Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

SBI CLERK MAINS-2025

MODEL TEST - 33
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Recently, which of the following two major banks have taken the lead in

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establishing the Indian Digital Payment Intelligence Corporation (IDPIC) to detect
and prevent real-time banking fraud across the digital ecosystem?
1) Axis Bank and ICICI Bank 2) Union Bank of India and Indian Bank
3) HDFC Bank and Central Bank of India
4) Punjab National Bank and Canara Bank

2.
ha
5) State Bank of India and Bank of Baroda
As per Securities and Exchange Board of India's (SEBI) October 2025 reforms
introduced to the Bank Nifty index to enhance diversification and reduce

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concentration risk, when is the final deadline for BANKNIFTY to achieve full
implementation of the new norms?
1) January 31, 2026 2) April 30, 2026
d
3) March 31, 2026 4) February 28, 2026 5) December 31, 2025
3. L. Satya Srinivas, a 1991-batch Indian Revenue Service (IRS) officer and Special
Secretary in the Department of Commerce, has been appointed as India’s Executive
ee

Director at which of the following international institutions?

1) World Bank (WB) 2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
3) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
C
4) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) 5) New Development Bank (NDB)
4. Ethiopia has completed construction of the Grand Renaissance Dam, now Africa’s
largest hydroelectric power plant, located on which major river that flows from
Sr

Lake Tana and merges with the White Nile at Khartoum?

1) Zambezi River 2) Blue Nile River
3) Limpopo River 4) Niger River 5) Congo River
5. The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA), in collaboration
with SEBI, organised a “Niveshak Shivir” in Amritsar to empower investors and
address issues related to unclaimed dividends and shares. The Investor Education
and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) functions under which ministry of the
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Government of India (GoI)?
1) Ministry of Finance 2) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
3) Ministry of Consumer Affairs 4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
5) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
6. The Indian women’s cricket team created history by winning their first-ever ICC
Women’s ODI World Cup 2025, defeating South Africa by 52 runs in Navi Mumbai.
Who was named the Player of the Tournament in the ICC Women’s Cricket World
Cup 2025?
1) Shafali Verma 2) Laura Wolvaardt
3) Smriti Mandhana 4) Deepti Sharma 5) Harmanpreet Kaur
7. Name the bank that was recognized by Global Finance as Asia's Safest Bank for
the 17th consecutive year in its "World's Safest Banks in Asia 2025" report released
in October 2025.
1) DBS Bank 2) HDFC Bank
3) State Bank of India 4) United Overseas Bank
5) Oversea-Chinese Banking Corporation

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

8. As part of India’s push toward net-zero emissions by 2070, the PM E-DRIVE

programme launched in July 2025 offers financial incentives for electric trucks.
What is the maximum subsidy available per vehicle under this scheme to promote
green freight transport?
1) Rs.4.5 lakh 2) Rs.6 lakh 3) Rs.9.6 lakh 4) Rs.12 lakh 5) Rs.15 lakh
9. Punjab National Bank (PNB) recently signed a significant Rs.21,000 crore
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Rajasthan government under the
Rising Rajasthan initiative. What is the primary focus of this collaboration?
1) Setting up large-scale industrial parks in Jaipur
2) Expanding PNB’s international banking operations

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3) Promoting renewable energy and smart city projects
4) Building highways and transport infrastructure in Rajasthan
5) Empowering MSMEs, women entrepreneurs, and digital financial inclusion
10. On July 7, 2025, the world celebrated ‘World Bio product Day’, an event dedicated
to spreading awareness about sustainable bioproducts. What ambitious target
ha
has India set for its bioeconomy by 2030, as reiterated by Union Minister Dr.
Jitendra Singh during the World Bioproducts Day celebrations?
1) $100 billion 2) $300 billion 3) $200 billion 4) $550 billion 5) $500 billion
11.

E
India’s UPI has introduced a groundbreaking feature called ‘Pay with Mutual
Fund’, allowing users to make real-time payments directly from their liquid mutual
fund holdings — a global first in retail fintech innovation. Which type of mutual
d
fund is used for the ‘Pay with Mutual Fund’ feature?
1) Liquid Mutual Fund 2) Index Fund
3) Equity Mutual Fund 4) Debt Mutual Fund 5) Hybrid Mutual Fund
ee

12. In October 2025, the MAHA MedTech Mission was launched to boost innovation in
the medical technology sector. Which of the following statements about this mission
is correct?
C
1) It is a joint initiative of ANRF, ICMR, and the Gates Foundation.
2) It has a total outlay of Rs.750 crore spread over 5 years.
Sr

3) It aims to support projects in areas such as medical devices, diagnostics,

imaging, implants, AI/ML platforms, and robotics.
4) It provides funding between Rs.5 crore and Rs.25 crore per project, along with
additional support through Patent Mitra, MedTech Mitra, and a Clinical Trial
Network.
5) All of the above
C
13. What is India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) forecast for the Financial Year
2025-26 (FY26), as predicted in 'September edition of the Global Economic Outlook
(GEO) Report', released by Fitch Ratings Inc. in September 2025?
1) 6.9% 2) 4.7% 3) 5.8% 4) 7.1% 5) 6.4%
14. In September 2025, which Indian port authority became the largest EV heavy
truck fleet operator among all Indian ports after deploying 50 electric trucks with
swappable batteries, flagged off by Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal?
1) Cochin Port Authority 2) Chennai Port Authority
3) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority
4) Visakhapatnam Port Authority 5) Paradip Port Authority
15. Who has officially released the book titled ‘The Emergency Diaries – Years that
Forged a Leader’, a compilation highlighting Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
personal experiences and underground activities during India’s Emergency period,
at an event held in New Delhi to mark ‘Samvidhan Hatya Diwas’?
1) Amit Shah 2) Nirmala Sitharaman
3) Rajnath Singh 4) Narendra Modi 5) S. Jaishankar

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

16. In October 2025, the National Association of Software and Service Companies
(NASSCOM) partnered with the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
to empower DeepTech startups in digital identity innovation. In which year was
UIDAI established?
1) 2007 2) 2011 3) 2008 4) 2010 5) 2009
17. Recently, a Mumbai-based lender introduced two secured RuPay credit cards,
backed by customers’ fixed deposits, offering 0.5% cashback and targeting
individuals who may not qualify for conventional credit cards. Which bank has
launched these credit cards?
1) Bandhan Bank 2) AU Small Finance Bank
3) Ujjivan Small Finance Bank

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4) Equitas Small Finance Bank 5) Suryoday Small Finance Bank
18. In the Global Artificial Intelligence (AI) City Index 2025 released by Counterpoint
Technology Market Research, which city was ranked India’s top AI R&D and data
centre hub, securing the 26th position globally?
1) Hyderabad 2) Bengaluru 3) Chennai 4) New Delhi 5) Mumbai
19.
ha
In July 2025, which of the following bank was penalized Rs 20,000 for non-
compliance with RBI directions related to 'Loans and advances to directions,
their relatives, and firms/concerns in which they are interested'?

E
1) Laxmi Vishnu Sahakari Bank Limited
2) Mandvi Nagrik Sahakari Bank Limited
3) Sarvodaya Nagrik Sahakari Bank Limited
d
4) The Gujarat Rajya Karmachari Co-operative Bank
5) Thane District Central Co-operative Bank Limited
20. Which of the following public sector undertaking in the power sector has become
ee

the first to adopt a comprehensive Business Continuity Plan (BCP), aligned with
ISO 22301:2019, to ensure resilience against disruptions such as natural
disasters, cyber threats, and supply chain failures?
C
1) NHPC Limited 2) Power Grid Corporation of India
3) NTPC Limited 4) REC Limited 5) SJVN Limited
Sr

21. Which of the following bank has launched a new feature called ‘Lock FD’ to
prevent the premature closure of fixed deposits through digital platforms, aiming
to reduce cyber fraud incidents?
1) ICICI Bank 2) Punjab National Bank 3) HDFC Bank
4) Axis Bank 5) State Bank of India
22. Every year on September 16, the world observes ‘World Ozone Day’ to raise
awareness about the crucial role of the ozone layer. What is the theme for ‘World
C
Ozone Day’ 2025?
1) Ozone Layer: Earth’s Umbrella 2) From Science to Global Action
3) Ozone for a Sustainable Future 4) Protecting the Ozone, Protecting Life
5) Ozone and Climate: A Shared Responsibility
23. Which company launched its new corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiative
"NURTURING BEGINNINGS" by signing an MoU with the World Health Organisation
(WHO) India to improve nutrition and well-being of mothers and children from
disadvantaged urban communities?
1) Reliance Industries Limited 2) Tata Group 3) Adani Group
4) Malabar Group 5) Mahindra Group
24. Which Indian government department signed a Technical Cooperation Programme
agreement with the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) to strengthen Blue
Port infrastructure in India?
1) Department of Ports 2) Department of Shipping
3) Department of Fisheries 4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
5) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

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25. Who was reappointed as the Chairperson of the Cellular Operators Association of
India (COAI) for the 2025–26 terms, reflecting continued strategic leadership in
India’s telecom sector?
1) Rahul Vatts 2) SP Kochhar 3) Rajan Mathews 4) Gopal Vittal 5) Abhijit Kishore
26. India has recently added 7 new sites to UNESCO’s ‘Tentative List of World Heritage
Sites’, raising the total to 69 properties. Which of the following correctly represents
the breakup of these 69 sites?
1) 49 cultural, 18 natural, 2 mixed 2) 50 cultural, 16 natural, 3 mixed
3) 48 cultural, 18 natural, 3 mixed
4) 49 cultural, 17 natural, 3 mixed 5) 47 cultural, 19 natural, 3 mixed

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27. Which of the following state government signed an MoU to establish a Data
Intelligence and Technical Support Unit to tackle the drug menace?
1) Rajasthan 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Haryana 4) Gujarat 5) Punjab
28. The International Development Association (IDA) is an arm of the World Bank,
that supports the world’s poorest countries. In what year was the International
ha
Development Association (IDA) established?
1) 1944 2) 1960 3) 1955 4) 1973 5) 1982
29. Which act provides a legal framework for the attachment and confiscation of

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properties obtained from the proceeds of crime, including those properties that
are not directly related to the crime committed?
d
1) SARFAESI Act, 2002 2) Government Security Act, 2006
3) Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
4) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Act, 1989
ee

5) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003

30. Recently, which of the following organization signed an MoU with Gati Shakti
Vishwavidyalaya (GSV) to digitally upskill professionals in the logistics and
C
transport sector in India, during the inauguration of its Innovation Park in
Bengaluru, Karnataka?
Sr

1) Infosys Technologies 2) Tata Consultancy Services

3) Tech Mahindra 4) SAP Labs India 5) Wipro Limited
31. In July 2025, Larsen & Toubro Limited (L&T) announced that its wholly-owned
subsidiary, L&T Energy Green Tech Limited will establish India's largest green
hydrogen plant at Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)'s Panipat Refinery in
Haryana. The project is scheduled for commissioning by December 2027. Under
C
what model is the green hydrogen plant being developed?
1) Build-Own-Operate (BOO) 2) Lease-Operate-Transfer (LOT)
3) Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
4) Design-Build-Finance-Operate (DBFO)
5) Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC)
32. As per RBI norms (2025), if a bank fails to resolve a customer’s complaint regarding
a failed ATM transaction within the stipulated time, how much compensation is
the bank liable to pay per day of delay beyond the prescribed limit?
1) Rs.50 per day 2) Rs.200 per day
3) Rs.100 per day 4) Rs.500 lump sum 5) No penalty
33. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA)?
1) Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) 2) Direct Income Transfer Scheme (DITS)
3) Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
4) Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) 5) Price Support Scheme (PSS)

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34. According to the Brand Finance Football 50-2025 report, which club has been
ranked the most valuable football club in the world for the fourth consecutive
year, with a brand value of €1.921 billion?
1) Barcelona 2) Manchester City 3) Liverpool 4) Real Madrid 5) Bayern Munich
35. Which of the following states emerged as top performers in the PARAKH RS
Survey 2025 for Grade 3 students?
1) Sikkim, Tripura, Odisha 2) Bihar, Jharkhand, Assam
3) Kerala, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh
4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal
5) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

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36. In August 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) relaxed norms for opening which
type of accounts, allowing banks to open these accounts for foreign correspondent
banks without its prior approval?
1) To Our Accounts 2) Non-Resident External (NRE) Accounts
3) Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAS)
ha
4) Rupee Drawing Arrangement (RDA) Accounts
5) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) Accounts
37.

E
Who headed the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)-constituted working
group thatproposed increasing transaction fees for clearing corporations such as
NSE Clearing Limited inOctober 2025?
d
1) M. Rajeshwar Rao 2) R.S. Gandhi 3) T.R. Dave
4) Ashwani Bhatia 5) Shaktikanta Das
ee

38. The Ministry of Communication’s Department of Posts unveiled the policy document
for the DHRUVA, What is the full form of ‘DHRUVA', as mentioned in the text?
1) Dynamic Human Resource Virtual Assistant
C
2) Data Hub for Reliable and Universal Virtual Access
3) Digital Hub for Reference and Unique Virtual Address
Sr

4) Digital Home for Rural and Urban Verification of Addresses

5) Digital Highway for Real-time Urban Verification of Addresses
39. Which of the following committee, set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
2013, was tasked with examining financial services for small businesses and
low-income households in India and suggesting measures to enhance their access
to these services?
1) Narsimham Committee 2) Raghuram Rajan Committee
C
3) Bimal Jalan Committee 4) Nachiket Mor Committee 5) Urjit Patel Committee
40. Which Indian company has received a patent for developing the nation’s first
indigenous defence drone simulator, designed for training armed forces in combat
drone operations?
1) IG Drones 2) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
3) Mahindra Defence Systems (MDS)
4) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
5) Defence Research Development Organization (DRDO)
41. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is a specialized agency of
the United Nations responsible for promoting the protection of intellectual property
(IP) rights worldwide. It was established in 1967 and serves as a global forum for
intellectual property issues. Where are WIPO's headquarters located?
1) New York, USA 2) Geneva, Switzerland 3) Paris, France
4) London, UK 5) Vienna, Austria

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42. In July 2025, the Department of Posts (DoP) under the Ministry of Communications
(MoC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to streamline Know Your
Customer (KYC) verification for Mutual Fund investors. With which organization
was this MoU signed?
1) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 2) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4) Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)
5) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
43. To promote rupee-based trade and advance the internationalisation of the Indian
Rupee, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted non-residents maintaining

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Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs) to invest their surplus rupee balances in
which instrument?
1) Government Securities 2) Indian Equities
3) Corporate Bonds 4) Sovereign Gold Bonds 5) Mutual Fund Units
44. Which of the following statements about the National Disaster Management
ha
Authority (NDMA) is/are correct?
I. NDMA is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, established

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under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
II. The Prime Minister of India serves as its Chairperson.
III. NDMA was established in 2006 and has its headquarters in New Delhi.
d
IV. NDMA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
1) Only (I) & (III) 2) Only (I), (II) & (III) 3) Only (II) & (IV)
ee

4) Only (II), (III) & (IV) 5) All (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
45. Jharkhand has become the first Indian state to introduce mining tourism, blending
its industrial legacy with a unique travel experience. What is the name of Coal
C
India Ltd's subsidiary collaborating on the mining tourism project?
1) Eastern Coalfields Limited (ECL) 2) Central Coalfields Limited (CCL)
Sr

3) Western Coalfields Limited (WCL)

4) Northern Coalfields Limited (NCL) 5) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL)
46. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cancelled the banking licence of which Urban
Co-operative Bank (UCB) in October 2025 due to poor financial position and failure
to comply with regulatory norms?
1) Janata Sahakari Bank 2) Saraswat Co-operative Bank
3) Jijamata Mahila Sahakari Bank
C
4) The Cosmos Co-operative Bank 5) Abhyudaya Co-operative Bank
47. In July 2025, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) announced
that 6 crore people had been screened for Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) under the
National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission, bringing the country closer to
its target of 7 crore screenings. Which of the following states is NOT mentioned
as having exceeded its screening targets?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Gujarat3) Telangana 4) Karnataka 5) Uttar Pradesh
48. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) is a social welfare scheme
initiated by the Ministry of Labour and Employment of the Government of India to
provide old-age protection to unorganized sector workers. It targets individuals
aged 18 to 40 years, with a focus on those with a monthly income of Rs.15,000 or
less. In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
launched?
1) 2017 2) 2019 3) 2018 4) 2020 5) 2021

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49. MUDRA loans now will be offered in four categories namely, ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishor’,
‘Tarun’ and newly added category ‘Tarun Plus’ which signifies the stage of growth
or development and funding needs of the borrowers. What is the loan amount
range for the "Tarun Plus" category under MUDRA loans?
1) Above Rs. 50 lakhs 2) Above Rs. 5 lakhs and up to Rs. 10 lakhs
3) Above Rs. 10 lakhs and up to Rs. 30 lakhs
4) Above Rs. 20 lakhs and up to Rs. 50 lakhs
5) Above Rs. 10 lakhs and up to Rs. 20 lakhs
50. Which global technology company collaborated with Yotta Data Services Private
Limited in May 2025 to integrate its AI services into Yotta's Shakti Cloud platform,

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aiming to boost AI adoption and support the IndiaAI Mission?
1) Microsoft 2) Google 3) Oracle 4) Accenture 5) Genpact
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (51-52): In this question, two sentences denoted by (I) and (II) are
given. Sentence (I) has been divided into five parts denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D),
ha
and (E). Sentence (II) has been divided into four parts denoted by (F), (G), (H), and
(J). Read both sentences and find out if there is any grammatical error. The
error, if any, will be in one part of each sentence. Mark the part(s) with the error,

51.

E
or mark ‘X’ if there is no error in a sentence.
(I) She wanted to prove to her parents / (B) that she was capable / (C) of handling
the situation / (D) on her own / (E) and have an independent life.
d
(II) We have received a large number of applications, (F)/ (G) but few of them /
(H) have the necessary qualifications / (J) for this position.
1) I-B & II-F 2) I- E & II-H 3) I-E & II-X 4) I-X & II-G 5) I- A & II- J
ee

52. (I) Having a good understanding of the material / (B) is very important / (C) for
pass the exam / (D) and getting a good score, / (E) so you must study hard.
(II) The student has already submitted (F)/ (G) their assignment, / (H) but the
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teacher thinks that / (J) it is incomplete.
1) I- C & II- G 2) I-X & II-G 3) I-C & II-X 4) I- E & II-H 5) I-B & II-F
Sr

Directions (53-61): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately
to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
All children grow up in a world of talking animals. If they don’t come to (53)
__________them through fairy tales, Disney movies, or the Narnia books, they
(54)_______ them some other way. A child will (55)_________ the gift of speech to
the family dog, or to the stray cat that shows up at the door. At first, it’s a
C
solipsistic fantasy—the secret sharer you can tell your troubles to, or that only
you (56) ______. Later, it’s rooted in a more philosophical curiosity, the longing to
experience the ineffable interiority of some very different being. My eight-year-
old daughter says that she wishes the horses she rides could talk, just so she
could ask them what it feels like to be a horse.
Such a desire (57)____________ as Thomas Nagel put it in his 1974 essay
“What Is It Like to Be a Bat?”—that animals have some kind of subjectivity, and
that it might somehow be plumbed. In any case, Nagel explained, humans are
“restricted to the resources” of our own minds, and since “those resources are
(58)_________ to the task,” we cannot really imagine what it is like to be a bat.
That inability, however, should not lead us to dismiss the idea that animals
“have experiences fully (59) _________in richness of detail to our own”. We simply
can’t know. Yet many of us would be glad for even a few (60) ___________inside an
animal’s mind. And some people, like Irene Pepperberg, have dedicated their
lives to (61) __________ those glimpses.
53. 1) perceive 2) know 3) recognize 4) meet 5) apprehend

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54. 1) find 2) identify 3) discover 4) create 5) encounter

55. 1) award 2) give 3) lend 4) bestow 5) grant
56. 1) realize 2) comprehend3) understand 4) believe 5) discern
57. 1) presumes 2) suggests 3) implies 4) infers 5) supposes
58. 1) insufficient 2) inadequate 3) lacking 4) limited 5) deficient
59. 1) comparable 2) equivalent 3) similar 4) parallel 5) equal
60. 1) sights 2) peeks 3) glances 4) views 5) glimpses
61. 1) documenting2) chronicling 3) recording 4) noting 5) reporting
Directions (62): Read the following passage and answer the question.
In a study, infant monkeys given a choice between two surrogate mothers -
a bare wire structure equipped with a milk bottle, or a soft, suede-covered wire
structure equipped with a milk bottle - unhesitatingly chose the latter. When

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given a choice between a bare wire structure equipped with a milk bottle and a
soft, suede-covered wire structure lacking a milk bottle, they unhesitatingly chose
the former.
Which one of the following conclusions can be most suitably drawn from the
above passage?
1) Infant monkeys’ desire for warmth and comfort is nearly as strong as their
desire for food.
ha
2) For infant monkeys, suede is a less convincing substitute for their mother’s
touch than animal fur would be.

E
3) For infant monkeys, a milk bottle is a less convincing substitute for their
mother’s teat than suede is for their mother’s touch.
4) For infant monkeys, a milk bottle is an equally convincing substitute for their
d
mother’s teat as suede is for their mother’s touch.
5) Infant monkeys’ desire for food is stronger than their desire for warmth and
comfort.
Directions (63-64): Each passage below contains a missing part, indicated by a
ee

blank and followed by five options. Select the most logical and suitable option to
fill the blank. The chosen option should complete the passage coherently and
maintain the tone and context of the passage
C
63. In the natural world, adaptation is the key to survival. Species that can evolve to
cope with changing environmental conditions are the ones that endure, while
those that fail to adapt face extinction. The polar bear, for example, has evolved
Sr

thick fur and a layer of blubber to thrive in its Arctic habitat. However, with
global climate change causing the rapid melting of polar ice, the polar bear’s
survival is increasingly in doubt. This highlights a critical challenge for many
species: the pace of human-driven environmental change is far exceeding the
rate at which they can naturally adapt. Therefore, conservation efforts are no
longer simply about protecting natural habitats, but also about __________________.
1) mitigating the effects of climate change.
C
2) capturing and relocating endangered species.
3) studying extinct species.
4) promoting biodiversity in warmer climates.
5) documenting the decline of species.
64. The stock market is often seen as a reflection of the economy’s health. When
confidence is high and earnings are strong, stock prices tend to rise. Conversely,
during periods of economic uncertainty, investors often become more risk-averse,
leading to market volatility and declines. However, the relationship is not always
straightforward. Sometimes, market sentiment can be driven by speculative
bubbles or fear, disconnecting stock valuations from the underlying economic
fundamentals. This suggests that while a healthy economy generally supports a
strong market, ____________________.
1) investors should always follow market sentiment.
2) a volatile market is always a sign of a weak economy.
3) stock market performance is not always a perfect indicator of economic reality.
4) the government should intervene to stabilize the stock market.
5) a weak economy never affects the stock market.

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Directions (65-72): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
In recent years, the concept of the “digital nomad” has moved from a fringe
lifestyle to a mainstream career path, driven by a confluence of technological
advancement, a post-pandemic shift in work culture, and changing generational
priorities. A digital nomad is a professional who uses telecommunications
technologies to earn a living and, more broadly, to live a nomadic life. This allows
them to work from anywhere in the world, unconstrained by a fixed office location.
The phenomenon is underpinned by two crucial factors: the ubiquity of high-
speed internet and the normalization of remote work.

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The transition to a digital nomad lifestyle is not without its challenges.
While it promises freedom and adventure, it often comes with significant hurdles.
Establishing a steady income stream, managing work-life boundaries in a new
environment, and navigating the complexities of visas, taxes, and healthcare in
different countries are constant concerns. Many digital nomads report experiencing
ha
a sense of isolation or “burnout,” as the lines between work and leisure become
blurred. The romanticized image of working from a tropical beach can often be
overshadowed by the reality of unreliable Wi-Fi, time zone differences, and the

E
constant need to adapt to new cultures.
The economic implications of this trend are significant. For one, it is creating
a new ecosystem of businesses catering specifically to this mobile workforce,
d
including co-working spaces, specialized travel agencies, and digital service
providers. For another, it is reshaping the urban landscape. Cities around the
world are now vying to attract digital nomads, offering special visas and tax
ee

incentives to capitalize on their spending power and skills. However, this influx
is not without controversy. In some popular destinations, the arrival of digital
nomads has led to concerns about gentrification and rising living costs, pricing
C
out local residents and small businesses.
The societal impact is equally profound. Traditional notions of career
Sr

progression, work-life balance, and community are being redefined. Rather than
climbing a corporate ladder in a single city, many digital nomads prioritize personal
growth, travel, and a diverse range of experiences. This shift is challenging
conventional employer-employee relationships and putting pressure on companies
to offer more flexible work arrangements. As more professionals embrace this
lifestyle, it raises fundamental questions about the future of work, the relevance
C
of physical offices, and the very definition of a “home.” The digital nomad
phenomenon, therefore, is not merely a travel trend but a powerful force shaping
the future of global labor and society.
65. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
1) The Evolution of Remote Work
2) The Economic Impact of Digital Nomads
3) The Rise and Implications of the Digital Nomad Lifestyle
4) The Challenges of Working from Home
5) How Technology Transformed the Workplace
66. What are the key factors that have driven the rise of the digital nomad, according
to the passage?
1) High-speed internet and flexible travel options.
2) The post-pandemic work culture and a focus on personal growth.
3) Technological advances and changing generational priorities.
4) Ubiquitous internet, the post-pandemic shift, and generational priorities.
5) The availability of co-working spaces and special visas.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

67. What is one of the main challenges faced by digital nomads, as mentioned in the
passage?
1) Difficulty in finding suitable travel agencies.
2) Managing complex visa and tax regulations.
3) Lack of access to high-speed internet.
4) An inability to find a steady income source.
5) The romanticized image of their lifestyle.
68. The phrase “confluence of technological advancement” suggests that:
1) Technology is the only reason for the rise of digital nomads.
2) Several factors, including technology, came together to drive the trend.

r’s
3) The development of technology was a slow and deliberate process.
4) Technological advancement has created significant challenges.
5) Only one type of technology is responsible for the trend.
69. How are some cities reacting to the influx of digital nomads?
1) They are implementing strict regulations to control their numbers.
2) They are raising taxes to increase revenue from their spending.
ha
3) They are offering incentives like special visas to attract them.
4) They are focusing on attracting local businesses instead.
5) They are not concerned about the phenomenon.
70.

E
What is a negative consequence associated with the influx of digital nomads in
some popular destinations?
1) Increased tourism and local spending.
d
2) The creation of new co-working spaces.
3) Gentrification and rising costs for local residents.
ee

4) The blurring of work-life boundaries.

5) A decline in the quality of local services.
71. Which of the following can be inferred about the future of work based on the
passage?
C
1) The physical office space will likely become completely obsolete.
2) Traditional corporate career paths will become less common.
Sr

3) Companies will have to pay digital nomads higher salaries.

4) The rise of digital nomads will lead to fewer jobs overall.
5) Work-life balance will become a thing of the past.
72. The author’s tone throughout the passage is best described as:
1) Critical and skeptical of the digital nomad trend.
2) Enthusiastic and celebratory of the new lifestyle.
3) Dismissive of the challenges faced by digital nomads.
C
4) Concerned and alarmist about the future of work.
5) Neutral and objective, presenting both positive and negative aspects.
Directions (73-74): In each of the following questions, a sentence is given in
three parts (A), (B), and (C). You are provided with five options which can be used
as a “starter” to combine these parts into a single, coherent, and meaningful
sentence. You need to choose the option that correctly combines the sentence
parts.
73. (A) India has been making significant strides in disaster preparedness, particularly
concerning cyclones.
(B) the mitigation of damage to property and livestock remains a key challenge.
(C) although mass casualties have largely become a thing of the past.
1) While India has been making significant strides...
2) The mitigation of damage to property...
3) The fact that mass casualties have largely become...
4) Significant strides have been made, while India...
5) Despite the mitigation of damage...

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

74. (A) Recent data shows that for a company’s sales to grow significantly,
(B) it must invest a substantial portion of its budget in customer service.
(C) companies neglecting customer service have seen stagnant growth.
1) For a company’s sales to grow...
2) Recent data shows that...
3) While a company’s sales need to grow...
4) A company must invest a substantial portion...
5) Investment in customer service...
Directions (75-76): In each of the following questions, two statements (I) and (II)
are given. You are required to find which one of the given options can be used as

r’s
a connector to combine the two statements into a single, coherent sentence.
Note that you may have to change the form of the given connector or the
statements to fit the context.
75. (I) The government implemented new tax regulations to boost revenue.
(II) Many businesses found it challenging to adapt to the changes.

above
ha
1) In spite of 2) On the one hand 3) While 4) Hence 5) All of the

76. (I) The company invested heavily in research and development.

E
(II) It failed to produce a commercially successful product.
1) Since 2) Because 3) As a result 4) Even though 5) Therefore
Directions (77-78): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
d
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The sentence is divided into four parts
(A), (B), (C), and (D). The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). Ignore
ee

errors of punctuation, if any.

77. The government’s decision to ban (A)/ all single-use plastics has been met with
(B)/ widespread public support, which is (C)/ a welcoming development for the
C
environment. (D)/ No Error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Sr

78. The rapid advancement in artificial intelligence has (A)/ brought about
revolutionary changes in many industries, (B)/ however, it has also raised serious
ethical concerns (C)/ about job displacement and algorithmic bias. (D)/ No Error
(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Directions (79-80): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
C
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
79. The company’s new policy, which was introduced on a trial basis, were met
with skepticism by the employees.
1) which were introduced on a trial basis
2) that were introduced on a trial basis
3) which was introduced on a trial basis, was met
4) that was introduced on a trial basis, were met
5) No correction required.
80. Our team has worked diligently to prepare for the presentation, and we are
confident that our proposal is meeting the client’s needs.
1) would meet the client’s needs
2) will meet the client’s needs
3) meets the client’s needs
4) are meeting the client’s needs
5) No correction required.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Direction (81–85): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given. Certain words have been given in bold denoted by A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H to
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The rapid advancements in artificial intelligence (AI) have led to widespread
discussions about its implications for the job market. While some foresee mass
unemployment due to automation, others argue that AI will predominantly (A)
create new types of jobs and augment (B) human capabilities. AI’s integration
into manufacturing, for example, has streamlined (C) production processes,
increasing efficiency and reducing human error. However, this has also raised
ethical concerns regarding algorithmic bias and data privacy. It is clear that the
future of work will not be a simple narrative (D) of replacement, but a complex
transformation that demands adaptation. Policymakers and educators must,

r’s
therefore, collaborate to equip the workforce with relevant skills to navigate this
evolving landscape, ensuring a transition that is both equitable and beneficial.
The success of this transition hinges on our collective ability to foster a synergistic
(E) relationship between humans and technology, rather than a competitive one.
The potential of AI is immense, but its trajectory (F) will ultimately be shaped by
human choices and priorities. It presents an opportunity to address complex
ha
challenges, provided we handle its development with foresight (G) and ethical
consideration. The key is not to resist change, but to direct it towards a more
inclusive and prosperous future, where AI serves as a powerful tool to uplift (H)

81.
society.

E
Which of the following CAN REPLACE the word denoted by (A) in the passage both
grammatically and meaningfully?
d
1) primarily 2) rarely 3) negligibly 4) randomly 5) None can replace.
82. Which of the following pair denotes words that are OPPOSITE in meaning as used
in the passage?
ee

1) A–C 2) B–H 3) C–G 4) D–C 5) B–E

83. Which of the following words is INCORRECTLY used in terms of grammar, spelling,
or context?
C
1) Only A 2) Only F 3) Only E 4) Only D & G 5) None
84. Which of the following CANNOT REPLACE the word denoted by (E) in the passage
both grammatically and meaningfully?
Sr

1) cooperative 2) integrated 3) symbiotic 4) autonomous 5) collaborative

85. The author suggests that a positive future with AI depends on:
1) Resisting automation completely to protect jobs.
2) Ignoring data privacy concerns for faster technological growth.
3) Prioritizing commercial infrastructure over green spaces.
4) Fostering a cooperative relationship between humans and technology.
5) Allowing AI to develop without any human intervention.
Directions (86-90): Read the following passage and answer the questions. Certain
C
words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
While global warming receives the lion’s share of public and political
attention, another grave environmental crisis—ocean acidification—is unfolding
largely out of the spotlight. Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH
of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2)
from human activities. Since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, the acidity
of surface ocean waters has increased by about 30 percent. This change is
fundamentally altering the chemistry of the world’s oceans with far-reaching
and devastating consequences for marine ecosystems and the global economy.
The process of acidification is straightforward. When CO2 is absorbed by
seawater, a series of chemical reactions occur, resulting in an increased
concentration of hydrogen ions. This increase causes the seawater to become
more acidic and leads to a reduction in carbonate ions, which are essential
building blocks for many marine organisms. Organisms such as corals, shellfish,
and plankton, which rely on calcium carbonate to build their shells and skeletons,
are particularly vulnerable. As carbonate ions become scarcer, these organisms

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

must expend more energy to build and maintain their structures, leaving less
energy for growth and reproduction. In severe cases, acidification can cause
existing shells and skeletons to dissolve.
The ecological consequences of this silent crisis are profound. Coral reefs,
often called the “rainforests of the sea” for their immense biodiversity, are
especially at risk. Ocean acidification weakens coral skeletons, making them
more susceptible to damage from storms and other stressors. It also hinders
their ability to recover from bleaching events. The destruction of coral reefs
threatens not only the species that live within them but also the livelihoods of
millions of people who depend on reef ecosystems for food and tourism. Similarly,
the decline of plankton and shellfish has massive ripple effects up the marine

r’s
food chain, potentially impacting fisheries and the global food supply.
The economic fallout is equally alarming. The shellfish industry, a multi-
billion dollar business, is already feeling the effects, with oyster and clam
hatcheries in some regions struggling to produce healthy larvae. The loss of
coral reefs and other marine habitats jeopardizes coastal tourism and protection
against storm surges. Addressing ocean acidification is a complex challenge, as
ha
it is a direct consequence of the same CO2 emissions driving climate change.
While reducing global emissions is the ultimate solution, there is a growing
urgency to explore and implement localized mitigation and adaptation strategies,

E
such as developing more resilient coral species and protecting critical habitats.
The fate of our oceans, and indeed a significant portion of our planetary life,
hangs in the balance.
d
86. What is the primary cause of ocean acidification, according to the passage?
1) The runoff of industrial pollutants.
2) The depletion of marine biodiversity.
ee

3) The absorption of atmospheric CO2 from human activities.

4) The natural cycle of ocean temperature changes.
5) The disposal of solid waste in oceans.
C
87. How does ocean acidification primarily affect marine organisms like corals and
shellfish?
1) By increasing their vulnerability to predators.
Sr

2) By causing their shells and skeletons to dissolve.

3) By decreasing their growth and reproduction rates.
4) By reducing the availability of necessary building block ions.
5) By increasing the energy they must expend to build shells.
88. The author refers to ocean acidification as a “silent crisis” mainly because:
1) The changes in pH are not visible to the naked eye.
2) It receives less public and political attention than global warming.
C
3) It primarily affects organisms that do not make noise.
4) The effects on the global economy are not yet apparent.
5) It is not a gradual process that happens over many decades.
89. It can be inferred from the passage that addressing ocean acidification is
particularly challenging because:
1) It is a local problem that requires a global solution.
2) It is directly linked to the same human activities causing climate change.
3) The scientific community is still debating its severity.
4) There are no effective mitigation or adaptation strategies available.
5) It only affects a small portion of the marine ecosystem.
90. The phrase “ripple effects up the marine food chain” suggests that:
1) The effects of acidification are isolated to a few species.
2) The impact on plankton and shellfish will only affect larger fish.
3) The impact on lower-level organisms will propagate and affect higher-level
organisms.
4) The effects of acidification are reversible over time.
5) The marine food chain is static and unchanging.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. Twice the age of B after 14 years is the same as the sum of the ages of A after 7
years and C after 8 years, while the age of B after four years is 75% of the age of
A before three years. A’s age is an integer and is 1 year younger than twice the
age of C and B’s age is greater than 10. What is the age of D, which is 5 years
and 6 months younger than the sum of the ages of B and C?
1) 20 years 2) 23 years 6 months
3) 25 years 6 months 4) 35 years
5) Can’t be determined
92. Height of cone is (2H – 5) cm and its radius is R cm, curved surface area of cone

r’s
is 1332 cm2 which is 900 cm2 more than its base area. What is the volume of
cylinder has height H cm and radius is (R +3) cm? (Use  = 3) (In cm3)
1) 8640 2) 8820 3) 19845 4) 12150 5) 13500
93. Ronank invested Rs. ‘120x’ in a scheme offering compound interest at the rate of
10% p.a. (compounded annually) and after two years he again invested Rs. ‘20x’
ha
in the same scheme. He received Rs. 2086 as total interest after 3 years. What
is the interest he received, if Rs. ‘120x’ is invested at 25% p.a. simple interest for
4 years? (in Rs.)

94.
1) 4800 2) 5000

E 3) 3600 4) 7200 5) 6000

A dog ran to catch a rabbit 70 m apart. The rabbit has 35 jumps in one minute
and the dog has 50 jumps in 2 minutes. If 2 jumps of the rabbit equal 40 cm and
d
one jump of the dog equal 60 cm, then what time will the dog catch the rabbit?
(In minutes)
ee

35 33 41 41 45
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
4 4 3 4 4
95. The efficiency ratio of J and M is 3:2, they can complete the work in alternate
C
manner in 24 days. When K and N together start the work and after four days,
Sr

Z
remaining work complete by N alone in   days. When J and M start the work
2
together, they can complete it in Z days. What is the time taken by K alone to
complete the work, if N is 100% more efficient than M?
1) 5 days 2) 10 days 3) 12 days
4) 16 days 5) Can’t be determined
C
Direction (96-97): The following question is accompanied by two statements (I)
and (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary
to answer the questions.
96. X invested a certain sum under compound interest at (R + 3)% per annum. What
is the value of (2R + 5)?
Statement I: X invested Rs. P and Rs. (P + 1500) at the same rate of interest (R
+ 3)% per annum for the same number of years at SI and CI respectively.
Statement II: Y invested Rs. 2P at 24% per annum earning simple interest (Rs.
7200) for 5 years and invested (P + 9000) at R% per annum under compound
interest which amounts to Rs.18750 after two years.
1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Both statements together are necessary to answer the question.
5) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

97. Four persons P, Q, R and S entered into the partnership together, initial investment
of P is 60% less than that of Q, while initial investment of R is twice as that of S.
P and S left after eight months from start of business. What is the total profit
earned by Q and S together at the end of one year, total profit is Rs. 8600.
Statement I: Profit share of R is 4.5 times as that of P.
Statement II: Profit share of R is Rs. 600 more than that of Q.
1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Both statements together are necessary to answer the question.
5) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

r’s
Direction (98-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
The total number of manufactured vehicles (Auto + Small truck) from all five
companies together is 8600 more than that of the total number of Autos. The
number of Small trucks from Atul is 600 less than the total number of vehicles
ha
from TVS. The total number of Small trucks from Mahindra is 200 more than that
2
of Bajaj, which is 16 % more than Small trucks from TVS. The number of Small
3

E
trucks from Piaggio is 125% as that of Mahindra. Respective ratio of the total
number of vehicles to the number of Autos from Bajaj is 3:1 and the total number
d
of Autos from Atul is 1300. The total number of vehicles from Mahindra is 20%
less than that of Piaggio, while the number of Autos from Piaggio is 300 more
than that from Mahindra. The ratio of the total number of Small trucks
ee

manufactured from Atul to that of from all given company together is 12:43.
98. The total number of vehicles from Atul and TVS together is approximately how
much percentage more than the total number of Autos from these companies
C
together?
1) 116% 2) 55% 3) 97% 4) 14% 5) 125%
Sr

99. The total number of Autos from Piaggio and Mahindra together is how much more
or less than the difference between the total number of vehicles in Bajaj and
Atul?
1) 4225 2) 3750 3) 1100 4) 3100 5) 1750
100. The total number of Small trucks from Bajaj, TVS and Atul together is
approximately how much percentage of the sum of the total number of vehicles
from Atul and Mahindra together?
C
1) 85% 2) 77% 3) 65% 4) 52% 5) 80%
Direction (101 – 105): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value

101. 371.33 – 58.73 – 16.02² –  91.22  17.22  58.32 =?

1) 18 2) 31 3) 72 4) 91 5) 53
102. 620 – 9.92 = ?² + 39.93% of 20.2 – 14.65% of 59.9
1) 28 2) 15 3) 12 4) 4 5) 8
103. ? = [(5.01 ÷ 1.99) × (11.09 ÷ 4.91)]/[(3.98 ÷ 5.02) × (13.89 ÷ 6.11)]
1) 12 2) 1 3) 15 4) 3 5) 7
104. 457 ÷ 13 + 25% of ? – 599.9 ÷ 14.8 = 58.8 + 35.02% of 79.98
1) 370 2) 260 3) 225 4) 198 5) 280
105. ?2 = 35.01% of 59.90 – 15% of 79.90 + 59.87% of 149.98
1) 16 2) 5 3) 10 4) 49 5) 19

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Direction (106 – 107): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship
between two Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
106. Roma and Saran started a business with investments of Rs.25000 and Rs. (25000+x)
respectively. Saran invested for 3 months. After the end of the year the ratio of
share of Roma and Saran is 10:3.
Quantity I: If Saran invested his initial amount for 7 months and at the end of
the year the total profit is Rs.17000, then the profit of Saran is:
Quantity II: If at the end of the year total profit is Rs.19500, then the difference
between the Roma’s share and the value of x is:
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II

r’s
3) Quantity I < Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be determined
107. A person invested Rs.45000 in scheme A for 2 years at 15% CI compounded
annually.
Quantity I: The interest earned from a scheme is 4634 in 3 years at 10% CI. The
sum invested in the scheme is:
ha
Quantity II: The interest earned from scheme A is invested in scheme B for 4
years at 24% SI. The interest earned from scheme B is:
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II

108.

E
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I > Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be determined
Quantity I: A bag contains four green balls, three red balls and five blue balls. If
d
three balls are taken out at random, what is the probability of getting at least
one green ball & one blue ball?
Quantity II: There are five red toys and six green toys in a carton. If four toys are
ee

drawn at random then what is the probability of getting at least two green toys?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be determined
C
4) Quantity I  Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
109. Two trains A and B, are moving in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The
length of train A is 83.5 meters more than that of train B. train A crosses a
Sr

stationary pole in 12.94 seconds, while train B crosses the same pole in 10
seconds. The two trains cross each other in 11.5 seconds. What is the sum of
speed of the two trains?
1) 50 m/sec 2) 20 m/sec 3) 40 m/sec 4) 30 m/sec 5) 49 m/sec
Directions (110-114): Study the pie chart and table carefully and answer the
given questions.
The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of Food
C
items in four bakeries A, B, C and D.
The total number of items in all bakeries together = 4500

(a x b)/2.5
(b x c) A
B
C
D
4b
4c

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

The table gives the information about the ratio between the number of Breads,
Pizza and Burgers in all given bakeries.

The ratio between the

number of breads,
Pizza and Burgers
A 4:5:4
B 5:9:6
C 6:4:5

r’s
D 5:6:4

Note:
1. The average of a, b and c is 8.
2. The ratio of the number of items in bakery A and that D is 13 : 15.
ha
110. The total number of Breads and Pizza in bakery A and C together is how much
more/less than total number of Pizza and Burger in bakery B and D together?
1) 70 2) 150 3) 130 4) 45 5) 180

E
111. When in bakery E, the number of Breads is 20% more than that of bakery B, the

number of Pizzas is 25% less than that of bakery C, the number of Burgers is
4
rd
d
3
of Burgers in bakery D. If the ratio of the total number of items in bakery E to
bakery F is 3:4, then what is the total number of items in the bakery F?
ee

1) 1288 2) 966 3) 1790 4) 1164 5) 1084

112. What is the ratio of the average number of Breads in bakery A, B and C together
to the average number of Burgers in bakery B, C and D together?
C
1) 116 : 113 2) 113 : 110 3) 116 : 115 4) 124 : 125 5) 117 : 119
113. In all the given bakeries, each Bread has 15 slices, each Pizza has 6 slices and
Sr

each Burger has 3 slices. What is the difference between the total number of
slices of Burgers and Pizzas in bakery A and the total number of slices of Breads
and Pizzas in bakery B?
1) 2435 2) 1325 3) 2420 4) 2340 5) 2025
114. The sum of the total number of Burgers and Pizza in bakery C and the total
number of Breads and Pizza in bakery B is approximately what percentage of
total number of items in bakery B and C together?
C
1) 76% 2) 69% 3) 65% 4) 59% 5) 72%
115. Vessel A contains a mixture of milk and water and Vessel B contains a mixture
of 120 liters mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7: 5 and the total quantity
of Vessel A and 50% of the mixture of Vessel B are mixed together in a new
empty vessel, then the ratio of the milk to water becomes 6: 7, while the total
quantity of Vessel B and 50% of the mixture of Vessel A are mixed together in a
new empty vessel, then the ratio of the milk to water becomes 33: 29. What is
the ratio of the quantity of milk to water in Vessel A initially?
1) 5: 9 2) 6: 7 3) 1: 2 4) 5: 3 5) 4: 7
Directions (116-120): Following question contains two equations as I and II. You
have to solve both equations and determine the relationship between them and
give an answer as,
116. I: 6y2 + 30y – 3000 = 0 II: 6x2 + 78x + 252 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y
4) x  y 5) x = y or relationship can’t be determined

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

117. I: 17x + 21y = 13.75 II: 21x + 17y = 14.75

1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y
4) x  y 5) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
118. I: 4x2 – 15x + 13.5 = 0 II: 9y2 – 16y + 7 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
119. I: 9x2 + 18x + 5 = 0 II: 15y2 + 25y + 10 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
120. I: x2 + 38x + 361 = 0 II: y2 – 2y – 399 = 0

r’s
1) x > y 2) y  x
3) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
4) y  x 5) x < y
Direction (121-125): Study the following table and data carefully and answer
the questions:
ha
Some students complete their graduation from three different colleges A, B
and C in 5 different years - 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024 and 2025.

Y ea r

E
C o ll e ge A : Co lle ge B : C o lle ge C:
d
P erc e ntage of P erc e ntag e of P er c e ntage o f
st ud e nts w ho stu d e nts w ho stu d e nts w ho
co m p le te d the i r co mp le te d the i r co m p le te d the i r
ee

g ra d ua tion w ith gra d ua tion w ith g ra d ua tion w ith

re s p e ct to tha t of re s p e ct to tha t of re s p e ct to tha t of
co lle ge A i n 2 0 2 1 co lle ge B in 2 02 1 co lle g e C in 2 02 1
C
2022 120 95 110
Sr

2023 105 110 90

2024 110 115 80

2025 85 105 130

C
Note:
(i) The difference between the number of students completed from college A in
2024 and 2025 is 30.
(ii) In 2022, the average number of students completed from all the 3 colleges is
99 and the number of students completed from college B is 1 less than those
completed from college C.
121. Number of students completed their graduation from college C in 2022 and 2023
together is what percent of those completed their graduation from college A in
2022 and 2023 together?
5 1 1 49 23
1) 55 % 2) 45 % 3) 71 % 4) 41 % 5) 51 %
18 9 3 54 27
122. In college B, if the average number of students completed their graduation from
in 2024, 2025 and 2020 is 78, then the number of students completed their
graduation from in 2020 is what percent of those completed in 2021?
1) 72.5% 2) 90% 3) 75% 4) 82.5% 5) 74.5%

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

123. What is the average total number of students completed their graduation from
all the three colleges together in 2025, 2023 and 2024?
1) 192 2) 290 3) 278 4) 218 5) 196
124. What is the ratio of the total number of students completed their graduation
from all the 3 colleges together in 2023 to those in 2025?
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 7 : 5 4) 5 : 9 5) 4 : 5
125. Quantity I: What is the difference between the total number of students completed
their graduation from college A in all the 5 years together and those completed
their graduation from college B in all the 5 years together?

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Quantity II: What is 10 students less than the total number of students completed
their graduation from colleges B and A together in 2023?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be determined
ha
Direction (126-128): Three series I, II and III are given below and each series
follows the same pattern:
I: 512, _, _, 107, 80, _

E
II: 555, 339, 214, _, _, 115
III: 539, 323, (A + B), (A – B), 107
d
126. The 6th term of series III is what percent of the 6th term of series I?
1) 100% 2) 75% 3) 125% 4) 50% 5) 137.5%
127. What is the average of the 4th and 3rd terms of series II?
ee

 A  3B  2A  B
I) II) (A – B + 105) III) IV) (6B – 10)
2 2
C
Which of the following statement is correct about given question?
1) All I, II, III and IV 2) None 3) Only I and II
Sr

4) Only III and IV 5) Only I, III and IV

128. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
X: The difference between the 3rd and 6th terms of series I is 6th term of series
III.
Y: The 2nd term of series I is [2A – (B + 4)].
Z: B is 19% of A.
C
1) Only X 2) Only X and Y 3) Only X and Z
4) None is true 5) Only Y
129. Brahmi, Rudra and Venu entered into a partnership with an investment of
Rs.17700, Rs.14400 and Rs.16500 respectively and after ‘y’ months, Rudra
1
increased its investment by 33 % and Brahmi withdrew Rs.2700 from his
3
investment and at the end of one year, the ratio of the profit obtained by Brahmi,
Rudra and Venu is 645 : 688 : 660. What is the value of ‘y’?
1) 7 2) 9 3) 6 4) 5 5) 3
130. A shopkeeper marked the price of an article 40% more than the cost price of the
article and sold it to A after giving 20% discount on the marked price and A sold
it to B at profit of 35%. If the shopkeeper bought it at the cost price of Rs. 750,
then at what price did A sold the article to B?
1) Rs.1000 2) Rs.1068.75 3) Rs.1134 4) Rs.1428 5) Rs.1127.6

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Directions (131 – 135): Study the following table and information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
The table depicts the different numbers of students learn martial arts (Karate
and Boxing) in five learning centres (A, B, C, D and E). The number of students
who are learn Karate and Boxing and the ratio of the number of boys and girls
who are learn Karate and Boxing from each centre.

Centre Number of students learn Ratio between number

of boys and girls

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Karate Boxing Karate Boxing
A x+60 z-10 3:2 1:2
B z+m-10 x 5:4 3:1
C y ha y+40 4:5 6:5
D x+m y+m+60 3:2 8:7
E x y+m 2:1 2:3

NOTE:

E
1) Number of girls who learn Karate in centre B is 120.
d
2) Number of boys who learn Karate in centre E is 160.
3) Number of boys who learn Boxing in centre A is 50.
4) Number of girls who learn Boxing in centre E is 180.
ee

131. In centre D, the number of boys who learn karate and boxing together is
approximately what percentage more/ less than the number of girls who learn
C
karate and boxing together?
1) 36 2) 31 3) 25 4) 42 5) 12
132. Which of the statements is TRUE?
Sr

(i) Difference in the number of boys and girls who learn Boxing in centre A is
equal to the difference between the number of boys and girls who learn Karate in
centre E.
(ii) Number of boys who learn Karate in centre B is equal to the number of
students who learn Boxing in centre A.
(iii) The number of girls who learn Karate in centre C is equal to 44 less than the
C
number of boys who learn Boxing in centre D.
1) Both ii & iii are true 2) Only i is true
3) Only iii is true 4) Only ii is true 5) None of these
133. What is the difference between the number of boys who learn Karate in centre C
and D together and the number of girls who learn Boxing from B and D together?
1) 72 2) 57 3) 60 4) 90 5) 68
134. The total number of boys who learn Karate in centres A, B and E together is what
percent of the total number of students who learn Boxing in centres B and D?
2 1 1 2
1) 81 2) 91 3) 102 4) 120 5) 66
3 3 2 3
5 2
135. If N = 55 % of y + 62.5% of z + 16 % of x – m% of 40, then what is the value of N?
9 3
1) 110 2) 172 3) 124 4) 159 5) 192

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Direction (136-140): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions.
The following scatter chart shows the cost price (CP) and selling price (SP) of five
different products A, B, C, D and E. (in Rupees)

900
C
850
D
800

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750
B
SP

700
A
650

600
E
ha
550

500

E
d
400 500 600 700 800 900
ee

CP
C
Note:
 SP  CP 
Sr

(i) Profit percentage = ×100

CP
(ii) Profit = SP – CP
136. If the marked price of B and D is 25% and 20% above their cost price respectively.
1
If product E was sold at 11 % discount, then what is the difference between
9
C
average marked price of B and D and marked price of E?
1) Rs. 100 2) Rs. 80 3) Rs. 180 4) Rs. 108 5) Rs. 150
137. What is the ratio of the profit percentage of product D to the profit percentage of
product B?
1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 4 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 5 5) 2 : 3
2
138. If the product P is sold at the price of 6 % more than selling price of product E.
3
The ratio between profit of E and P is 15:16. What is the percentage value of profit
earned by product P?
1 1
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 33 % 4) 27 % 5) 40%
3 2
139. If the price of the product C is marked up by 20% above the cost price, then what
is the discount percentage on marked price?
1) 12.5 2) 25 3) 21.25 4) 16.67 5) 22.5

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

140. If product A is sold at 20% discount on its marked price. What is the value of
marked price and the marked up percentage above the cost price respectively?
17 4 5
1) Rs.700 and 29 % 2) Rs.780 and 44 % 3) Rs.840 and 55 %
27 9 9
4 25
4) Rs.800 and 48 % 5) Rs.680 and 25 %
27 27
REASONING
Directions (141-142): In every question two rows are given and to find out the

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resultant of a particular row you need to follow the following steps. The operations
of numbers progress from left to right.
Step 1: If an odd number is followed by prime number then the resultant will be
the multiplication of both numbers.
Step 2: If an odd number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect
ha
square then the resultant will be the addition of two numbers.
Step 3: If an even number is followed by a perfect square then the resultant will
be the difference between the two numbers.

E
Step 4: If an even number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect
square then the resultant will be the division of first number by second number.
d
Step 5: If an even number is followed by an odd number which is not a perfect
square then the resultant will be the difference between the two numbers.
ee

141. What is the sum of resultants of both the rows?

30 64 81
C
57 92 3
Sr

1) 564 2) 89 3) 494 4) 400 5) 62

142. What is the resultant of the second row if ‘A’ is the resultant of the first row?

54 6 37
C
A 10 5

1) 1715 2) 2215 3) 433 4) 9 5) 51

Directions (143-146): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a linear row such
that all of them are facing towards North but not necessarily in the same order.
They were born in different years. Their ages are calculated with respect to the
base year 2022.
F’s age is 36. F sits third to the right of the one who is one year elder than
F but none of them sits at any of the ends of the row. E sits to the left of the one
who was born in 1985. E’s age is equal to the sum of the digits of the F’s born
year. Only two persons sit between E and G. The number of persons sitting
between E and G is the same as the number of persons sitting between F and A.
The number of persons sitting to the left of A is the same as the number of

22
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

persons sitting to the right of the one whose age is half of the age of F. B is an
immediate neighbour of the one whose age is six years elder than G. The one
who was born in 1990 sits third to the left of the one who was born in 1994. The
difference between the ages of B and C is the same as the difference between
the ages of D and G. G is younger than D. C is elder than F.
143. What is the age of the person who is the eldest one?
1) 36y 2) 37y 3) 42y 4) 41y 5) 45y
144. How many persons sit between the one who is youngest one and B?

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1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) Four 5) None
145. What is the difference between the ages of D and the one who sits at an extreme
left end of the row?
1) 5y 2) 4y ha 3) 10y 4) 8y 5) 6y
146. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of G?
1) D and F 2) F and C 3) E and D 4) D and C 5) B and E
147. Read the given information and answer the question :

E
A separate area, maintained at 22°C will be built in the factory of Company X
specifically for the new packaging machine which the Company purchased in
d
order to increase profits. The electricity bills for cooling the area alone will run
to almost Rs.9 lacs per month. Which of the following can be concluded from the
ee

given statement?
(A) Company X has been making losses to at least some extent at present.
C
(B) Profit earned per month by the company from this machine is definitely expected
to be more than Rs.9 lacs.
Sr

(C) The main revenue generated from the factory is through packaging of goods.
(D) The new machine is temperature sensitive which must be controlled for its
efficient functioning.
1) Both (A) and (C) 2) Both (B) and (D)
3) Both (A) and (D) 4) Only (C) 5) Only (A)
C
148. The Government has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as
there is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in
future months. Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
1) People may ignore the appeal and continue using water as per their
consideration.
2) Government may be able to tap those who do not respond to the appeal.
3) Government may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the
event of a crisis situation.
4) Large number of people may positively respond to the Government's appeal and
help tide over the crisis.
5) Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

149. Read the given information and answer the question:

The price of petrol in country A is likely to increase even further this year despite
severe opposition from the local public. Common man will not be able to afford
petrol any more if these rates continue in the market-statement made by one of
the locals.
Which of the following can be a reason for such increase in the price of petrol ?
1) The sale of private vehicles this year has not been as good as the last year
however, it has been estimated that the figures will improve by the end of the
year.
2) Many private companies are not happy with the upper limit put by the government

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on the price that can be charged for selling petrol and have submitted a concern
letter regarding the same.
3) Although the cost of crude oil the most important determinant of the retail
cost of petrol, has remained stable over a period of time, it has been estimated to
increase this year.
ha
4) Due to high consumption of petrol the country had to import a large quantity of
petrol this year more than what it had imported in the past five years together.
5) This year the inflation in country A has been curtailed to some extent and as

petrol this year.

E
a result government has been planning to revise the support price allocated for

Directions (150-151): In the following questions, the symbols &, #, %, @ and +

d
are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘A & B’ means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
‘A # B’ means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
ee

‘A % B’ means A is neither greater nor smaller than B

‘A @ B’ means A is not smaller than B
‘A + B’ means A is not greater than B
C
In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true,
find out which of the two conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely
Sr

true. Give answer

150. Statements: F @ E @ U % D + G; K @ H % W # U & S
Conclusions: I. K + E II. F & H III. S # G
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) All conclusions I, II and III are true 4) Both conclusions II and III are true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
C
151. Statements: A + S # O & M % K; Y @ Z & D % O @ F
Conclusions: I. F @ A II. M # Z III. K & Y
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) None of the conclusions is true 4) Both conclusions II and III are true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
Directions (152-155): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine persons viz. A, B, O, P, Q, R, S, T and W live on three different floors of
a three storeyed building where the lowermost floor is numbered one, the one
above that is numbered two and the topmost floor is numbered three. On each
floor there are three flats viz. Flat 1, Flat 2 and Flat 3 such that flat 1 is exactly
to the west of flat 2 and flat 3 is exactly west of flat 3.. Flat 1 of floor numbered
two is immediately above flat 1 of floor numbered one. Similarly, flat 3 of floor
numbered three is immediately above flat 3 of floor numbered two and so on. Area
of each flat on each floor is same. Each one of them likes different countries viz.
Kuwait, Japan, India, USA, Turkey, Germany, Spain, France and China.

24
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Note: (A lives immediately above/below B indicates that Both A and B lives in

same numbered Flat).
O lives in the same floor with A. S lives immediately below O. B lives
immediately below A. R lives on an even -numbered flat in even-numbered floor.
P and W lives on even-numbered flats. W lives immediately below R. Q lives on an
odd numbered floor. Q lives on one of the same flat above S. The persons who
likes Japan, India and Turkey live in odd numbered floor on odd numbered flat. A
lives on flat - 1. The persons who likes Germany, Kuwait and USA live in an even
numbered floor. The person who likes Kuwait lives immediately below the one
who likes Spain. The one who likes France lives on an even numbered flat. The

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person who likes Germany lives immediately above the one who likes India. The
flat number of the person who likes India is not more than 2. The persons who
like Turkey and China live on the same numbered flat. The one who likes Turkey
lives in the same floor with the one who likes Japan.
152. Who lamong the following person lives immediately above the one who likes Japan?

153.
1) P 2) Q
ha 3) R 4) S 5) No one
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following

154.
1) Q 2) T

E
does not belong to that group?
3) W 4) B 5) S
If B is related to France, similarly A is related to Kuwait. In the similar way, T is
d
related to?
1) Japan 2) Spain 3) USA 4) Germany 5) India
155. How many flats are there between O’s flat and the person who likes Kuwait?
ee

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

5) Cannot be determined
Directions (156-157): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
questions :
Statement: According to a report the Railways department of country X earned
Sr

an additional 20% revenue in overall ticket sales through dynamic pricing or

flexi-fare on certain trains during the past two years. Dynamic pricing is applicable
to only 2% of the total number of trains currently operated by the Railways
department. Functioning of the dynamic pricing process is such that, say for a
train which has 500 seats, tickets for the first 50 (i.e. 10%) seats are sold at the
base price, tickets for the next 50 seats are sold at 10% premium over the base
C
price, tickets for the next 50 seats are sold at 20% premium over the base price.
The maximum premium that can be charged is 50% over the base price i.e. the
maximum price at which tickets for a particular train can be sold is 150% of the
base price.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the given statement ?
(A) The tickets of atleast some of the trains which come under the dynamic
pricing are among the most highly priced trains of the country.
(B) Only five percent of the seats in the trains with dynamic pricing went vacant
in the previous two years.
(C) Ninety five percent of tickets were booked at the highest price possible in all
the trains under dynamic pricing.
(D) The prices of tickets provided on concessional rates to senior citizens, women
and students are same on all the trains which are run by the Railways
department.
1) All A, B, C and D 2) Only A 3) Only C
4) Both A & D 5) Only B

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

157. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows;
Archeological surveyors found that ‘pozzolana’ cement was used in certain
structures built in country Auzla. The fact that this cement was originally made
in country Pozzolan using volcanic ash which is abundantly found in Pozzolan,
proves that the material was imported from Pozzolan to Auzla.
Which of the fallowing is an assumption implicit in the given statement ?
1) Pozzolan did not have to import cement tram Auzia at that time.
2) Volcanic ash was commonly used in fencing material for all structures at that

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time in and around Auzia.
3) Pozzolana cement was not being produced in Auzla for certain reasons.
4) Auzla definitely had substantially less volcanic ash at that time as compared
toPozzolan.
ha
5) Pozzolan cement is not famous in Auzla.
Directions (158-161): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

E
A machine rearrangement is given an input line having both words and numbers
d
in a particular set of rules in step by step. The following is an illustration of input
and its rearrangement.
ee

Input: union 2864 8476 knife 1863 moist zebra 7251 judge 5679
Step I: 18 j dg@ union 2864 8476 knife moist zebra 7251 5679
C
Step II: 18 j dg@ union 8476 moist zebra 7251 5679 20 kn%f@
Step III: 27 m %st 18 j dg@ union 8476 zebra 7251 20 kn%f@
Sr

Step IV: 27 m %st 18 j dg@ 8476 zebra 20 kn%f@ 15 n%?n

Step V: 25 z@br# 27 m %st 18 j dg@ 20 kn%f@ 15 n%?n
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find appropriate steps for given
input.
Input: paint 3975 9368 mouth 1572 odour shade 8164 fibre 5483
C
158. What is the sum of the second element from the right end in step II and the third
element from the left end in step IV?
1) 40 2) 51 3) 24 4) 39 5) 44
159. Which element would be in the 4th position from the right of ‘shade’ in step IV?
1) 19 2) P#%nt 3) 24 4) 20 5) d r
160. Which step number is the following output?
20 d r 15 f%br@ paint 9368 shade 8164 24 m th
1) Step I 2) Step III 3) Step IV 4) Step V 5) Step II
161. What is the subtraction of first element from the left end in step V and fourth
element from the right end in step IV?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 7 4) 9 5) 1

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Directions (162-165): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Twelve persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, M, N, O and P are sitting around a
hexagonal table and some of them like different colours. Six persons sit at the
corners of the table facing towards the center and the rest of them sit in the
middle of the sides of the table facing away from the center.
O is the immediate neighbour of both E and A, who likes Grey. O does not sit
at any corners of the table. C likes pink and sits third to the left of E. Only two
persons sit between B and C. B does not sit at any middle side of the table. The

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person who likes Green is sitting exactly between A and B. G sits third to the
right of the one who likes Green. P is an immediate neighbour of N, who sits
opposite to D, who faces away from the centre. M sits third to the left of D. The
persons who like Black and Green sit opposite to each other. The one who likes
ha
Blue is sitting fourth to the left of the one who likes Black. The one who likes
White is sitting fourth to the right of F, who does not like Green. O does not like
the white colour.
162.
2) Eight

E
How many persons sit between H and M, when counted from left of M?
1) Seven 3) Four 4) Three 5) More than seven
d
163. Who among the following sits immediate to the right of the one who likes Green?
1) H 2) D 3) B 4) O 5) F
164. What is the position of G with respect to F?
ee

1) 4th to the right 2) 4th to the left 3) 7th to the left

4) 6th to the right 5) Both (1) and (2)
C
165. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?
I. H likes Green.
Sr

II. E sits second to the left of A.

III. P sits opposite to F.
1) Both I and III 2) Both I and II 3) Only II
4) Both II and III 5) Only I
166. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
Officials claim that all efforts to improve the condition of the drainage system in
C
city A. to stop water logging, are futile as the city experiences very heavy rainfall
each year which leads to water logging.
Which of the following statements weakens the claim of the officials?
1) Most people in city A are distressed about water logging in various important
areas of the city and many complaints have been sent to the State government
regarding the same.
2) The transportation services of city A are also affected badly in the monsoons
due to heavy rainfall
3) Many roads in city A are usually under maintenance causing inconvenience to
commuters.
4) People of city Z. despite experiencing similar weather conditions like city A.
have never faced the issue
5) The rainfall in city A is three times the rainfall in city M its neighbouring city.

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

167. The rate of violent crime in this state is increased up to 30% from last year. The
fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judge's sentences have
been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long
prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
1) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this
state
2) White-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last
year
3) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget
cuts

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4) Polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
5) None of the above
168. If ‘PRECIOUS’ is coded as ‘p?%O*&+©’ and ‘ADVOCATE’ is coded as ‘#@$&O#£%’
then what is the word for the code ‘O# p£+?% @’?
1) STRAINED 2) CAPTIOUS 3) ASTEROID 4) CAPTATOR 5) CAPTURED
Directions (169-171): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
ha
P % Q (17) - P is 22m South of Q
P @ Q (9) - P is 14m North of Q

E
P # Q (2) - P is 4m West of Q
P & Q (21) - P is 26m East of Q
P @& Q – P is North-East of Q
d
P %# Q – P is South-West of Q
K @ V (2), Z % W (24), X & Z (37), J # K (16), D @ J (9), D & W (19)
169. What is the distance between V and X (in metres)?
ee

1) 15 2) 14 3) 8 4) 12 5) 7
170. If M is the North of X and the East of D, then what is the distance between M and
K (in metres)?
1) 18 2) 29 3) 21 4) 14 5) 7
C
171. Z is in which direction with respect to D?
1) Z % D 2) Z %& D 3) Z @& D 4) Z %# D 5) Z & D
Sr

Direction (172-174): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
172. Six people viz. C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line with equal
distance between each other and facing North. How many persons sit between E
and D?
Statement I: C sits third from the left end or right end of the line. Only one
C
person sits between C and H. Only two people sit between E and G. G sits at one
of the positions to the right of E.
Statement II: E sits third to the left of G. G does not sit at any extreme end of
the line. More than three people sit between H and F. F sits at one of the positions
to the right of H.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question

28
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

173. Five persons — P, Q, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table with all of
them facing towards the centre. Who sits to the immediate left of Q?
Statement I: P sits third to right of Q. X sits third to right of P.
Statement II: Q sits immediate left of X who sits second to left of P. Y does not
sit adjacent to Q.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

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3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
ha
174. How is ‘gone’ written in that code language?

E
Statement I: In a certain code language, ‘gone are those days’ is written as ‘ki vo
tu mpi’ and ‘those days were good’ is written as ‘ki fo mpi ta’.
d
Statement II: In a certain code language, ‘many days passed’ is written as ‘ti mpi
dis’ and ‘those good years’ is written as ‘ko ki ta’.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
ee

data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
C
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to answer
Sr

the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
175. In the series, four letter words are given with one letter is missing which are
C
represented by a blank. Which of the following options fit perfectly in the blanks
following the same pattern?
B_HM _IKP HL_S KOQ_
1) EFMU 2) FGPV 3) EEOV 4) FEMV 5) FENV
Directions (176-179): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Twelve boxes viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are kept in two stacks
viz. Stack X and Stack Y such that the bottommost box is numbered as 1 and the
topmost box is numbered as 6. Stack X is in west of Stack Y. All boxes are of same
dimension. Some of the boxes are of different colours.
Note: If it is given that Box M is kept one/two/three boxes above/below Box N,
then, both the boxes are kept in the same type of stack unless stated otherwise.
If it is given that Box M is kept adjacent to Box N, then Box M is either west/east
of Box N unless stated otherwise.

29
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Purple coloured box is kept at three places above the green coloured box.
Box G is kept adjacent to green coloured box. Box L is kept three places below box
D. Box D is kept at an even numbered position. Box H is kept at two boxes above
box I, which is kept adjacent to box L. Box C, which is a yellow-coloured box is
kept two places above the pink coloured box. Box F is kept at three places above
box E, which is kept at an even numbered position. Box C and Box E are kept in
different type of stack. Box J is kept at one place above box K. Box A and box B are
kept in the same type of stack. Box B is not kept adjacent to box H. Box G, which
is a black coloured box, is not kept in Stack Y. Red coloured box is kept one place

r’s
above box H, but not in the same type of stack. Pink and Red coloured boxes are
kept adjacent to one another.
176. Which of the following boxes are kept in stack Y?
I. F II. L III. A
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III

177.
4) Only III
ha 5) All I, II and III
Box K is kept how many places above Box H in stack X?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) More than three 5) None of these
178.

E
Which of the following statements is/are definitely correct?
1) Box C and Box B are adjacent boxes of different stacks.
d
2) Box A is kept three places above Box L.
3) Box K is green coloured box.
4) Box D and Box A are adjacent boxes of different stacks.
ee

5) None of the above

179. Box J is kept adjacent to which of the following box in different type of stack?
C
1) B 2) F 3) H 4) C 5) None of these
Directions (180-181): The Budget session began on a stormy note as opposition
Sr

members demanding a debate on the recent hate crimes against Indians living
in the USA. Congress blamed the Modi government for remaining silent on the
attacks against Indians in US. In his reply, Union Home Minister said that the
government has taken a serious note and PM will reply in next week of Parliament
session. In recent weeks, at least two Indians have been killed in incidents of
hate crime in the US. Each attack involved a slogan. Go back to your country.
C
America condemned it but is not taking any steps to address the issue.
180. What may be the repercussions after recent attacks on Indians in US?
I. There may be impact on Indian-US trade policy.
II. Indian Government will coerce US Government.
III. American Govt will give life imprisonment to accused to make a set mark that
America is against racism.
1) Only I 2) Only I and III 3) Only III
4) Only I and II 5) None of these
181. Which of the following substantiates the laxity of Indian-American Government?
I. Modi govt has taken a serious note and ready to reply in next week of parliament
session.
II. Condemning the attack but not taking any steps by American Govt.
III. Still there is no action as racism slogan “Go back to your country's is spreading.”
1) Only III 2) Only I and II 3) All of three
4) Only II 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Directions (182-184): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
A@B – A is the daughter of B
A&B – A is the father of B
A$B – A is the son of B
A%B – A is the mother of B
A#B – A is the husband of B
A*B – A is the wife of B
A^B – A is the brother of B
182. If J @ P ^ K * Q & R __ L, then which of the following symbol should be in between

r’s
R and L to prove that R is the nephew of P?
1) & 2) # 3) ^ 4) * 5) &, # and ^
183. Which of the following statements is not true if the expression ‘T$M^X@N*K&W#Y’
is definitely true?
1) T is the nephew of W 2) Y is aunt of T

5) All are correct

ha
3) N is grandmother of T 4) X is daughter-in-law of Y

184. What should come in the place of blank places to establish that A is the niece of

1) @, ^ 2) *, ^

E
F in the expression ‘A __ B#C@D*E __ F in the same order?
3) @, & 4) $, & 5) @, @
Directions (185-186): The critical reasoning question is based on a short
d
argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the
best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right
fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at
ee

variance from the commonly known facts.

185. Statement: The workers not only quit their jobs but also came together for a
strike against their employer's inappropriate demeanour towards a fellow worker.
C
The employer was compelled to eat his words and publically repent his conduct.
Which of the following assertions can definitely be drawn from the above
Sr

statements?
1) The workers’ unified strike forced the employer to publicly apologize for his
actions.
2) The employer is a bad person and the workers are good people.
3) The workers quit their jobs to put up a strike against the employer.
4) The employer's improper behaviour forced him to regret his actions later.
C
5) The workers came together for a strike because the employer made them quit
their jobs.
186. Statement: Soil erosion is a naturally occurring process that affects all land
forms. It refers to the wearing away of a field’s topsoil by natural physical forces
of water and wind. Topsoil which is high in organic matter, fertility and soil life
majorly contributes on the growing of crops. Soil erosion reduces cropland
productivity and causes the pollution of watercourses, wetlands and lakes.
Which of the following option does not show the step taken to prevent this?
1) Using of contour ploughing will help reduce soil erosion.
2) Soil erosion is a result of mankind's unwise actions such as overgrazing or
unsuitable cultivating practices.
3) Planting provides a protective cover on the land and slows down water as it
flows over the land and this allows much of the rain water to soak into the
ground.
4) Use of proper drainage canals.
5) Terracing of the sloping fields.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 33

Directions (187-190): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons have their birthday on seven different dates of seven different
months viz. January, February, March, April, May, June and July. U has birthday
on 10. Difference between the dates of birthdays of U and S is 6. There is a
difference of more than 12 days between the birthdays of P and Q. V's birthday is
in the month having least number of days. Q's birthday is in a month having
30days. S's birthday is in a month immediately after U but in a month having 30

r’s
days. P's birthday is in one of the months after S's birthday. The one whose
birthday is in a month having least number of days has birthday on 24. Difference
between the dates of the birthdays of S and V is not more than 10. The one
whose birthday is in June has birthday on a date which is immediately after V's
ha
birthday. P's birthday is on an odd date but not less than 10. The one whose
birthday is in May has birthday on an even date after the date on which Q's has
birthday. R has birthday in the month having more than 27 days but less than 30

E
days. The difference between the dates of the birthdays of T and V is same as the
difference between the dates of the birthdays of V and R.
d
187. S has birthday in which of the following month?
1) March 2) May 3) January 4) April 5) July
ee

188. Q has birthday on which of the following date?

1) 16 2) 10 3) 20 4) 25 5) none of these
C
189. How many months gap is there between the birthday months of T and R?
1) Two 2) One 3) None 4) Three 5) More than three
Sr

190. P has birthday on which of the following date?

1) 16 2) 11 3) 20 4) 25 5) 21

KEY
1.5 2.3 3.3 4.2 5.2 6.4 7.1 8.3 9.5 10.2
11.1 12.5 13.1 14.3 15.1 16.5 17.5 18.2 19.1 20.3
C
21.4 22.2 23.4 24.3 25.5 26.4 27.5 28.2 29.3 30.4
31.1 32.3 33.2 34.4 35.3 36.3 37.2 38.3 39.4 40.1
41.2 42.4 43.1 44.5 45.2 46.3 47.5 48.2 49.5 50.1
SCAN QR FOR
51.3 52.1 53.2 54.3 55.5 56.3 57.1 58.2 59.1 60.5
OUR RESULTS
61.1 62.5 63.1 64.3 65.3 66.4 67.2 68.2 69.3 70.3
71.2 72.5 73.1 74.2 75.3 76.4 77.4 78.3 79.3 80.2
81.1 82.2 83.5 84.4 85.4 86.3 87.4 88.2 89.2 90.3
91.5 92.5 93.5 94.1 95.3 96.2 97.3 98.1 99.3 100.2
101.5 102.4 103.4 104.1 105.3 106.3 107.4 108.2 109.5 110.4
111.1 112.2 113.5 114.3 115.1 116.5 117.1 118.1 119.5 120.4
121.5 122.1 123.3 124.2 125.5 126.5 127.4 128.2 129.4 130.3
131.2 132.4 133.5 134.1 135.5 136.5 137.4 138.3 139.1 140.4
141.3 142.1 143.3 144.2 145.2 146.1 147.2 148.4 149.3 150.4
151.2 152.5 153.3 154.2 155.1 156.2 157.1 158.4 159.2 160.2
161.1 162.4 163.2 164.2 165.2 166.1 167.3 168.5 169.3 170.4
171.4 172.3 173.2 174.5 175.5 176.5 177.1 178.1 179.2 180.4
181.3 182.5 183.4 184.3 185.1 186.2 187.4 188.4 189.4 190.2

32