18-01-2026

0999DMD363161250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) If K1 & K2 are maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted when lights of wavelength λ1 &
λ2 respectively incident on a metallic surface. If λ1 = 3λ2 then

(1)

(2)

(3) K1 = 3K2
(4) K2 = 3K1

2) The photoelectric threshold wavelength for silver is λo. The maximum energy of electron ejected
from the surface of silver by an incident wavelength λ(λ < λo) will be

(1) hc(λo – λ)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a maximum speed
of 6 × 105 m/sec are ejected from the surface. The threshold frequency for photo emission of
electron is

(1) 2.32 × 1014 Hz

(2) 2.32 × 1012 Hz
(3) 4.74 × 1014 Hz
(4) 4.74 × 1012 Hz

4) Light of wavelength 0.6 µm is incident on a metal surface then stopping potential is 0.5 V and

with wavelength of 0.4 µm stopping potential is 1.5 V. Calculate

(1) 4 × 10–15 V sec

(2) 4 × 10–8 V sec
(3) 4 × 10–59 V sec
(4) 0.25 × 1015 V sec

5)
In photoelectric effect match the following columns for a metal. :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Slope of line # 1 (P) ϕ0

(B) Slope of line # 2 (Q) ϕ0/e

(C) Value of X1 (R) h

(D) Value of X2 (S) h/e

(1) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

6) Work function of Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective
threshold frequencies would be

(1) Pt > Al > K

(2) Al > Pt > K
(3) K > Al > Pt
(4) Al > K > Pt

7) Assertion :- Free electrons inside a metal are free to move out of the metal.
Reason :- Free electron inside conductor do not need additional energy to get out of the metal.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

8) In given graph calculate value of threshold frequency for electron emission

(1) 1014 Hz
(2) 1.5 × 1014 Hz
(3) 2 × 1014 Hz
(4) 2.7 × 1014 Hz

9) De-broglie wavelength of a particle of kinetic energy K is λ. What will be the wavelength of the

particle of its kinetic energy is .

(1) λ
(2) 2λ

(3)

(4) 4λ

10) The maximum frequency and minimum wavelength of x-rays produced by 30 kV electrons are

(1) 7.24 × 1018 Hz and 0.041 nm

(2) 3.21 × 1018 Hz and 0.211 nm
(3) 5.32 × 1018 Hz and 0.001 nm
(4) 2.13 × 1018 Hz and 0.011 nm

11) A particle of mass 4 m at rest decays into two particles of masses m and 3 m having non-zero
velocities. The ratio of de-broglie wavelengths of the particles will be

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 1

12) The wavelength of a photon is twice the de-broglie wavelength of an electron. Speed of the

electron is . Then
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Radius of a nucleus is 3.6 fm. Calculate mass number of nucleus.

(1) 27
(2) 40
(3) 56
(4) 120

14) If binding energy per nucleon of deuterium is 1.115 MeV, then calculate mass defect in atomic
mass unit.

(1) 0.0048
(2) 0.0024
(3) 0.0012
(4) 0.0006

15) In a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is 0.3% then energy released in fusion of 1 kg mass

(1) 27 × 1010 J
(2) 27 × 1011 J
(3) 27 × 1012 J
(4) 27 × 1013​ J

16) In given nuclear reaction calculate value of a and b

(1) a = 100, b = 210

(2) a = 103, b = 218
(3) a = 99, b = 215
(4) a = 102, b = 221

17) If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single nucleus of 92U235, the fission which are
required to produce power of 1 KW is

(1) 3.125 × 1013

(2) 1.52 × 106
(3) 3.125 × 1012
(4) 3.125 × 1014

18) A positron and electron each having energy 1 MeV collides. Calculate wavelength of photons
produced.

(1) 8.2 × 10–11 m

(2) 8.2 × 10–13 m
(3) 8.2 × 10–12 m
(4) 8.2 × 10–9 m

19) The first line of the lyman series in a hydrogen spectrum has a wavelength of 1210 Å. The
corresponding line of a hydrogen like-atom of Z = 11 is equal to

(1) 4000 Å
(2) 100 Å
(3) 40 Å
(4) 10 Å

20) The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown

represents the emission of a photon with most energy.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

21) A nucleus with mass number 220 is at rest. An α-particle is released by nucleus. If the Q-value of
reaction is 5.5 MeV the kinetic energy of α-particle is

(1) 4.4 MeV

(2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 5.6 MeV
(4) 6.5 MeV

22) A nucleus emits 2α, 2β–1 & β+1. Calculate ratio of final nucleus.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Calculate energy released in KWH when 2 gm of is fissioned. Energy released per fission is
200 MeV.

(1) 4.55 × 102 KWH

(2) 4.55 × 104 KWH
(3) 4.55 × 103 KWH
(4) 4.55 × 105 KWH

24) In a p-type semiconductor

(1) Current is mainly due to holes

(2) Current is mainly due to electrons
(3) The material is always positively charged
(4) Doping is done by pentavalent material

25) P-N junction diode work as an insulator if connected

(1) To A.C.
(2) In forward bias
(3) In reverse bias
(4) None of these

26) In a semiconductor the concentration of electron is 8 × 1014/cm3 and that of the holes is 5 ×
1012/cm3. The semiconductor is :

(1) P-type
(2) N-type
(3) Intrinsic
(4) PNP type

27) The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at

(1) 0°C
(2) –100°C
(3) 300 K
(4) '0' K

28) The value of current flowing through 2kΩ resistor in the given circuit will be
(1) 2.5 mA
(2) 2 mA
(3) 3 mA
(4) 1.5 mA

29) A 5V battery is connected across the points X and Y. Assume D1 and D2 to be normal silicon diode
find the current supplied by the battery if the positive terminal of the battery is connected to point X.

(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 0.86 A
(4) 0.43 A

30) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Used either for stepping up or down the A.C.

(a) Rectifier (i)
voltage

(b) Stabilizer (ii) Used to convert A.C. voltage into D.C. voltage

Used to remove any ripple in the rectified

(c) Transformer (iii)
output voltage

Used for constant output voltage even when the

(d) Filter (iv)
input voltage change

Choose the correct answer from the option give below.

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

31) Zener breakdown occur in a p-n junction having p and n both :-

(1) Lightly doped and have wide depletion layer.
(2) Heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.
(3) Lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.
(4) Heavily doped and have wide depletion layer.

32) In the following circuit the equivalent resistance between A and B is :

(1)

(2) 10 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

33) The truth table for the following logic circuit is :

A B Y

0 0 0

(1) 0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

A B Y

0 0 1

(2) 0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

A B Y

0 0 1

(3) 0 1 0

1 0 1

1 1 0
 A B Y

0 0 0

(4) 0 1 1

1 0 0

1 1 1

34) The logic circuit shown below is equivalent to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A waveform shown when applied to the following circuit will produce which of the following

output waveform (assuming ideal diode and R1 = R2)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) Different voltages are applied across a P-N junction and the currents are measured for each
value. Which of the following graph is obtained between voltage and current.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In a photodiode, the value of saturation current produced by monochromatic light is proportional
to :

(1) The barrier voltage at the p-n junction.

(2) The intensity of light falling on the cell.
(3) The frequency of light falling on the cell.
(4) The voltage applied at the p-n junction.

38) Assertion : The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.

Reason : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with large amplitude at higher temperatures
thereby increasing its resistivity.
Choose the correct answer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

39) Assertion : In the following circuit the potential drop across the resistance is zero.

Reason : The given resistance has low value.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

40) Pure Si at 300 K has equal member of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentration to 0.6 × 1012 m–3.
Doping by indium increases nh to 4 × 1020 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of :

–2 –3
(1) P-type with ne = 9 × 10 m
2 –3
(2) N-type with ne = 9 × 10 m
2 –3
(3) P-type with ne = 9 × 10 m
–2 –3
(4) N-type with ne = 9 × 10 m

41) The figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A & B and the output Y. The logic gate is :

(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate
42) The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit is :

(1) OR gate
(2) NAND gate
(3) NOR gate
(4) AND gate

43) The characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The reverse resistance of the diode is :

(1) 106 Ω
(2) 10 × 106 Ω
(3) 0.1 × 106 Ω
(4) 0.5 × 106 Ω

44) Match column I with column II.

Characteristic Curve Device

(a) (i) Zener diode

(b) (ii) Simple diode

 (c) (iii) Photo diode

(d) (iv) Solar cell

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

45) If the ratio of the concentration of electron to that of hole in a semiconductor is and the ratio

of current is then what is the ratio of their drift velocities.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Carboxylic acid can be reduced into primary alcohol by :

(1) By LiAlH4
(2) P + HI
(3) By NaBH4
(4) (1) & (2) both

2) The correct reactivity order of alcohols towards H – X will be –

(I) (II) CH2=CH–CH2OH

(III) CH3 – CH2 – OH (IV)

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > IV > III > I

3) Lucas reagent produces cloudiness immediately with :-

(1) 1-propanol
(2) 2-butanol
(3) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(4) 2-methyl-1-propanol

4) In reaction the order of reactivity of HX is :-

(1) HBr > HI > HCl

(2) HI > HCl > HBr
(3) HCl > HBr > HI
(4) HI > HBr > HCl

5) Which ether cannot show reaction with HI?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) CH3–CH2–OH + Ph–CH2–OH of which is not obtained?

(1) CH3–CH2–OCH2–CH3
(2) Ph–CH2–OCH2–Ph
(3) Ph–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
(4) Ph–CH2–O–CH2–O–CH3

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the vapours of a 1° or 2° alcohol are passed over heated Cu at 573 K an
aldehyde or a ketone is formed.
Statement II : 3° alcohols do not react with Cu at 573 K

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

8) Which of the following reaction is correctly matched?

(1)

(2)

(3)
C6H5–CH2–O–CH3 SN1

(4) CH -CH -O-CH -CH=CH SN2

3 2 2 2

9) In the reaction sequence A B Ethoxyethane, A and B are :-

(1) C2H6, C2H5Br

(2) CH4, CH3Br
(3) CH2=CH2, C2H5Br
(4) CH≡CH,CH2=CHBr

10) Which of the following method does not give phenol?

(1)
C6H5Cl

(2)

C6H5MgBr
(3)

(4)
C6H5N2Cl

11)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An alcohol is less volatile than ether having the same molecular formula. This due to

(1) Dipole character of ether

(2) Resonating structures of alcohol
(3) Presence of inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(4) Presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

13) An industrial method of preparation of methanol is :

(1) Catalytic hydrogenation of carbon monoxide in presence of ZnO – Cr2O3 catalyst.

(2) By reacting methane with steam at 900°C with a nickel catalyst
(3) By reduction formaldehyde with LiAlH4
(4) By reacting HCHO with aqueous NaOH solution

14) Which of the following is minimum reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction :-

(1) PhCOPh
(2) PhCOCH3
(3) PhCHO
(4) HCHO

15) ?
Which statement is true for above reaction ?

(1) Product known as cynohydrin.

(2) is nucleophile.
(3) Reaction is nucleophilic addition reaction.
(4) All of the above.

16)
What is the major product of the following reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

Consider the following reaction :

RCHO+NH2NH2 RCH = N–NH2

(1) Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction

(2) Free radical addition-elimination reaction
(3) Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
(4) Nucleophilic addition -elimination reaction

18) A strong base can abstract an α- hydrogen from

(1) Ketone
(2) Alkane
(3) Alkene
(4) Amine

19) Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzaro's reaction?

(1)

(2) C6H5CH = O
(3) CH3 – CH = O

(4)
20) CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

(1) Benedict's test

(2) Iodoform test
(3) Tollen's reagent test
(4) Fehling's solution test

21)
Y in the above reaction is -

(1) Lactic acid

(2) Ethylamine
(3) Propylamine
(4) Alanine

22)
C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?

(1) Victor-Meyer test

(2) Neutral FeCl3
(3) Aqueous NaOH
(4) Tollen's reagent

24)

In the following reaction the product A is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)
Reletion between A & B is :-

(1) Positional isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Homologus

26) ,
Product C will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The reaction : [C2H5Br + NH3] is in fact an example of

(1) Ammonolysis only

(2) Nucleophilic substitution only
(3) Ammonolysis as well as nucleophilic substitution
(4) None

28)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent

1 Methyl Alcohol and Ethyl Alcohol I2 + Base

2 Fehling Solution
and CH3–CHO

3 Phenol and Carboxylic Acid NaHCO3

4 Propane-1-Amine and propane-2-Amine Hinsberg reagent

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Which among the following give positive isocyanide test :-

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(e)

(1) a, d
(2) only b
(3) only c
(4) c and e

30)
Product (B) is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
Compound pKb value

(A) Benzenamine (p) 9.38

 Phenyl
(B) (q) 4.70
methanamine

(C) Ethanamine (r) 3.29

N, N-dimethyl
(D) (s) 8.92
aniline
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(3) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
(4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

32) Match List-I with list-II

List-I List-II
(Name of Vitamins) (Deficiency diseases)

(a) Thiamine (i) Convulsions

(b) Pyridoxine (ii) Bleeding gums

(c) Riboflavin (iii) loss of appetite

Burning sensation
(d) Ascorbic acid (iv)
of the skin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

33)

Column-I Column-II

(A) C6H12O5 (I)

(B) Hydrolysis of oligosaccharides (II) Glucose and fructose

(C) Saccharic acid (III) Rhamnose

(D) (IV) Monosaccharides

Choose correct answer from the given below options :
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, C-II, B-I, D-III

34)

Glucose on reaction with CH3COCl / Pyridine uses How many mole of CH3COCl?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

35) The reaction of concentrated sulphuric acid with carbohydrates (C12H22O11) is an example of

(1) Dehydration
(2) Oxidation
(3) Reduction
(4) Sulphonation

36) How many amino acids are presents in insulin hormone :-

(1) 51
(2) 41
(3) 101
(4) 201

37) Which among the following statements are true for glycine?
(i) It exists in crystalline form
(ii) It is optically active
(iii) It is soluble in water
(iv) It can form zwitter ions

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) i, ii and iv
(3) i, iii and iv
(4) ii, iii and iv

38) Thymin is :-

(1) 5-methyl uracil

(2) 4-methyl uracil
(3) 3-methyl uracil
(4) 1-methyl uracil
39)

Find the correct matching

Polymer Linkage
(i) Amylopectin (a) Glycosidic linkage
(ii) Cellulose (b) Ester linkage
(iii) Protein (c) Phosphodiester linkage
(iv) RNA (d) Amide linkage
(1) i-a, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

40) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for the halogens. By doing so it :-

(1) Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(2) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(3) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
(4) Increases the concentration of NO3¯ ions

41) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In 'Lassaigne's Test, when both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic
compound, sodium thiocyanate is formed.
Statement II : If both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic compound, then the excess of
sodium used in sodium fusion will decompose the sodium thiocyanate formed to give NaCN and
Na2S.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

42) Which of the following alcohol does not give a red color in victor meyer test :-

(1) Isobutyl alcohol

(2) Diethyl carbinol
(3) Phenyl carbinol
(4) Ethanol

43) :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) “A” gives red ppt of Cu2O with Fehling’s reagent and white ppt of “Ag” with Tollen’s reagent. “B”
gives white ppt with Tollen’s reagent but cannot give red ppt with Fehling’s reagent. A, B
respectively :

(1) Acetaldehyde, benzaldehyde

(2) Acetaldehyde, acetone
(3) Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetone, Acetaldehyde

BIOLOGY

1) The axoplasm contains high concentration of ___A___ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of ___B___ :-
A B
⊕
(a) K
(b) Na⊕ K⊕
(c) K⊕ Na⊕

(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) All correct

2)

Read the following statements :

(a) Nervous system provide an organised Network of point to point connections for quick
coordination
(b) The endocrine system provide chemical integration through hormones
(c) The neural organisation is very complex in lower invertebrates.
(d) Neuron can detect and receive the stimuli but can not transmit stimuli

How many of above statements false?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

3) Identify A,B,C,D in given diagram :-

A-Neurofibril, B-Schwanns cell,

(1)
C-Nodes of Ranvier, D-Dendron
A-Nucleus, B-Oligodendrocyte,
(2)
C-Node of Ranvier, D-Telodendria.
A-Nucleus, B-Myelin sheath,
(3)
C-Mitochondria, D-Telodendria.
A-Nissl's-granule, B-myelin sheath,
(4)
C-Node of Ranvier, D-Synaptic knob

4) Match the following parts of human brain with the structures associated with them and choose
the correct option :-

Parts of Brain Structure

(i) Forebrain (a) Corpora quadrigemina

(ii) Midbrain (b) Thalamus

(iii) Hindbrain (c) Medulla

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a

5) Which of the following have many Centers like temperature regulation, hunger and thirst centers?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebrum

6) Match the following cranial meninges with their position over human brain & select the correct
option :-

Cranial Position
meninges of Layer

(i) Piamater (a) Outer most

(ii) Arachnoid (b) Middle layer

(iii) Duramater (c) Inner most

(1) (i)-a,(ii)-b,(iii)-c
(2) (i)-c,(ii)-b,(iii)-a
(3) (i)-c,(ii)-a,(iii)-b
(4) (i)-b,(ii)-c,(iii)-a

7) Identify the part of brain which is represented by A in the given diagram :-

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Midbrain

8) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) In Hydra, nervous system is well organised.

(2) Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from receptor of CNS
(3) Autonomic neural system controls skeletal muscles
(4) Axon transmit impulses towards the cell body.

9)
A canal that passes through mid brain is :

(1) Canal of schlemn

(2) Eustachian canal
(3) Cerebral aqueduct
(4) Semi-circular canal

10) Cardiovascular reflexes centre present in :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

11) Dorsal portion of mid brain consists mainly of four round swellings called ?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Corpora quadrigemina

12) Given below is a graph showing change of potential difference occuring during conduction of
nerve impulse. What do you think is correct for the change represented by A, B and C :-

(1) A - Polarisation - Due to ionic concentration gradient maintained by passive transport of ions
(2) C - Repolarisation - High permeability of membrane for Na⊕ ions.
(3) A-Depolarisation - Due to working of NaCl– ATPase pump
(4) C-Hyperpolarisation - Late closing of K+ VGC

13)
In the above diagram the electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site A is
called :-

(1) Graded potential

(2) Resting potential
(3) Action potential
(4) None of these

14) Identify the gland (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) shown below and select the option with correct

combination of the gland with their hormone and metabolic effect?

Gland Hormone Metabolic effect

(1) (a) Thyroid Parathormone Stimulates Lipolysis

Stimulates
(2) (c) Pancreas Insulin
glycogenolysis

stimulates
(3) (d) Adrenal Cortisol
gluconeogenesis

(4) (f) Ovary Androgen Protein catabolism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which statements is incorrect regarding hormone ?

(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical

(2) Act as intracellular secondary messenger
(3) Produce in trace amount
(4) Hormones are species non specific

16) Which of the following cause an increase in water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?

(1) Increase in insulin levels

(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

17) Which of the following is correct ?

(A) Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin (TCT).
(B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca+2 levels in the blood.
(C) Thymosin play a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
(D) Parathyroid glands are present on back side of the thyroid gland.

(1) B,C,D
(2) A,B,C
(3) A,C,D
(4) A,B,C,D

18) Read the following statement (A-E). Which of the following statements are correct for the

gland–"A" shown in the below figure and its hormones :- (A) Secretes many
hormones commonly called corticoids.
(B) Hormones increases alertness, pupillary dilation, piloerection etc.
(C) Stimulates breakdown of glycogen.
(D) Produces anti-inflamatory reaction and suppresses the immune response.
(E) Works directly under neural control and secretes hormones rapidly in response to stress or
emergency of any kind.

(1) Statement (A) and (B)

(2) Statement (B), (C) and (E)
(3) Statement (C), (D) and (E)
(4) Statement (A), (B), (C) and (E)

19) Which ion is received from blood by thyroid for thyroxine synthesis ?

(1) Na+
(2) I–
(3) Mg+2
(4) Ca+2

20) Which one is not regulated by thyroid gland ?

(1) RBC formation

(2) Fat metabolism
(3) Calcium balance
(4) Increase in inflammatory actions

21) Which of the following gland is exclusively endocrine ?

(1) Gonads
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Thyroid gland
22) Organized endocrine gland in human includes –

(1) Gonads
(2) Pancreas
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) All of the above

23) Select the correct option :-

A–Ventro lateral position of thyroid gland,

(1)
D–Dorsally located parathyroid
A–Dorso lateral position of thyroid,
(2)
D–Ventrally located parathyroid
A–Dorsally located thyroid,
(3)
D–Ventrally located parathyroid
A–Dorsally located parathyroid,
(4)
D–Ventrally located thyroid

24) Which hormone of the pituitary gland stimulates the synthesis and secretion of glucocorticoids
from the adrenal cortex ?

(1) ACTH
(2) MSH
(3) ACTHRH
(4) Cortisol

25) Which hormone stimulates milk ejection from the mammary gland in females ?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Both (1) and (3)
26) Find out incorrect labelling in following diagram

(1) Axonal transport and Anterior pituitary

(2) Portal circulation and Posterior pituitary
(3) Anterior pituitary and Posterior pituitary
(4) Portal circulation and Axonal transport

27) Thyroid gland is :-

(1) Bilobed gland

(2) Endodermal in origin
(3) Largest endocrine gland
(4) All of the above

28) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid is called :-

(1) Myasthenia Gravis

(2) Tetany
(3) Gout
(4) Muscular Dystrophy

29) Flat bones of skull fuse end to end with the help of fibrous tissue to form :-

(1) Cartilagenous joint

(2) Synovial joint
(3) Suture
(4) Pivot joint

30) Scapula is a part of:

(1) Pelvic girdle

(2) Pectoral girdle
(3) Cranium
(4) Vertebral column

31) Which of the following structures is correctly organised from large to small?
(1) Muscle, Muscle fibre, Myofibril, Sarcomeres, Filaments.
(2) Muscle, muscle fibre, sarcomere, Filaments, myofibril.
(3) Muscle, Filaments, Myofibrils, Sarocomere, muscle fibre
(4) Filaments, Sarcomere, myofibril, Muscle fibre, muscle

32) ATPase is located in :-

(1) Actinin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Actin

33) Decreased level of estrogen is associated with which of the following disorder ?

(1) Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Gouty arthritis
(4) Muscular dystrophy

34) Which of the following is wrong match for each limb?

(1) Wrist bones → 8 in number

(2) Palm bones → 5 in number
(3) Ankle bones → 7 in number
(4) Digits → 12 in number

35) Auto immune disorder of neuromuscular junction is :-

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis

36)

Identify the Non-matching pair :-

Skeletal parts Category

1 Sternum and ribs Axial skeleton

Clavicle and glenoid

2 Pelvic girdle
cavity

3 Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton

4 Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below and select the right option for

both of them together :-

A B

(1) Thin filament Actin filament

(2) Thick filament Thin filament

Meromyosin
(3) Thin Filament
units

(4) Tropomyosin Troponin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and each middle ear are respectively :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 3
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 1
(4) 14, 8, 3 and 1

39) The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is :-

(1) Cross bridge

(2) Myofibril
(3) Sarcomere
(4) Z–band

40) Which of the following is incorrect matching ?

(1) Muscular movement – Limbs

(2) Ciliary movement – Trachea
(3) Flagellar movement – Spermatozoa
(4) Amoeboid movement – Erythrocytes

41)

Which points are not correct about Angiotensin-II ?

(a) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure
(b) Activates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone
(c) Decreases the GFR
(d) Powerful vasoconstrictor

(e) Activates the JG cells to release renin.

(1) a, c, e
(2) a, d, e
(3) b, d
(4) b, c, e

42) Observe the following figure ? Identify A to D structure -

A B C D

Superior
1. Inferior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra
vena cava

Inferior
2. Superior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra
vena cava

3. Ureter Inferior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra

Dorsal
4. Inferior vena cava Urethra Ureter
Aorta
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry minimum amount of urea ?

(1) Renal Vein

(2) Dorsal Aorta
(3) Hepatic Vein
(4) Hepatic Portal Vein
44) Which of the following part of nephron maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood ?

(1) Bowman Capsule

(2) Henle's loop
(3) DCT
(4) Glomerulus

45) The medullary gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) NaCl and Urea

(2) H+ and K+
(3) Urea and K+
(4) Urea and H+

46) I. Ureter II. Renal pelvis, III. Calyx IV. Urinary bladder V. Urethra.
Choose the correct sequence of urine route to outside.

(1) I → II → III → IV → V
(2) V → IV → III → II → I
(3) V → III → IV → I → II
(4) III → II → I → IV → V

47) In the given matched pairs which one incorrectly matched ?

(1) ADH H2O reabsorption

(2) Aldosterone Na+ reabsorption
(3) ANF Decreases blood pressure
(4) Angiotensin-II Powerful vasodilator
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) In the given matched pairs how many are correctly matched ?

(a) ADH H2O reabsorption

(b) Aldosterone H2O and Na+ reabsorption
(c) JGA Complex regulatory rate
(d) Angiotensinogen Powerful vasodilator
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

49) Find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Kidneys are bean shaped organ
(2) Kidneys are located between T12 to L3 vertebra
(3) Kidneys are retroperitoneal in nature
(4) Antennary glands perform the excretory functions in frog.

50) Capillary parallel to Henle's loop is :-

(1) Vasa recta

(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) Efferent arteriole
(4) Glomerulus

51) At the time of micturition :-

(1) Muscles of urinary bladder contract and urethral sphincter muscles also contract.
(2) Muscles of urinary bladder relax and urethral sphincter muscles also relax.
(3) Muscles of urinary bladder relax and muscles of urethral sphicter contract
(4) Muscles of urinary bladder contract and urethral sphincter muscles relax

52) Minimum water loss occurs in :-

(1) Uricotelic animals

(2) Ureotelic animals
(3) Ammonotelic animals
(4) Aminotelic animals

53)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

54) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) Flatworms exchange Oxygen with carbondioxide by simple diffusion over their entire body
surface
(b) Larynx is a cartilaginous box which help in sound production
(c) Epiglottis is made up of collagen fibrous connective tissue
(d) In birds larynx is a sound producing organ

(1) only (a)

(2) only (b)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

55) Choose the correct one for systemic veins :-

(1) = 40 mmHg, = 45 mmHg

(2) = 95 mmHg, = 40 mmHg
(3) = 45 mmHg, = 40 mmHg
(4) = 40 mmHg, = 95 mmHg

56) The point A & B in the above diagram are located at :–

(1) 'A' at pulmonary vein level ; 'B' at tissue (systemic organ) level
(2) 'A' at tissue (systemic organ) level ; 'B' at the level of pulmonary vein
(3) 'A' in the pulmonary vein ; 'B' in the pulmorary artery
(4) More than one options are correct

57) What will be the pO2 at point A and point B in the given diagram :-

(1) A-40mmHg, B-45mmHg

(2) A-40mmHg, B-75mmHg
(3) A-40mmHg, B-95mmHg
(4) A-45mmHg, B-40mmHg

58) Smoking results in :-

(1) Emphysema
(2) Lung fibrosis
(3) Low BP
(4) Bradycardia

59) Maximum volume of air, a person can breath out after a forceful inspiration is called as :-

(1) Expiratory reserve volume

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Functional residual capacity

60) Carbon dioxide is transported from tissue to respiratory surface by -

(1) Plasma and erythrocytes

(2) Plasma only
(3) Erythrocytes only
(4) Erythrocytes and leucocytes

61) Volume of air a person can inspire or expire per minute is -

(1) 2500–3000 ml
(2) 1000–1100 ml
(3) 6000–8000 ml
(4) 1100 – 1200 ml

62)

In which of the following conditions, oxygen-Hb dissociation curve will shift to right ?
(i) High O2
(ii) High PCO2
(iii) Low pH
(iv) High temperature
(v) Alkaline medium

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, iv, v
(4) ii, iii, iv

63) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is :-

(1) Residual volume

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Expiratory capacity
(4) Functional residual capacity
64) Assertion : An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate osmoreceptors which stimulate
adenohypophysis to release ADH. Reason : ADH inhibits water absorption from latter parts of
tubule.
Option :-

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true & reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

65) Select the correct statement.

(1) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles

(2) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
(3) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
(4) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm.

66) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1) Anthracis
(2) Silicosis
(3) Botulism
(4) Emphysema

67) Assertion : Expiration is a passive process.

Reason : Relaxation of diaphragm & external intercostal muscles causes increase in intrapulmonary
pressure

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Find the incorrect match related to respiratory structures and animals :

Respiratory structures Animal

(1) Gills Fishes

(2) Lungs Mammals

(3) Moist cuticle Cockroach

(4) Tracheal tubes Arthopods

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
69) Match the column.

I II

A. Asthma (i) Cigarette smoking is a major cause.

Inflammation of bronchi and

B. Emphysema (ii) bronchioles. leads to difficulty in
breathing causing wheezing.

Occupational
C. (iii) Fibrosis in lungs
respiratory disorder
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii

70) Identify conditions from the given below which are favourable for the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin at Alveoli ;
(a) High pO2 (b) High pCO2
(c) High pH (d) High temperature

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (b) & (d)

71) Statement-I :- The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a
spirometer.
Statement-II :- Intercostal muscles are present between the ribs.

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

72) Identify the wrong statement from the following statements :

(1) 97% of CO2 is transported in the form of bicarbonate by RBCs

(2) Solubility of CO2 is 20–25 times higher than that of oxygen
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primerily related to partial pressure of oxygen
Neural signal from pons reduce the duration of inspiration and there by alter the respiratory
(4)
rate

73)

Read statements given below and choose how many are correct -
(A) Diaphragm is dome shaped
(B) Pneumotaxic centre reduces duration of inspiration
(C) Epiglottis is thin cartilagenous flap over oesophagus
(D) RBCs carry only 20-25% CO2

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

74) The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body,
is :-

(1) Heart attack

(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Heart Failure

75) Statement-I : Volume of inspired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.
Statement-II : Volume of expired air during a normal respiration is tidal volume.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

76) Amount of platelets in our blood is ................./mm3 of blood.

(1) 6000–8000
(2) 5–5.5 million
(3) 12000–15000
(4) 1.5–3.5 lakh

77) Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening between :-

(1) Right atrium and Right ventricle

(2) Left atrium and Left ventricle
(3) Right atrium and Left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and Right ventricle

78) The pacemaker of heart is :-

(1) AV node
(2) SA node
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Tricuspid valve

79) Origin of heartbeat and its conduction is represented by :-

(1) SA node→AV node→Bundle of His→Purkinje fibres
(2) Purkinje fibres→AV node→SA node→Bundle of His
(3) SA node→Purkinje fibres→AV node→Bundle of His
(4) AV node→Bundle of His→SA node→Purkinje fibres

80) In an ECG, the depolarization of atria is represented by :-

(1) P wave
(2) Q R S wave
(3) R wave
(4) T wave

81) Least number of white blood corpuscles are :-

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Eosinophils

82) Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the active
form always.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

83)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II

A. Fishes 1 Two-chambered

B. Amphibians 2 Three-chambered

C. Reptiles 3 Four-chambered

D. Birds

E. Mammals
(1) A–1, B–2, C–2, D–2, E–3
(2) A–2, B–2, C–2, D–3, E–3
(3) A–1, B–2, C–2, D–3, E–3
(4) A–1, B–1, C–2, D–2, E–3

84) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(d) Angina occurs when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

85) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) All the four chambers of heart are in relaxed state
(B) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open
(C) Blood from the pulmonary veins and venacava flows into the left and the right ventricle
respectively through the left and right atria
(D) The semilunar valves are closed
How many statements are correct about joint Diastole ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

86) Which is agranulocyte?

(1) Eosinophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neutrophil
(4) Lymphocyte

87) Complete stoppage of heart beat is known as:

(1) Cardiac arrest

(2) Myocardial infarction
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Heart failure
88) Find correct labelling of following diagram :-

(1) A-aorta, B-Pulmonary artery, C-pulmonary veins

(2) A-aorta, B-Pulmonary vein, C-Left atrium
(3) A-venacava, B-Pulmonary veins, C-Left atrium
(4) A-Pulmonary artery, B-Systemic arch,C-pulmonary veins

89) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs.
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus.
E. Basophils are agranulocytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C & E only

(2) B & C only
(3) A & B only
(4) D & E only

90) Given below are four statements regarding human blood vascular system
(a) There is no role of Calcium ions in blood clotting
(b) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one second
(c) Arteries are thin walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(d) The stage of cardiac cycle where all the four chambers are in relaxed stage is called joint
Diastole
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

....(1)

....(2)
sub (1) & (2)

2)

3)

= 4.74 × 1014 Hz

4)

from (1) & (2)

5)

(i) Kmax = hν – ϕ0 ⇒ y = mx – C

(ii) eV = hν – ϕ ⇒ v = ν –
0 0 0

Y = mx – c
m = slope, C = intersection on Y-axis

6) Work function ∝ ν0
ϕ = hν0

7) Hint :- Free electrons in a metal are free to move inside the metal for a constant potential.
They are not free to move out of metal. They need additional energy to get out of the metal.

8) ν = 1015 Hz, K·Emax = 3 eV

K·Emax = 3 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
K·Emax = hν – hνo

= 2.7 × 1014 Hz

9)

If
then

10) V = 30 kV, h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js

eV = hνmax

= 7.24 × 1018 Hz
= 0.041 nm

11) By COLM
p1 = p2

12) For electron

For photon

(λp = 2λe Given)

13)
3.6 fm = (1.2 fm) (A)1/3
(A)1/3 = 3
A = (3)3 = 27

14)
For deuterium A = 2

B.E = 2 × 1.115 MeV

B.E. = Δm·931.5 MeV

15) Δm = 0.3% of 1 kg
E = Δmc2 = 3 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2
= 27 × 1013 J

16)
b – 8 = 210
b = 218

a – 3 = 100
a = 103

17)

n = 3.125 × 1013

18) Energy of each photon

= 1.51 × 1.6 × 10–13 J

= 8.2 × 10–13 m

19)
n1 = 1, n2 = 2 & Z = 1

for Z = 11

20) Ist transition is showing absorption of a photon

21)
A = 220, Q = 5.5 MeV

= 5.4 MeV

22)
final nucleus

n = (A – 8 – (Z–3) = A – 2 – 5

23) Energy/fission = 200 MeV

= 200 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 106 S

No. of Nucleus in 235 gm = 6.023 × 1023

No. of Nucleus in 2 gm

Total Energy
= 4.55 × 104 KWH

24)

In P-type nh >> ne
therefore Ih >> Ie

25) In R.B no current flow from diode therefore it will behave as an insulator.

26) Since ne > nh, so semiconductor will be N type

27) There are no free electron at zero kelvin therefore semiconductor will behave as an
insulator.

28)

Current through 2kΩ =

= 2.5 mA

29)

i= = 0.43 A
 30)

(a) Rectifier convert A.C into D.C.

(b) Stabilizer is used to convert variable voltage into constant voltage.
(c) Transformer is used to step up or step down voltage level.
(d) Filter is used to remove ripples from rectified output.

31)

In Zener breakdown doping is very high and depletion layer is very thin (narrow).

32)
Req = 8 + 2 + 6 = 16 Ω

33)

Y=

A B

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

34)

C=
C=

35)

In ⊕ Half cycle : Diode F.B.

In ⊖ Half cycle D : R.B.

 36)

Theory based

37)

If intensity is increased, more covalent bonds will break and more saturation current will be
produced.

38) If temperature of semiconductor is increased then resistivity will decrease because more
covalent bonds will break and charge carriers increases.

39)

Since diode is R.B. therefore no current will flow and voltage drop on resistance will be zero.

40)

nh⋅ne = ni2
(4 × 1020)ne = (0.6 × 1012)2
ne = 9 × 102
Here impurity is trivalent
so semiconductor is P-type

41)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

NOR gate

42)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 0
 1 0 0

1 1 0

This is truth table of NOR gate.

43) V = 10 Volt
i = 1 μA

R= = 10 × 106 Ω

44)

Theory based

45) I = neAVd

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation Question:

The question asks to identify the correct reagent that can reduce a carboxylic acid to a
primary alcohol.
Concept:
This question is based on Reduction of Carboxylic Acids
Solution:

Reagents (1) LiAlH4 (2) P+HI (3) NaBH4

Strong reducing Very strong

Mild reducing
agent. reducing agent.
agent.
Analysis Reduces Reduces carboxylic
Does not reduce
carboxylic acids to acids completely to
carboxylic acids.
primary alcohols alkanes.

Conclusion Correct Reagent Incorrect Product No reaction

47) Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking correct reactivity order of given alcohol with H-X.
Concept:- This question is based on Reaction alcohol with H-X
Solution :-
Reactivity order of alcohol with H-X µ stability of carbocation stability of carbocation µ
delocalisation of
 µ +M
µ +I
µ H.C
Phenols do not react with H-X becouse –OH group attached on SP2 C has partial double bond
character in C–O
So correct reactivity order will be
II > IV > III > I
Final Answer :- (4)

48) Tertiary alcohol immidiatly gives cloudiness with lucas reagent.

49) Reactivity of HX ∝ acidic character.

50)

Explain question : The question asks to identify which of the given ethers cannot be cleaved
by reaction with hydrogen iodide (HI).
Concept : This question is based on Cleavage of Ethers, Sn1 Reaction, Sn2 Reaction
Solution : The cleavage of ethers by HI involves a nucleophilic substitution reaction. Aryl-
oxygen bonds are very strong due to resonance and the sp² hybridization of the phenyl carbon,
making them resistant to cleavage. Alkyl-oxygen bonds, however, can be cleaved.

Compounds

Cleavage of the
Cleavage of Cleavage of Both sides
alkyl-O bond
the alkyl-O the alkyl-O have strong
occurs via an Sn1
Analysis bond occurs bond occurs aryl-O bonds
reaction due to
via an Sn2 via an Sn2 that resist
the stable 3°
reaction. reaction. cleavage.
carbocation.

Does not
Conclusion Reacts Reacts Reacts
react

Diphenyl ether is the only compound that does not react because both of its C-O bonds are
strong aryl-oxygen bonds, which are not susceptible to nucleophilic attack by the iodide ion
under normal conditions.
Final Answer : Option (3)

51) 1. Asking About :

Which is not obtained as product of Reaction.
2. Concept :
Williamson's continuous etheyitication process.
3. Solution / Explanation :

CH3 – CH2 – OH + Ph – CH2 – OH

Hence Ph – CH2 – O – CH2 – O – CH3 is not obtained.

52)

3° Alcohol reacts with Cu at 573 k gives alkene.

53)

54) Explanation : The question describes a two-step reaction sequence where compound A is
converted to compound B by reaction with HBr, and compound B then reacts with sodium
ethoxide to produce ethoxyethane. The question asks to identify the structures of compounds A
and B.
Concept : Reactions of Alkenes, Electrophilic Addition, Reactions of Alkyl Halides, Williamson
Ether Synthesis.
Solution :

Final Answer : Option (3)

55) Concept:
Grignard reagent with Acidic Hydrogen forms Alkane.
Soln/Explanation:

(3)

56)

NCERT, alcohol phenol & ether Pg 334

57) Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols boiling points of alcohol is much
higher than ether.
58) 1. Asking About: Industrial method of preparation of CH3OH catalytic hydrogenation.
2. Formula: (fact)

* methanol is commercially prepared by the catalytic hydrogenation of CO. In this process

carbon monoxide and hydrogen is passed over a catalyst consisting of an oxide of chromium
and zinc at 573-673K and under 200-300 atom pressure to form CH3OH.

59)

Explaining the Question:

Identify the minimum reactive compound towards nucleophile addition reaction ?
Concept: Reactivity towards NAR.

Solution: Reactivity towards α ⊕ve charge

NAR on carbonyl carbon

Aldehydes are more reactive than ketone towards NAR by both steric and electronic factor

Benzo phenone (Ph-CO Ph) is minimum reactive towards NAR

Final Answer: Option_1

60)

61)
Explaining the Question :- The question asks for the major product of the given reaction.

Concept:- This question is based on Nucleophilic addition reaction Addition of RDH

Solution :-

Final Answer :- 3

62)

Explaining the Question: Identify the type of reaction where aldehyde react with hydrazine

Concept: NAR

Solution: R – CHO + NH2 – NH2 —→ R – CH = N – NH2 + H2O

In this reaction nucleophile attacks the electrophilic carbonyl carbon. Followed by the
elimination of water molecule. So overall process is known as nucleophile addition elimination
reaction.
Final Answer: Option_4

63) Explanation :
This question asks to identify the class of organic compounds from which a strong base can
remove an alpha-hydrogen.

Concept :
Acidity of Alpha Hydrogens, Carbonyl Chemistry, Strong Bases.

Solution :
A strong base can abstract an α- hydrogen from ketone because the conjugate base formed
after abstraction is resonance stabilised.

Final Answer :
Option (1)
64)

Explanation :

* CH3–CHO has 3αH. It does not undergo Cannizaro reactions. It will give aldol
condensation reaction.

65) 1. Asking About: Which can distinguish CH3CHO and PhCH2CHO

2. Concept: Iodoform test.
3. Formula: Iodoform test is given by methyl
ketone and type of structural unit containing compound.

So, both and Ph–CH2–CHO can be distinguished by iodoform test.

66)

67)

68)
Neutral FeCl3
Phenol → Violet colour complex
Benzoic acid → Buff coloured

69) This is an example of E.S.R (Coupling reaction)

p-hydroxy Azo benzene orange dye

70)

71)

72) Explanation :
This question asks to classify the type of reaction that occurs between ethyl bromide and
ammonia.

Concept :
Nucleophilic substitution, Ammonolysis.

Solution :

(Quaternary ammonium salt)

The above reaction is called ammonolysis and also it involves attack of ammonia as a
Nucleophile which substitutes –Br, Therefore, it is also an example of nucleophilic substitution.

Final Answer :
Option (3)
 73) Explain Question : Which is wrongly match.
Concept : This question is based on Iodoform Test, Fehling Solution, NaHCO3 test and
Hinsberg reagent.
Solution :

Pairs of compounds Lab test Remark

Methyl alcohol does not gives positive iodoform test (yellow

precipitate of CHI3)
Methyl Alcohol and Ethyl I2 + Base
1 Ethyl alcohol gives positive iodoform test (yellow
Alcohol (Iodoform Test)
precipitate of CHI3)
∴ Differentiates given compounds.

Fehling’s solution oxidizes CH3CHO (aliphatic aldehyde) →

brick red ppt
2 Fehling Solution
Benzaldehyde does not give Fehling’s test
and ∴ Differentiates given compounds.

Carboxylic acid reacts with NaHCO3 → effervescence (CO2

Phenol and
3 NaHCO3 gas) Phenol does not react with NaHCO3
Carboxylic Acid
∴ Differentiates given compounds.

Propan-1-amine Hinsberg Both are 1°amine forms soluble sulfonamide.

4
and Propan-2-amine reagent ∴ Given compounds do not differentiate.

Final answer : (4)

74)

Question Asking About:

Compounds which give positive isocyanide test.

Key Concept:
Carbylamine test

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Isocyanide Test:

* Primary amine gives +ve isocyanide test.

So, (c) and (e) give the isoajomide test.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.
 75) NCERT Pg # 407

76) Question Explanation :

The question asks to correctly match the amine compounds in Column-I with their
corresponding pKb values in Column-II.

Concept :
Basicity of Amines, pKb, I Effect, M Effect

Solution :
The basicity order is:
Ethanamine > Phenylmethanamine > N,N-dimethylaniline > Benzenamine.
Therefore, the pKb order is the reverse: Benzenamine (highest pKb) > N,N-dimethylaniline >
Phenylmethanamine > Ethanamine (lowest pKb).

Column-I (Compound) Match pKb value

(A) Benzenamine p (9.38)
(B) Phenylmethanamine q (4.70)
(C) Ethanamine r (3.29)
(D) N,N-dimethylaniline s (8.92)

Final Answer :
Option (1)

77)

Explain Question : The question asks to correctly match the vitamins in List-I with their
corresponding deficiency diseases or symptoms in List-II.

Concept : This question is based on Biomolecules, Vitamins, Deficiency Diseases.

Solution : The correct matching is based on the known physiological roles of each vitamin and
the symptoms that arise from their deficiency.

List-I (Vitamin) List-II (Deficiency Disease) Match

(a) Thiamine (iii) loss of appetite a-iii

(b) Pyridoxine (i) Convulsions b-i

(c) Riboflavin (iv) Burning sensation of the skin c-iv

(d) Ascorbic acid (ii) Bleeding gums d-ii

Final Answer : option (1)

78)

79) Question Explanation : How many number of moles of required for

reaction of fructose.
Concept : CH3COCl is acylating agent which react with hydroxyl group to form esters
(Acetylation)
Solution: Since fructose has one ketone [>C=O] and five hydroxyl group [–OH] hence 5 moles
of CH3COCl is required.

Final Answer : Option (3)

80) C12H22O11 12C + 11H2O

Black

81)

Explanation Question:
The question asks for the total number of amino acids that make up the insulin hormone.
Concept:
This question is based on Biomolecules, Proteins, Hormones
Solution:
Insulin is a protein hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Its
structure consists of two separate polypeptide chains, known as the A-chain and the B-chain,
which are linked together by disulfide bonds.
• The A-chain contains 21 amino acids.
• The B-chain contains 30 amino acids.
The total number of amino acids in a single insulin molecule is the sum of the amino acids in
both chains: 21 + 30 = 51.
Final Answer: (1)

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given statements about glycine are true.
It provides four statements about glycine's physical and chemical properties, and you need to
identify all correct ones from the options.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves understanding the physical state, optical activity,
solubility, and ionic behavior of amino acids, specifically glycine. Glycine is the simplest amino
acid. It usually exists as a crystalline solid, dissolves readily in water, and can form
zwitterions-a form where the molecule has both positive and negative charges but is overall
neutral. Optical activity relates to chirality, and since glycine lacks a chiral center, it is not
optically active.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that glycine is the only amino acid without a chiral alpha carbon,
so it is not optically active. Most amino acids are crystalline solids and water-soluble.
Zwitterion formation is common in amino acids at certain pH ranges.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all amino acids are optically active or ignoring the zwitterion
form. Confusing solubility or physical state can also lead to incorrect answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Statements claiming glycine is optically active are
incorrect because glycine lacks a chiral center. Therefore, options including optical activity (ii)
are wrong.

83) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Page # 420

84)

Fact

85) While testing for halogens, lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 to decompose
Na2S and NaCN if formed.

86)

A) Question Explanation: The question asks to check the correctness of two

statements about nitrogen and sulphur detection in Lassaigne’s test.

B) Concept Used: Lassaigne’s test, sodium thiocyanate formation, decomposition by

excess sodium.

C) Answer Explanation:

A. Statement I: Correct. When both N and S are present, sodium thiocyanate

(NaSCN) is formed.

B. Statement II: Correct. Excess sodium decomposes NaSCN into NaCN and Na₂S.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

D) Final Answer: Option (1)

87) Primary alcohol = Red

Secondary alcohol = Blue
Tertiary alcohol = Colourless

88) Explanation: We have to find out product of given reaction.

Concept :

89)

–NO2 group is strong electron withdrawing group and stabilise leaving group

So,
most easily hydrolysed.

90)

Explaining the Question :-

Question ask to identify reagent A and B which gives fehlings and tollens test and one which
gives only tollens test.
Concept :- Test for carbonyl group
Solution :-
Fehling's reagent (a mixture of Fehling's A and B) is used to test for aldehydes, specifically
 those that are aliphatic (not aromatic).
It reacts with aliphatic aldehydes to form a red precipitate of Cu2O (copper(I) oxide).
Aromatic aldehydes (like benzaldehyde) do not react with Felhing's reagent.
Tollen's reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate, [Ag(NH3)2]+) is used to test for aldehydes (both
aliphatic and aromatic).
It oxidizes aldehydes to carboxylic acids and deposits silver (Ag) as a white precipitate or
mirror.
Ketones (like acetone) do not react with Tollen's reagent.
Final Answer :- Option (1)

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question : Fill in the Blanks ?

Concept : This question is based on Generation and Construction of Nereus impulse

Solution : The axoplasm contain high concentration of K+ (A) and negatively charged proteins
and low concentration of Na+ (B)

Final Answer : option (3)

92) Question Explanation: Identifying false statements on nervous system.

Concept: Neural and endocrine systems.

Solution: Statement (a) is true, as the nervous system provides fast, point-to-point
connections. Statement (b) is also true, as the endocrine system provides slow, chemical
integration via hormones. Statement (c) is false; neural organization is simple, not complex, in
lower invertebrates like Hydra. Statement (d) is false; a neuron's primary function is to both
receive and transmit stimuli. Therefore, there are two false statements.

Final Answer: Option (3)

93)

NCERT Pg.# 317

94)

Question Explanation : The question asks to match each major part of the brain with the
correct structure associated with it.

Concept : Major divisions of the brain and their key structures

Solution :
 A. Forebrain → contains thalamus → (i) : b

B. Midbrain → contains corpora quadrigemina → (ii) : a

C. Hindbrain → contains medulla → (iii) : c

So the correct matching is (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c.

Final Answer : (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c

95) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 321

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 235

97) NCERT Pg. # 320

98) NCERT-XI, Pg # 316, 317

99)

Question Explanation: The question asks which canal passes through the midbrain.

Concept: midbrain

Solution: The cerebral aqueduct connects the third and fourth ventricles and passes through
the midbrain.

Final Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

100) NCERT-Pg. No. # 321

101) Question Explanation: Identifying the name of the four lobes on the dorsal midbrain.

Concept: Midbrain anatomy.

Solution: The dorsal portion of the midbrain has four prominent round swellings known as the
corpora quadrigemina. The superior two lobes are for visual reflexes (superior colliculi), and
the inferior two are for auditory reflexes (inferior colliculi).

Final Answer: Corpora quadrigemina

102) Explanation:

The graph represents the action potential of a neuron, showing different phases of potential
 changes during nerve impulse conduction.

A. Phase A: Depolarization

A. Occurs due to the opening of Na⁺ voltage-gated channels (VGC), allowing Na⁺ to
rush inside the neuron.

B. Incorrect statement in Option 1: Polarization is not maintained by passive

transport; it is actively maintained by the Na⁺-K⁺ ATPase pump.

B. Phase B: Repolarization

A. Occurs as Na⁺ channels close and K⁺ voltage-gated channels open, allowing K⁺ to

leave the neuron.

B. Incorrect statement in Option 2: Repolarization happens due to high permeability

for K⁺, not Na⁺.

C. Phase C: Hyperpolarization

A. Due to slow closing of K⁺ voltage-gated channels, leading to excess K⁺ efflux,

making the membrane potential more negative than the resting potential.

B. Correct statement in Option 4: Hyperpolarization occurs due to the late closing of K⁺

voltage-gated channels (VGCs).

Correct Answer: Option 4: C - Hyperpolarisation - Late closing of K⁺ VGC

103)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 233

104)

Question Explanation: Identifying glands and their correct hormonal effects.

Concept: Human Endocrine System.

Solution:

A. (1) (a) Thyroid - Parathormone - Stimulates Lipolysis: The thyroid gland (a) produces
thyroid hormones not parathormone (produced by the parathyroid glands). So this is
incorrect.
B. (2) (c) Pancreas - Insulin - Stimulates glycogenolysis: The pancreas (c) produces insulin,
but insulin inhibits glycogenolysis. So this is incorrect.
C. (3) (d) Adrenal - Cortisol - Stimulates gluconeogenesis: The adrenal cortex produces
 cortisol, which stimulates gluconeogenesis. This is correct.
D. (4) (f) Ovary - Androgen - Protein catabolism: (f) Appears to be the testis in a female. So
this is incorrect.

Final Answer: 3

105)

NCERT Pg. # 330, 22.1

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 332,333

107) NCERT Pg # 334 (E)

108)

NCERT XI - Pg. # 336

109)

Solution: The thyroid gland actively absorbs iodide ions (I–) from the blood. Iodine is an
essential component of both thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), the two main thyroid
hormones.

Final Answer : option (2). I–

110) NCERT Pg. # 333

111) NCERT XI Page No. 331

112)

Question Explanation
The question is asking which organs in humans are organized endocrine glands.

Concept
Endocrine glands in humans

Solution
Organized endocrine glands are those that have a distinct structure and secrete hormones
directly into the blood. Pituitary gland, pancreas (specifically the islets of Langerhans), and
gonads (ovaries and testes) are all organized endocrine glands.

Final answer: Option 4

113)
NCERT XI Pg # 333

114) NCERT Pg. # 332

115) NCERT Pg # (E) 332, (H) 333

116)

The correct answer is 4. Portal circulation and Axonal transport

Solution:
• The portal circulation is labeled as Axonal transport.
• The Axonal transport is labeled as portal circulation.

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 242

118)

Question Explanation: What is the condition caused by rapid muscle spasms due to low Ca²⁺
level in body fluids?

Concept: The question is based on disorders of muscular system.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2 because deficiency of calcium ions increases
neuromuscular excitability, leading to involuntary and rapid muscle spasms known as tetany.

Final answer: Option 2

119) NCERT Pg # 312

120) Pectoral girdle has 3 bones → Clavicle scapula coracoid.

Pectoral girdle also named as shoulder girdle.

121) NCERT, [Link] - 304

Question Explanation : Order of muscle structures from largest to smallest.
Concept : Structure Of Contractile Protein
Solution :
(1) The structure of skeletal muscle is hierarchically organized as follows:
• Muscle → composed of bundles of muscle fibres (cells)
• Each muscle fibre contains many myofibrils
• Each myofibril is divided into repeating units called sarcomeres
• Each sarcomere consists of filaments (actin and myosin).
The correct decreasing order is: Muscle → Muscle fibre → Myofibril → Sarcomere →
Filaments
Final Answer : Option (1)

122) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 306 para 20.2.1

123) NCERT XI -Chapter -20,Page # 312 para 20.5

124) Question is Asking About:

Wrong match

Concept:
Bones of Limbs

Solution/Explanation:
Wrist Bone – 8 in number
Palm Bone – 5 in number
Ankle Bone – 7 in number
Digits – 14 in number
Hence correct answer is 4

125) NCERT Page # 313

126) NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 309-11

127)

Question explanation: Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below
and select the right option for both of them together ?
Concept: STRUCTURE OF CONTRACTILE PROTEIN
Solution: A-Thin Filament ,B-Meromyosin units
Final answer: 3

128) NCERT Pg. # 309

129)

Explain Question : This question asking about the functional unit of contractile system in
striated muscle is
Concept : This question is based on Voluntary muscles
Explanation : A muscle fibre contains myofibrils, which are divided into repeating units
between two Z–lines. This unit, called the sarcomere, is the structural and functional unit of
contraction.
Final answer : 3

130) Question Explanation : Identify the incorrectly matched type of movement and
 structure.
Concept : Disorders Of Muscular System
Solution : Amoeboid movement involves cytoplasmic streaming and pseudopodia formation,
which RBCs (erythrocytes) cannot perform.
Final Answer : Option (4)

131) Explanation:

A. Angiotensin-Il is a powerful vasoconstrictor, increasing glomerular blood pressure (so,

statement 'a' is incorrect).
B. It also increases GFR (so, 'c' is incorrect).
C. It stimulates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone, which helps in sodium and water
retention (so, 'b' is correct).
D. It does NOT activate JG cells; instead, JG cells activate the renin-angiotensin system (so, 'e' is
incorrect).

132)

Concept : This question is based on Human excretory system

Explanation :

Final answer : Option 3. Ureter – Inferior vena cava – Dorsal aorta – Urethra

133) Solution: The renal vein carries blood away from the kidneys. Since the kidneys filter
urea and other waste products from the blood, the blood leaving the kidneys will have the
lowest concentration of urea. The hepatic vein carries blood away from the liver, where urea is
produced. The dorsal aorta supplies blood to the entire body, and the hepatic portal vein
carries blood from the intestine to the liver.

134)

NCERT–XI, Para–7, Pg # 294 (E)

135) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 296

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 291

137) Solution
The incorrectly matched pair is Angiotensin-II. This hormone is a powerful vasoconstrictor,
meaning it narrows blood vessels to increase blood pressure. The table incorrectly labels it as
a vasodilator, which is the opposite of its actual function.

138) NCERT-XI (E), Para-3-5, Pg. # 297

139)

NCERT Pg # 291

140) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 300, para-2

141) NCERT XI- Pg. # 298

142)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 290

143)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 268,269

145) NCERT-XI Pg. # 273

146)

Explain Question : This question asking about the point A & B in the above diagram are
located at
Concept : This question is based on O2–Hb dissociation curve
Explanation :

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 188

148) NCERT XI Pg # 275

149) NCERT-XIth Pg # 272 [E]

150)

Explanation : CO2 is carried from tissues to lungs mainly in three forms: dissolved in plasma,
as bicarbonate ions in plasma, and as carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs. Hence, both plasma
and erythrocytes are involved.

151) NCERT-XI- 271,272

152)

NCERT Page # 274

153) NCERT-XI Pg. # 272

154) NCERT XI Pg. # 297, 19.5

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270

156) Explanation: Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder caused by the inhalation of

fine silica dust, typically in industries like mining, construction, or sandblasting. This condition
leads to inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.

157) NCERT Pg. # 270

158) NCERT, Pg # 269, 270

159) NCERT, Pg. # 275-276 (17.6)

160) NCERT, Pg. # 274

161) NCERT-XI, Pg # 186

162) NCERT, Pg # 273,274,275

163) NCERT, Pg.# 273-275

 164) NCERT XI Pg. # 203

165) Explanation : Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired during normal
breathing.

166) Explanation : Platelets (thrombocytes) are normally present in the range of 1.5–3.5 lakh
per mm³ of blood.

167) Explanation:

A. The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve, is located between the left atrium and left
ventricle of the heart.
B. It prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular
contraction.

168)

SA node (Sinoatrial node): This is a cluster of specialized cardiac cells located in the wall of
the right atrium. It has the highest rate of spontaneous depolarization and initiates the
heartbeat. Therefore, the SA node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.

Therefore, the pacemaker of the heart is the SA node.

169)

Explanation :
The heartbeat originates at the SA node, then passes to the AV node, then to the Bundle of
His, and finally to the Purkinje fibres for ventricular contraction.

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

170) Question Explanation: Identifying the ECG component showing atrial contraction
initiation.

Concept: Electrocardiogram (ECG) interpretation.

Solution: An ECG measures the electrical activity of the heart.

The P wave is the small, initial upward deflection and represents the depolarization of the
atria.
Depolarization leads to atrial contraction (systole).
The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents ventricular
repolarization (return to the resting state).
The R wave is simply the peak of the QRS complex.

Final Answer: P wave

171) Explanation : Basophils are present in the lowest proportion (~0.5–1% of total WBC
count).

172)

NCERT XI - Pg# 281

173)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 282

174)

Pg. No. 287, 288_XI NCERT

175) Question Explanation :

To identify the total number of correct statements about joint Diastole.

Concept :
Cardiac cycle

Solution :
(A) All the four chambers of heart are in relaxed state. Correct
(B) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open. Correct
(C) Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and the right ventricle
respectively through the left and right atria. Correct
(D) The semilunar valves are closed. Correct

Final Answer :
Option (3)

176) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 194

177) NCERT Pg.#288

178) Question Explanation :

To identify the correct labelling of parts described A,B,C in diagram.

Concept :
Structure of heart

Solution :
A-aorta, B-Pulmonary artery, C-pulmonary veins

Final Answer:
Option (1)
179) Question Explanation :
To identify the correct statements.

Concept :
WBC

Solution :
2 statements are correct
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin. These chemicals are involved in allergic
and inflammatory responses
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

180) there are 3 (incorrect)

(a) There is no role of Calcium ions in blood clotting.
Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) play a crucial role in the blood clotting cascade.
(b) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one second.
Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute.
(c) Arteries are thin walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins. Arteries have thick
muscular walls and narrow lumen to withstand high pressure.