंकि कोई भी material जो information record करता है → document।

Q2. कौन सा “document” नहीं है ?

(a) Writing on sand​
(b) A telegram​
(c) A map​
(d) A fingerprint on paper

Correct Answer – (a)​

✔ Sand writing temporary है और record के रूप में usable नहीं → document नहीं है ।

Q3. Electronic records are documents under which

section?
(a) Section 3 Evidence Act​
(b) Section 65​
(c) Section 67​
(d) Section 22

Correct Answer – (a)​

✔ Section 3 की definition में “includes electronic record” जोड़ा गया है (IT Act 2000
amendment)।

Q4. कौन-सा primary evidence माना जाएगा?

(a) Original document​
(b) Copy of plan​
(c) Typed copy​
(d) Oral testimony

Correct Answer – (a)​

✔ Original document → primary evidence (Section 62)
Q5. कौन-सा secondary evidence है ?
(a) Photocopy​
(b) Carbon copy (first)​
(c) Duplicate negative​
(d) Oral account of contents

Correct Answer – (a) and d​

✔ Section 63 के मत
ु ाबिक photocopy और oral account → secondary evidence।

MCQ – 1
Under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is NOT a document?

(a) A thumb impression​

(b) A tattoo on the skin​
(c) A map​
(d) A printed book

✔ Answer: (b)​
Tattoo on human body is not a document because the human body is not considered a
"substance" on which a document exists.

MCQ – 2
Which of the following IS a "document" under the Evidence Act?

1.​ Photograph
2.​ CD/DVD
3.​ SMS/WhatsApp message

(a) 1 only​
(b) 1 and 2 only​
(c) 1, 2 and 3​
(d) 3 only

✔ Answer: (c)​
All digital and electronic records are documents (Sec. 3 + Sec. 65B).

MCQ – 3
Under the Evidence Act, an inscription on a stone is—

(a) Not a document​

(b) A document because it contains marks​
(c) Oral evidence​
(d) None of the above
✔ Answer: (b)

MCQ – 4
Which Section defines “Document”?

(a) Section 2​
(b) Section 3​
(c) Section 27​
(d) Section 65

✔ Answer: (b)

MCQ – 5
A "document" includes:

(a) Electronic record​

(b) Email​
(c) Hard disk containing files​
(d) All of the above

✔ Answer: (d)​
(Explanation: After insertion of Section 65B & IT Act, all electronic records = documents)

MCQ – 6
Which of the following are NOT documents?

1.​ Spoken words

2.​ Human voice recording
3.​ A signature on paper

(a) 1 only​
(b) 1 and 2​
(c) 2 only​
(d) 1 and 3

✔ Answer: (a)​
Spoken words themselves are not documents unless recorded or written.

MCQ – 7
Fingerprints impressions used for identification are:

(a) Documents​
(b) Not documents​
(c) Secondary evidence​
(d) None

✔ Answer: (a)​
Fingerprints = marks → Document.

MCQ – 8
Which one of the following is NOT “documentary evidence”?

(a) Video footage in a pen drive​

(b) Judgment copy​
(c) Dying declaration written by the deceased​
(d) Oral testimony of witness

✔ Answer: (d)

MCQ – 9
A sealed envelope containing a letter is:

(a) A document​
(b) Not a document​
(c) Primary evidence​
(d) Secondary evidence

✔ Answer: (a)

MCQ – 10
Under the Evidence Act, a bank passbook is considered—

(a) Not a document​

(b) A document​
(c) Secondary evidence only​
(d) Computer output

✔ Answer: (b)

PYQ 1 — UPSC (Law Optional)

Which of the following sections deals with “facts not otherwise relevant become
relevant”?

(a) Section 5​
(b) Section 6​
(c) Section 8​
(d) Section 11

✔ Answer: (d)

PYQ 2 — UPSC CBI-APP

Doctrine of Res Gestae is contained in:

(a) Section 6​
(b) Section 8​
(c) Section 10​
(d) Section 14

✔ Answer: (a)​
(Res gestae = Same transaction)

PYQ 3 — UPSC (CAPF Law)

Facts forming part of the same transaction are relevant even though—

(a) They occurred at different places​

(b) They occurred at different times​
(c) They were not facts in issue​
(d) All of the above

✔ Answer: (d)

PYQ 4 — CBI-APP (Expected Pattern)

Facts which constitute motive or preparation are relevant under:

(a) Section 5​
(b) Section 8​
(c) Section 11​
(d) Section 32

✔ Answer: (b)

PYQ 5 — UPSC (Legal Officer)

Which one of the following is NOT a relevant fact under Section 6 (Res Gestae)?

(a) Spontaneous statements immediately after the act​

(b) Statements forming part of the same transaction​
(c) Independent facts not linked with the transaction​
(d) Acts accompanying the occurrence
✔ Answer: (c)

PYQ 6 — UPSC (Law Optional)

Facts showing identity, intention and knowledge are relevant under:

(a) Section 9​
(b) Section 11​
(c) Section 14​
(d) Section 24

✔ Answer: (c)

PYQ 7 — CBI-APP (Actual Pattern)

Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts are admissible under:

(a) Section 6​
(b) Section 9​
(c) Section 11​
(d) Section 32

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Identification, introductory facts, explanatory facts)

PYQ 8 — UPSC Law

Which section relates to the “Conspiracy Exception” for relevancy?

(a) Section 6​
(b) Section 8​
(c) Section 10​
(d) Section 14

✔ Answer: (c)

PYQ 9 — CBI-APP
If a fact makes the existence of a fact in issue highly improbable, it is relevant under:

(a) Section 5​
(b) Section 6​
(c) Section 9​
(d) Section 11

✔ Answer: (d)
PYQ 10 — UPSC (DPA/ALA Type)
What is the scope of “facts in issue”?

(a) Defined in Section 2​

(b) Defined in Section 3​
(c) Understood from Section 5 only​
(d) Not defined at all

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Section 3 defines facts in issue, relevant facts, evidence etc.)

Relevancy of Facts (Sec. 5–11)

🔷 SECTION 5 – Evidence may be given

of facts in issue & relevant facts
Q1. Evidence can be given only of—

(a) Facts in issue​

(b) Relevant facts​
(c) Both a & b​
(d) Irrelevant facts

✔ Answer: (c)

Q2. Section 5 is based on the principle of—

(a) Res gestae​

(b) Logical relevancy​
(c) Conspiracy​
(d) None

✔ Answer: (b)
🔷 SECTION 6 – Res Gestae (Same
Transaction)
Q3. Res gestae is contained in—

(a) Section 6​
(b) Section 8​
(c) Section 10​
(d) Section 11

✔ Answer: (a)

Q4. Which one is NOT part of Res Gestae?

(a) Spontaneous declaration​

(b) Immediate reaction​
(c) Subsequent deliberated statement​
(d) Acts forming part of same transaction

✔ Answer: (c)

Q5. Landmark case on Section 6:

(a) Pakala Narayan Swami case​

(b) Ratten v. R​
(c) State of UP v Deoman Upadhayaya​
(d) Pulukuri Kotayya

✔ Answer: (b)

🔷 SECTION 7 – Occasion, Cause, Effect

Q6. Burn marks on body are relevant as—

(a) Motive​
(b) Occasion​
(c) Effect​
(d) Conduct
✔ Answer: (c) (Effect of the fact)

Q7. Sec. 7 deals with—

(a) Occasion​
(b) Cause​
(c) Effect​
(d) All of above

✔ Answer: (d)

🔷 SECTION 8 – Motive, Preparation,

Conduct
Q8. Which is NOT relevant under Section 8?

(a) Motive​
(b) Habit​
(c) Preparation​
(d) Conduct

✔ Answer: (b)

Q9. Conduct becomes relevant when—

(a) It is influenced by any fact in issue​

(b) It influences a fact in issue​
(c) Both​
(d) Neither

✔ Answer: (c)

Q10. Conduct under Section 8 must be—

(a) Always in writing​

(b) Always previous​
(c) Previous or subsequent​
(d) Only during crime
✔ Answer: (c)

Q11. Which case explains Section 8?

(a) R v. Foster​
(b) Ratten v. R​
(c) Emperor v. Abdullah​
(d) Subramaniam v. Public Prosecutor

✔ Answer: (c)

🔷 SECTION 9 – Facts necessary to

explain or introduce
Q12. Identification parade is relevant under—

(a) Section 6​
(b) Section 9​
(c) Section 7​
(d) Section 8

✔ Answer: (b)

Q13. Previous identification is—

(a) Substantive evidence​

(b) Corroborative evidence​
(c) Irrelevant​
(d) None

✔ Answer: (b)

Q14. Section 9 includes—

(a) Intent​
(b) Identity​
(c) Conspiracy​
(d) Admissions
✔ Answer: (b)

🔷 SECTION 10 – Conspiracy Exception

Q15. Section 10 applies when—

(a) Crime committed individually​

(b) Crime committed jointly​
(c) Crime committed in conspiracy​
(d) Accidently

✔ Answer: (c)

Q16. Statements of co-conspirators are relevant when—

(a) Made after termination of conspiracy​

(b) Made before formation of conspiracy​
(c) Made during continuance of conspiracy​
(d) None

✔ Answer: (c)

Q17. Leading case under Section 10—

(a) R v. Foster​
(b) Babu Lal v. Emperor​
(c) Mirza Akbar v. King Emperor​
(d) Ratten v. R

✔ Answer: (c)

🔷 SECTION 11 – Facts not otherwise

relevant
Q18. Facts not otherwise relevant become relevant when—
(a) They are inconsistent with fact in issue​
(b) They make fact in issue highly probable​
(c) They make fact in issue highly improbable​
(d) All

✔ Answer: (d)

Q19. Alibi is covered under—

(a) Sec. 9​
(b) Sec. 11​
(c) Sec. 14​
(d) Sec. 5

✔ Answer: (b)

Q20. Which is NOT an alibi?

(a) Accused was in another city​

(b) Accused was admitted in hospital​
(c) Accused was sleeping near place of occurrence​
(d) Accused was abroad

✔ Answer: (c)

Q21. Alibi must be proved—

(a) Beyond reasonable doubt​

(b) By preponderance of probabilities​
(c) Not required to be proved​
(d) By confession

✔ Answer: (b)

Q22. Case on Alibi—

(a) DPP v. Boardman​

(b) Binay Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar​
(c) R v. Foster​
(d) Mirza Akbar case
✔ Answer: b

Q23. Which section covers "motive"?

✔ Answer: Section 8

Q24. Facts explaining handwriting are covered under—

✔ Answer: Section 9

Q25. Facts showing effect of an act are under—

✔ Answer: Section 7

Q26. Which is NOT relevant under Section 7?

✔ Answer: Habit

Q27. Co-conspirator’s confession is admissible when—

✔ Answer: Only during the conspiracy

Q28. “Conduct must be influenced by fact in issue” applies to—

✔ Answer: Section 8

Q29. Statement of an injured immediately after incident is—

✔ Answer: Res Gestae (Sec. 6)

Q30. Threats received before death are—

✔ Answer: Motive (Sec. 8)

Q31. Section 11 is based on—

✔ Answer: Logical relevancy

Q32. When conspiracy ends?

✔ Answer: When common intention is achieved or abandoned

Q33. Identity of accused determined under—

✔ Answer: Section 9

Q34. Fact showing preparation is under—

✔ Answer: Section 8

Q35. Alibi means—

✔ Answer: "Elsewhere"

Q36. Relevancy and admissibility are—

✔ Answer: Not identical concepts

Q37. Fact otherwise irrelevant may become relevant when—

✔ Answer: It explains a relevant fact (Sec. 9)

Q38. Map prepared by police is—

✔ Answer: Relevant under Section 9

Q39. Conduct after incident like absconding—

✔ Answer: Relevant under Section 8

Q40. A fact making guilt improbable—

✔ Answer: Relevant under Section 11

पहले आपके प्रश्न का सही उत्तर, फिर Evidence Act – Admissions (Sections 17–23) से CBI-APP
/ UPSC Expected MCQs दे रहा हूँ।

MCQs – Admissions (Sec. 17–23)

MCQ 1
Admission is defined under:

(a) Section 17​

(b) Section 18​
(c) Section 19​
(d) Section 21

✔ Answer: (a)

MCQ 2
Admission is—

(a) Conclusive proof​

(b) Not conclusive but may operate as estoppel​
(c) Irrelevant​
(d) Secondary evidence

✔ Answer: (b)

MCQ 3
Which is NOT an admission?

(a) Statement of a party​

(b) Statement made in ignorance​
(c) Statement made under mistake​
(d) Statement by agent

✔ Answer: (c)

MCQ 4
Admissions are relevant under—
(a) Section 17–23​
(b) Section 24–30​
(c) Section 5–11​
(d) Section 101

✔ Answer: (a)

MCQ 5
Admission by silence is—

(a) Always relevant​

(b) Sometimes relevant​
(c) Never relevant​
(d) Always conclusive

✔ Answer: (b

MCQ 6
Admissions in civil cases are—

(a) Irrelevant​
(b) Relevant​
(c) Conclusive​
(d) Hearsay

✔ Answer: (b)

MCQ 7
Statement made in presence of accused and not denied—

(a) Admission​
(b) Confession​
(c) Estoppel​
(d) Dying declaration

✔ Answer: (a)

MCQ 8
Admissions must be—

(a) In oral form only​

(b) In writing only​
(c) Oral or written​
(d) Judicial only

✔ Answer: (c)

MCQ 9
Which section deals with “admission by party to proceeding”?

(a) Section 17​

(b) Section 18​
(c) Section 19​
(d) Section 20

✔ Answer: (b)

MCQ 10
Admissions by persons whose position must be proved as against a party are
covered under:

(a) Section 18​

(b) Section 19​
(c) Section 20​
(d) Section 21

✔ Answer: (a)

📘 UPSC / CBI-APP – Confession (Sec.

24–30) Expected MCQs
Q1. Section 24 makes confession inadmissible when
there is—
(a) Inducement​
(b) Threat​
(c) Promise​
(d) Any of the above

✔ Answer: (d)

Q2. A confession made to police officer is—

(a) Always admissible​
(b) Admissible under S. 25​
(c) Not admissible under S. 25​
(d) Admissible only in civil cases

✔ Answer: (c)

Q3. Confession in police custody is admissible when—

(a) Made in front of police​
(b) Made in front of Magistrate​
(c) Made in FIR​
(d) Made during remand

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Sec. 26 Exception → Magistrate’s presence)

Q4. Discovery under Section 27 is—

(a) Fully admissible​
(b) Partly admissible​
(c) Entirely inadmissible​
(d) Confession only

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Only the portion “leading to discovery” is admissible)

Q5. Landmark case on Section 27:

(a) Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab​
(b) Pulukuri Kotayya​
(c) R v. Foster​
(d) Ratten v. R

✔ Answer: (b)

Q6. Confession made under police pressure is—

(a) Voluntary​
(b) Involuntary​
(c) Fully admissible​
(d) Dying declaration

✔ Answer: (b)
Q7. Confession to co-accused is—
(a) Strong evidence​
(b) Very weak evidence​
(c) No evidence​
(d) Conclusive evidence

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Under Section 30 → weakest type evidence)

Q8. Extra-judicial confession is—

(a) Always unreliable​
(b) Always reliable​
(c) Can be basis of conviction if trustworthy​
(d) Admissible only in civil cases

✔ Answer: (c)

Q9. Confession recorded by Magistrate under CrPC 164

must be—
(a) Recorded in police station​
(b) Recorded voluntarily​
(c) Recorded secretly​
(d) Dictated by police

✔ Answer: (b)

Q10. Confession obtained by deception is—

(a) Relevant​
(b) Irrelevant​
(c) Relevant only in civil cases​
(d) Partially relevant

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Sec. 24)

(Sec. 52–55)
Q1. Character of the accused in a criminal trial is—
(a) Always relevant​
(b) Generally irrelevant​
(c) Relevant only when accused makes it relevant​
(d) Relevant only after conviction

✔ Answer: (c)​
(Sec. 54)

Q2. Previous conviction is—

(a) Not evidence of bad character​
(b) Evidence of bad character​
(c) Always irrelevant​
(d) Relevant only in civil cases

✔ Answer: (b)​
(Explanation, Sec. 54)

Q3. In civil cases, character is—

(a) Generally irrelevant​
(b) Generally relevant​
(c) Relevant in all issues​
(d) Relevant as a rule

✔ Answer: (a)​
(Sec. 52)

Q4. Character that is in issue is—

(a) Always relevant​
(b) Always irrelevant​
(c) Relevant only after conviction​
(d) Not governed by Evidence Act

✔ Answer: (a)​
(Sec. 55)

Q5. Good character of the accused is—

(a) Relevant​
(b) Irrelevant​
(c) Relevant only when accused brings it​
(d) Relevant only in civil cases
✔ Answer: (c)​
(Sec. 53)

Q6. Previous good character of accused is admissible

to show—
(a) He did not commit the offense​
(b) He is entitled to bail​
(c) Propensity​
(d) None

✔ Answer: (a)​
(Sec. 53 – “good character is relevant”)

Q7. In criminal cases, bad character is relevant—

(a) Always​
(b) Never​
(c) Only when good character is first proved​
(d) Only in appeals

✔ Answer: (c)​
(“Evidence of bad character is not relevant unless good character is given.”)

Q8. Section 52 deals with—

(a) Civil cases​
(b) Criminal cases​
(c) Both​
(d) Character of witnesses

✔ Answer: (a)​
(Character irrelevant in civil cases)

Q9. Character of a witness is governed by—

(a) Sec. 52​
(b) Sec. 54​
(c) Sec. 155​
(d) Sec. 114

✔ Answer: (c)

Q10. Character means—

(a) Disposition​
(b) General reputation​
(c) Character trait​
(d) All of the above

✔ Answer: (d)​
(Definition Section 55 Explanation)

Answers
1. Under the Evidence Act, bad character is relevant in
criminal cases:
(a) In all criminal cases​
(b) When the accused gives evidence of good character​
(c) When prosecution wants to prove propensity​
(d) Only in sexual offences

✅ Answer: (b)
Sec. 54 — Accused ने अच्छा character prove किया तभी prosecution bad character ला
सकती है ।

2. Under which Section, good character of the accused

is relevant?
(a) Section 52​
(b) Section 53​
(c) Section 54​
(d) Section 55

✅ Answer: (b)
Sec. 53 — Good character relevant in criminal cases.

3. “Previous conviction” is relevant as:

(a) Evidence of bad character​
(b) A fact in issue​
(c) Irrelevant in all cases​
(d) Evidence of intention only

✅ Answer: (a)
Proviso to Sec. 54 — Previous conviction = bad character.

4. Character to prove conduct is relevant in civil cases:

(a) Always​
(b) Never​
(c) When damages are claimed​
(d) Only when consent is in issue

✅ Answer: (c)
Sec. 55 — Civil cases में character केवल quantum of damages के लिए relevant.

5. Opinion of character given by others is admissible

when:
(a) Character is directly in issue​
(b) Character is not in issue​
(c) Only in appeals​
(d) Never admissible

✅ Answer: (a)
Character सीधे issue में हो तब opinion evidence admissible है ।

6. In criminal trial for theft, prosecution wants to show

accused has bad character. It is:
(a) Relevant​
(b) Irrelevant unless accused proves good character​
(c) Always relevant​
(d) Admissible in sentencing only

✅ Answer: (b)
Bad character तभी admissible → Sec. 54 proviso.

7. Character in civil cases is generally:

(a) Relevant​
(b) Not relevant​
(c) Relevant if parties agree​
(d) Relevant only in appeal
✅ Answer: (b)
General rule 👉 Civil cases में character irrelevant (Sec. 52)।
8. In prosecution for rape, the character of prosecutrix:
(a) Always relevant​
(b) Relevant to show consent​
(c) Not relevant​
(d) Relevant to show tendency

✅ Answer: (c)
Sec. 53A (CrPC) + judicial precedents → Prosecutrix का past sexual character
irrelevant.

9. Fact that a person is “habitually dishonest” is:

(a) Fact in issue​
(b) Relevant if character is directly in issue​
(c) Irrelevant in all cases​
(d) Relevant to prove motive

✅ Answer: (b)
When character itself is directly in issue → relevant.

10. Character evidence is of which type?

(a) Direct evidence​
(b) Circumstantial evidence​
(c) Secondary evidence​
(d) Documentary evidence only

✅ Answer: (b)
Character evidence = generally circumstantial in nature.

1. Electronic record की admissibility के लिए mandatory

condition है —
(a) Original device produce करना​
(b) 65B(4) Certificate​
(c) Expert opinion​
(d) Hash value matching

✅ Answer: (b)
65B(4) certificate mandatory है (Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer).

2. “Secure electronic record” का presumption किस

section में है ?
(a) 65A​
(b) 65B​
(c) 85B​
(d) 88A

✅ Answer: (c)
Section 85B(1) — secure electronic record की integrity को presumption मिलता है ।

3. Electronic message का presumption (about sender)

किस section में है ?
(a) 88A​
(b) 65B​
(c) 85C​
(d) 47A

💡 Note: Section 88A → presumption about sending, but NOT about

contents.

✅ Answer: (a)

4. Electronic agreement (e-contract) के valid होने की

presumption—
(a) Sec. 65B​
(b) Sec. 85A​
(c) Sec. 67​
(d) Sec. 90

✅ Answer: (b)
85A — E-contract presumed valid unless disproved.

5. Electronic record produced from automated device

(ATM, CCTV) is—
(a) Primary evidence always​
(b) Secondary evidence​
(c) Hearsay​
(d) Expert evidence

❗ Correct legal position: Automated device output = Primary evidence

(Shafhi Mohammad; Anvar doctrine clarified).

✅ Answer: (a)

6. Secure electronic signature के बारे में presumption—

(a) Irrebuttable​
(b) Rebuttable​
(c) No presumption​
(d) Only in civil cases

✅ Answer: (b) (rebuttable)

7. Electronic record की primary evidence क्या है ?

(a) Printout​
(b) CD/DVD​
(c) Original hard disk containing data​
(d) Email print

✅ Answer: (c)
8. Email printout without 65B certificate is—
(a) Admissible​
(b) Inadmissible​
(c) Admissible only in civil cases​
(d) Admissible if parties agree

✅ Answer: (b)
Printout = secondary evidence → needs 65B certificate.

9. “Hash value” refers to—

(a) Encryption code​
(b) Mathematical algorithm verifying data integrity​
(c) Password​
(d) E-signature

✅ Answer: (b)

10. Computer output eligible for 65B evidence must

satisfy—
1.​ Regular use of computer
2.​ Information regularly fed
3.​ Computer operating properly
4.​ Output accurate

Which are required?

(a) 1 and 2 only​

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only​
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4​
(d) 2 and 4 only

✅ Answer: (c)
These are the four cumulative conditions of Sec. 65B(2).
1. Under which IPC section is death of woman within 7
years of marriage, abetted by husband/relatives,
punishable?
(a) 302​
(b) 304B​
(c) 306​
(d) 498A

✅ Answer: (b)

2. Presumption of abetment of dowry death arises

under which section of Evidence Act?
(a) 113A​
(b) 113B​
(c) 114​
(d) 27

✅ Answer: (b)

3. Time period considered for dowry death

presumption:
(a) 3 years​
(b) 5 years​
(c) 7 years​
(d) 10 years

✅ Answer: (c)

4. Section 113B allows court to presume abetment

when:
(a) Woman was subjected to cruelty​
(b) Death occurred within 7 years of marriage​
(c) Both (a) & (b)​
(d) Either of above

✅ Answer: (b)
(Cruelty not mandatory to invoke presumption)

5. Dowry death is different from suicide under:

(a) Sec. 302​
(b) Sec. 306​
(c) Sec. 304B​
(d) Sec. 498A

✅ Answer: (c)

6. Abetment presumption under Section 113B is:

(a) Rebuttable​
(b) Conclusive​
(c) Absolute​
(d) Irrelevant

✅ Answer: (a)
(Can be rebutted by contrary evidence)

7. Evidence of cruelty is:

(a) Mandatory for Section 113B presumption​
(b) Not mandatory​
(c) Only required in civil cases​
(d) Required in cases under Section 306 IPC

✅ Answer: (b)
8. Which of the following are considered “other
circumstances” under Section 113B?
(a) Continuous harassment for dowry​
(b) Financial pressure on bride’s family​
(c) Threats or abuse before death​
(d) All of the above

✅ Answer: (d)

9. Maximum punishment for dowry death under IPC

304B:
(a) 7 years​
(b) 10 years​
(c) Life imprisonment​
(d) Death penalty

✅ Answer: (c)
(Life imprisonment mandatory; death penalty possible if abetment proved with other
crimes)

10. Section 498A IPC deals with:

(a) Dowry death​
(b) Cruelty by husband/relatives​
(c) Attempted suicide​
(d) Confession admissibility

✅ Answer: (b)