Indications

1. [Link] 5 restoration
a.
b. Of Crown lengthening in NCCL
c. Of restoration in nccls
d. When to do mini flap gingivoplasty crown lengthening apically position flap
conventional flap surgery in NCCl
i. Which restoration to use in this condition for it to be conducive to the
tissue reattachment
e. Which restoration for patient with increased risk of caries
f. Indications of rotary curettage
2. Which fluoride release materials to use in the following conditions
a. Provisional restoration or caties control for patients with higher caries risk
b. High caries risk patients with diminish salivary flow
c. class 3 and 5 restorations
d. conservative class 12345 restorations
e. core buildups
f. primary teeth
g. Art
3. 2. Porcelain veneers
a. Indication of porcelain veneer
b. Of placing the incisal edge at facioincisal line angle
c. Which Inc prep for maxillary canine with large lingual fact extending to incisal
surface
d. Of using resin composite shell or overlay
e. Lingual wrap veneer
f. When to extend premolar occlusal margin to anywhere on the lingual incline of
buccal cusps and
i. When to extend to central groove
g. Of low viscorsity luting cement in veneers
4. Indications of bleaching
a. of in office bleaching
b. Of internal external bleaching open
5. Indications of amalgam restoration
a. Of class 1 preparation
b. Of keyhole preparation
c. Of pin retained restoration in class 2 preps
6. Composite
a. Indications of flowable resin composite
7. indications of indirect pulp capping
8. Which adhesive indicated with self-cure and dual cure composites
Contraindications
9. Absolute contraindication of gingivoplasty
10. Contraindication of electro surgery
 11. Amalgam is contraindicated in which root carries patients
12. Bleaching
a. In office bleaching
b. Which teeth have guarded prognosis for bleaching
13. Absolute contraindication of composite restoration
14. Contraindication for veneers
Treatment of choice
15. First choice for direct placement posterior restoration
16. Best correlations to date for clinical detection of caries on root surface
17. Ideal method of field isolation and moisture control for all direct placement restorations
18. When a class one restoration is being placed because of initial caries lesion
19. Porcelain veneer
a. Best treatment for NCCL
b. Standard most universally acceptable prep for incisors porcelain veneer that
allows to incorporate translucency
c. Current trend for interproximal veneer prep
d. Which incisal porcelain veneer prep provides with most protection during
function
e. Ideal method for treating stains is to
20. material of choice for most root caries lesions
a. when isolation is a problem
b. Where aesthetics is of major importance
21. For the best combination of safety and effectiveness recommended treatment for
internal bleaching
22. Composite
a. Which composite is considered to be best suited for posterior use
23. Esthetic considerations
a. Treatment for asymmetric lower lip
24. Gold standard for direct pulp cappin
Character
25. Class 5 restoration
a. Best correlations to date for clinical detection of caries on road surface
b. Shape of NCCl 2
c. Desensitizing toothpaste contain
d. Current outline form indicated for NCCl Restoration
26.
27. Porcelain veneer
a. What materials can we make laminate veneer from?
b. Etchant for veneer
c. Etchant for veneer after failure
d. Where to place gingival margins for mand anterior
28. Biological width
a. Structural composition of enamel and dentine
29. Root caries
 a. Single most important risk factor for root root caries
b. ___ is the best predictor of microbiologic activity in route carries lesions
30. Active ingredient of hydrogen peroxide and carbamide peroxide bleach
a. Which ingredient extends the active time off carbamide peroxide
31. Amalgam restoration
a. Role of zinc and copper in amalgam
b. Contamination of moisture with dental amalgam will cause?
c. Mercury in amalgam is bound in which phase?
d. Adv and disadv of amalgam
e. Location of a retentive undercut
f. Instrument used to measure bur head? (2)
g. Restorative materials for badly broken posteriors
h. Purpose of shoulder stop in pins
i. Areas to be avoided for the placement of pin in posteriors
j. Adv of resin liners
k. preferred areas of pin placement
l. Segmental slots are also called
m. Amalgapin aka
32. full form of PCCM
a. Cambra
b. Ptpm
c. Parq
33. Fl fluoride
a. which ion is the dominant factor in remineralization
b. Essential factor for recharge ability of GIC
c. which fluoride releasing material have the same CTE as that of the enamel and
dentin
d. Mechanism of action of bacterial inhibition is a combination of __+___
34. Instruments
a. Difference between Chisel and hoe
b. Carver used to remove overhangs from completely set amalgam
35. Paedo ortho interface
a. Good time for orthodontic intervention
36. Comp composite
a. Which composite micro or macro has the following properties
i. Smooth finish
ii. resistance to abrasion
iii. resistance to attrition increase
iv. water absorption
v. increased fracture toughness
vi. increased polymerization shrinkage
37. Pulpal considerations
a. Single most important factor for protecting pulp from the insult
 b. Effect of thickness of base and its modulus of elasticity on fracture resistance of
metallic restorations
c. Composition of MTA
38. Direct anterior restoration
a. Disadvantages of resin composite
b. Names of polymer matrix, filler, coupling agent and the initiator for light and self
cured composite materials
Numbers
39. Class five restoration
a. After Crown lengthening procedures restoration should be placed after how many
week
40. Porcelain veneers
a. Shelf life of silane
b. Average facial reduction for enamel bonded veneer at gingival, mid facial and
incisal level
c. Incisal reduction in standard veneer preparation
d. Ideal distance between the gingival margin of veneer to the crest of alveolar bone
e. Occlusion reduction of buccal cusp for the porcelain onlay
f. Thickness of die spacer on the refractory die prior to veneer fabrication
g. Thickness of GIC in the base of pulp chamber in walking bleach technique
h. After bleaching veneer placement is delayed for ?
41. Biological width normal value in teeth and implant
42. Thickness of apatite crystals of dentine
43. Distance of alveolar Crest
44. Colour and shade matching
a. viewing angle during selection
b. Shade matching distance
45. Bleaching
a. percentage of hydrogen peroxide used for at home technique in office technique
walking bleach technique
b. Difference between carbamide peroxide and hydrogen peroxide
i. Time
ii. Conc
c. Treatment times for the following teeth
i. Normal
ii. nicotine stained
iii. tetracycline stain
46. Amalgam
a. Composition of dental amalgam and high copper amalgam
b. depth for the preparation of fissure
c. Occlusogingival thickness of amalgam in occlusal restoration
d. Minimum MD dimension of proximal preparation in molars and premolars
e. Retentive undercut should be placed so that there is ___ millimeter of Dentin
between the groove and the DEJ
 f. Depth and width of retentive undercut for proximal slot preparation
g. Amalgam Thickness in centric holding cusps of molars and premolars
h. Recommended depth in dentin for self threading pin
i. Amalgapin channel diameter and depth
j. Pinchannel should be initiate it at least __ mm from the DEJ if the nearby
preparation margin is Coronal to the CEJ and apical to the CEJ
k. Ideal interpin distance for self threading pins
l. Available thickness of matrix bands
47. Caries
a. Ideal flow rate of unstimulated saliva
b. How many snacks recommended per day
c. dietary drop in pH last for
d. ___ pH is required for fluoride to facilitate remineralization
48. Fluoride
a. at which concentration fluoride is bactericidal
b. dentine and enamel demineralization pH
c. fluorapatite critical pH
d. Minimum inhibitory concentration of NAF that is required to inhibit the growth of
oral streptococci
e. It is recommended that materials with a long-term fluoride release rate of ___
should be used
49. Instruments
a. standard metal handle as a diameter of
b. In marginal trimmers how to differentiate between which is for distal and mesial
digital margins
c. Three number and 4 number formula for instruments
d. Speed of the following hand pieces
i. low speed contranglw
ii. high speed
iii. air turbine high speed
iv. electric
50. composite
a. Temperature of warmer used to reduce viscosity
b. Critical surface finish value of composite after finishing process
51. Esthetic considerations
a. Length of upper lip in young adult male and female
b. Average lip mobility is
c. Incisal display in gentle repose position (at rest) in young adult male and female
d. Average length of max central incisors
e. Ratio of height to width in max central incisors
52. Pulpal considerations
a. The greatest impact on the pulp occurs when RDT is no more than___millimeter
b. If a base is used for insulation against thermal shock its thickness should be no
more than
 c. Thickness of varnishes cavity liners
d. Copal varnish is capable of decreasing contain permeability by __percent
i. And decreasing microleakage for how many months
e. Conc of sodium hypochlorite used to control bleeding in pulp capping
f. Setting time of MTA
g. How long is sealer or liner placed with temporary restoration in IPC
53. Direct anterior restoration
a. Filler size in microfilled and hybrid resin composite
54. adhesives
a. Percentage of shrinkage volumetric for unfilled adhesives
b. Smear layer thickness
i. bond strength MPA
ii. decreases dentin permeability to - percent
c. Optimal thickness of bonding agent
55. Direct anterior composite
a. Volumetric shrinkage during polymerization is typically between
b. Coefficient of thermal expansion of composites in relation to the tooth structure
c. Length of enamel bevel when anterior class 4 is done because of a fracture
d. On the facial surface of class 4 restoration bevel should be of __ degrees and __
millimeter in length
e. Bevel specifications on the lingual surface
56. Sterilization
a. Temp lb time for autoclave + chemiclave
b. Temp time for dry heat anf short cycle dry heat
Define
57. NCCL
58. Static cohesive and adhesive fracture of veneer
59. Elbow preparation
60. Dimpling technique
61. Full veneer
62. Aesthetic pre evaluative temporaries
63. Biological width
64. Bone sounding
65. Hue, value and chroma
66. Opacity, translucency, specular gloss
67. Opalescence, fluorescence, iridescence
68. Calcific metamorphosis
69. Amalgam
a. Amalgamation
b. Trituration
c. Keyhole preparation
d. Complex amalgam restoration
e. Retention and resistance
f. Slot restoration
 g. Pin to pin channel mismatch
70. instruments
a. Acute angle
b. off angle hatchet
71. Composite
a. inverse or internal bevel
b. Snow plow technique
c. Successive cusp build-up technique
72. Esthetic considerations
a. Buccal corridor
i. Cause of excessive and inadequate space
b. Pitch of the incisal table
c. Principle of gradation
73. cavity base
74. cavity liner
75. cavity sealer
76. Tunnel defect
77. Adhesion
a. Plasticizer
b. etchany
c. primer
d. adhesives
e. wetting agent
f. hybrid layer
g. smear layer
h. thinning agent
i. Predentin
j. Simplified as adhesives
k. micro macro and nanotags
l. dry bonding
m. wet bonding
n. Rewetting agent
o. Oxygen inhibited layer
78. irradiance
79. Radiant exposure
80. Layering technique
81. Overlay technique
82. Pull through matrix technique
Most common
83. Caries lesion and non-carious are more common of which surface
84. Cause of failure of porcelain
85. Root caries most common tooth in maxilla and mandible
86. Amalgam restoration
a. Primary retentive pins in current use
 b. pin that is more retentive in dentin is
c. Most common location for pins and why?
d. Most commonly used type of matrix system
e. Most frequently used shape of band
87. Most commonly available at home use fluoride gels that come in prescription strength
88. Most common cause of restoration failure of tunnel Restoration
89. Direct anterior restoration
a. Most commonly used restorative materials in anterior region of mouth
b. Most common reason for repair or replacement of anterior composite restorations
90. Which generation of adhesive has the following
a. Most post-operative sensitivity
b. Most hydrophilic monomer content
c. Bond strength highest
91. Most commonly used matrix with class 3 restoratioS
Reasons and factors
92. Porcelain veneers
a. How can the condition of the luting composite help to determine the cause of
veneer debond
b. Disadvantages of stopping the margin in interproximal contact area
c. Factors in the composite which lead to significant decrease in bond strength
d. Factors with influence the quality of bonding to the sclerotic dentic
93. Why to bleach one arch at time
a. Why is closure of the access opening delayed for 2 weeks after the tooth has
reached maximum lightness
94. Amalgam
a. Causes of failure of amalgam restoration
b. Problems resulting from excess bonding resin in amalgam restoration
c. When to place desensitizer under amalgam Restoration
95. Instruments
a. why is there an angle where the shank joins the blade to the handle of the
instrumeny
96. Composite
a. Why auto cure has decreased polymerization shrinkage
97. how to increase surface energy for increase adhesion
Paeds
Ortho interface
98. Define balancing and compensating extractions
99. Indications of serial extraction
Intro to dental surgery
100. At what age, children are able to consider another person's point of view?
101. Primary and secondary socialization
Pain and anxiety
102. Most commonly used analgesic for oral pain in children?
103. Standard conscious sedation technique?
 104. What is 2-4-6 rule and applies for?
105. In which sedation pulse oximeter is not used?
106. Doses for paracetamol for patients 1-3 months 3 to 12 months 1-6 years and 6 to
12 years and how many times to give in a day
107. Dose for over the counter nsaid
108. Define deep sedation
a. and conscious sedation
b. GA
c. Day surgery
109. Which ASA patients are suitable for treatment in primary care settings where
simple sedition can be used
a. which patients are suitable for tertiary care
110. Indications of nitrous oxide inhalation sedation
111. Relative and absolute contraindications of nitrous oxide inhalation sedation
112. Indications of IV sedation
113. Relative and absolute contraindications of IV sedation
114. Advantages and disadvantages of IV sedation
115. Two most common sites of access for IV midazolam technique
116. Maximum total dose of IV midazolam for 12 years and older patients
117. Dose of flumazenil for the reversal of sedation
118. Drug of choice for oral sedation
119. Indications for oral midazolam
120. Contraindications for oral midazolam
121. Maximum dosage for oral midazolam sedation
122. Indications for general anesthesia for paediatric dentistry
123. Duration of short and long GA
Local anesthesia
124. Most commonly used intra oral topical agents and their concentration?
125. Alternative to EMLA
126. Method of choice for producing pulpal anesthesia in maxilla and anterior segment
of mandible
127. Generalized complications of local anesthesia
128. Early localized complications of local anesthesia
129. Late localized complications of local anesthesia
130. Contraindications of local anesthesia
131. Benzocaine should not be given under __ years
a. Why
132. Articaine is not recommended for under __ years
133. Depth of anaesthesia provided by benzocaine
134. __ ml is deposited during intraligamentry injection
Diagnosis and prevention of dental caries
135. Most important of the natural defences against dental caries is?
136. Why sharp probe is contraindicated for the diagnosis of caries?
137. Critical pH for enamel
 a. For fluorapatite
138. First choice view for caries diagnosis x-ray
139. Recommendations for the frequency of radiographic examination in children with
high moderate low carries risk
140. Which teeth are most susceptible to fluoresis
141. Fluoride concentration in the following
a. Mout rinse
b. varnish
c. gel
Periodontal diseases
142. First sign change because of drug administration hyperplasia is seen after how
much time
143. Characteristic feature of aggressive periodontitis in permanent dentition
Operative treatment in primary dentition
144. Indications of stainless steel crown in primary
145. Indication of preventive and biological approach for operative treatment
146. Contraindication of halls technique
147. Which Restoration can be placed in a damp environment
148. Which technique of restoration is used for nursing caries
149. Treatment of choice when no bleeding or pulal tissue is encountered on
accessing the chamber
150. Medicament of choice for application on to the radicular pulp
a. Commercially available as, concentration?
151. What to do when inflammation extent into the radicular pulp with vital tooth
152. Pulpectomy dis infection should be done for___ days
153. Indications for non vital Pulpectomy
Dental anomalies
154. Which dental anomalies at the following stages
a. Initiation
b. Cap stage
c. Early bell
d. Late bell
155. Genes associated with the following
a. Hyposdontia
b. Microdontia
c. hypophostphatasia
156. Anomaly associated with
a. Wiktop syndrome
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. taurodontism
157. MC tooth ass with dens invaginatus
158. Teeth ass with MIH
159. Stages to treat mih
160. Mc TYPE OF AMELO IMPERF
 161. Mc teeth ass with ectopic eruption
operative treatment in young permanent
162. Patient and tooth factors to consider for sealant recommendation
163. Varnish concentration and after how long to give it for remineralization
164. Which fissure sealant teeth required re application
165. What to go for when lesion extent to middle 3rd of dentin or is under occlusion
load
166. Treatment of approximal carries limited only to enamel
167. Conservative treatment option for deep carries
168. Treatment of choice for symptomless immature molar with extensive carries
a. And when there is pulpal exposure immmature molar
169. Critical time period for formation defects of molar incisor hypomineralirization
170. Stages for management of molars affected by MIH
171. Which particles are used in air abrasion
172. Indications for Air abrasion system
173. Recurrent caries is most commonly found at
174. Indication of celluloid crown
175. Which type of laser provide excellent hemostasis
Endodontics
Root canal anatomy
176. Weine's configuration system
177. Vertucci configuration system
178. Laws of pulp chamber
179. Define the following
a. Isthmus
b. Accessory canal
c. lateral canal
d. Furcation canal
e. Apical ramifications of the apical delta
f. Talon cusp
g. Radix meso lingualis
h. Radix entomolaris
i. Radix distolingualis
j. Radix paramolaris
180. Diameter of the major foramen
181. distance of the major foramen to anatomic Apex
182. distance of the apical constriction to the major foreman
Access prep
183. __ millimeter of tooth structure should exist above the osseous crest for biologic
width to be established
184. How to replace coronal structure for endo procedure temporarily in the following
condition
a. Tooth has missing structure but adequate retention
b. Tooth is cracked or fractured
 185. ___ radiograph offers the most accurate and distortion free information on pulp
chamber anatomy in posterior teeth
186. Define
a. estimated depth of access
b. Working Length
187. EDA of the following teeth maxillary and mandibular incisors maxillary furcated
premolars maxillary and mandibular molars
188. Most common teeth associated with a palatal swelling
189. Which burs are used for canal with calcification
190. Locations off the four canals in maxillary and mand molars
191. Outline form of all teeth
192. __ file or above have a straightening force that overcomes the confining
resistance of the dentin wall
193. Position of working length
Peri apical surgery
194. Indications
195. desired INR
196. warfarin should be stop__ days before surgical procedure
197. Heparin antidote
198. How much to resect root end mm
199. Ideal angle of resection
200. Which bur produces the smoothest most uniplaner resected root end with least
amount of shattering
201. Root end filing material is placed in a ___ shape
202. Best root end filling material
Adjunctive procedures
203. Indications and contraindications of PA surgery
204. Indications and contraindication of incision and drainage
205. Oschenbein leubke flap is aka
206. Define
a. Root amputation
b. Hemicuspidation
c. Bicuspidation
Radiology
207. Which speed film is the film recommended for endodontic use
208. Indications of CBCT in endo
209.
210. Field of view
211. Findings on CBCT that confirm VRF
cleaning and shaping
212. The canal should be enlarged to permit placement of spreader and plugger to
within __ millimetre of the working length
213. Most widely used irrigant
214. How much in millimetre should the Peri cervical dentin be conserved
 215. Define
a. glide path verification
b. Apical transportation
c. Zipping and stripping
d. Working length
e. Initial apical file
f. Final apical file
g. Final file
h. Master apical file
i. Apical Stop
j. Apical seat
k. open Apex
216. Recommended concentration of
a. naocl
b. Chloroxidine
c. EDTA
d. mtad
e. Citric acid
f. H e p b
217. Qmix consists of?
218. Explain all the hand instrumentation motions
a. Which is the most effective hand instrumentation technique
219. Most commonly used intra canal medication placed when endodontic treatment
is not completed
Geriatric endodontics
220. Oral Radiographic finding in sickle cell anemia
221. Dose of radiotherapy that results in progressive decrease in pulp vitality testing
and electric pulp testing at 12 months?
Obturation
222. Objectives of obturation
223. Rationale for completing RCT in two visits?
224. Most popular core obturation material
225. Composition of gutta percha
226. Transitional temperature of gutta percha to convert into alpha phase and
amorphous phase
227. Gutta percha is effectively sterilized by?
228. Warm vertical condensation is also called?
229. Warm vertical condensation is particularly desirable in which cases?
230. Down pack??
231. Cases in which custom formed master cone would be indicated?
232. Most widely used materials for intraorifice barrier?
233. Most widely used temporary filling material?
234. Main components of cavit
235. How does cavit achieve its sealing ability?
 236. Minimum depth of cavit required to adequately seal an access preparation?
237. At what depth TERM provide an adequate seal?
Procedural errors
238. Define
a. direct perforation
b. stripping perforation
c. gouging
d. Ledge
239. canal with severe coronal curvature require which cleaning and shaping
technique
240. Which is more susceptible to fracture SS or niti
Obturation
241. Indications to complete root canal treatment in one or two visits
242. Indications of MTA as a obturating material
243. Until when should condensation continue with the spreader for cold condensation
244. Coronal termination point of GP if intra orifice barrier has to be place
245. Warm vertical compaction is also known as
246. Indication of formed cone techniqu
Vital pulp therapy
247. Reactionary dentin Vs reparative dentin
248. Incidence of dental trauma is higher in?
249. Most common traumatic lesion is
250. Dens evaginatus is most commonly found in which tooth?
251. Dens invaginatus is most commonly found in which tooth?
252. Radicular lingual groove is most commonly found in which tooth?
253. Minimum residual dentin thickness for indirect pulp capping??
254. Direct Pulp capping has excellent prognosis in which cases??
255. Partial pulpotomy is also called?
256. Thickness of bioactive tricalcium silicate material in complete pulp chamber
pulpotomy?
257. Treatment strategies for immature teeth with pulpal necrosis??
258. Apexification
259. Major shortcomings of apexification with calcium hydroxide intracanal
medicament?
260. Regenerative endodontic procedure (REP) is also called?
261. Major limitations of apexification
262. Major limitations of regenerative endodontic procedure
263. Tissue type that is present in newly formed tissue after REP
Restoration of endo treated tooth
264. Def ferrule
265. Minimum amount of ferrule required thickness and height
266. When is orthodontic extrusion and crown lengthening indicated for tooth with post
and core treatment indicated
267. Orthodontic extrusion activation and retention period
 268. Surgical crown lengthening is in contraindicated in which P+C patients
269. Which root preferred for post placement in
a. maxillary premolars
b. Maxillary molar
c. mandibular molar
270. How much to onlay cusp adjacent to lost marginal rich with the amalgam
271. Indications of custom post
272. Indications of fibre post
273. How much is recommended to leave apical gutta percha
a. Why
274. how much should be the maximum post length and diameter
275. Conditions to be met for restoring access through an existing restoration
Traumatic dental injuries
276. Cardinal sign of Lefort III fracture
277. Degrees of mobility
278. Percussion sounds in cases of intrusion and ankylosis
279. Test for the identification of periodontal injury
280. Clinical and radiographic feature of calcific metamorphosis
281. Most commonly employed and reliable test for the pulp status
282. Nolla classification of odontogenic development
283. Imaging modality of choice for the diagnosis and management of traumatic
dental injuries
284. Direction of crown root fractures
285. Crown root fractures are commonly seen in which teeth
286. Treatment of choice for crown root fractures if the root formation is complete and
fully developed
287. Root fractures that do not involve the Crown of the tooth are called
288. Radiographic method and angle for the detection of root fracture
289. Period of stabilization for root fracture
290. Sequelae of root fracture
291. Define
a. Concussion
b. Subluxation
c. Extrusive Luxation
d. Intrusive Luxation
e. Avulsion
f. Surface resorption
g. Inflammatory resorption
h. External replacement resorption
292. Most common storage medium for the avulsed tooth
293. Antibiotics for the patients with replanted ever teeth
a. Children under the age of 12 years
b. 12 years or older
294. Sequelae of dental trauma
 295. Surface resorption is also called
296. Most common type of trauma in primary teeth
297. Possible sequelae to the permanent teeth after trauma to the primary teeth
298. What percentage of intrusive luxated teeth with closed apices undergo pulp
necrosis?
Armamentarium
299. Name the three burs indicated for removal of pull stones and calcifications
300. Give taper calculation formula at any distance for any dia file
301. Instruments used for coronal flaring
302.
a. Enlist the hand instruments by their cross section
b. Use of each
303. Difference between standardized and non-standardized gatta parcha cone
304. Diamond and carbide burs are used for??
Non surgical endodontic retreatment
305. Indications and contraindications
306. Which bur to use to gain access through the following restorations
a. Pfm
b. pfm metal substrate
c. amalgam
307. Instrumentation method of choice for retreatment.
Emergency
308. Def
a. trephination
i. When it is contraindicated?
b. Emergency
c. Urgency
d. Flareup
309. analgesic indicated when patient has mild moderate and severe pain
310. Which is the best antibiotic prevent to have 100% efficacy against pathogens
found in endodontic abscess
Pulpal diagnosis and treatment
311. Most common etiology of pulpal involvement
312. In which conditions false positive and false negative results are seen to cold test
313. EPT test hi and low reading indicate
DD of pain and radiolucencies
314. Define
a. Pain
b. Algesia
c. Allodynia
d. Hyper and hypoalgesia
e. Dysesthesia
f. Hypoesthesia
g. Neuroma
 h. Nociception
i. Neuropathic pain
j. Pain threshold
k. Pain tolerance
l. Sensitization
m. Paroxysmal neuralgia
315. most common cause of pain in the orofacial region
316. With non odontogenic pain, areas most commonly affected are?
317. Neuralgia that involve the vagus nerve is called?
318. Type of pain in deafferentation syndrome
319. Spontaneous pulpal necrosis is seen in which systemic diseasesNeuritis is
associated with which viral infection
320. Most common development cyst of maxillofacial region
321. Most common odontogenic tumor
322. Differentials for the multilocular radiolucency in posterior mandibular area in
middle aged patients?
323. Characteristics Histological feature of CEOT
324. Characteristics Histological feature of COC
325. Most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst
326. Differentials for pericoronal radiolucency in middle aged patients
327. Differential of pericoronal radiolucency when radiopacities are detected within?
328. Differentials of interradicular radiolucency of the jaw included
329. Odontogenic tumor with a well known familial transmission
330. Most common radiographic presentation of surgical ciliated cyst
331. Characteristic radiographic feature of fibrous dysplasia
332. Characteristic radiographic feature of osteogenic sarcoma
333. Characteristic radiographic feature of Ewing's sarcoma
334. Most common inherited hemoglobinopathy
335. Triad of hand schüller Christian disease
336. “Teeth floating in air” phenomenon is found in?