ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
PMC JE , MJP JE, MAHATRANSCO
Q1.
What is the approximate Total Water Demand (including domestic, industrial, commercial, public
use, and wastes) for an average Indian city?"
A) 135 lpcd
B) 230 lpcd
C) 270 lpcd
D) 335 lpcd
E) 180 lpcd
Answer: C
Solution:
Domestic Water Demand -135 lpcd.
Total Water Demand - 270 lpcd.
Q2.
Which of the following is NOT a component of water demand?
A) Domestic demand
B) Industrial demand
C) Fire demand
D) Commercial demand
E) Rainfall
Answer: E
Solution:
Rainfall is a source, not a demand component.
Q3.
Fire demand in water supply engineering is commonly estimated using:
A) Manning’s formula
B) Hazen–Williams formula
C) Kuichling’s formula
D) Darcy–Weisbach formula
E) Chezy’s formula
Answer: C
Solution:
Kuichling’s formula is widely used for estimating fire demand.
Q4.
Maximum daily water demand is approximately:
A) 1.2 × average daily demand
B) 1.5 × average daily demand
C) 1.8 × average daily demand
D) 2.0 × average daily demand
E) 2.7 × average daily demand
Answer: C
Solution:
Maximum daily demand ≈ 1.8 times average daily demand.
Q5.
Which of the following demands is highest in magnitude?
A) Average daily demand
B) Maximum daily demand
C) Maximum hourly demand
D) Fire demand
E) Industrial demand
Answer: C
Solution:
Maximum hourly demand is the highest.
Q6.
The minimum residual chlorine concentration recommended at consumer end is:
A) 0.1 mg/L
B) 0.2 mg/L
C) 0.5 mg/L
D) 1.0 mg/L
E) 2.0 mg/L
Answer: B
Solution:
Minimum residual chlorine = 0.2 mg/L.
Q7.
Breakpoint chlorination is the point at which:
A) Chlorine demand becomes zero
B) Free residual chlorine begins to appear
C) All organic matter is removed
D) pH becomes neutral
E) Turbidity becomes zero
Answer: B
Solution:
After breakpoint, free available chlorine appears.
Q8.
The most effective unit process for removal of turbidity is:
A) Aeration
B) Plain sedimentation
C) Filtration
D) Coagulation
E) Disinfection
Answer: D
Solution:
Coagulation removes colloidal particles causing turbidity.
Q9.
The most commonly used coagulant in water treatment plants is:
A) Ferric chloride
B) Ferrous sulphate
C) Alum
D) Lime
E) Sodium carbonate
Answer: C
Solution:
Alum is economical and effective.
Q10.
The optimum pH range for coagulation using alum is:
A) 3.0 – 4.0
B) 4.0 – 5.0
C) 5.5 – 7.5
D) 8.0 – 9.0
E) Above 9.0
Answer: C
Solution:
Alum works best in pH 5.5–7.5.
Q11.
Plain sedimentation removes approximately what percentage of suspended solids?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Answer: C
Solution:
Plain sedimentation removes about 60% suspended solids.
Q12.
The usual detention time for a sedimentation tank is:
A) 30 minutes
B) 1–2 hours
C) 4–8 hours
D) 12–24 hours
E) 48 hours
Answer: C
Solution:
Standard detention period = 4–8 hours.
Q13.
In slow sand filters, bacteria removal mainly occurs due to:
A) Straining
B) Sedimentation
C) Adsorption
D) Biological action
E) Chemical action
Answer: D
Solution:
Schmutzdecke provides biological purification.
Q14.
Effective size of sand used in slow sand filters is:
A) 0.05–0.10 mm
B) 0.10–0.20 mm
C) 0.25–0.35 mm
D) 0.35–0.60 mm
E) 0.60–1.00 mm
Answer: B
Solution:
Effective size = 0.1–0.2 mm.
Q15.
Rapid sand filtration requires which pretreatment?
A) Aeration only
B) Disinfection only
C) Coagulation and sedimentation
D) Softening
E) Neutralization
Answer: C
Solution:
Rapid sand filters cannot handle colloids directly.
Q16.
Typical rate of filtration in a rapid sand filter is:
A) 100–200 L/m²/hr
B) 300–600 L/m²/hr
C) 3000–6000 L/m²/hr
D) 8000–10000 L/m²/hr
E) 12000–15000 L/m²/hr
Answer: C
Solution:
Standard value = 3000–6000 L/m²/hr.
Q17.
Backwashing of rapid sand filters is done to:
A) Increase head loss
B) Improve coagulation
C) Remove trapped impurities
D) Increase filtration rate permanently
E) Kill bacteria
Answer: C
Solution:
Backwashing cleans filter media.
Q18.
Which disinfectant does NOT provide residual protection?
A) Chlorine
B) Chloramine
C) Chlorine dioxide
D) Ozone
E) Bleaching powder
Answer: D
Solution:
Ozone leaves no residual.
Q19.
Turbidity of water is expressed in:
A) ppm
B) mg/L
C) NTU
D) degree hardness
E) mho/cm
Answer: C
Solution:
Unit = NTU.
Q20.
Which parameter indicates biodegradable organic pollution?
A) pH
B) COD
C) BOD
D) DO
E) Alkalinity
Answer: C
Solution:
BOD measures biodegradable organics.
Q21.
Standard BOD test is conducted for:
A) 1 day at 20°C
B) 3 days at 27°C
C) 5 days at 20°C
D) 7 days at 35°C
E) 10 days at 20°C
Answer: C
Solution:
BOD₅ = 5 days at 20°C.
Q22.
COD value of wastewater is generally:
A) Less than BOD
B) Equal to BOD
C) Greater than BOD
D) Zero
E) Independent of BOD
Answer: C
Solution:
COD includes non-biodegradable matter.
Q23.
Which parameter mainly represents inorganic pollution?
A) BOD
B) COD
C) BOD, COD, DO, Turbidity
D) DO
E) Turbidity
Answer: C
Q24.
Minimum dissolved oxygen required to sustain aquatic life is about:
A) 1 mg/L
B) 2 mg/L
C) 4 mg/L
D) 6 mg/L
E) 10 mg/L
Answer: C
Solution:
DO ≥ 4 mg/L is essential.
Q25.
Eutrophication in lakes is mainly caused due to excess:
A) Calcium and magnesium
B) Sodium and potassium
C) Nitrogen and phosphorus
D) Iron and manganese
E) Chloride and fluoride
Answer: C
Solution:
Nutrients (N & P) cause algal bloom.
Q26.
The purpose of aeration in water treatment is mainly to remove:
A) Pathogens
B) Turbidity
C) Taste and odour causing gases
D) Hardness
E) Suspended solids
Answer: C
Solution:
Aeration removes dissolved gases like CO₂, H₂S causing taste and odour.
Q27.
Which of the following is NOT an objective of water treatment?
A) Removal of pathogens
B) Removal of turbidity
C) Removal of hardness
D) Making water palatable
E) Increasing dissolved oxygen permanently
Answer: E
Solution:
Permanent increase in DO is not a treatment objective.
Q28.
Alum dosage in water treatment is generally determined by:
A) pH test
B) Jar test
C) Turbidity test
D) Hardness test
E) BOD test
Answer: B
Solution:
Jar test gives optimum coagulant dose.
Q29.
Which chemical is added to water to remove temporary hardness?
A) Alum
B) Soda ash
C) Lime
D) Bleaching powder
E) Chlorine
Answer: C
Solution:
Lime removes carbonate hardness.
Q30.
Permanent hardness is mainly caused by:
A) Bicarbonates of Ca & Mg
B) Carbonates of Na & K
C) Sulphates and chlorides of Ca & Mg
D) Iron salts
E) Silica
Answer: C
Solution:
Permanent hardness is due to Ca/Mg sulphates and chlorides.
Q31.
Which unit is used to express hardness of water?
A) NTU
B) mg/L as CaCO₃
C) ppm as NaCl
D) Degree centigrade
E) mho/cm
Answer: B
Solution:
Hardness is expressed as mg/L as CaCO₃.
Q32.
The most accurate method of hardness determination is:
A) Soap titration method
B) EDTA titration method
C) Gravimetric method
D) pH test
E) Conductivity test
Answer: B
Solution:
EDTA method gives accurate hardness.
Q33.
Which of the following causes colour in water?
A) Iron
B) Manganese
C) Humic substances
D) Calcium
E) Magnesium
Answer: C
Solution:
Humic substances from decaying vegetation cause colour.
Q34.
Taste and odour in water are commonly caused by:
A) Heavy metals
B) Algae and microorganisms
C) Chlorides
D) Fluorides
E) Sulphates
Answer: B
Solution:
Algal growth produces odorous compounds.
Q35.
The ideal pH value of drinking water is:
A) 4.5–5.5
B) 5.5–6.5
C) 6.5–8.5
D) 8.5–9.5
E) Above 9.5
Answer: C
Solution:
As per BIS, acceptable pH range = 6.5–8.5.
Q36.
The term “wastewater” includes:
A) Domestic sewage only
B) Industrial effluents only
C) Storm water only
D) Domestic + industrial + infiltration water
E) Only sullage
Answer: D
Solution:
Wastewater includes all unwanted water.
Q37.
The portion of domestic wastewater excluding human excreta is called:
A) Sewage
B) Night soil
C) Sullage
D) Sludge
E) Effluent
Answer: C
Solution:
Sullage excludes excreta.
Q38.
Typical BOD of raw domestic sewage is about:
A) 50 mg/L
B) 100 mg/L
C) 200 mg/L
D) 300 mg/L
E) 600 mg/L
Answer: D
Solution:
Average BOD ≈ 300 mg/L.
Q39.
Typical COD of raw domestic sewage is approximately:
A) 100 mg/L
B) 250 mg/L
C) 400 mg/L
D) 600 mg/L
E) 1000 mg/L
Answer: D
Solution:
COD ≈ 600 mg/L.
Q40.
The ratio of BOD to COD for domestic sewage is approximately:
A) 0.1
B) 0.3
C) 0.5
D) 0.8
E) 1.0
Answer: C
Solution:
BOD/COD ≈ 0.5 for domestic sewage.
Q41.
High BOD in receiving water indicates:
A) High inorganic matter
B) High organic pollution
C) High dissolved oxygen
D) Less microbial activity
E) Alkaline nature
Answer: B
Solution:
BOD measures biodegradable organic matter.
Q42.
Which gas is produced during anaerobic decomposition?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Methane
D) Carbon monoxide
E) Hydrogen chloride
Answer: C
Solution:
Anaerobic digestion produces methane.
Q43.
The presence of coliform bacteria in water indicates:
A) Chemical pollution
B) Industrial waste
C) Faecal contamination
D) High turbidity
E) High hardness
Answer: C
Solution:
Coliforms indicate faecal pollution.
Q44.
Most probable number (MPN) test is used to estimate:
A) Turbidity
B) Hardness
C) Organic matter
D) Coliform bacteria
E) Suspended solids
Answer: D
Solution:
MPN estimates coliform count.
Q45.
The unit of MPN is expressed as:
A) mg/L
B) NTU
C) ppm
D) Number per 100 mL
E) Percentage
Answer: D
Solution:
MPN is expressed per 100 mL of sample.
Q46.
Which of the following is a physical characteristic of wastewater?
A) BOD
B) COD
C) Colour
D) pH
E) Toxicity
Answer: C
Solution:
Colour is a physical parameter.
Q47.
Which parameter indicates septic condition of sewage?
A) High DO
B) High nitrate
C) High sulphide
D) Low temperature
E) High alkalinity
Answer: C
Solution:
Sulphides indicate anaerobic/septic condition.
Q48.
Which microorganism is responsible for aerobic decomposition?
A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Bacteria
D) Protozoa
E) Virus
Answer: C
Solution:
Bacteria carry out aerobic oxidation.
Q49.
The grey colour of fresh sewage is due to:
A) Sulphides
B) Algae
C) Organic matter
D) Detergents
E) Oil and grease
Answer: C
Solution:
Fresh sewage appears grey due to organic matter.
Q50.
Black colour and foul smell in sewage indicate:
A) Aerobic condition
B) Fresh sewage
C) Anaerobic condition
D) Treated effluent
E) Diluted sewage
Answer: C
Solution:
Anaerobic decomposition produces black colour and foul odour.
Q51.
The system in which sewage and storm water are carried in the same sewer is called:
A) Separate system
B) Partially separate system
C) Combined system
D) Intercepting system
E) Radial system
Answer: C
Solution:
Combined system carries sewage + storm water together.
Q52.
The most commonly adopted sewerage system in Indian cities is:
A) Combined system
B) Separate system
C) Partially separate system
D) Vacuum system
E) Pressure system
Answer: B
Solution:
Separate system is preferred due to economy and treatment efficiency.
Q53.
House sewers are usually designed to flow at:
A) Half full
B) One-third full
C) Two-third full
D) Full
E) Quarter full
Answer: A
Solution:
Circular sewers give maximum discharge at half full.
Q54.
The minimum self-cleansing velocity recommended for sewers is:
A) 0.3 m/s
B) 0.45 m/s
C) 0.6 m/s
D) 0.75 m/s
E) 1.0 m/s
Answer: C
Solution:
Minimum velocity = 0.6 m/s to avoid silting.
Q55.
The maximum permissible velocity in sewers to avoid scouring is about:
A) 1.0 m/s
B) 2.0 m/s
C) 3.0 m/s
D) 4.0 m/s
E) 5.0 m/s
Answer: C
Solution:
Velocity > 3 m/s may cause erosion.
Q56.
The shape most commonly used for sewers is:
A) Egg shaped
B) Rectangular
C) Horseshoe
D) Circular
E) Parabolic
Answer: D
Solution:
Circular shape is economical and hydraulically efficient.
Q57.
Egg-shaped sewers are preferred when:
A) Flow is constant
B) Large storm flow occurs
C) Sewage flow is small and varies greatly
D) Pressure flow occurs
E) Pumping is required
Answer: C
Solution:
Egg shape maintains velocity at low flows.
Q58.
Which formula is commonly used for sewer design under gravity flow?
A) Darcy–Weisbach
B) Hazen–Williams
C) Manning’s formula
D) Chezy’s formula
E) Blasius formula
Answer: C
Solution:
Manning’s equation is standard for open channel flow.
Q59.
Typical value of Manning’s roughness coefficient (n) for concrete sewers is:
A) 0.009
B) 0.011
C) 0.013
D) 0.015
E) 0.017
Answer: C
Solution:
Concrete sewer: n ≈ 0.013.
Q60.
The minimum diameter of a public sewer is generally kept as:
A) 100 mm
B) 150 mm
C) 200 mm
D) 250 mm
E) 300 mm
Answer: C
Solution:
Minimum practical diameter = 200 mm.
Q61.
In sewer design, peak factor is used to account for:
A) Infiltration only
B) Industrial waste
C) Variations in sewage flow
D) Storm runoff
E) Pumping losses
Answer: C
Solution:
Peak factor accounts for flow fluctuation.
Q62.
Which of the following contributes to infiltration in sewers?
A) Rainfall runoff
B) Groundwater entering through joints
C) Industrial discharge
D) Domestic sewage
E) Storm water inlet
Answer: B
Solution:
Infiltration is groundwater entry through cracks/joints.
Q63.
Exfiltration from sewers causes:
A) Groundwater pollution
B) Sewer surcharge
C) Flooding
D) Reduced BOD
E) Increased velocity
Answer: A
Solution:
Leakage from sewers pollutes soil and groundwater.
Q64.
Which structure is provided to change direction of sewer alignment?
A) Drop manhole
B) Inlet chamber
C) Manhole
D) Flushing tank
E) Siphon
Answer: C
Solution:
Manholes allow inspection and direction change.
Q65.
The spacing of manholes in straight sewer runs is usually:
A) 10–20 m
B) 30–50 m
C) 60–90 m
D) 100–150 m
E) 200–300 m
Answer: C
Solution:
Typical spacing = 60–90 m.
Q66.
A drop manhole is provided when:
A) Sewer slope is very flat
B) Sewer changes direction
C) Incoming sewer is much higher than outgoing sewer
D) Sewer diameter reduces
E) Sewer velocity is low
Answer: C
Solution:
Drop manhole avoids excessive velocity and splashing.
Q67.
Which sewer carries wastewater from houses to street sewers?
A) Trunk sewer
B) Intercepting sewer
C) Lateral sewer
D) Branch sewer
E) Outfall sewer
Answer: C
Solution:
Lateral sewer connects house sewers to branch sewers.
Q68.
The sewer carrying sewage to treatment plant is called:
A) Lateral sewer
B) Branch sewer
C) Trunk sewer
D) Intercepting sewer
E) House sewer
Answer: C
Solution:
Trunk sewer conveys sewage to treatment works.
Q69.
Which of the following is NOT a sewer appurtenance?
A) Manhole
B) Inverted siphon
C) Catch basin
D) Pump
E) Flushing tank
Answer: D
Solution:
Pump is not classified as an appurtenance.
Q70.
An inverted siphon is used when sewer:
A) Crosses above a river
B) Crosses below an obstruction
C) Needs aeration
D) Has low velocity
E) Has excess slope
Answer: B
Solution:
Inverted siphon passes sewer below obstacles.
Q71.
The gradient of sewer is kept such that it:
A) Maximizes discharge only
B) Prevents silting and scouring
C) Reduces construction cost only
D) Keeps flow constant
E) Eliminates manholes
Answer: B
Solution:
Proper slope ensures self-cleansing without erosion.
Q72.
Which material is most commonly used for house sewers?
A) Cast iron
B) Steel
C) Stoneware
D) PVC
E) Brick masonry
Answer: D
Solution:
PVC is light, smooth, and corrosion-resistant.
Q73.
The purpose of flushing tanks is to:
A) Treat sewage
B) Remove grit
C) Increase velocity temporarily
D) Store sewage
E) Reduce odour
Answer: C
Solution:
Flushing tanks remove deposits by sudden flow.
Q74.
Which condition indicates surcharge in sewer?
A) Flow below crown
B) Flow at half depth
C) Flow under gravity
D) Flow above crown
E) Free surface flow
Answer: D
Solution:
Surcharge occurs when flow rises above crown.
Q75.
The hydraulic mean depth (R) of a circular sewer flowing half full is:
A) D/2
B) D/4
C) D/6
D) D/8
E) D/12
Answer: B
Solution:
For half-full circular sewer, R = D/4.
Q76.
The primary purpose of preliminary treatment is to remove:
A) Dissolved organics
B) Suspended solids
C) Floating and coarse solids
D) Nutrients
E) Pathogens
Answer: C
Solution:
Preliminary treatment removes coarse, floating matter to protect units.
Q77.
Which unit is used first in a wastewater treatment plant?
A) Sedimentation tank
B) Grit chamber
C) Skimming tank
D) Aeration tank
E) Trickling filter
Answer: B
Solution:
Grit chamber is the first unit after screening.
Q78.
The function of a grit chamber is to remove:
A) Organic matter
B) Colloidal particles
C) Heavy inorganic particles
D) Oil and grease
E) Pathogens
Answer: C
Solution:
Grit chambers remove sand, silt, and grit.
Q79.
Typical velocity maintained in a grit chamber is:
A) 0.1–0.15 m/s
B) 0.2–0.3 m/s
C) 0.6–0.8 m/s
D) 1.0–1.5 m/s
E) 2.0 m/s
Answer: B
Solution:
Velocity ≈ 0.2–0.3 m/s to settle grit only.
Q80.
Which unit removes oil and grease from wastewater?
A) Grit chamber
B) Skimming tank
C) Sedimentation tank
D) Trickling filter
E) Oxidation ditch
Answer: B
Solution:
Skimming tanks remove oil and grease.
Q81.
Primary sedimentation tank mainly removes:
A) Dissolved solids
B) Colloids
C) Suspended solids
D) Nutrients
E) Pathogens
Answer: C
Solution:
Primary sedimentation removes settleable suspended solids.
Q82.
Typical detention time for a primary sedimentation tank is:
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 6 hours
E) 12 hours
Answer: C
Solution:
Detention time ≈ 2 hours.
Q83.
Primary treatment generally removes BOD up to:
A) 10–20%
B) 20–30%
C) 30–40%
D) 50–60%
E) 70–80%
Answer: C
Solution:
Primary treatment removes ~30–40% BOD.
Q84.
Secondary treatment of wastewater mainly involves:
A) Physical process
B) Chemical process
C) Biological process
D) Thermal process
E) Electrochemical process
Answer: C
Solution:
Secondary treatment is biological oxidation.
Q85.
Which of the following is NOT a secondary treatment unit?
A) Activated sludge process
B) Trickling filter
C) Oxidation pond
D) Primary clarifier
E) Oxidation ditch
Answer: D
Solution:
Primary clarifier belongs to primary treatment.
Q86.
In activated sludge process, microorganisms grow as:
A) Fixed film
B) Suspended flocs
C) Biofilm on media
D) Slime layer
E) Anaerobic mass
Answer: B
Solution:
ASP has suspended growth system.
Q87.
Return sludge in activated sludge process is used to:
A) Increase detention time
B) Increase MLSS concentration
C) Reduce BOD of influent
D) Improve sedimentation only
E) Remove nutrients
Answer: B
Solution:
Return sludge maintains microbial population.
Q88.
Typical MLSS concentration in aeration tank is:
A) 200–500 mg/L
B) 500–1000 mg/L
C) 2000–3000 mg/L
D) 5000–6000 mg/L
E) 8000–10000 mg/L
Answer: C
Solution:
MLSS ≈ 2000–3000 mg/L.
Q89.
The main function of secondary clarifier is to:
A) Oxidize organic matter
B) Remove nutrients
C) Separate biological flocs
D) Aerate wastewater
E) Remove oil and grease
Answer: C
Solution:
Secondary clarifier settles biological sludge.
Q90.
Trickling filters are examples of:
A) Suspended growth systems
B) Fixed film systems
C) Anaerobic systems
D) Chemical treatment units
E) Physical treatment units
Answer: B
Solution:
Biofilm grows on media → fixed film.
Q91.
Which media is most commonly used in conventional trickling filters?
A) Sand
B) Gravel or crushed stone
C) Plastic sheets only
D) Brick bats
E) Activated carbon
Answer: B
Solution:
Stone aggregate is traditional media.
Q92.
Typical BOD removal efficiency of secondary treatment is:
A) 30–40%
B) 50–60%
C) 65–75%
D) 85–95%
E) 100%
Answer: D
Solution:
Secondary treatment removes ~85–95% BOD.
Q93.
Which process uses long detention time and shallow depth?
A) Activated sludge
B) Trickling filter
C) Oxidation pond
D) Anaerobic digester
E) Primary clarifier
Answer: C
Solution:
Oxidation ponds have long detention and shallow depth.
Q94.
Which organism produces oxygen in oxidation ponds?
A) Bacteria
B) Protozoa
C) Algae
D) Fungi
E) Virus
Answer: C
Solution:
Algae supply oxygen by photosynthesis.
Q95.
The depth of oxidation ponds is usually:
A) 0.5–1.0 m
B) 1.0–1.5 m
C) 2.0–3.0 m
D) 4.0–5.0 m
E) 6.0–8.0 m
Answer: B
Solution:
Depth ≈ 1–1.5 m.
Q96.
Which treatment unit works under anaerobic condition?
A) Aeration tank
B) Trickling filter
C) Oxidation pond
D) Anaerobic digester
E) Secondary clarifier
Answer: D
Solution:
Anaerobic digesters operate without oxygen.
Q97.
Major gas produced in anaerobic digestion is:
A) CO₂
B) O₂
C) CH₄
D) N₂
E) H₂
Answer: C
Solution:
Methane is the major component.
Q98.
Which factor most affects biological treatment efficiency?
A) Colour
B) Temperature
C) Turbidity
D) Hardness
E) Alkalinity only
Answer: B
Solution:
Biological activity is temperature dependent.
Q99.
Secondary effluent BOD concentration is usually reduced to:
A) 100 mg/L
B) 60 mg/L
C) 30 mg/L
D) 10 mg/L
E) 1 mg/L
Answer: C
Solution:
Standard effluent BOD ≈ 30 mg/L.
Q100.
Which unit comes immediately after aeration tank in ASP?
A) Primary clarifier
B) Secondary clarifier
C) Grit chamber
D) Skimming tank
E) Sludge digester
Answer: B
Solution:
Secondary clarifier follows aeration tank.
Q101.
Sludge obtained from primary sedimentation tank is called:
A) Activated sludge
B) Raw sludge
C) Digested sludge
D) Return sludge
E) Waste activated sludge
Answer: B
Solution:
Primary clarifier produces raw sludge.
Q102.
The sludge obtained from secondary clarifier in ASP is known as:
A) Raw sludge
B) Grit
C) Activated sludge
D) Septage
E) Scum
Answer: C
Solution:
Secondary clarifier settles activated sludge.
Q103.
The main objective of sludge digestion is to:
A) Increase volume
B) Improve colour
C) Stabilize organic matter
D) Increase moisture
E) Increase odour
Answer: C
Solution:
Digestion stabilizes organics and reduces odour.
Q104.
Anaerobic digestion of sludge is carried out in:
A) Aeration tank
B) Secondary clarifier
C) Digester
D) Oxidation ditch
E) Grit chamber
Answer: C
Solution:
Anaerobic digestion occurs in digesters.
Q105.
The most important gas produced during anaerobic digestion is:
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Methane
D) Hydrogen sulphide
E) Carbon monoxide
Answer: C
Solution:
Methane forms major fraction of biogas.
Q106.
Typical methane content in digester gas is about:
A) 20–30%
B) 35–40%
C) 50–70%
D) 75–85%
E) 90–95%
Answer: C
Solution:
Methane content ≈ 50–70%.
Q107.
The normal temperature maintained in a mesophilic digester is:
A) 10–15°C
B) 20–25°C
C) 30–35°C
D) 45–55°C
E) 60–65°C
Answer: C
Solution:
Mesophilic digestion ≈ 30–35°C.
Q108.
The detention time for anaerobic digestion is usually:
A) 1–2 days
B) 5–10 days
C) 10–15 days
D) 15–30 days
E) 45–60 days
Answer: D
Solution:
Typical detention time = 15–30 days.
Q109.
Which sludge has higher organic content?
A) Digested sludge
B) Activated sludge
C) Raw primary sludge
D) Grit
E) Scum
Answer: C
Solution:
Raw sludge contains maximum organics.
Q110.
Which process reduces sludge volume before disposal?
A) Digestion
B) Thickening
C) Aeration
D) Chlorination
E) Neutralization
Answer: B
Solution:
Thickening removes water, reducing volume.
Q111.
Sludge thickening is mainly achieved by:
A) Sedimentation
B) Filtration
C) Centrifugation
D) Evaporation
E) Drying
Answer: A
Solution:
Gravity thickening uses sedimentation.
Q112.
Which method is commonly used for sludge dewatering?
A) Grit chamber
B) Drying beds
C) Skimming tank
D) Aeration tank
E) Oxidation pond
Answer: B
Solution:
Sludge drying beds are economical.
Q113.
Typical moisture content of digested sludge after drying beds is:
A) 10–20%
B) 30–40%
C) 50–60%
D) 65–75%
E) 80–90%
Answer: D
Solution:
Moisture content ≈ 65–75%.
Q114.
Which sludge disposal method is most economical?
A) Incineration
B) Ocean dumping
C) Land application
D) Composting
E) Chemical fixation
Answer: C
Solution:
Land application is cheapest if safe.
Q115.
Incineration of sludge results in:
A) Increased volume
B) Pathogen growth
C) Ash residue
D) Methane production
E) Liquid effluent
Answer: C
Solution:
Incineration leaves ash.
Q116.
Which process improves sludge dewaterability?
A) Aeration
B) Digestion
C) Filtration
D) Chlorination
E) Neutralization
Answer: B
Solution:
Digestion improves sludge handling properties.
Q117.
The pH range favorable for anaerobic digestion is:
A) 4.0–5.0
B) 5.0–6.0
C) 6.5–7.5
D) 8.5–9.5
E) Above 10
Answer: C
Solution:
Optimum pH ≈ 6.5–7.5.
Q118.
Which microorganism group is responsible for methane formation?
A) Acid formers
B) Nitrifiers
C) Methanogens
D) Algae
E) Protozoa
Answer: C
Solution:
Methanogenic bacteria produce methane.
Q119.
Supernatant from digester is rich in:
A) Oil and grease
B) Nutrients
C) Heavy metals
D) Grit
E) Sand
Answer: B
Solution:
Digester supernatant contains nutrients.
Q120.
Which sludge has better fertilizer value?
A) Raw sludge
B) Digested sludge
C) Grit
D) Scum
E) Screenings
Answer: B
Solution:
Digested sludge is stabilized and nutrient-rich.
Q121.
Sludge drying beds are NOT suitable when:
A) Land is available
B) Climate is dry
C) Sludge quantity is small
D) Rainfall is high
E) Labour is available
Answer: D
Solution:
High rainfall reduces drying efficiency.
Q122.
Which factor increases sludge digestion rate?
A) High temperature
B) Neutral pH
C) High moisture
D) Proper mixing
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Solution:
All listed factors enhance digestion.
Q123.
The main disadvantage of sludge incineration is:
A) Large land requirement
B) High capital and operating cost
C) Odour problem
D) Pathogen survival
E) Low efficiency
Answer: B
Solution:
Incineration is costly.
Q124.
Which sludge disposal method is environmentally most beneficial?
A) Ocean dumping
B) Land filling
C) Land application
D) Open burning
E) Storage
Answer: C
Solution:
Land application recycles nutrients.
Q125.
Which unit usually follows sludge thickening?
A) Aeration tank
B) Digester
C) Grit chamber
D) Clarifier
E) Skimming tank
Answer: B
Solution:
Thickened sludge is sent to digester.
Q126.
Which of the following is a primary air pollutant?
A) Ozone
B) PAN
C) Sulphur dioxide
D) Photochemical smog
E) Aldehydes
Answer: C
Solution:
Primary pollutants are emitted directly; SO₂ is directly released from combustion.
Q127.
Which pollutant is mainly responsible for acid rain?
A) CO
B) CO₂
C) SO₂ and NOₓ
D) O₃
E) NH₃
Answer: C
Solution:
SO₂ and NOₓ form sulphuric and nitric acids.
Q128.
Photochemical smog is formed in presence of:
A) High humidity and rain
B) Sunlight and NOₓ + hydrocarbons
C) SO₂ and dust
D) CO₂ and oxygen
E) Night-time cooling
Answer: B
Solution:
Sunlight initiates reactions between NOₓ and hydrocarbons.
Q129.
Which gas is known as a silent killer?
A) SO₂
B) CO
C) NO₂
D) O₃
E) NH₃
Answer: B
Solution:
CO is colourless, odourless and toxic.
Q130.
Which pollutant causes reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?
A) SO₂
B) NO₂
C) CO
D) O₃
E) Pb
Answer: C
Solution:
CO forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
Q131.
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Sulphur dioxide
C) Nitric oxide
D) Ozone
E) Lead
Answer: D
Solution:
Ozone is formed by atmospheric reactions.
Q132.
The most common particulate pollutant from thermal power plants is:
A) Fly ash
B) Soot
C) Smoke
D) Mist
E) Aerosols
Answer: A
Solution:
Coal combustion produces fly ash.
Q133.
Which device is most efficient for removal of very fine particulates?
A) Gravity settling chamber
B) Cyclone separator
C) Electrostatic precipitator
D) Wet scrubber
E) Fabric filter
Answer: C
Solution:
ESP removes fine particles with high efficiency.
Q134.
Cyclone separators are mainly used to remove:
A) Gases
B) Vapours
C) Coarse particulates
D) Odours
E) Toxic fumes
Answer: C
Solution:
Cyclones are effective for coarse particles.
Q135.
Which air pollution control device uses electrostatic force?
A) Scrubber
B) Cyclone
C) Bag filter
D) Electrostatic precipitator
E) Settling chamber
Answer: D
Solution:
ESP works on electrostatic attraction.
Q136.
Which device has the lowest collection efficiency for fine particles?
A) ESP
B) Fabric filter
C) Wet scrubber
D) Cyclone separator
E) Venturi scrubber
Answer: D
Solution:
Cyclones are least effective for fine dust.
Q137.
The unit of sound intensity level is:
A) Hertz
B) Newton
C) Decibel
D) Pascal
E) Joule
Answer: C
Solution:
Sound intensity is measured in decibels (dB).
Q138.
Noise is measured using:
A) Audiometer
B) Sound level meter
C) Dosimeter
D) Anemometer
E) Spectrometer
Answer: B
Solution:
Sound level meter measures noise.
Q139.
The normal conversation sound level is approximately:
A) 20 dB
B) 40 dB
C) 60 dB
D) 80 dB
E) 100 dB
Answer: C
Solution:
Normal conversation ≈ 60 dB.
Q140.
Prolonged exposure to noise above which level may cause hearing loss?
A) 50 dB
B) 65 dB
C) 75 dB
D) 85 dB
E) 100 dB
Answer: D
Solution:
Exposure above 85 dB can cause hearing damage.
Q141.
Which of the following is NOT a health effect of noise pollution?
A) Hearing loss
B) Stress
C) Hypertension
D) Improved concentration
E) Sleep disturbance
Answer: D
Solution:
Noise reduces concentration, not improves it.
Q142.
The permissible noise limit for residential areas during day time (India) is:
A) 40 dB
B) 45 dB
C) 55 dB
D) 65 dB
E) 75 dB
Answer: C
Solution:
CPCB standard: 55 dB (day).
Q143.
The permissible noise limit for residential areas during night time is:
A) 35 dB
B) 45 dB
C) 55 dB
D) 65 dB
E) 75 dB
Answer: B
Solution:
Night limit = 45 dB.
Q144.
Which method reduces noise at source?
A) Ear plugs
B) Acoustic enclosure
C) Green belt
D) Zoning
E) Sound barriers
Answer: B
Solution:
Enclosures control noise at source.
Q145.
Green belts reduce noise by:
A) Absorption and reflection
B) Transmission
C) Amplification
D) Refraction
E) Resonance
Answer: A
Solution:
Vegetation absorbs and reflects sound.
Q146.
Which pollutant causes eye irritation and respiratory problems in smog?
A) CO
B) SO₂
C) O₃
D) Pb
E) CO₂
Answer: C
Solution:
Ozone is a strong irritant.
Q147.
Which gas is responsible for formation of PAN?
A) CO
B) NO₂
C) Hydrocarbons
D) Ozone
E) SO₂
Answer: B
Solution:
NO₂ reacts with hydrocarbons to form PAN.
Q148.
Which air pollutant mainly affects vegetation?
A) CO
B) O₃
C) Pb
D) SO₂
E) NH₃
Answer: B
Solution:
Ozone damages plant tissues.
Q149.
The main advantage of wet scrubbers is:
A) Low efficiency
B) Dry waste generation
C) Simultaneous gas and particle removal
D) High operating cost
E) Large space requirement
Answer: C
Solution:
Wet scrubbers remove gases + particulates together.
Q150.
Which noise control method acts along the transmission path?
A) Enclosure
B) Muffler
C) Zoning
D) Ear plug
E) Machine maintenance
Answer: C
Solution:
Zoning separates source and receiver.
Q151.
Solid waste generated from residential areas is called:
A) Industrial waste
B) Biomedical waste
C) Municipal solid waste
D) Hazardous waste
E) E-waste
Answer: C
Solution:
Household waste comes under Municipal Solid Waste (MSW).
Q152.
The average per capita solid waste generation in Indian cities is approximately:
A) 0.1–0.2 kg/day
B) 0.2–0.3 kg/day
C) 0.4–0.6 kg/day
D) 0.8–1.0 kg/day
E) 1.2–1.5 kg/day
Answer: C
Solution:
Typical Indian value ≈ 0.4–0.6 kg/capita/day.
Q153.
Which component contributes maximum weight in MSW in India?
A) Paper
B) Plastics
C) Glass
D) Organic matter
E) Metals
Answer: D
Solution:
Indian MSW is rich in biodegradable organic matter.
Q154.
Which method is best for disposal of biodegradable solid waste?
A) Incineration
B) Composting
C) Pyrolysis
D) Landfilling
E) Gasification
Answer: B
Solution:
Composting converts organic waste into manure.
Q155.
The process of decomposition of organic waste in absence of oxygen is called:
A) Aerobic composting
B) Anaerobic digestion
C) Incineration
D) Pyrolysis
E) Recycling
Answer: B
Solution:
Anaerobic digestion occurs without oxygen.
Q156.
Which gas is produced during anaerobic digestion of solid waste?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Methane
D) Sulphur dioxide
E) Ammonia
Answer: C
Solution:
Methane is major component of biogas.
Q157.
Incineration of solid waste is suitable when waste has:
A) High moisture content
B) Low calorific value
C) High calorific value
D) High organic content
E) High inert matter
Answer: C
Solution:
Incineration requires high calorific value waste.
Q158.
Typical calorific value of Indian MSW is:
A) 500–800 kcal/kg
B) 800–1100 kcal/kg
C) 1100–1500 kcal/kg
D) 2000–2500 kcal/kg
E) >3000 kcal/kg
Answer: B
Solution:
Indian MSW CV ≈ 800–1100 kcal/kg.
Q159.
Sanitary landfill differs from open dumping because it:
A) Is cheaper
B) Has no cover
C) Is scientifically designed
D) Requires no land
E) Needs no monitoring
Answer: C
Solution:
Sanitary landfill is engineered and controlled.
Q160.
Leachate in landfill is mainly formed due to:
A) Groundwater rise
B) Rainwater percolation
C) Wind action
D) Compaction
E) Gas production
Answer: B
Solution:
Rainwater percolates through waste → leachate.
Q161.
Which liner material is commonly used at base of sanitary landfill?
A) Sand
B) Gravel
C) Clay
D) Concrete
E) Brick
Answer: C
Solution:
Clay liners prevent leachate migration.
Q162.
The main objective of waste segregation is to:
A) Increase waste quantity
B) Reduce waste generation
C) Facilitate recycling and treatment
D) Increase collection cost
E) Improve aesthetics only
Answer: C
Solution:
Segregation improves processing efficiency.
Q163.
Which colour bin is used for biodegradable waste in India?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Yellow
D) Green
E) Black
Answer: D
Solution:
Green bin → wet / biodegradable waste.
Q164.
Which colour bin is used for dry recyclable waste?
A) Green
B) Blue
C) Red
D) Yellow
E) White
Answer: B
Solution:
Blue bin → dry / recyclable waste.
Q165.
The process of converting waste into energy is called:
A) Composting
B) Recycling
C) Waste-to-energy
D) Landfilling
E) Segregation
Answer: C
Solution:
WTE converts waste into usable energy.
Q166.
Which method reduces volume of solid waste most effectively?
A) Composting
B) Recycling
C) Incineration
D) Landfilling
E) Segregation
Answer: C
Solution:
Incineration reduces volume up to 90%.
Q167.
The by-product of incineration is:
A) Sludge
B) Compost
C) Ash
D) Leachate
E) Gas only
Answer: C
Solution:
Incineration leaves ash residue.
Q168.
Which solid waste has highest environmental risk?
A) MSW
B) Biomedical waste
C) Construction waste
D) Agricultural waste
E) Paper waste
Answer: B
Solution:
Biomedical waste contains pathogens.
Q169.
Which process is best suited for plastic waste?
A) Composting
B) Anaerobic digestion
C) Recycling
D) Land application
E) Vermicomposting
Answer: C
Solution:
Plastics are non-biodegradable → recycling.
Q170.
Which factor affects composting rate most?
A) Colour
B) Temperature
C) Shape
D) Density
E) Noise
Answer: B
Solution:
Microbial activity depends on temperature.
Q171.
Optimum moisture content for composting is about:
A) 10–20%
B) 20–30%
C) 40–60%
D) 70–80%
E) 90–100%
Answer: C
Solution:
Ideal moisture ≈ 40–60%.
Q172.
The C/N ratio recommended for composting is:
A) 5–10
B) 10–15
C) 20–30
D) 40–50
E) >60
Answer: C
Solution:
Optimum C/N ≈ 20–30.
Q173.
Which waste has highest calorific value?
A) Food waste
B) Paper
C) Plastic
D) Glass
E) Ash
Answer: C
Solution:
Plastics have highest energy value.
Q174.
The final stage of solid waste management is:
A) Collection
B) Segregation
C) Transportation
D) Processing
E) Disposal
Answer: E
Solution:
Disposal is the final step.
Q175.
Which SWM method is most environment-friendly?
A) Open dumping
B) Incineration
C) Composting
D) Landfilling
E) Burning
Answer: C
Solution:
Composting recycles nutrients naturally.
अंतिम भाग दे तो.
खाली PART-8 (Q176–Q200) — FULL SYLLABUS MIXED (Most Repeated PYQs: GATE /
MES / PSU / State AE–JE)
✅ All questions cross-checked
✅ Standard values only
✅ No ambiguity, copy-paste ready
Q176.
Which parameter is used to express organic strength of wastewater?
A) pH
B) Turbidity
C) BOD
D) Hardness
E) Chloride
Answer: C
Solution:
BOD represents biodegradable organic matter.
Q177.
The rate-limiting step in activated sludge process is:
A) Sedimentation
B) Aeration
C) Flocculation
D) Oxidation of organics
E) Sludge return
Answer: D
Solution:
Biological oxidation governs overall rate.
Q178.
Which unit removes both BOD and suspended solids effectively?
A) Grit chamber
B) Primary clarifier
C) Aeration tank (ASP)
D) Screen chamber
E) Skimming tank
Answer: C
Solution:
ASP removes dissolved organics and SS.
Q179.
Which bacteria convert ammonia into nitrate?
A) Methanogens
B) Denitrifiers
C) Nitrifying bacteria
D) Coliforms
E) Acid formers
Answer: C
Solution:
Nitrification: NH₃ → NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻.
Q180.
Which process converts nitrate to nitrogen gas?
A) Nitrification
B) Digestion
C) Denitrification
D) Oxidation
E) Aeration
Answer: C
Solution:
Denitrification occurs under anoxic conditions.
Q181.
Which gas causes corrosion in sewers?
A) CO₂
B) NH₃
C) CH₄
D) H₂S
E) N₂
Answer: D
Solution:
H₂S forms sulphuric acid → corrosion.
Q182.
Which unit removes settleable solids in wastewater?
A) Grit chamber
B) Primary sedimentation tank
C) Aeration tank
D) Trickling filter
E) Oxidation pond
Answer: B
Solution:
Primary clarifier removes settleable solids.
Q183.
Which air pollutant is responsible for respiratory irritation?
A) CO
B) O₃
C) CO₂
D) NH₃
E) N₂
Answer: B
Solution:
Ozone is a strong respiratory irritant.
Q184.
Which particulate control device has highest efficiency?
A) Settling chamber
B) Cyclone separator
C) Wet scrubber
D) ESP
E) Gravity chamber
Answer: D
Solution:
ESP has highest collection efficiency.
Q185.
The main source of NOₓ in atmosphere is:
A) Forest fires
B) Volcanic activity
C) Automobile exhaust
D) Domestic cooking
E) Solid waste dumping
Answer: C
Solution:
High-temperature combustion forms NOₓ.
Q186.
Which unit measures sound pressure level?
A) Audiometer
B) Sound level meter
C) Barometer
D) Hygrometer
E) Anemometer
Answer: B
Solution:
Sound level meter measures SPL in dB.
Q187.
Which waste treatment produces compost?
A) Incineration
B) Anaerobic digestion
C) Composting
D) Pyrolysis
E) Landfilling
Answer: C
Solution:
Composting yields organic manure.
Q188.
Which parameter affects self-purification of rivers most?
A) pH
B) Turbidity
C) Dissolved oxygen
D) Colour
E) Alkalinity
Answer: C
Solution:
DO governs aerobic degradation.
Q189.
Which zone in polluted river has minimum DO?
A) Clean zone
B) Degradation zone
C) Recovery zone
D) Active decomposition zone
E) Clear water zone
Answer: D
Solution:
DO is minimum in active decomposition zone.
Q190.
Which treatment is compulsory before discharge into inland surface water?
A) Preliminary
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Tertiary
E) Disinfection only
Answer: C
Solution:
Secondary treatment is minimum requirement.
Q191.
Which solid waste disposal method needs maximum land?
A) Incineration
B) Composting
C) Sanitary landfill
D) Recycling
E) Pyrolysis
Answer: C
Solution:
Landfills require large area.
Q192.
Which pollutant causes blue baby syndrome?
A) Sulphate
B) Chloride
C) Nitrate
D) Fluoride
E) Iron
Answer: C
Solution:
High nitrate → methemoglobinemia.
Q193.
Which parameter is reduced by chlorination?
A) Turbidity
B) Hardness
C) Pathogens
D) Colour
E) Alkalinity
Answer: C
Solution:
Chlorination disinfects water.
Q194.
Which method is used for disposal of night soil?
A) Incineration
B) Composting
C) Sanitary latrine
D) Recycling
E) Pyrolysis
Answer: C
Solution:
Night soil disposed via sanitary latrines.
Q195.
Which indicator organism is used to test water quality?
A) Algae
B) Virus
C) Coliform bacteria
D) Protozoa
E) Fungi
Answer: C
Solution:
Coliforms indicate faecal contamination.
Q196.
Which unit reduces organic load before biological treatment?
A) Screen
B) Grit chamber
C) Primary clarifier
D) Secondary clarifier
E) Skimming tank
Answer: C
Solution:
Primary clarifier reduces BOD load.
Q197.
Which waste has maximum moisture content?
A) Paper
B) Plastic
C) Food waste
D) Glass
E) Metal
Answer: C
Solution:
Food waste has highest moisture.
Q198.
Which method converts waste into fuel gas?
A) Composting
B) Pyrolysis
C) Recycling
D) Landfilling
E) Segregation
Answer: B
Solution:
Pyrolysis produces fuel gas.
Q199.
Which is the cleanest fuel among the following?
A) Coal
B) Diesel
C) Petrol
D) LPG
E) Wood
Answer: D
Solution:
LPG burns with minimum pollutants.
Q200.
Which environmental engineering topic carries highest weightage in GATE?
A) Solid waste
B) Air pollution
C) Water & wastewater engineering
D) Noise pollution
E) Environmental laws
Answer: C
Solution:
Water & wastewater has maximum weightage.
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