BISE EXAMINATION - 2026

CHEMISTRY 11
(Reduced Syllabus)
(i) Which one do you think is correct about (b) It becomes more negative from top to
metallic character? bottom.
(a) It decreases from top to bottom in a (c) It remains the same.
group. (d) It has no definite trend and changes
(b) It increases from top to bottom in a irregularly.
group. (vi) What is the oxidation state of sulfur in the
(c) It remains constant from left to right in –2
sulfate ion (SO4 ).
a period.
(a) + 4 (b) + 2
(d) It increases from left to right in a
period. (c) + 6 (d) 0
(ii) Which property increases as you go down (vii) Which is the correct trend in variation of
a group in the periodic table? electronegativity along a period of the
(a) Atomic radius (b) Electron Affinity periodic table?
(c) Electronegativity (d) Ionization energy (a) It decreases from left to right across a
period.
(iii)Which set of the following conditions
(b) It increases from left to right across a
results in higher ionization energy?
period.
(a) Smaller atom and greater nuclear charge.
(b) Smaller atom and smaller nuclear charge (c) It remains constant.
(d) It has no definite trend
(c) larger atom and greater nuclear charge
(d) larger atom and the smaller nuclear (viii) The atomic radius generally_____
charge across a period in the periodic table.
(a) Increases
(iv) Which of the following atoms show more
(b) Decreases
than one (variable) oxidation states?
(c) Remains constant
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium
(d) First increases then decreases
(c) Aluminum (d) Phosphorous
(v) Which is the correct general trend in the (ix) Which one of the following elements has
the highest ionization energy?
variation of electron affinity in a group?
(a) Sodium (Na) (b) Magnesium (Mg)
(a) It becomes less negative from top to
(c) Aluminum (Al) (d) Argon (Ar)
bottom.

1. Maximum electron affinity values of N 3. From which we can remove electron

are: easily?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) Cesium (B) Lithium
(C) 3 (D) None (C) Aluminum (D) Magnesium
2. Which of the following oxide is different in 4. Which of the following order is correct for
nature? the first ionization energies of following
(A) MgO (B) BeO elements?
(C) SrO (D) CaO (A) B < Be < N < O (B) B < Be < O < N
(C) Be < B < N < O (D) B < O < Be < N
6 Chapter 1 (Periodic Table and Periodic Properties)
5. Which of the following species has the 14. Which of the following would have the
highest ionization potential? lowest first ionization energies?
(A) Li+ (B) Al+ (A) Alkali metals
(C) Mg+ (D) Ne (B) Transition metals
6. For which element is the gaining of an (C) Halogens
electron most exothermic? (D) Alkaline Earth metals
(A) Li (B) N 15. Which equation correctly represents the
(C) F (D) B first ionization of aluminum?
(A) Al (s)  Al (g) + e
+1
7. Which property decreases as you move
1
down a column in the periodic table? (B) Alg) + e  Al (g)
(A) atomic size (B) ionization energy 1
(C) Al (g)  Al (g) + e
(C) metallic character (D) nuclear charge
(D) Al (g)  Al (g) + e
+1
8. The outermost configuration of most
16. Which of the following atoms would have
electronegative element is:
2 5 2 6 the largest second ionization energy?
(A) ns np (B) ns np
(A) Mg (B) Cl
(C) ns2 np4 (D) ns2
(C) S (D) Na
9. Which of following will show maximum
17. Removing an electron from sodium is an
penetration effect?
(A) 4f (B) 4d
_____ process and adding an electron to
(C) 4p (D) 4s chlorine is an _____ process:
10. The first four ionization energies of an element (A) Endothermic, exothermic
Z are 738, 1451, 7730 and 10541 kJ mol-1. (B) Exothermic, endothermic
Which one of following ions is most likely to be (C) Endothermic, endothermic
formed when Z reacts with fluorine? (D) Exothermic, exothermic
(A) Z2+
(B) Z3+ 18. When atomic radius increases electron
(C) Z4+ (D) Z+ affinity:
11. Magnitude of ionization energy depends (A) decreases (B) increases
upon: (C) remains constant (D) unpredictable
(A) number of positive charges 19. For electron affinity of halogens, which of
(B) shielding effect increases the following is correct?
(C) spin pair repulsion (A) Br < I (B) F > Cl
(D) All of the above (C) Br > Cl (D) F > I
12. Ionization energy between last element of 20. The ionization energy is _________ to the
one period and first element of next period size of an atom.
receives a rapid: (A) directly proportional (B) equal to
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) inversely proportional (D) independent
(C) constancy (D) neutral
13. Force of attraction between nucleus and
electrons increases across periods because:
(A) nuclear charge increases
(B) distance remains constant
(C) shielding effect almost constant
(D) All of the above
6 Chapter 1 (Periodic Table and Periodic Properties)

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) What is 1st ionization energy? Give an example.
(ii) Explain why sulphur has a lower first ionization energy than phosphorus.
(iii) What are the factors that affect electronegativity?
(iv) What factors are responsible for the increasing reactivity of alkali metals as you move down
the group?
(v) Why some of the elements show variable oxidation numbers while others do not?
(vi) Why oxides of sodium and magnesium are more ionic than the oxides of nitrogen and
phosphorous?
(vii) Give reason for the different chemical reactivities of Na and Mg toward oxygen and chlorine.
(viii) Why the ionization energy of lithium is much lower than that of helium despite the fact that
the nuclear charge of lithium is +3 and that of helium is +2?
(ix) The ionization energy of Be (atomic no. 4) is higher than that of B (atomic no. 5), despite the
fact that the nuclear charge of Be is +4 and that of B is +5.
(x) What is common in Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Ne0 and F−? Arrange them in increasing order of sizes.

Exam Advantage (Quick Check) Questions

(1) Which factors affect atomic and ionic radii?
(2) Explain with reasoning following facts about ionization energy:
(i) 1st ionization energy of Boron is lesser than Beryllium.
(ii) 1st ionization energy of Aluminum is lower than Magnesium.
(3) What trend is observed in ionization energy as you go down group 3? Give reason
(4) Explain with reasoning following facts about electron affinity:
(5) 1st electron affinity of oxygen is –141 kJ mol–1 but 2nd electron affinity is +844.0 kJ mol–1.
(6) Which of nitrogen and phosphorus has the higher electron affinity? Justify with reason.
(7) F has lower electron affinity than Cl although its size is smaller. Explain why?
(8) Why noble gases (group-18) have positive 1st electron affinities? Explain in terms of
electronic configuration.
(9) Illustrate how does the metallic character vary in group 14?
(10) ZnO reacts with HCl to give ZnCl2 and with NaOH to give Na2ZnO2. Give equations and
also predict the type of this oxide?
(11) Why AlCl3 is an acidic halide, but NaCl not?
(12) Predict whether the chlorides PCl5, NCl3 would be acidic or basic, give reason.
(13) Would SO2 and P2O5 react with HCl and H2SO4 or with NaOH?
(14) Calculate the oxidation number of Sulphur in SO2 and SO3.
(15) Why some p block elements show variable oxidation state?
 (i) The quantum number ‘m’ of a free (b) He > F > N > O > Mg
gaseous atom is associated with: (c) He > O > F > N > Mg
(a) the effective volume of the orbital (d) N > F > He > O > Mg
(b) the shape of the orbital (vii) A p-orbital has a characteristic shape
(c) the spatial orientation of the orbital with how many lobes?
(d) the energy of the orbital in the (a) 1 (b) 2
absence of a magnetic field (c) 3 (d) 4
(ii) When 3d subshell is completely filled, (viii) The three p-orbitals in a given energy
the next entering electron goes into: level are oriented:
(a) 4f (b) 4s (a) Along the same axis.
(c) 4p (d) 4d (b) At 45° to each other.
(iii)Quantum number values for 2p (c) Mutually perpendicular to each other
orbitals are: along the x, y, and z axes.
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 2 (d) In a complex tetrahedral arrangement.
(c) n = 1, l = 0 (d) n = 2, l = 0 (ix) How many d-orbitals are there in a
(iv) An electron having the set of values: given energy level?
n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 and s = +1/2 lies in: (a) 1 (b) 3
(a) 2s (b) 3s (c) 5 (d) 7
(c) 4s (d) 5s (x) What information does the principal
(v) The quantum number values (n, l, m) quantum number (n) gives us about
for the fourth electron of 94 Be atom orbitals?
are: (a) Size (b) Shape
(a) 1, 0, 0 (b) 2, 0, 0 (c) Size and shape (d) Spin
(c) 2, 1, 0 (d) 1, 1, 1 (xi) How many unpaired electrons are
(vi) The correct order of first ionization present in an atom of cobalt?
energies is: (a) Two (b) Three
(a) F > He > Mg > N > O (c) Four (d) Five

1. In the ground state of an atom, the electron is the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z=37)
present: is:
(A) in the nucleus (A) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (B) 5, 1, 1, +1/2
(B) in the second shell (C) 5, 1, 0, +1/2 (D) 5, 0, 1, +1/2
(C) nearest to the nucleus 5. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
(D) farthest from the nucleus is correct for an electron in 4f orbital?
2. Orbitals having same energy are called:
(A) hybrid orbitals (B) valence orbitals (A) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +(1/2)
(C) degenerate orbitals (D) d-orbitals (B) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +(1/2)
3. When 6d orbital is complete, the entering (C) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = +(1/2)
electron will go to: (D) n = 4, l = 4, m = 4, s = (1/2)
(A) 7f (B) 7s 6. Degenerate orbitals are those that contain same:
(C) 7p (D) 7d (A) wave function (B) energy
4. The correct set of four quantum numbers for
(C) orientation (D) shape
7. In a chromium atom, how many electrons have 19. Which electronic level would allow the
zero azimuthal quantum number? hydrogen atom to absorb a photon but not
(A) 1 (B) 7 emit a photon?
(C) 6 (D) 8 (A) 1s (B) 2s
8. Which of the following electronic (C) 2p (D) 3s
configuration is not possible? 20. The maximum number of electrons with
(A) [Kr] 4d8 5s2 (B) [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2 clockwise spin that can be accommodated in
7
(C) [Kr] 3d 4s 2
(D) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 “N” shell is:
9. The relative energies of 4s, 4p and 3d orbitals (A) 16 (B) 32
are in the order: (C) 18 (D) 8
(A) 4d < 4p < 4s (B) 4s < 3d < 4p 21. Hund’s rule is not followed in the electronic
(C) 4p < 4s < 3d (D) 4p < 3d < 4s configuration of which of the following
10. Which set has same number of unpaired element?
(A) Carbon (B) Nitrogen
electrons?
(C) Oxygen (D) Fluorine
(A) Fe2+, Mn+2 (B) Fe3+, Mn2+
3+ 2+ 22. For d-subshell, the azimuthal quantum
(C) Cr , Ni (D) Zn2+, Cu2+
number has a value of:
11. Quantum number of an atom can be defined (A) 1 (B) 2
on the basis of: (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Aufbau’s Principle 23. The number of electrons in a given sub-shell is
(B) Heisenberg’s uncertainty Principle given by:
(C) Hund’s rule (A) 2n2 (B) n2
(D) Pauli’s exclusion Principle (C) 2(2 – 1) (D) 4 + 2
12. How many electrons can be accommodated in
p-orbitals? 24. Electronic configuration of H is:
(A) 1s2 (B) 1s22s1
(A) 6 electrons (B) 2 electrons
(C) 1s1 (D) 1s22s2
(C) 4 electrons (D) 10 electrons
25. The number of orbitals present in a sublevel is
13. The orbital diagram in which Hund’s rule is given by the formula:
violated is:
(A) 2(2 + 1) (B) 2 + 1
(A) (B)
2
(C) n (D) 2n2
(C) (D) 26. In spectrum, the spin motion of electron is
14. When l = 2, the number of possible orbitals in responsible for:
sub-shell is: (A) Spectral lines (B) Fine structures
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) Double line structure (D) Degeneracy
(C) 09 (D) 10 27. (n + l ) value for 4p orbital is:
15. Which of the following quantum number (A) 4 (B) 5
explains the shape of orbitals: (C) 6 (D) 7
(A) Principal Q No. (B) Azimuthal Q No. 28. The quantum number which gives
(C) Magnetic Q No. (D) Spin Q No. information about degeneracy of orbitals
16. What is the electronic configuration for Fe2+? in space is:
(A) [Ar]4s23d6 (B) [Ar]4s23d4 (A) Principal quantum number
(C) [Ar]4s03d6 (D) [Ar]4s23d4
(B) Azimuthal quantum number
17. The maximum number of electrons with n = 3
(C) Magnetic quantum number
and l = 2 is: (D) Spin quantum number
(A) 10 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) Zero
18. In which of the following orbitals, lobes lie on
the axis:
(A) dxy (B) dyz
(C) dzx (D) dx2 - y2
Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions
(i) There are three orientations of p-orbital due to three values of magnetic quantum number.
Justify it.
(ii) ‘I3’ of Mg is much bigger than its ‘I2’. Justify.
(iii) Among the elements Li, K, Ca, S and Kr which one has the lowest first ionization energy?
Which has the highest first ionization.
(iv) Consider the electronic configuration of the potassium atom (atomic number 19). Write the
full electronic configuration of potassium using the s, p, d, f notation.
(v) Explain why the 4s subshell is filled before the 3d subshell in potassium, even though the
principal quantum number of the 3d subshell is lower.
(vi) State the general order of filling orbitals up to the 4p subshell.
(vii) Explain why the 4s subshell is filled before the 3d subshell, according to the Aufbau
principle.
Exam Advantage (Quick Check) Questions
(1) Calculate the number of neutrons in the following elements. 39
19 K, 17
35
Cl, 18
40
Ar .
(2) Which of electron, proton and neutron is deflected the most in the magnetic field?
(3) What information about an electron in an atom can be obtained from:
(i) Principal Quantum Number (ii) Azimuthal Quantum Number
(iii) Magnetic Quantum Number (iv) Spin Quantum Number
(4) For an electron(s):
(i) If n = 2 and l = 1, how many orientations in space are possible?
(ii) If n = 3 and l = 2, which shell and subshell does the electron belong to?
(iii) If l = 2, find all possible values of ‘m’ and maximum number of electrons for ‘m’.
(5) What does an orbital represent according to the wave mechanical model of atom?
(6) There are three orientations of p-orbital due to three values of magnetic quantum number.
Justify it.

LONG QUESTIONS
1. Describe the effect of electric field on electron, proton and neutron
2. What are quantum numbers? Describe briefly principal, Azimuthal, Magnetic and
spin quantum numbers.
3. Draw the shapes of s, p and d-orbitals. Justify these by keeping in view the azimuthal
and magnetic quantum numbers.
 (i) The numbers of σ and π bonds in the (a) 8 (b) 10
N2 molecule are: (c) 12 (d) 14
(a) one σ and one π bonds (v) How many extra electrons than a
(b) one σ and two π bonds normal octet are there in the valence
(c) three σ bonds only shell of I in ICl5?
(d) two σ and one π (a) 2 (b) 3
(ii) Which of the following species has (c) 4 (d) 5
unpaired electrons in antibonding (vi) What is the type and shape of [ICl4]–
molecular orbitals? according to the VSEPR model?
(a) O22+ (b) N22- a) AB4, tetrahedral
(c) B (d) F2 b) AB4, pyramidal
(iii)The shape of ICl3 according to the c) AB5, trigonal bipyramidal
VSEPR model is: d) AB6, square planar
(a) Tetrahedral (vii) Which of the following molecules has a
(b) Trigonal planar central atom with sp3 hybridization and
(c) Trigonal bipyramidal a tetrahedral electron pair geometry?
(d) T-shape (a) BF3 (b) SO2
(iv) How many electrons are present in the (c) CCl4 (d) PCl5
valence shell of P in PO43-?

1. A molecule has a central atom (A) CH4 (B) BH3

(C) CH
surrounded by 2 lone pairs and 3 atoms.
3 (D) CH+3
The best description for the shape of the
5. On hybridization of one s-orbital and one
molecule is:
p-orbital, we get;
(A) trigonal bipyramidal (B) bent
(A) mutual perpendicular orbitals
(C) octahedral (D) T-shaped
(B) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally
2. Predict the molecular geometry and
(C) two orbitals at 180o to each other
polarity of the SO2 molecule by applying
(D) three orbitals in one plane
VSEPR theory:
6. Which molecule has a linear arrangement
(A) Linear, nonpolar
of all component atoms?
(B) Bent, 109.5o angle, polar
(A) CH4 (B) CO2
(C) Linear, polar
(C) H2O (D) NH3
(D) Bent, less than 120o angle, polar
7. Which one has the least bond angle?
3. Carbon dioxide is isostructural with:
(A) NH3 (B) H2O
(A) HgCl2 (B) C2H4
(C) CH4 (D) BF3
(C) SnCl2 (D) NO 2
4. Shape of NH3 is very similar to:
8. When water donates its electrons pair to (A) Shorter, stronger (B) Shorter, weaker
hydrogen ion to form hydronium ion, (C) Longer, weaker (D) Longer, stronger
hybridizations is changed from: 14. The type of hybridization in BeCl2 is:
(A) sp2 to sp3 (B) sp3 to sp2 (A) sp3 (B) sp2
(C) sp3 to sp (D) Remains unchanged (C) sp (D) dsp2
9. Which overlapping may not lead to sigma 15. The geometrical shape of SiCl4 and PCl3
bond formation? can be explained on the basis of:
(A) p – p linear (B) sp2 – sp2 (A) sp (B) sp2
(C) s – p (D) all form sigma bond (C) sp3 (D) dsp2
10. Which of the following contains 16. For N2 molecule, the energy of 2px and
maximum number of lone pairs? 2py orbitals are in the order of:
(A) Chlorine molecule (A) 2px > 2py (B) 2px < 2py
(B) Carbon dioxide molecule (C) 2px = 2py (D) None of these
(C) Oxygen molecule 17. The paramagnetic property of O2 is well
(D) Hydrogen chloride molecule explained on the basis of MOT in terms of
11. The compound which has minimum the presence of:
electronic repulsion is: (A) paired electrons
(A) H2O (B) H2S (B) bonding electrons
(C) NH3 (D) CH4 (C) unpaired electrons
12. Polarization of ions is governed by: (D) lone pair electrons
(A) hybridization (B) Fajan’s rule 18. The non-existence of He2 molecule can be
(C) VSEPR theory (D) best explained by:
Pauling’s rule (A) VSEPR (B) VBT
13. When bond order increases then bond (C) Lewis theory (D) MOT
length becomes _____and bond becomes
____:

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) Explain the difference between the formation of σ and π bonds in terms of VBT.
(ii) Draw the orbital structures of the CO2 molecule in terms of VBT

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Draw the orbital structures of H2O and N2 molecules.
(2) Draw the orbital overlap to show the formation of F2 and HF molecules
–
(3) Calculate the number of lone pairs on the central atoms in the following: H2O, ICl3, I3
(4) Calculate the number of bond pairs and lone pairs in SiH4, H2Se, and PH3.
(5) Predict the shapes and angles in SiH4, H2Se, and PH3.
(6) Predict how the bond angle in H2S would be different from that in H2O.
(7)  bonds are more diffused than  bond.
(8) Write down basic assumption of VSEPR theory.
  
(9) Bond angle in NF3 (102o) is less than in NH3(107.5o). Justify. / Bond angle in NF3, shrinks to
102° why?
(10) Why the bond angle in NH3 (107.5°) is less than tetrahedral angle (109.5°).
(11) Water has bent or angular structure rather than tetrahedral. Justify.
(12) A sigma () bond is stronger than a pi () bond. Justify.
(13) Differentiate between  and  bond. / How sigma and pi bonds are formed?
(14) How molecular orbital theory justifies that helium atom cannot make the He2? / Why bond
order of Helium molecule is zero? /Why He2 does not exist under Normal Condition?
(15) What is bond order? Calculate bond order for H2 molecule.
(16) Why MOT is superior to VBT?
(17) Differentiate between MOT and VBT?
(18) Differentiate between bonding molecular orbital an antibonding molecular orbital.
(19) O2 molecule is paramagnetic in nature. Explain.
(20) Draw molecular orbitals diagram of oxygen molecule.
(21) Define bond order. Calculate the bond order of nitrogen molecule.
LONG QUESTIONS
1. How the bonding in the following molecules can be explained with respect to valence
bond theory? (i) Cl2 (ii) O2 (iii) N2 (iv) HF (v) H2S
2. What are the postulates of VSEPR model? Discuss the structures of the following
species with reference to this theory.
(i) CH4 (ii) NH3 (iii) H3O+ (iv) PCl5 (v) SO2 (vi) SF6
3. Explain the orbital hybridization for CH4, NH3, BF3, and BeCl2.
4. Draw the molecular orbital diagrams of the following molecules. Calculate their bond
orders?
(i) H2 (ii) He2 (iii) N2 (iv) O2
5. Discuss the formation of F2 molecule in the light of Lewis concept, VBT, and MOT.
(i) Which one of the following statements is (d) 8.5 g of NaNO3 (molar mass 85)
incorrect? (vii) A container holds 0.5 moles of an ideal
a) One mole of nitrogen gas contains gas at STP. What is the volume of the gas
Avogadro’s number of molecules in dm3?
b) One mole of ozone gas contains (a) 11.2 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
Avogadro’s number of molecules (c) 44.8 dm3 (d) 12.2 dm3
c) One mole of ozone contains Avogadro’s (viii) A solution contains 4.0 g of sodium
number of O atoms hydroxide (NaOH, molar mass = 40.0 g
d) One mole of hydrogen gas contains mol–1) in 250 cm3 of solution. What is the
Avogadro’s number of molecules molar concentration of this solution?
(ii) Which one of the following has maximum (a) 0.10 mol dm–3 (b) 0.20 mol dm–3
mass? (c) 0.40 mol dm–3 (d) 0.80 mol dm–3
(a) 0.5 mol of N2 (b) 0.5 mol of NH3 (ix) A solution contains 10.0 g of an unknown
(c) 0.5 mole of He (d) 0.5 mol of CO2 solute in 250 cm³ of solution. If the molar
(iii) Which one of the following gases will have concentration of the solution is 0.20 mol
maximum volume at STP? dm–3, what is the molar mass of the
(a) 22 g of CO2 (b) 88 g of N2O solute?
(c) 28 g of CO (d)28 g of N2 (a) 50 g mol–1 (b) 100 g mol–1
(iv) Which of the following contains same (c) 200 g mol–1 (d) 400 g mol–1
number of atoms as present in 12 g of (x) A sample of nitrogen gas (N2, molar mass
carbon? =28.0 g mol–1) has a mass of 14.0 g. How
(a) 28 g of iron (Atomic mass of Fe=56) many nitrogen atoms are present in this
(b) 48 g of magnesium (Atomic mass of sample?
Mg=24) (a) 3.01 × 1023 atoms (b) 6.02 ×1023 atoms
24
(c) 32 g of S8 molecules (Atomic mass S = 32) (c) 1.20 × 10 atoms (d) 2.40×1024 atoms
(d) 28 g of carbon monoxide (molar mass of (xi) A gas has a density of 1.43 g dm–3 at STP.
CO=28) What is the molar mass of the gas?
(v) Volume at S.T.P. of 22g of CO2 is same as (Molar volume at STP = 22.4 dm3 mol–1)
that of: (a) 14.3 g mol–1 (b) 22.4 g mol–1
–1
(a) 2 g of hydrogen (b) 8.5 g of NH3 (c) 32.0 g mol (d) 64.0 g mol–1
(c) 64 g of gaseous SO2 (d) 7 g of CO (xii) A gas has a density of 1.96 g dm⁻³ at STP
(vi) 4.0 g of NaOH (molar mass 40 g mol-1) (0°C and 1.00 atm). What is its molecular
contains same number of sodium ions as mass? (Molar volume at STP = 22.4 dm3
are present in: mol–1)
(a) 10.6 g of Na2CO3, (molar mass 106) (a) 11.2 g mol–1 (b) 22.4 g mol–1
(b) 58.5 g of NaCl (molar mass 58.5) (c) 44.0 g mol–1 (d) 88.0 g mol–1
(c) 76 g Na2SO4 (formula mass 142)
1. The mass of one mole of electrons is: (A) 6.02 × 1022 (B) 3.6 × 1023
(A) 1.008 mg (B) 0.55 mg (C) 6.0 × 1023 (D) 3.6 × 1024
(C) 0.184 mg (D) 1.637 mg 11. A mole of any substance is related to:
2. 27 g of Al will react completely with how (A) number of particles
much mass of O2 to produce Al2O3: (B) mass of a substance
(A) 8 g of oxygen (B) 16 g of (C) volume of gaseous substance
oxygen (D) all of these
(C) 32 g of oxygen (D) 24 g of 12. Amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water
oxygen is:
3. The number of moles of CO2 which (A) 115.2 g (B) 28.8 g
contain 8.0 g of oxygen: (C) 57.6 g (D) 18.4
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 13. The weight of a single atom of oxygen is:
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.5 (A) 5.025  1023 g (B) 2.656  10-23 g
4. The largest number of molecules are (C) 1.556  10 g 23
(D) 4.53810-23 g
present in: 14. The number of moles of CO2 which contain 16
(A) 3.6 g of H2O (B) 4.8 g of g of oxygen:
C2H5OH (A) 0.25 (B) 0.50
(C) 2.8 g of CO (D) 5.4 g of N2O5 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.50
5. One mole of SO2 contains: 15. The volume occupied by 2.8 g of N2 at
(A) 6.02×1023 of oxygen atoms S.T.P is:
(B) 18.1×1023 molecules of SO2 (A) 2.24dm3 (B) 22.4dm3
3
(C) 6.02×1023 of sulphur atoms (C) 1.12dm (D) 112dm3
(D) 4 gram atoms of SO2 16. Volume occupied by one mole of a gas at
6. Volume occupied by 1.4 g of N2 at STP is: standard temperature and pressure is:
(A) 2.24 dm3 (B) 22.4 dm3 (A) 54 dm3 (B) 22.414 dm3
(C) 1.12 dm3 (D) 112 cm3 (C) 2.24 dm3 (D) 2.4 dm3
7. Methane reacts with steam to form CO and 17. The mass of one mole of electrons in
H2. CH4 + H2O  CO + 3H2 milligrams is:
What volume of hydrogen gas can be (A) 1.008 (B) 0.5500
obtained from 100cm3 of methane at (C 0.1840 (D) 1.673
STP? 18. One mole of ethanol and one mole of
(A) 300cm3 (B) 150cm3 ethane have an equal:
3
(C) 200cm (D) 100cm3 (A) Mass (B) No. of atoms
8. Avogadro’s number of molecules are present (C) No. of electrons (D) No. of molecules
in: 19. How many hydrogen atoms are present in
(A) 1 g molecule one mole of H2SO4?
(B) 1dm3 molecule (A) 6.021023 (B) 26.021023
(C) 1 kg molecule (C) 36.021023 (D) 46.021023
(D) 1 liter of molecule 20. In a sample of glucose, there are 3.61024
9. One mole of CH4 contains: atoms of carbon are present. Mass of
(A) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen glucose sample is:
(B) 3.0 g atom of C (A) 180 g (B) 360 g
(C) 1.81 × 1023 molecules of CH4 (C) 3600 g (D) 342 g
(D) 4.0 g atoms of H 21. Volume occupied by 11 g of carbon
10. Signature of a person with lead pencil dioxide at 0°C and 1 atm pressure is:
increased the weight of the paper by 1.2 (A) 22.414 dm3 (B) 2.2414 dm3
grams. How many atoms of carbon are
present?
 (C) 5.6035 dm3 (D) 1.12 dm3 (C) lake of proper techniques
22. Number of covalent bonds in 36 g of H2O (D) all of the above
are: 29. Efficiency of a chemical reaction can be
(A) 36×6.023×1023 (B) 2×6.023×1023 checked by calculating:
(C) 4×6.023×1023 (D) 2×6.023×1024 (A) Amount of limiting reactant
23. Which among the following is the (B) Amount of product formed
heaviest? (C) Amount of reactant in excess
(A) one mole of oxygen (D) Amount of reactant left unused
(B) 44 g of carbon dioxide 30. Number of molecules in 4 g of CH4 at 0oC and
(C) 10 moles of hydrogen 1atm:
(D) 100 amu of uranium (A) 6.022×1023 (B) 3.0×1023
23
24. The smallest number of molecules is in: (C) 1.5 ×10 (D) None of these
(A) 28g of CO (B) 36g of H2O 31. Stoichiometric calculations can be
(C) 46g of C2H5OH (D) 54g of N2O5 performed only when:
3
25. 11.2 dm of a gas at STP weighs 14g. The (A) Law of conservation of mass
gas could be: (B) Law of definite proportional
(A) N2 (B) NO2 (C) Law of reciprocal proportion
(C) CO2 (D) N2O (D) Both a and b
26. Weight of a single molecule of water is: 32. The number of atoms in 1.97g of gold and
(A) 3.0×10–23g (B) 6.02×10–23g 0.023 g of sodium are:
23
(C) 6.02×10 g (D) None of these (A) Equal (B) Au>Na
27. Which of the following is not generally (C) Na>Au (D) Unequal
same for one mole of different gases at 33. The number of electrons in the molecules of CO
STP? and N2 are 14 each, so 1 g of each gas will have
(A) volume (B) molecular mass same:
(C) number of molecules (D) all of these (A) No. of electrons
28. Actual yield is less than theoretical yield (B) No. of molecules
because of: (C) Volume
(A) inexperienced worker (D) All of these
(B) some competing side reactions

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) How is the concept of mole derived from Avogadro’s number?
(ii) Define the following terms with one example in each case.
(iii) What do you mean by molar volume of a gas? How Avogadro’s number is related with molar
volume?
(iv) 39 g of potassium and 56 g of iron have equal number of atoms in them. Justify.
(v) 4 g of He, 17g of NH3 and 64g of SO2 occupy separately the volumes of 22.414 dm3 although
the sizes and masses of molecules of three gases are very different from each other.
(vi) Do you think that 1 mole of H2 and 1 mole of NH3 at 0oC and 1 atm will have Avogadro’s
number of particles?
(vii) What is stoichiometry? Give the basic assumptions of stoichiometric calculations.
(viii) Differentiate theoretical and actual yields. How is the percentage yield of a reaction
calculated?
(ix) What are the factors which are mostly responsible for the low yield of the products in
chemical reactions?
Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions
(1) Calculate the number of moles present in 20g of NaOH.
(2) Calculate the mass of 0.5 moles of HCl.
(3) Calculate the mass of 10–3 mol of MgSO4.
(4) Calculate the molar mass of KMnO4.
(5) Calculate the number of moles in 0.23 g of sodium.
(6) Calculate the mass of 1.5 moles of Ca(OH)2.
(7) The given mass of KClO3 is 24.5 g. Calculate the number of moles of potassium chlorate.
(8) How many molecules are present in 1.75 g of H2O2?
(9) How many atoms are present in 15 g of gold ring?
(10) A sample of glucose, contains 3.76  1024 molecules of glucose. What is the number of moles
in this quantity?
(11) How many atoms are there in a sodium metal that contains 2.3 g?
(12) Juglone, is a dye and is produced from the husks of black walnuts. The formula for juglone is
C10H6O3.
a) Calculate the molar mass of juglone.
b) Calculate number of moles in 0.87 g of a sample of juglone extracted from black walnut
husks.
(13) A copper wire contains 27.101025 atoms of copper. Calculate the number of moles of copper.
(14) Determine the volume of 2.5 moles of chlorine molecules at STP.
(15) What is the volume in dm3 of 4.75 mol of methane (CH4) gas at STP?
(16) Calculate the molar mass of a gas which has density of 1.97 g/dm3 at STP.
(17) Calculate the molar concentration of a substance containing 27.64 g of K2CO3 dissolved in
1dm3 of the given solution.
(18) Calculate the molar mass of a gas which has density of 1.34 g/dm3 at STP.
(19) Calculate the molar concentration of a solution containing 7.9 g of KMnO4 dissolved in 1 dm3 of
the given solution. The molar mass of KMnO4 is 158 g mol–1.
(i) London dispersion forces are the only only significant intermolecular
forces present among: forces present?
(a) molecules of water in liquid state (a) Ammonia (NH3)
(b) atoms of helium in gaseous state at (b) Water (H2O)
high temperature (c) Methane (CH4)
(c) molecules of solid iodine (d) Hydrogen fluoride (HF)
(d) molecules of hydrogen chloride gas (vii) Which of the following is a
(ii) When the vapour pressure of a liquid characteristic property of crystalline
equals the external pressure, what solids?
(a) They have a range of melting points.
phenomenon occurs?
(b) They are isotropic.
(a) Sublimation (b) Condensation
(c) They have a definite and sharp
(c) Boiling (d) Freezing
melting point.
(iii)When water freezes at 0oC, its density
(d) They lack a regular arrangement of
decreases due to: particles.
a) cubic structure of ice (viii) Which of the following liquids would
b) empty spaces present in the structure you expect to have the highest
of ice viscosity at a given temperature?
c) decrease in volume (a) Water (H2O)
d) decrease in viscosity (b) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
(iv) Surface tension of a liquid is due to: (c) Diethyl ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3)
(a) inward pull of surface molecules (d) Glycerol
(b) upward pull from the surface (CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH))
(c) collision of molecules (ix) Which type of intermolecular force is
(d) repulsive forces present in all types of molecules
(v) Which change of state involves regardless of their polarity?
overcoming only London dispersion (a) Dipole-dipole forces
forces? (b) Hydrogen bonds
(a) Melting of ice H2O(s) → H2O(l) (c) London dispersion forces
(b)Boiling of ethanol (d) Ion-dipole forces
(CH₃CH₂OH(l) → CH₃CH₂OH(g)) (x) Liquid crystals exhibit properties:
(c) Sublimation of iodine (I2(s) → I2(g)) (a) Only like solids.
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Dissolving sodium chloride in water
(c) Between solids and liquids.
(vi) In which of the following substances
(d) Unlike solids or liquids.
are London dispersion forces the
1. London dispersion forces are the only The highest boiling point is of:
forces present among the: (A) HF (B) H2O
(A) molecules of water in liquid state (C) NH3 (D) unpredictable
(B) atoms of helium in gaseous state at high 8. Which types of intermolecular force/s is /
temperature are present in water?
(C) molecules of solid iodine (A) H-bonding
(D) molecules of hydrogen chloride gas (B) Dipole-dipole forces
2. Acetone & chloroform are soluble in (C) London forces
each other due to: (D) All of these
(A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding 9. Which substance exhibits the hydrogen
(B) ion-dipole interaction bonding?
(C) instantaneous dipole (A) CF4 (B) CH3OH
(D) all of the above (C) H2 (D) PH3
3. NH3 shows a maximum boiling point 10. Which change affects the vapor pressure
among the hydrides of VthA group of a liquid?
elements due to: (A) pouring the liquid in other container
(A) very small size of nitrogen (B) increasing the surface area
(B) lone pair of electrons present on (C) increasing the temperature
nitrogen (D) all of the above
(C) enhanced electronegative character of 11. Taking intermolecular forces into
nitrogen account, which halogen would you expect
(D) pyramidal structure of NH3 to have the highest boiling point?
4. When water freezes at 0oC, its density (A) F2 (B) Cl2
decreases due to: (C) Br2 (D) I2
(A) cubic structure of ice 12. The ion dipole interactions are
(B) empty spaces present ice structure responsible for the dissolution of an ionic
(C) instantaneous dipole substance in:
(D) change of bond angles (A) Benzene (B) Ether
5. In order to mention the boiling point of (C) Water (D)
water at 110oC, the external pressure Mercury
should be: 13. Incorrect statement about ice is:
(A) between 760 torr and 1200 torr (A) Hexagonal structure
(B) between 200 torr and 760 torr (B) 9% less density than water
(C) 765 torr (C) Good conductor
(D) any value of pressure (D) Floats on water
6. Which of the following may not be the 14. Among the following mixtures, dipole-
boiling point of water? dipole as the major interaction, is
(A) 10oC (B) 350oC present in:
(C) 100oC (D) 400oC (A) benzene and ethanol
7. Strength of H-bonding in HF, H2O and (B) acetonitrile and acetone
NH3 is given: (C) KCl and water
(D) benzene and carbon tetrachloride
15. Which property of a liquid increases (C) Bond length (D) Boiling points
with increasing temperature? 26. Exceptionally weak acidic strength of HF
(A) surface tension (B) viscosity is due to:
(C) vapour pressure (D) boiling point (A) Strong H-bonding
16. Which of the following liquid has the (B) Dipole-dipole forces
highest vapour pressure? (C) Covalent bond
(A) HF(l) (B) NH3(l) (D) H–F bond polarity
(C) C2H5OH (D) H2O 27. A layer of ice on the surface of water
17. Which class of organic compound is not insulates the water underneath for
soluble in water? further loss of:
(A) carboxylic acids (B) alcohols (A) Mass (B) Heat
(C) haloalkanes (D) alkanes (C) Density (D) Temperature
18. Which of these processes involve a 28. The compounds which are used in the
weakening of the attraction between display of electrical devices are:
particles? (A) Nickel crystals (B) Graphite
(A) Condensation (B) (C) Polymers (D) Liquids crystals
Crystallization 29. Which of the following interactions are
(C) Freezing (D) Evaporation responsible for the dissolution of an ionic
19. In which of the following are the substance in water?
particles the most disordered? (A) H–bonding (B) Ionic bond
(A) Water at 100oC (C) Ion-dipole (D) Dipole-dipole
(B) Impure water at 102oC 30. Among halogens, only iodine exists in
(C) Steam at 100oC solid state at room temperature. It is due
(D) Water at 10oC to its:
20. As the temperature increases, the (A) Non-polar nature
amount of energy necessary for (B) Non-metallic nature
evaporation: (C) High polarizability
(A) Increases (D) Weak I–I bond
(B) Decreases 31. The boiling point of water is higher than
(C) Remains constant H2S due to:
(D) May decrease or increase (A) Weak H–bonding in H2S
21. Which of the following are strongest (B) Polar nature of water
attractive forces? (C) Greater polarizability of H2S
(A) H-bonding (B) Dipole-dipole forces (D) Strong H–bonding in water
(C) London forces (D) Ion-dipole forces 32. Hydrocarbons are insoluble in water
22. Forces of attraction among chloroform because they are:
molecules is: (A) Polar compounds
(A) DDF (B) Hydrogen bonding (B) Non-polar compounds
(C) LDF (D) Debye forces (C) Organic compound
23. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in: (D) Covalent in nature
(A) HI (B) HBr 33. Vapour pressure of ice on its surface at
(C) HCl (D) HF 1oC is:
24. Dipole-induced dipole forces are also (A) Zero (B) Low
called: (C) High (D) Unpredictable
(A) London Forces (B) Debye forces 34. Generally, the weakest intermolecular
(C) Hydrogen bonding (D) Huckel forces forces among these are:
25. The polarizability of noble gases (A) Dipole-dipole forces
increases down the group and results an (B) DIDF
increase in their: (C) London forces
(A) Atomic radii (B) Reactivity (D) H- bonding
Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions
(i) Explain, at a molecular level, why evaporation leads to a cooling effect.
(ii) Explain why liquids with stronger intermolecular forces tend to have lower rates of evaporation at a
given temperature compared to liquids with weaker intermolecular forces.
(iii) One feels sense of cooling under the fan after bath.
(iv) The boiling point of water is different at Lahore and Murree hills. Justify.
(v) Discuss two significant consequences of the lower density of ice compared to liquid water in
natural environments.?
(vi) Why B.P of a liquid increases when the external pressure rises?
(vii) Mention four items in which liquid crystals are used.
(viii) Discuss how hydrogen bonding is responsible for the relatively high surface tension of water.
(ix) Evaporation causes cooling.
(x) Why boiling needs a constant supply of heat?
(xi) Why Intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular forces?
(xii) Why methane is a gas while hexane is a Liquid?

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Explain why gases can be compressed easily?
(2) What is Joule-Thomson effect?
(3) The volume of 21g a gas is 8 dm3 at –90 ºC under 7 atm pressure. Calculate the relative
molecular mass of the gas.
(4) Which forces are present among the molecules of the following substances? CCl4 , SiF4
(5) Differentiate id-id and pd-pd forces with examples.
(6) Can the CHF3 molecule make a hydrogen bond? Explain why or why not?
(7) Molecules of ethanoic acid (acetic acid) exist in the form of dimers in pure form but not in
aqueous solution. How hydrogen bond can explain this?
(8) Why do you think tetracholromethane (carbon tetrachloride, CCl4) has higher viscosity than
chlroform (CHCl3) but less than ethanol (C2H5OH)?
(9) The viscosity of honey is higher than water, explain why.
(10) Which of the following is more viscous: glycerine (CH2OHCH2OHCH2OH) or hexane
(C6H6)? Why?
(11) Which of the liquids in each of the following pairs has a higher vapour pressure?
i) Alcohol, glycerine ii) Petrol, kerosene, iii) Mercury, water?
(12) Which one in each of the following pairs is more viscous: Glycerine, kerosene?
(13) Separate portions of acetone and water at the same temperature are poured on your hands.
The acetone feels colder.
(14) Why evaporation gets faster at higher temperatures?
(15) Why do we feel cool near the bank of a river?
(16) Why food cooking is difficult in the areas with high altitudes?
(17) The food cooks faster in the pressure cooker, explain.
(18) Why the boiling point of water (100°C) is higher than that of ethanol (78°C), although both
have hydrogen bonds?
(19) What is meant by habit of a crystal?
(20) Name the properties of liquid crystals in which they resemble solids.
(21) Mention the properties of liquid crystals in which they resemble liquids.
(22) Which property of liquid crystals make it possible to use them in temperature sensing
devices?
LONG QUESTIONS

1. What are London dispersion forces? Give examples, and discuss the factors affecting these
forces.
2. Hydrogen bonding is present in H2O, NH3, HF, (CH3)2CO and CHCl3 molecules. Sketch
structures and discuss briefly.
3. Discuss the structural changes when water turns into ice. Justify the empty spaces i n its
crystals as compared to H 2O at 4oC and lower density of ice.
4. How liquid crystals resemble liquids and solids? Give their uses in daily life.
5. Describe the following properties of crystalline solids.
(i) Geometrical shape (ii) Melting point (iii) Cleavage plan (iv) Habit of a crystal
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 344

(i) Which of the following equations represents (vi) Which of the following factors would lead
standard heat of formation of C2H4? to a greater enthalpy change of hydration
(a) 2C(diamond) + 2H2(g)  C2H4(g) (more exothermic)?
(b) 2C(graphite) + 2H2(g)  C2H4(g) (a) A larger ionic radius and a smaller
(c) C(graphite) + H2(g)  ½C2H4(g) charge
(d) 2C(diamond) + 4H(g)  C2H4(g) (b) A smaller ionic radius and a smaller
(ii) Which of the following equations charge
correctly defines lattice energy of MgCl2? (c) A larger ionic radius and a larger charge
(a) Mg(s) + Cl2(g)  MgCl2 (d) A smaller ionic radius and a larger
2+ – charge
(b) Mg(g) + Cl(g)  MgCl2(g) (vii) The enthalpy of solution can be expressed
2+ –
(c) Mg(s) + 2Cl(g)  MgCl2(s) in terms of which of the following
enthalpy changes?
2+ –
(d) Mg(g) + 2Cl(g)  MgCl2(s) (a) ΔHlattice + ΔHhydration
(iii) Suppose there are 100 molecules of a gas (b) ΔHlattice – ΔHhydration
initially in jar A, which is connected to an (c) – ΔHlattice + ΔHhydration
evacuated jar B. When the stopcock is (d) – ΔHlattice – ΔHhydration
opened the possible ways of arrangement (viii) Which of the following reactions has an
of molecules will be: enthalpy change that is equal to the
(a) 100 b) 1/100 standard enthalpy of formation of water,
100 100 o
(c) 2 d) 1/2 ΔHf [H2O(l)]?
(iv) The calorie content of food, often expressed
(a) 2H(g) + O(g)  H2O(l)
in Calories (kcal), is fundamentally related
to which thermodynamic quantity during (b) H2(g) + ½ O2(g)  H2O(g)
its metabolism or combustion? (c) H2(g) + ½ O2(g)  H2O(l)
(a) Entropy change (ΔS) + 2-
(d) 2H(aq) + O(aq)  H2O(l)
(b) Gibbs free energy change (ΔG)
(c) Enthalpy change (ΔH) (ix) The enthalpy change for a reaction
(d) Specific heat capacity (c) depends on:
(v) Which of the following quantities is NOT (a) Pathway taken from reactants to products
typically determined using Hess’s Law? (b) Presence of a catalyst
(a) Enthalpy change of formation (c) Initial and final states of the reactants
(b) Enthalpy change of combustion and products
(c) Activation energy (d) Rate of the reaction
(d) Enthalpy change of reaction
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345

1. If an endothermic reaction is allowed to (C) acids always give H+ ions and bases OH
take place very rapidly in the air, the ions
temperature of the surrounding air: (D) the net chemical change involves
(A) remains constant (B) Increases combination of H+ and OH to form water
(C) Decreases (D) remains unchanged 8. If water kept in an insulated vessel at
2. In endothermic reactions, the heat 10oC suddenly freezes, the entropy
contents of: change of the system:
(A) product is more than that of reactants (A) decreases
(B) reactant is more than that of product (B) is zero
(C) both (a) and (b) (C) increases
(D) reactants and products are equal (D) equals to that of the surroundings
3. Calorie is equivalent to: 9. For complete combustion of ethanol,
(A) 0.4184 J (B) 41.84 J C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
(C) 4.184 J (D) 418.4 J the amount of heat produced as measured in
4. The change in heat energy of a chemical bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJmol1 at
reaction at constant temperature and 25oC. Assuming ideality, the enthalpy of
pressure is called: combustion, Hc, for the reaction will be:
(A) enthalpy change (B) heat of sublimation
(A) 1366.95 kJmol1
(C) bond energy (D) internal energy
(B) 1460.50 kJmol1
change
(C) 1361.95 kJmol1
5. For a given reaction NaOH + HCl 
(D) 1350.50 kJmol1
NaCl + H2O, the change in enthalpy is
10. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and
called:
(A) heat of reaction carbon monoxide are 393.5 and 283.5
(B) heat of formation kJmol1 respectively. The enthalpy of
(C) heat of neutralization formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:
(D) heat of combustion (A) 110.5 kJ (B) 676.5 kJ
6. The net heat change in a chemical reaction (C) 110.5 kJ (D) 676.5 kJ
is same whether it is brought about in two 11. Species which by definition has zero
or more different ways in one or several standard molar enthalpy of formation at
steps. It is known as: 298 K is:
(A) Henry’s law (A) Br2(g) (B) H2O(g)
(B) Hess’s law (C) Cl2(g) (D) CH4(g)
(C) Joule’s principle 12. Enthalpy change for exothermic and
(D) Law of conservation of energy endothermic reaction is ______ and _____
7. Enthalpy of neutralization of all the strong respectively:
acids and strong bases has the same value (A) Positive, positive
because: (B) Positive, negative
(A) neutralization leads to the formation of (C) Negative, positive
salt and water (D) Negative, negative
(B) strong acids and bases are ionic 13. Which of the following process is an
substances exothermic?
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345
(A) Sublimation of ice (B) Boiling of water 22. When water is added to quick lime,
(C) Freezing of water (D) Melting of ice reaction is:
14. Which one of the following enthalpy terms (A) explosive (B) exothermic
will always has a negative sign? (C) endothermic (D) photochemical
(A) Enthalpy of atomization 23. The heat of formation of the compound in
(B) Enthalpy of solution the following reaction is:
(C) Enthalpy of combustion H2(g) + Cl2(g)  2HCl (g) + 44kcal
(D) Enthalpy of reaction (A) – 44 kcal mol–1 (B) 11 kcal mol–1
15. Heat of reaction at constant volume is the: (C) – 22 kcal mol–1 (D) – 88 kcal mol–1
(A) Change in internal energy 24. Total heat energy (q) can be calculated in a
(B) External work done bomb calorimeter by using following
(C) Change in enthalpy formula:
(D) Change in entropy (A) m x s (B) s x t
16. Heat of neutralization of NH4OH and HCl (C) c x t (D) c x s x t
is: 25. A balloon filled with oxygen is placed in a
(A) 13.7 kcal/mole (B) > 13.7 kcal/mol freezer. Identify system:
(C) < 13.7 kcal/mole (D) zero (A) Balloon (B) Freezer
17. Heat of neutralization of a strong acid and (C) Oxygen (D) All of these
a strong base is nearly equal to: 26. Heat of combustion of a compound is:
(A) 10 kJ/mole (B) – 57 kJ/mole (A) positive
(C) 10 cal/mole (D) – 57 cal/mole. (B) zero
18. For the transition C(diamond)  C(graphite); (C) negative
H = –1.5 kJ. It follows that: (D) positive or negative
(A) diamond is very hard 27. Which of the following values of heat of
(B) graphite is stabler than diamond formation indicates that the product is
(C) graphite is conductor least stable?
(D) diamond is stabler than graphite (A) – 94 kcal (B) + 21.4 kcal
19. Heat of neutralization is least when: (C) – 231.6 kcal (D) + 64.8 kcal
(A) NaOH is neutralized by CH3COOH 28. When sulphuric acid reacts with two moles
of caustic soda, enthalpy of neutralization
(B) NH4OH is neutralized by CH3COOH
is:
(C) NaOH is neutralized by HCl (A) 114 kJ/mol (B) 57 kJ/mol
(D) NH4OH is neutralized by HNO3 (C) 114 J/mol (D) 26 kJ/mol
20. The enthalpy change (H) for the 29. The amount of heat absorbed when one
neutralization of 1M HCl by caustic potash mole of gaseous atoms is formed from the
in dilute solution at 298 K is: element is called enthalpy of:
(A) 68 kJ (B) 57.3 kJ (A) Formation (B) Reaction
(C) 65 kJ (D) 50 kJ (C) Combustion (D) Atomization
21. Evaporation of water is: 30. For an element, the standard enthalpy
change of formation is taken as:
(A) An exothermic change
(A) Unity (B) Zero
(B) A process where no heat changes occur (C) Always Positive (D) Always negative
(C) An endothermic change 31. One Joule is equivalent to:
(D) A process accompanied by chemical (A) 0.4184 cal (B) 2.39 cal
reaction (C) 0.239 cal (D) 4.184 cal
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) Differentiate between exothermic and endothermic reactions.
(ii) What do you understand by the enthalpy of a system?
(iii) Distinguish clearly between standard enthalpy of reaction and standard enthalpy of
formation.
(iv) Explain why the lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is typically a large negative value.
(v) What factors influence the magnitude of the lattice enthalpy?
(vi) Explain why the enthalpy of hydration is always an exothermic process for gaseous ions.
What are the main interactions responsible for the release of energy during hydration?
(vii) For the reaction CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(g), identify all the bonds that need to
be broken and all the bonds that need to be formed to carry out a bond energy calculation of ΔH.
(viii) The enthalpy of solution can be either positive or negative. Explain what a positive ΔHsol and
a negative ΔHsol indicate about the energy changes during the dissolution process.
(ix) Consider two ions with similar charges but different sizes, or similar sizes but different
charges. Explain how the concept of charge density can be used to predict which ion will
have a more exothermic enthalpy of hydration and why.
Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions
o
(1) Calculate ∆Hn of the reaction of 50 cm3 of HNO3 with 50 cm3 of 1.5 mol/dm3 of NaOH. The
change in temperature is 4ºC.
(2) What is a thermochemical equation? Give three examples. What information do they convey?
(3) Hess’s law helps us to calculate the heats of those reactions which cannot be normally carried
out in the laboratory. Explain it.
(4) Justify that heat of formation of compound is the sum of all the other enthalpies.
(5) What is thermo chemistry?
(6) Why is enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is always –57.4 kJ mol1?
(7) Differentiate between enthalpy of neutralization and enthalpy of combustion.
(8) How do we determine the H in the laboratory for food, fuel etc.?
(9) State Hess’s Law.
(10) Born Haber’s Cycle is another form of Hess’s Law. Justify.
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 344

(i) The rate of reaction: (c) Average kinetic energy of the molecules.
(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds (d) Rate constant of the reaction.
(b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds (vi) On a Boltzmann distribution curve, the
(c) Remains the same as the reaction proceeds activation energy (Ea) is represented by:
(d) May decrease or increase as the reaction (a) The height of the peak
proceeds (b) The area under the entire curve
(ii) Increasing the temperature of a chemical (c) A vertical line drawn at a specific kinetic
reaction increases the rate of reaction energy value
because: (d) The difference between the peak and the
(a) Both the collision frequency and X-axis
collision energies of reactant molecules (vii) How does the presence of a catalyst affect
increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
(b) Collision frequency of reactant (a) It always decreases the rate of the
molecules increases reaction.
(c) Activation energy increase (b) It always increases the rate of the
(d) Activation energy decrease reaction.
(iii) Consider two reactions with different (c) It increases the rate of the forward and
activation energies at the same decreases the rate of the reverse reaction.
temperature. The reaction with the lower (d) It increases the rate of both the forward
activation energy will have: and reverse reactions.
(a) A smaller rate constant (viii) On an energy profile diagram, the
(b) A larger rate constant presence of a catalyst is represented by:
(c) The same rate constant (a) A higher peak representing the activation
(d) A rate constant that depends on the energy.
enthalpy change (b) A lower peak representing the activation
(iv) The order of a chemical reaction, that is energy.
independent of concentration is: (c) A change in the energy level of the
(a) Second order reaction reactants or products.
(b) First order reaction (d) A shift in the equilibrium position.
(c) Zero order reaction (ix) The units of the rate constant (k) for a
(d) Pseudo first order reaction reaction depend on the:
(v) On a Boltzmann distribution curve, the (a) Activation energy of the reaction
area under the curve represents: (b) Temperature of the reaction
(a) Activation energy of the reaction. (c) Overall order of the reaction
(b) Total number of molecules in the (d) Stoichiometry of the balanced chemical
sample. equation
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345

1. In a zero order reaction, the rate is (A) temperature of the reaction

independent of: (B) activation energy of the reaction
(A) temperature of reaction (C) molecularity of the reaction
(B) concentration of reactants (D) order of the reaction
(C) concentration of products 8. If the rate law for a reaction is, rate =
(D) None of these k[A][B]2, the units for k would be:
2. If the rate equation of a reaction
(A) mol dm3 s1 (B) mol s1
2A + B  product is, rate = k[A]2[B],
(C) dm6 mol2 s1 (D) mol2 dm3 s1
and A is present in large excess, then order
9. For an elementary process of a chemical
of reaction is:
reaction:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) The order and the molecularity are
(C) 3 (D) None of these
identical
3. The rate of reaction:
(B) The order is greater than the molecularity
(A) increases as the reaction proceeds.
(C) The order is lesser than the molecularity
(B) decreases as the reaction proceeds.
(D) The order is always fractional
(C) remains the same as the reaction proceeds.
10. In a first order reaction, the concentration
(D) may decrease or increase as the reaction
of the reactants is reduced to 25% in one
proceeds.
hour. The half-life period of the reaction
4. With the increase of 10oC temperature the
is:
rate of reaction doubles. This increase is
(A) 2hr (B) 4hr
due to:
(C) ½hr (D) ¼hr
(A) decrease in activation energy of reaction
11. 50% of a zero-order reaction completes in
(B) decrease in number of collisions between
10 min. 100% of the same reaction shall
molecules
complete in:
(C) increase in activation energy of reactants
(A) 5 min (B) 10 min
(D) increase the number of effective
(C) 20 min (D) infinite time
collisions
12. The reaction rate increases with rise in
5. The unit of rate constant is the same as
temperature due to:
that of rate of reaction in:
(A) increase in activation energy
(A) first order reaction
(B) increase in effective collisions between
(B) second order reaction
molecules
(C) zero order reaction
(C) decrease in activation energy
(D) third order reaction
(D) decrease in minimum kinetic energy
6. The rate equation for the reaction;
(threshold energy) required for the reaction to
2A + B  C is rate = k[A][B]. The occur
correct statement about this is: 13. If the temperature of a reaction is
(A) k is independent of [A] and [B] increased from 25oC to 75oC:
(B) t1/2 is constant (A) the reaction rate decreases, but k remains
(C) Unit of k is sec–1 the same
(D) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of (B) the reaction rate and k both decrease
disappearance of A (C) the reaction rate increases, but k remains
7. The unit of the rate constant depends upon the same
the: (D) the reaction rate and k both increase
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345

14. A catalyst: (A) Nature of reactants

(A) increases the average kinetic energy of (B) Concentration of reactants
reacting molecules. (C) Temperature of reaction
(B) increases the activation energy (D) Molecularity of reaction
(C) alters the reaction mechanism 19. Order of a reaction depends on:
(D) increases the frequency of collisions of (A) Temperature
reacting species (B) Pressure
15. In the presence of a catalyst, the reaction (C) Molecularity
enthalpy: (D) Mechanism as well as the relative
(A) increases concentrations of reactants
(B) decreases 20. A zero order reaction is one in which:
(C) remains the same (A) Reaction is quickly completed
(D) may increase or decrease (B) Reactant is taken in large excess
16. The specific reaction rate of a first order (C) The reactant concentration does not
reaction depends on: change with time
(A) the concentration of reactants (D) Reactivity is least
(B) concentration of products 21. The units of rate constant is:
(C) time of measurement (A) litre1 – n mol1 – n s1 (B) mol1 – n litre1 – n s1
(D) temperature at which the reaction is (C) mol1 – n litren – 1 s1 (D) None of these
carried out 22. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat
17. The rate constant of a reaction is 3  104 evolved or absorbed during the reaction:
s1. The order of the reaction is: (A) increases
(A) two (B) one (B) decreases
(C) zero (D) can be (C) remains unchanged
predicted (D) may increase or decrease
18. Which of the following does not influence
the rate of a reaction?

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) What do you understand by the rate of a reaction?
(ii) Give the difference between enthalpy change of reaction and energy of activation of reaction.
(iii) Why the instantaneous rate changes during a reaction?
(iv) Briefly summarize the effects of temperature and surface area on the rates of reactions.
(v) Why does wood burn more rapidly in pure oxygen than in air?
(vi) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction. Illustrate it.
Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions
(1) What role does the activation energy play in chemical reactions?
(2) How does the activation energy affect the rate of reaction?
(3) What is the Boltzmann distribution curve?
(4) Explain why a 10oC rise in temperature approximately doubles the rate of a reaction.
(5) Can a catalyst be consumed in a chemical reaction? Why or why not?
WAK GOLDEN NOTES CHEMISTRY XI (SHORT QUESTIONS) 345

(6) Explain whether the reaction below is an example of heterogeneous or homogeneous

catalysis:
(7) How order of reaction is derived from the rate law?
(8) Explain what is meant by the specific rate (rate constant) of a reaction and how it is
represented in rate equation.
(9) Why the sum of the coefficients of a balanced chemical equation is not necessarily important
to give the order of a reaction?
(10) Define rate of reaction. Give its units.
(11) What is instantaneous and average rate of reaction?
(12) Define order of reaction and specific rate constant.
(13) Define order of reaction. Write the names.
(14) What is a pseudo first order reaction?
(15) What is a zero order reaction?
(16) The order of reaction may be in fraction. Explain.
(17) Define half-life period of a reaction. Give one example. How is it related to order of reaction?

LONG QUESTIONS
1. Relate the order of a reaction to the rate law for the reaction. How do you distinguish
between zero order, first order and second order reaction?
2. How does the activation energy profile of an uncatalyzed reaction compare with that
of the catalyzed reaction?
(i) For which system, does the equilibrium (a) Adding more oxygen
constant, Kc has units of (b) Adding a solid phase catalyst
(concentration) ?−1 (c) Decreasing the volume of the container
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (the total pressure increases)
(b) H2 + I2 2HI (d) Increasing the temperature at constant
(c) 2NO2 N2O4 pressure
(d) 2HF H2 + F2 (v) In which of the following gaseous
(ii) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) equilibria, pressure has no effect on the
The conventional equilibrium constant equilibrium position?
expression (Kc) for the system as (a) 2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
described by the above equation is: (b) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(a) [SO2]2/[SO3] (b) (c) CO(g)+H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
[SO2]2[O2]/[SO3]2 (d) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(c) [SO3]2/[SO3]2[O2] (d) [SO2][O2] (vi) Consider the equilibrium 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(iii)Which of the following statements 2H2O(g). If the concentration of
correctly describes the effect of H2O(g) is increased, the concentrations of
temperature on the equilibrium H2(g) and O2(g) will:
constant? (a) Increase
(a) Kc is directly proportional to (b) Decrease
temperature. (c) Remain the same.
(b) Kc is inversely proportional to (d) Change irregularly
temperature (vii) For a specific reaction, the value of the
(c) Kc depends on the enthalpy change of equilibrium constant, Kc:
the reaction (a) always remains the same at different
(d) Temperature has no effect on the value reaction conditions.
of Kc (b) increases if the concentration of one of
(iv) Consider the gas-phase equilibrium the products is increased.
system 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g) (c) changes with changes in the
Given that the forward reaction is temperature.
endothermic, which of the following (d) increases if the concentration of one of
changes will decrease the equilibrium the reactants is increased
amount of H2O?
1. For which system does the equilibrium 4. What affects the numerical value of the
constant, Kc has units of (concentration) 1? equilibrium constant for a reversible
(A) N 2  3H 2 2NH 3 reaction at equilibrium?
(B) H 2  I 2 2HI (A) adding a catalyst
(C) 2NO2 N2O4 (B) changing reactant conc.
(D) 2HF H2 + F2 (C) changing the pressure
2. What happens when an inert gas is added (D) changing the temp.
to an equilibrium keeping volume 5. How does a catalyst speed up a chemical
unchanged? reaction?
(A) More product will form (A) decreases the heat of reaction
(B) More reactant will form (B) increases the heat of reaction
(C) Less product will form (C) lowers the activation energy
(D) Equilibrium will remain unchanged (D) raises the activation energy
3. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, 6. In an exothermic reversible reaction, the
which chemical system shifts to the right equilibrium will shift towards the forward
when pressure is increased? direction by:
(A) CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) (A) increase in pressure (B)adding catalyst
(B) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (C) decrease in temp. (D) increase in temp.
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(D) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) What is meant by the state of chemical equilibrium?
(ii) Define reversible reaction. Give an example.
(iii) The change of volume disturbs the equilibrium position for some of the gas phase reactions but
not the equilibrium constant.
(iv) Mention the characteristics of chemical equilibrium.
(v) Why do the rates of forward reactions slow down when a reversible reaction approaches the
equilibrium stage?
(vi) Why ice at 0°C can be melted by applying pressure without supply of heat from outside?

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous equilibria.
(2) Why do the rates of forward reactions slow down when a reversible reaction approaches the
equilibrium stage?
(3) Write Kc for the following reactions:
(i) Sn2+(aq) + 2Fe3+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 2Fe2+(aq)
(ii) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(iii) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) How some reactions are affected by volume at equilibrium stage?
(5) What will be the effect of change in pressure on NH3 synthesis?
 LONG QUESTIONS
1. Define and explain the law of mass action and derive the expression for the equilibrium
constant.
2. Write down the Kc for the following reactions. Suppose that the reaction mixture in all the case
is ‘V’ dm−3
(i) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l)
(ii) 2HI H2 + I2
(iii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
3. In the equilibrium: PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) H = 90kJ mol–1
(a) the position of equilibrium (b) equilibrium constant
What is the effect on the following changes? Explain your answer.
(i) temperature is increased (ii) volume of the container is decreased
(iii) catalyst is added (iv) chlorine is added
4. Synthesis of ammonia by Haber’s process is an exothermic reaction.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) H = –92.46 kJ
What should be possible effect of change of temperature at equilibrium stage?
(i) The pH of 10-3 mol dm-3 of an aqueous solution (a) Decrease (b) Increase
of H2SO4 is: (c) Remain unchanged (d) Become zero
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.7 (iv) If the pH of a solution is 11, what is the
(c) 2.0 (d) 1.5 [OH−] concentration in the solution?
(ii) Solubility product of AgCl is 2.01010 (a) 1 × 10-3 M (b) 1 × 10-11 M
mol2dm6. Maximum concentration of Ag+1 (c) 1 × 10-2 M (d) 1 × 10-14 M
ions in the solution is: (v) Which of the following pairs forms a buffer
(a) 2.0  10 mol dm
10 3 solution?
(b) 1.4  10 mol dm
5 3 (a) HCl and NaCl
(c) 1.0  10 mol dm
10 3 (b) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
(d) 4.0  1020 mol dm3 (c) NaOH and HCl
(iii)If the concentration of Cl– ion in a solution (d) NH3 and Na₂SO4
is increased, the solubility of silver chloride
(AgCl) will:

1. The pH of 103 mol dm3 of an aqueous 5. NaOH is a strong base because:

solution of H2SO4 is: (A) it gives OH ion
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.7 (B) it can be easily ionized
(C) 2.0 (D) 1.5 (C) it can be oxidized
2. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid (D) both (A) and (B)
HQ is 3. The value of the ionization 6. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared
constant, Ka of this acid is: by mixing:
(A) 3  101 (B) 1  105 (A) solution of acetate and acetic acid
(C) 1  103 (D) 1  107 (B) ammonium chloride and ammonium
3. The number of H+ ions present in 1 cm3 of hydroxide
a solution whose pH is 10 is: (C) sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate
(A) 1010 (B) 6.02  1010 (D) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide
(C) 1013 (D) 6.02  1013 7. Basie buffer is prepared by mixing together
4. The pH of a 109 M solution of HCl in water a weak base, and its salt with:
is: (A) Weak base (B) Strong base
(A) 8 (B) between 7 and 8
(C) Weak acid (D) Strong acid
(C) 8 (D) between 6 and 7
Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions
(i) Define the following with an example for each:
(i) Ionization constant (ii) Solubility product (iii) Common ion effect
(iv) Acid-base Indicator
(ii) Differentiate between:
(i) Hydrolysis and dissolution (ii) Acidic and basic buffer solutions
(iii) Which salt would you expect to dissolve more readily in acidic solution: Barium sulfate or
Barium fluoride? Explain.
(iv) Why does common ion effect decrease solubility of a less soluble salt?
(v) State the basic principle of solubility product. Mention factors affecting solubility product.
(vi) Prove by equations what happens when Na2CrO4 is added to saturated solution of PbCrO4.
(vii) If the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is 1×10–5 M, what is the pH of the solution?

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) In a solution, the pH is 9.2. Determine the ionic product of water, Kw at 25°C.
(2) The ionic product of water at a certain temperature is Kw = 1.0 × 10−14 at 25ºC. If the
concentration of H+ ions in a solution is 1.0 × 10−7M. Calculate the concentration of OH− ions,
the pH and pOH of the solution.
(3) A solution is prepared by mixing equal volumes of two solutions: one with a pH of 4.0 and
another with a pH of 10.0. Calculate the Kw for this mixture at 25°C.
(4) At a specific temperature, the ionic product of water Kw is 1.0 × 10−14. If the concentration of
OH− ions in a solution is 2.5 × 10−8 M. Calculate the concentration of H+ ions and the pH of
the solution.
(5) Copper-plate etching solutions is prepared by diluting concentrated HNO3 to 0.30 M HNO3.
Calculate [H+], pH, [OH–] and pOH of this solutions at 25ºC.
(6) Calculate the concentration of [H3O+] in a 0.1 M (mol dm–3) solution of acetic acid
[CH3COOH], given that the acid dissociation constant Ka is 1.8 × 10–5.
(7) The pH of a 0.10 M solution of formic acid, HCOOH, at 25°C is 2.38. Calculate Ka for formic
acid at this temperature.
(8) Calculate the concentration of [H3O+] in a 0.1 M solution of nitrous acid [HNO2], given that
the acid dissociation constant Ka is 4×10-4.
(9) A vinegar sample is found to have 0.837 M CH3COOH. Its hydronium ion concentration is
found to be 3.86 x 10−3 mol dm–3. Calculate Ka for acetic acid.
(10) Explain the impact of common ion effect on solubility.
(11) To a saturated solution of AgCl, some of NaCl solution was added.
i. State the effect of the concentration of Ag+ on the equilibrium.
ii. Explain your answer with respect to the common ion effect.
(12) How does a buffer maintain pH stability?
(13) Predict whether CaSO4 will be precipitated or not when 10–3 mol dm-3 of each of Ca2+ and
SO42- is mixed together.
(14) Solution of potassium carbonate is basic.
i. Explain why the solution is alkaline.
ii. Also give the equation for the hydrolysis of the above salt.
(15) What is the justification for the increase of ionic product with temperature?
(16) (c) How would you prove that at 25oC, 1dm3 of water contains 10–7 moles of H3O+ and 10–7
moles of OH–.
(17) Define pH and pOH. How are they related with pKw?
(18) What happens to the acidic and basic properties of aqueous solutions when pH varies from zero
to 14?
(19) It is true that sum of pKa and pKb is always equal to 14 at all temperatures for any acid? If not,
why?
(20) How pH and pOH are related with each other?
(21) Prove that pKa + pKb = 14 at 25oC.
(22) Why water is a weak electrolyte?
(23) Write the relationship of pH and pOH with pKw.
(24) What is ionization constant of acids?
(25) What is common ion effect? Give two examples. How common ion effect helps us to purify
commercial table salt?
(26) Discuss the effect of common ion on solubility.
(27) Discuss effect of common ion on solubility of sparingly soluble salt with one example.
(28) Explain that a mixture of NH4OH and NH4Cl gives us basic buffer.
(29) What is acidic buffer? Give one example.
(30) Write down Henderson’s equation for acidic buffer and basic buffer.
(31) How acidic and basic buffers are prepared? Give one example of each.
(32) Define solubility product with an example.

LONG QUESTIONS

1. Calculate the pH of a buffer consisting of 0.50 M HF and 0.45 M of a fluoride (F–) salt before and
after addition of 0.40 g NaOH to 1.0 dm3 of the buffer(Ka of HF = 6.8x10-4).
2. Calculate the pH of a buffer solution in which 0.11 molar CH3COONa and 0.09 molar acetic
acid solutions are present. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.85x10-5.
3. Ca(OH)2 is a sparingly soluble compound. Its solubility product is 6.5  106. Calculate the
solubility of Ca(OH)2.
4. A buffer solution has a pH of 5.0. It is made from a weak acid HA with a pKa of 4.8. What is
the ratio of the concentration of the conjugate base [A−] to the concentration of the weak acid
[HA] in this buffer?
5. Calculate the solubility of a sparingly salt lead (II) iodide (PbI2) in water. It has Ksp=1.4×10-8.
6. The molar solubility of silver chromate (Ag2CrO4 ) in pure water at 298 K is 6.5×10−5 mol
dm−3. Calculate the Ksp of silver chromate at this temperature.
(i) The salt bridge allows transfer of --------- (a) Cu2+(aq) +2e−→ Cu(s)
--- in Zn-Cu voltaic cell. (b) Cu+(aq) + e−→ Cu(s)
(a) Zn2+ ions (b) SO42- ions (c) Cu+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + e−
(c) Both (d) None of these (d) 2Cu+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(ii) If Zn-Cu galvanic cell works ideally after (v) If salt bridge is not used between two half
complete discharge, both compartments cells in a Galvanic cell, then the voltage
will have: (a) Decrease slowly (b) Decrease rapidly
(a) CuSO4 solution (b) ZnSO4 solution (c) Does not change (d) Drop to zero
(c) Cu+2 ions (d) Zn solid (vi) Which of the following changes would
(iii)Which of the following half-reactions typically lead to an increase in the rate of
represents a reduction process? electrolysis?
(a) Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e− (a) Decreasing the concentration of the
(b) Fe2+(aq) → Fe3+(aq) + e− electrolyte
(c) Cl2(g) + 2e−→ 2Cl−(aq) (b) Increasing the distance between the
(d) 2H+(aq) + 2e− → H2(g) electrodes
(iv) Which of the following half-reactions (c) Decreasing the surface area of the
represents the oxidation process electrodes
occurring in the disproportionation of (d) Increasing the current passed through
Cu+? the electrolytic cell

1. A standard hydrogen electrode has zero (A) Temperature (B) Pressure

electrode potential because: (C) Concentration (D) All of these
(A) hydrogen is easiest to oxidize 5. The metal which will act as anode when
(B) this electrode potential is assumed to be connected to copper:
zero (A) Ag (B) Hg
(C) hydrogen atom has only one electron (C) Au (D) Al
(D) hydrogen is the lightest element 6. Which metal can be used as a sacrificial
2. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is electrode to prevent the rusting of an iron
from: pipe?
(A) Cathode to anode in solution (A) Au (B) Ag
(B) Cathode to anode through external supply (C) Cu (D) Mn
(C) Cathode to anode through internal supply 7. Which one of the following will be good
(D) Anode to cathode through internal supply conductor of electricity:
3. In which substance does bromine have an (A) pure distilled water
oxidation number of +1? (B) dilute solution of glucose
(A) Br2 (B) HbrO (C) molten NaCl
(C) HBr (D) HbrO2 (D) chloroform
4. Electrode potential depends on:
8. Which of the following conduct electricity 9. Strongest oxidizing agent in the
due to the migration of electrons only? electrochemical series is:
(A) copper metal (B) NaCl (A) Li (B) H2
(C) NaCl molten (D) NaCl solution (C) F2 (D) I2

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) How and why electrical double layer is formed?
(ii) Why electrode potential of Cu is called reduction potential?
(iii) What are the advantages of salt bridge in a Galvanic cell?
(iv) How can we predict the feasibility of a chemical reaction using the cell voltage?
(v) During electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, why Na is not liberated at the cathode?
(vi) Calculate the Ox. No. of chromium (Cr) in the following compounds:
(i) CrCl3 (ii) Cr2(SO4)3 (iii) Cr2O72–

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Define oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer with examples.
(2) Define oxidation and reduction in terms of change in oxidation number with examples.
Determine Ox. No. of:
(i) Oxygen (N) in Na2O (ii) Iodine (I) in ICl3
1-
(iii) Nitrogen (N) in NO3 (iv) Chromium (Cr) in K2Cr2O7
(v) Manganese (Mn) in KMnO4.
(3) Identify the oxidized species and reduced species in the following equation. Also identify
the oxidizing and reducing agents on the reactant side.
(i) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g)  2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) (ii) CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g)  CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l)
(4) Identify the species in the following reaction which undergoes both oxidation and reduction.
(i) 2Na2O2(s) + 2H2O(l)  4NaOH(aq) + O2(g)
(ii) P₄ (s) + 3OH⁻(aq) + 3H₂O(l)  PH₃(g) + 3H₂PO₂⁻(aq)
(5) What is the function of salt bridge in the voltaic cell?
(i) Which of the following reagents is (a) Markovnikov’s rule
typically used for the acid-catalyzed (b) Hund’s rule
hydration of alkenes to form alcohols? (c) Le Chatelier’s principle
(a) H2 /Ni (d) Aufbau principle
(b) O3 followed by Zn/H2O (vi) The most stable carbonium ion among the
(c) Dilute H2SO4 following is:
(d) Br2 in CCl4 (a) CH3+ (b) CH3CH2+
(ii) Halogenation of alkanes is an example of: (c) (CH3)2 CH+ (d) (CH3)3 C+
(a) Electrophilic substitution (vii) Markownikov’s rule is applicable to :
(b) Nucleophilic substitution (a) CH2 = CH2
(c) Free-radical substitution (b) CH3 — CH2 — CH3
(d) Oxidation (c) CH3 — CH = CH—CH3
(iii)Which of the following reactions can an (d) (CH3)2 — C = CH2
alkane undergo? (viii) What intermediate is formed during the
(a) Addition (b) Substitution electrophilic addition of HBr to an
(c) Polymerization (d) Nitration alkene?
(iv) What is the first step in the electrophilic (a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
addition reaction of alkenes? (c) Radical (d) Epoxide
(a) Formation of a carbocation (ix) Which of the following carbocations
(b) Attack by a nucleophile would be the least stable?
(c) Attack by an electrophile on the double (a) (CH3)2 CH+ (b) CH3CH2+
bond (c) CH3+ (d) (CH3)3C+
(d) Formation of a free radical (x) Which of the following is the repeating
(v) The addition of unsymmetrical reagent to unit in the polymer poly(ethene)?
an unsymmetrical alkene is in accordance (a) −CH2 CH3− (b) −CH=CH−
with the rule/principle? (c) −CH2CH2− (d) −CH(CH3)CH2 −

1. Formula of chloroform is: 3. Which types of reactions are given by

(A) CH3Cl (B) CCl4 alkanes?
(C) CH2Cl2 (D) CHCl3 (A) Addition (B) Substitution
2. The presence of a double bond in a (C) Elimination (D) Polymerization
compound is the sign of: 4. Alkanes are non-polar, they are soluble in:
(A) Saturation (B) Unsaturation (A) Diethyl ether (B) Benzene
(C) Substitution (D) None (C) Toluene (D) All of these
5. In ethene, each carbon atom is: (A) Sunlight (B) Platinum catalyst
3 2
(A) sp hybridized (B) sp -hybridized (C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Asbestos
(C) sp-hybridized (D) Unhybridized 7. Olefins is the second name of:
6. The addition of HBr to propylene takes (A) Alkanes (B) Alkenes
place opposite to Markownikov’s rule in (C) Alkynes (D) Alkyl halides
presence of:

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) Differentiate between: i) Aliphatic and Aromatic hydrocarbons
(ii) Homolytic and Heterolytic Fission (iii) Electrophile and Nucleophile
(ii) Explain why alkanes do not undergo addition reactions.
(iii) How elimination reaction is considered the opposite of an addition reaction?
(iv) Compare the carbocation stability in propene and 2-Butene.
(v) Explain how inductive effects from alkyl groups stabilize carbocations in alkenes.
(vi) Write structural formulas for each of the following compounds:
(i) Isobutylene (ii) 2,3,4,4-Tetramethyl-2-pentene
(iii) 2,5-Heptadiene (iv) 4,5-Dimethyl-2-hexene (v) Vinyl acetylene
(vi) 1,3-Pentadiene (vii) 1-Butyne (viii) 3-n-Propyl-1,4-pentadiene
(ix) Vinyl bromide (x) But-1-en-3-yne (xi) 4-Methyl-2-pentyne
(xii) Isopentane
Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions
(1) Write down the structural formulas for 2-methylbutane and 2,2-dimethylpropane
(2) Write down displayed formula of 2, 3, 3–Trimethylhexane and Methyl cyclohexane.
(3) Give two differences between molecules of cyclopentane and pentane.
(4) Eicosane is a straight chain alkane whose molecules contain 20 carbon atoms. What is the
molecular formula of eicosane?
(5) Why do branched alkanes have lower boiling points than the straight-chain alkanes?
(6) Explain why alkanes have a tetrahedral shape.
(7) Draw the shapes of cyclopropane and cyclopentane.
(8) Explain why alkanes have high stability?
(9) What are major types of reactions that alkanes undergo?
(10) How the termination step occurs in the halogenation of alkanes?
(11) State the conditions under which a mixture of halogenoalkanes is obtained from the
halogenation of alkanes.
(12) Predict the products of the free radical chlorination of ethane.
(13) Give the reactions of propanol with H2SO4. Write down all the reaction involved:
(14) Name the following alkenes:
(15) Give the dehydrohalogenation reaction of bromopropane.
(16) Can propanol undergo dehydration? If yes give reactions involving dehydration.
(17) How does an alkane differ from an alkene in stability?
(18) Which of the following species is likely to act as a nucleophile or an electrophile? Why?
 (i) H2 (ii) H+ (iii) OH–
(19) How do alkenes react with an electrophile?
(20) Why the order of stability of carbocation is 3° > 2° > 1°?
(21) Compare and explain the relative rates of addition of HCl, HBr, and HI to alkenes:
(22) Explain the difference between an addition reaction and an elimination reaction.
(23) How alkene react with an electrophile?
(24) Write the equation for the ozonolysis of ethene.
(25) Give the epoxidation reaction of 2-Butene.
(26) How ozonolysis can indicate the position of a double bond in an alkene? Explain it with the
help of an example.
(27) Explain how Markovnikove’s rule is applied in addition of HBr to 2-Pentene.
(28) Explain why an addition reaction increases the saturation of a molecule.

LONG QUESTIONS
1. Describe the free radical halogenation of methane using Cl2 as an example.
2. Describe the following methods for the preparation of alkenes:
(i) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides (ii) Dehydration of alcohols
3. Describe the mechanism of electrophilic addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes.
4. Discuss Markovnikov’s rule in the context of hydrogen halide addition.
(i) Despite being the most abundant gas in the nitrogen oxides (NOx) into nitrogen gas
Earth’s atmosphere, nitrogen does not (N2) and oxygen gas (O2) is a process of:
readily participate in combustion (a) Oxidation. (b) Reduction.
reactions because: (c) Combustion. (d) Neutralization
(a) It is denser than oxygen. (v) PAN formation starts when______ reacts
(b) It has a high specific heat capacity. with the hydrocarbon.
(c) Breaking the N ≡ N bond requires a large (a) NO (b) NO2
amount of energy. (c) O3 (d) HO•
(d) It is a noble gas. (vi) Nitrification is the process by which:
(ii) A student heats a solid ammonium salt (a) Atmospheric nitrogen is converted into
with a solution of a strong alkali. The gas ammonia.
produced turns damp red litmus paper (b) Nitrate is converted into nitrogen gas.
blue and has a characteristic pungent (c) Ammonia is converted into nitrite and
smell. The gas is: then nitrate.
(a) Hydrogen (H2) (d) Organic nitrogen is converted into
(b) Carbon dioxide (CO2) ammonia
(c) Ammonia (NH3) (vii) The most stable species in an acidic
(d) Sulfur dioxide (SO2) environment is
(iii) The shape of ammonium is (a) SO42- (b) SO2
(a) pyramidal (c) H2S (d) S
(b) triangular planar (viii) Which gas is used in separating hard
(c) tetrahedral water from normal water?
(d) linear (a) SO2 (b) H2S
(iv) In a catalytic converter, the conversion of (c) NH3 (d) NO2

1. Out of all the elements of group VA, the (A) N2O (B) N2O3
highest ionization energy is possessed by. (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
(A) N (B) P 4. The brown gas formed, when metal
(C) Sb (D) Bi reduces HNO3, is:
2. Among group VA elements, the most (A) N2O5 (B) N2O3
electronegative elements is: (C) NO2 (D) NO
(A) Sb (B) N 5. __ is used in storage cells and electrical
(C) P (D) As battery.
3. Oxidation of NO in air produces: (A) H2SO4 (B) Oleum
(C) H3PO4 (D) HPO3
6. Which gas is heavier than air? 8. Nitrogen differs from the other elements of
(A) N2O (B) NO group-VA in which of following
(C) NO2 (D) Cl2 properties?
7. The oxidation state of S in S2Cl2 is: (A) Its outermost shell has five electrons in it
(A) +1 (B) +2 (B) It is a gas at room temperature
(C) +3 (D) +4 (C) It forms covalent bond
(D) All

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) List two reasons for the inertness of N2.
(ii) How is nitrogen isolated from air?
(iii) Why ammonia (NH3) is a weak base?
(iv) Write down the reactions of photochemical smog formation.
(v) What is the construction and function of a catalytic converter?
(vi) Why sulfur is quite unreactive at room temperature?
(vii) Which are the most stable oxidation states of sulphur in water at pH=0 and pH=14?
(viii) How does sulfur react with halogens?
(ix) What is the role of sulfur in the vulcanization of rubber?
(x) What is the composition and the chemical reaction of gunpowder combustion?

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Why N2 gas is used in food packaging?
(2) Both CO and N2 have triple bonds in their molecules. Why do you think CO is more reactive
than N2?
(3) Ammonium salts such as (NH4)2SO4 or (NH4)2NO3 are commonly used as fertilizers. Why a
farmer wouldn’t treat a field with an ammonium fertilizer at the same time as using lime?
What would be the chemical reactions?
(4) Draw the structures of the following oxides of nitrogen. Also, briefly explain their bonding.
(i) N2O (ii) NO (iii) NO2
(5) What does PAN stand for? Give its general formula.
(6) Write down the formulas of the compounds responsible for the formation of PAN.
(7) If magnesium ribbon is ignited and placed in a jar containing N2O, it continues to burn
brightly, how does the product form in this reaction confirm the structure of N2O?
(8) Write down the reduction and oxidation reactions that occur in the catalytic converter in the
vehicle exhausts.
(9) What is the basic principle of catalytic converter? Describe the role of catalyst in the catalytic
converter.
(10) Do hybrid and electric cars have catalytic converters? Explain why or why not.
(11) Determine the oxidation state of ‘S’ in the following species.
i. SO3 ii. H2SO4 iii. SO42- iv. S2O32–
(12) Which oxidation states of sulfur are the most common? Explain your answer with reason.
(13) Explain the involvement of d orbital in variable oxidation states of S in its compounds.
(14) What is the function of SO2 and sulfite (SO32-) salt in preserving the food?
(15) Give the reaction of S with HCl acid and NaOH.
LONG QUESTIONS
1. Explain the preparation and basicity of ammonia.
2. How oxides of nitrogen (NOx) cause the formation of photochemical smog and PAN? Give
its mechanism.
3. Differentiate between nitrification and denitrification.
4. Discuss various factors that affect the stability of oxidation states of sulfur.
5. Give uses of sulfur and its compounds.
(i) Which halogen molecule has the strongest (a) Iodine reacts most vigorously with
bond? hydrogen.
(a) F2 (b) Br2 (b) Chlorine and hydrogen explode in
(c) I2 (d) Cl2 darkness.
(ii) The volatility of the halogens (Group 17) (c) Fluorine combines explosively with
generally _________ as you move down the hydrogen even in cold and dark conditions.
group (from Fluorine to Iodine). (d) Bromine and hydrogen do not react at all.
(a) Increases (iv) Why is fluorine the most reactive halogen?
(b) Decreases (a) Bond length in the fluorine molecule
(c) Remains the same (b) Bond strength in the fluorine molecule
(d) Fluctuates unpredictably (c) Electronegativity of the fluorine
(iii)Which statement about the reaction (d) Number of electrons in the fluorine
between halogens and hydrogen is molecule
correct?

1. Which of the following hydrogen halide is (A) F2 (B) Br2

the weakest acid in solution? (C) Cl2 (D) I2
(A) HF (B) HBr 8. Colour of which halogen is not correctly
(C) HI (D) HCl related?
2. Hydrogen bond is the strongest between (A) F2-Colorless
the molecules of: (B) Cl2Greenish Yellow
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) Br2-Reddish brown liquid
(C) HBr (D) HI (D) I2-Greyish black solid
3. Strongest reducing agent is: 9. The factor which does not affect the
(A) HF (B) HBr oxidizing power of a halogen is:
(C) HCl (D) HI (A) Energy of dissociation
4. Most powerful oxidizing agent: (B) Electron Affinity
(A) Cl2 (B) Br2 (C) Heat of hydration
(C) F2 (D) I2 (D) Ionization energy
5. Which of the following halogens is solid at 10. The halogen that is most readily reduced is:
room temperature? (A) Fluorine (B) Bromine
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Chlorine (D) Iodine
(C) Br2 (D) I2 11. Fluorine is the best oxidizing agent because it
6. The element which causes burn to skin has:
that heals slowly: (A) Highest electron affinity
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (B) Highest Eored
(C) Br2 (D) Acid (C) Highest Eored
7. Which one of the following has maximum (D) Lowest electro negativity
bond energy?
Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions
(i) Which halogen is the least reactive, which is the most reactive? Give reason.
(ii) The ionic equation for a reaction is:
Br2 + 2I– →Br– + I2
Explain which species is oxidized in this reaction. Why?
(iii) What is role of London dispersion forces in the trend of volatility of halogens?
(iv) How does the reactivity of halogens with hydrogen vary?
(v) Which halogen is used as an antiseptic? How does it work?
(vi) What is the colour change when chlorine displaces bromine?
(vii) How the halogen acids are ionized in water?
(viii) Why HF is weaker acid than HCl?
(ix) Describe a simple chemical test that could be used to distinguish between aqueous
solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. Include the reagents and
expected observations.
(x) What is disproportionation reaction? Give an example.

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Which halogen elements are radioactive?
(2) What is the reason behind the different colours of halogens?
(3) Why chlorine is more volatile than bromine and iodine?
(4) The F – F bond is weaker than Cl – Cl bond although fluorine is the most electronegative
element, Explain.
(5) What is the relationship between the oxidizing power of halogens and their standard reduction
potential values?
(6) Why HOCl is more effective disinfectant than OCl– to kill bacteria in water?
(7) What are the factors that affect disinfection of bacteria in water?
(8) What are the primary active species in the chlorination of water? Give equation that shows
their formation.
(9) Why iodine has metallic luster?
(10) Which halogen sublimes to violet vapours?
(11) F2 is a gas while I2 is a solid at room temperature. Why?
(12) Halogens are strong oxidizing agents. Justify it.
(13) Name the factors on which oxidizing power of halogens depends.

LONG QUESTIONS
1. Discuss the relative reactivity of the halogen elements as oxidizing agents. Arrange F2,
Cl2, Br2, I2 in increasing order of the oxidizing power.
2. How does chlorine act as a disinfectant in water purification? Explain the factors
affecting the efficiency of disinfection.
(i) Which gas causes yellow color in (d) Pesticides
photochemical smog? (v) What are the primary chemical
(a) CO (b) SO3 processes that removes carbon dioxide
(c) NO2 (d) SO2 from the atmosphere?
(ii) The depletion of Ozone in stratosphere (a) Combustion
region is mainly due to the reaction of O3 (b) Photosynthesis
with: (c) Respiration
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (d) Volcanic activity
(c) O2 (d) CFCs (vi) Acid rain is primarily caused by the
(iii)What is a common human activity that release of which of the following gases
led to increased level of carbon monoxide into the atmosphere?
in the atmosphere? (a) CO2 and CH4 (b) SO2 and NOₓ
(a) Tree planting (c) CFCs and halons (d) O3 and CO
(b) Gasoline driven vehicles (vii) In the presence of sunlight and nitrogen
(c) Using electric appliances oxides (NOx), VOCs can contribute to the
(d) Solar panel installation formation of:
(iv) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have been (a) Acid rain
primarily used in ……. (b) Ozone depletion
(a) Fertilizers (c) Photochemical smog
(b) Refrigerants and aerosol propellants (d) Greenhouse gases
(c) Pharmaceuticals

1. The pH range of the acid rain is: (a) SO2 (b) CO

(a) 7-6.5 (b) 6.5-6 (c) NO2 (d) CO2
(c) 6-5.6 (d) less than 5 6. The stratosphere where the ozone layer
2. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is an irritant exists in the atmosphere is approximately
to human beings and it affects: at ___ kilometers altitude.
(a) eyes (b) ears (a) 10-15 (b) 10-20
(c) stomach (d) nose (c) 20-30 (d) 15-40
3. Reducing smog contains high contents of: 7. Which one of the following substances
(a) NO2 (b) SO2 cause acid rain?
(c) NO (d) CO2 (a) SO2
4. Lithosphere extends in earth up to the (b) Hydrocarbons
depth of: (c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(a) 50 km (b) 100 km (d) O3
(c) 150 km (d) 30 km
5. Which gas is not a pollutant?
8. The yellowish colour in photochemical (c) one (d) four
smog is due to the presence of: 11. The proportion of N2 in atmosphere is:
(a) NO (b) NO2 (a) 78% (b) 21%
(c) SO2 (d) CO2 (c) 0.9% (d) 0.03%
9. Ozone layer is present in: 12. Which compound is responsible for ozone
(a) troposphere (b) thermosphere depletion?
(c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere (a) CHCl3 (b) CH2Cl2
10. Ozone is a gas having oxygen atom: (c) CFCs (d) CCl4
(a) three (b) two

Exam-Critical (Exercise) Questions

(i) Identify and briefly explain three major natural sources of air pollutants.
(ii) How can deforestation impact air quality?
(iii) Explain the reasons for the temperature trends observed in the troposphere and the stratosphere.
(iv) How does polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon (PAHs) affect human health?
(v) What is photochemical smog? Under what conditions, it forms?
(vi) What are the main chemical processes involved in the formation of acid rain?

Exam Advantage (Quick Check / Important) Questions

(1) Mention important air pollutants.
(2) Give the equations for the formation and depletion of ozone in the stratosphere.
(3) Write down the names and approximate height of different layers of atmosphere.
(4) Mention man-made sources of air pollution.
(5) How do polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) primarily enter the atmosphere?
(6) How do volatile organic compounds (VOCs) affect air quality?
(7) What are major sources of heavy metals in the atmosphere?
(8) Differentiate classical and photochemical smog.
(9) Name greenhouse gases (GHGs). How do these gases cause global warming?
(10) Write a balanced equation, including state symbols, showing the formation of sulfuric acid
from atmospheric sulfur trioxide, SO3.
(11) How HNO3 is formed from NO in the atmosphere?

LONG QUESTIONS
1. Discuss sources and effects of following air pollutants on environment:
(i) Heavy metals (ii) VOCs (iii) PAHs (iv) POPs
2. Write short notes on the following:
(i) CFCs and ozone layer depletion (ii) Greenhouse effect and global warming
3. How the fossil fuel burning causes acid rain? Discuss in detail with chemical
reactions.