MATHEMATICS

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (40 Marks)

Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the space provided.
1. Which of these is an improper fraction?
a) 2/3
b) 5/7
c) 9/4
d) 1 1/2
Answer: ______
2. The number 12,508 in words is:
a) Twelve thousand and fifty-eight
b) One thousand two hundred fifty-eight
c) Twelve thousand five hundred eight
d) Twelve thousand five hundred eighty
Answer: ______
3. What is the value of the digit 7 in the number 87,426?
a) 7,000
b) 700
c) 70
d) 7
Answer: ______
4. XLV in Roman numerals is equal to:
a) 45
b) 65
c) 55
d) 15
Answer: ______
5. What is the sum of 4,567 and 1,298?
a) 5,765
b) 5,865
c) 5,965
d) 6,865
Answer: ______
6. Which number is the smallest?
a) 10,101
b) 10,011
 c) 10,110
d) 11,001
Answer: ______
7. The fraction 18/5 is equivalent to the mixed number:
a) 3 3/5
b) 3 2/5
c) 3 4/5
d) 3 1/5
Answer: ______
8. Subtract: 8,000 - 2,345
a) 5,655
b) 6,655
c) 5,755
d) 6,755
Answer: ______
9. The Roman numeral for 99 is:
a) IC
b) XCIX
c) CIX
d) LXXXXIX
Answer: ______
10. What is 1/3 of 21?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 18
d) 24
Answer: ______
11. The place value of 8 in 25.84 is:
a) Units
b) Tens
c) Tenths
d) Hundredths
Answer: ______
12. Which set of fractions is arranged in descending order (largest to smallest)?
a) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4
b) 1/4, 1/3, 1/2
c) 2/5, 3/5, 1/5
 d) 3/4, 2/4, 4/4
Answer: ______
13. The difference between 10,000 and 4,678 is:
a) 5,322
b) 6,322
c) 5,222
d) 6,222
Answer: ______
14. The number "Fifty thousand and fourteen" in figures is:
a) 50,140
b) 50,014
c) 5,014
d) 50,104
Answer: ______
15. What is the missing number? 5/7 = ?/35
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 15
Answer: ______
16. Add: XL + XIX
a) 59
b) 69
c) 61
d) 64
Answer: ______
17. A baker has 5 loaves of bread. He cuts each loaf into 8 equal slices. What fraction
represents one slice?
a) 1/5
b) 1/8
c) 5/8
d) 8/5
Answer: ______
18. Round 7,689 to the nearest hundred.
a) 7,600
b) 7,700
c) 7,690
 d) 7,680
Answer: ______
19. Which of these is a whole number?
a) 7.5
b) 12/4
c) 5/3
d) 2.25
Answer: ______
20. The sum of 2/5 and 3/10 is:
a) 5/15
b) 1/2
c) 7/10
d) 5/10
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Show your working clearly.
1. Fractions and Word Problem
A pizza was cut into 12 equal slices. David ate 4 slices, and Sarah ate 3 slices.
a) What fraction of the pizza did David eat? (1 mark)
b) What fraction of the pizza did Sarah eat? (1 mark)
c) What fraction of the pizza did they eat together? (2 marks)
d) What fraction of the pizza was left? (1 mark)
Answer:
a) ______
b) ______
c) ______
d) ______
2. Place Value and Number Sense
a) Write the number 45,209 in words. (2 marks)
b) Write the number "Seventy-six thousand, one hundred and three" in figures. (1 mark)
c) What is the difference between the place value of the two 5s in the number 65,457? (2 marks)
Working:
3. Addition and Subtraction
A library had 12,538 books. In a donation, they received 3,456 new books. Later, 897
 books were lost in a flood.
a) How many books did the library have after the donation? (2 marks)
b) How many books were left after the flood? (2 marks)
4. Roman Numerals
a) Write the following in Roman numerals: (2 marks)
i. 38 = __________
ii. 94 = __________
b) Write the following in Hindu-Arabic numerals: (2 marks)
i. LXXII = __________
ii. XCIV = __________
5. Fractions and Mixed Numbers
a) Convert 2 3/4 to an improper fraction. Show your working. (2 marks)
b) Sarah has 5/6 of a meter of ribbon. Her friend Jane has 2/3 of a meter. Who has more ribbon?
Show your working to prove your answer. (3 marks)
Working:
ENGLISH
SECTION A: COMPREHENSION (10 Marks)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The Green Thumb Club
Last term, Mr. Bello, our science teacher, started a new club called the Green Thumb Club. Its
main goal was to teach students how to grow their own vegetables. We were all very excited. We
cleared a small patch of land behind the school library and planted seeds for tomatoes, spinach,
and carrots.
We took turns watering the plants every morning and afternoon. At first, nothing happened, and
some of us became impatient. However, after two weeks, tiny green shoots began to appear! We
were thrilled. We continued to care for the plants, removing weeds and protecting them from
strong sun with a net.
By the end of the term, we had a beautiful garden full of fresh vegetables. We harvested them
and gave some to the school kitchen, which used them to make a special soup for the entire
school. The rest we shared among ourselves to take home. We felt proud of our hard work and
learned that patience and consistency are key to success.
Answer these questions based on the passage.
1. Who is the founder of the Green Thumb Club?
Answer: _________________________________________________________
2. Where was the school garden located?
Answer: _________________________________________________________
3. List two vegetables that the students planted.
i. ________________________________
ii. _______________________________
4. Why did the students feel impatient at the beginning?
Answer: _________________________________________________________
5. What did the students learn from this experience?
Answer: _________________________________________________________
SECTION B: GRAMMAR (40 Marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the space provided.
Best Complete (Questions 6-10)
 6. If you study hard, you __________ your exams.
a) pass
b) will pass
c) passed
d) are passing
Answer: ______
7. The boy, along with his friends, __________ to the field.
a) go
b) have gone
c) has gone
d) are going
Answer: ______
8. She is __________ honest girl that everyone trusts her.
a) a
b) an
c) the
d) very
Answer: ______
9. There isn't __________ milk left in the bottle.
a) many
b) few
c) some
d) any
Answer: ______
10. My sister is __________ at singing than I am.
a) good
b) better
c) best
d) more better
Answer: ______
Nearest in Meaning (Questions 11-15)
11. The student was diligent in his studies.
a) lazy
b) hardworking
c) clever
d) slow
Answer: ______
 12. We were astonished by the magic trick.
a) bored
b) very surprised
c) angry
d) happy
Answer: ______
13. The room was vacant.
a) empty
b) crowded
c) dirty
d) beautiful
Answer: ______
14. It was a brief meeting.
a) long
b) short
c) important
d) boring
Answer: ______
15. She commenced her homework immediately.
a) finished
b) forgot
c) started
d) corrected
Answer: ______
Antonyms (Questions 16-20)
16. What is the opposite of ANCIENT?
a) old
b) modern
c) historic
d) aged
Answer: ______
17. What is the opposite of GENEROUS?
a) kind
b) stingy
c) giving
d) friendly
Answer: ______
 18. What is the opposite of GATHER?
a) collect
b) scatter
c) meet
d) keep
Answer: ______
19. What is the opposite of MAJOR?
a) big
b) important
c) main
d) minor
Answer: ______
20. What is the opposite of VICTORY?
a) win
b) success
c) defeat
d) champion
Answer: ______
Active and Passive Voice (Questions 21-25)
21. Choose the sentence that is in the active voice.
a) The ball was kicked by the boy.
b) The cake was baked by my mother.
c) The man built the house.
d) The letter was written by Sarah.
Answer: ______
22. Choose the passive voice form of: "The dog chased the cat."
a) The cat was chased by the dog.
b) The dog was chased by the cat.
c) The cat chased the dog.
d) The dog is chasing the cat.
Answer: ______
23. "The beautiful picture was drawn by Tunde." This sentence is in the __________ voice.
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Loud
d) Quiet
Answer: ______
 24. Change this sentence to passive voice: "The teacher praised the students."
a) The students praise the teacher.
b) The students were praised by the teacher.
c) The teacher was praised by the students.
d) The students are praising the teacher.
Answer: ______
25. Which sentence is in the active voice?
a) The window was broken by the storm.
b) The story was told by my grandmother.
c) The children played football in the field.
d) The food was cooked by the chef.
Answer: ______
SECTION C: THEORY - COMPOSITION (25 Marks)
Write a composition on one of the following topics. Your composition should be between
120 and 150 words.
Topic 1: A Day I Will Never Forget
Write about a day that was so special or surprising that you will always remember it. Describe
what happened, who was with you, and why it made such a strong impression on you.
Topic 2: How to Prepare My Favorite Meal
Describe the process of preparing your favorite food or meal. List the ingredients needed and
explain the steps clearly so that someone else could follow your instructions to make it.
Topic 3: If I Were the headmistress/master of My School for One Day
Write about what you would do if you were the headmistress/master of your school for a single
day. What changes would you make? What new rules would you introduce or remove? How
would you make the school day better for students and teachers?
SOCIAL STUDIES
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the space provided.
1. Which of these is an example of how people adapt to a cold environment?
a) Wearing light cotton clothes
b) Building houses with air conditioning
c) Using igloos for shelter
d) Planting coconut trees
Answer: ______
2. A family consisting of a father, mother, and their children is called a ______.
a) Extended family
b) Nuclear family
c) Community family
d) Single-parent family
Answer: ______
3. Unity in cultural diversity means:
a) Everyone must speak the same language.
b) People from different cultures living together in peace.
c) Only one culture is allowed in a country.
d) Cultures should not mix.
Answer: ______
4. Which of these is a positive effect of human activities on the environment?
a) Deforestation
b) Planting trees
c) Water pollution
d) Air pollution from cars
Answer: ______
5. Your cousin is a member of your ______.
a) Nuclear family
b) Immediate family
c) Extended family
d) Friends group
Answer: ______
6. An example of a negative influence of man on his environment is:
a) Creating a nature reserve
b) Throwing plastic waste into the ocean
 c) Using solar energy
d) Building a bird sanctuary
Answer: ______
7. Which of these is NOT a way to promote unity in a diverse society?
a) Celebrating different cultural festivals
b) Learning another language
b) Making fun of other people's traditions
d) Sharing meals from different cultures
Answer: ______
8. Your uncle's son is your ______.
a) Nephew
b) Brother
c) Cousin
d) Grandson
Answer: ______
9. Building canals and dams to water crops is an example of how people:
a) Depend on the environment
b) Adapt to the environment
c) Modify the environment
d) Pollute the environment
Answer: ______
10. Cultural diversity in a country is a source of:
a) Weakness
b) Strength and richness
c) Boredom
d) Sameness
Answer: ______
11. Who among these is part of your extended family?
a) Your mother
b) Your sister
c) Your grandfather
d) Your class teacher
Answer: ______
12. When a factory releases smoke that makes the air dirty, it is called:
a) Conservation
b) Air pollution
c) Modification
 d) Adaptation
Answer: ______
13. Respecting the culture of others shows:
a) Disrespect
b) Tolerance
c) Ignorance
d) Rudeness
Answer: ______
14. The main reason people wear thick clothing in cold regions is to:
a) Look fashionable
b) Adapt to the climate
c) Modify the climate
d) Pollute the environment
Answer: ______
15. A family tree helps us to:
a) Grow a tree at home
b) Know our ancestors and relatives
c) Learn about plant life
d) Count the number of friends we have
Answer: ______
16. Cutting down trees in a large forest without planting new ones is known as:
a) Afforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Conservation
d) Irrigation
Answer: ______
17. Which of these is a benefit of living in an extended family?
a) Less help with chores
b) Learning from older relatives
c) Having more privacy
d) Fewer people to talk to
Answer: ______
18. A national festival that brings all cultural groups together promotes:
a) Conflict
b) Unity
c) Discrimination
 d) Isolation
Answer: ______
19. Which of these is a duty of a child in the family?
a) Going to work
b) Paying bills
c) Obeying parents
d) Cooking for the whole family
Answer: ______
20. Recycling plastic bottles is a way to:
a) Protect the environment
b) Increase pollution
c) Waste resources
d) Make the environment dirtier
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in complete sentences.
1. Influence of Man on His Environment
a) Give two examples of how people MODIFY their environment. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
b) Give two examples of how people ADAPT to their environment. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
c) What is one negative effect of cutting down too many trees (deforestation)? (1 mark)

2. The Family
a) Differentiate between a nuclear family and an extended family. (2 marks)

b) List two roles of parents in the family. (2 marks)

i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
c) List two responsibilities of a child in the family. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
3. Unity in Cultural Diversity
a) What does "cultural diversity" mean? (2 marks)

b) Mention two ways students in a school can show respect for other cultures. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
4. Application
Imagine your school is having a "Cultural Day Celebration."
a) What are two positive things that can come from this event? (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
b) If you see a classmate making fun of another student's traditional food, what is the right thing
to do? (1 mark)
CRS
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the space provided.
Who created the heavens and the earth?
a) Moses
b) Adam
c) God
d) Abraham
Answer: ______

On which day did God create human beings?

a) First day
b) Third day
c) Fifth day
d) Sixth day
Answer: ______

God provided water for the Israelites in the wilderness from a:

a) River
b) Rock
c) Well
d) Cloud
Answer: ______

The first man created by God was:

a) Noah
b) Abel
c) Adam
d) Cain
Answer: ______

God provided the Israelites with ______ from heaven to eat in the wilderness.
a) Manna
b) Bread
c) Fish
d) Fruits
Answer: ______

Which of these is a purpose of God's creation?

a) For humans to destroy it
b) To show God's power and glory
c) To make the world crowded
d) For God to forget about it
Answer: ______

God protected Daniel from:

a) Drowning in a river
b) Being burned in fire
c) Hungry lions
d) A great storm
Answer: ______

The first woman created by God was:

a) Sarah
b) Rebecca
c) Mary
d) Eve
Answer: ______

God provided a great fish to save:

a) Moses
b) Jonah
c) David
d) Joseph
Answer: ______

"Then God saw everything that He had made, and indeed it was very ______."
a) Good
b) Bad
c) Small
d) Ugly
Answer: ______

God protected the Israelites from Pharaoh's army by:

a) Sending earthquakes
b) Parting the Red Sea
c) Making them invisible
d) Sending heavy rain
Answer: ______

Which of these shows God's provision?

a) Thunder and lightning
b) Rain for crops to grow
c) Volcanoes erupting
d) Earthquakes shaking
Answer: ______

God created humans in His own:

a) House
b) Country
c) Garden
d) Image
Answer: ______

God provided Elijah with food through:

a) Angels
b) Ravens
c) Doves
d) Eagles
Answer: ______

One purpose of creating plants and trees is to provide:

a) Shade and beauty
b) Darkness and fear
c) Problems for people
d) Homes for ghosts
Answer: ______
God protected baby Moses by:
a) Sending him to heaven
b) Having his mother put him in a basket on the river
c) Making him able to fly
d) Hiding him in a cave
Answer: ______

God created light on the:

a) Second day
b) First day
c) Fourth day
d) Third day
Answer: ______

God promised Abraham that his descendants would be as numerous as:

a) The fish in the sea
b) The stars in the sky
c) The grains of sand
d) Both b and c
Answer: ______

The Garden where God placed Adam and Eve was called:
a) Gethsemane
b) Eden
c) Nazareth
d) Bethlehem
Answer: ______
God's protection gives us:
a) Fear and worry
b) Strength and courage
c) Money and wealth
d) Pride and arrogance
Answer: ______

SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in complete sentences.

The Creation Story

a) List three things God created on the third day. (3 marks)
i. __________________________
ii. __________________________
iii. __________________________

b) Why do you think God rested on the seventh day? (2 marks)

God's Protection
a) Describe how God protected Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego. (2 marks)

b) Share one experience where you felt God protected you or your family. (3 marks)

God's Provision
a) How did God provide for the Israelites in the wilderness? Mention two ways. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________

b) Name two ways God provides for your family today. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________

Purpose of Creation
a) According to the Bible, what is the main purpose of creating humans? (2 marks)

b) Why did God create animals? Give two reasons. (2 marks)

i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________

Application
If you see a beautiful sunset or a rainbow, how does it remind you of God's creation and His
promises? (2 marks)
CIVIC
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer and write its letter in the space provided.
1. Loyalty means:
a) Being faithful to one's country, friends, or family
b) Changing friends often
c) Working only for money
d) Following bad leaders
Answer: ______
2. A good leader should be:
a) Dishonest
b) Corrupt
c) Responsible
d) Lazy
Answer: ______
3. Disloyalty to one's country can lead to:
a) Development
b) Progress
c) Corruption
d) Unity
Answer: ______
4. Which of these is a quality of a good leader?
a) Selfishness
b) Honesty
c) Rudeness
d) Pride
Answer: ______
5. A student who shows loyalty to his school will:
a) Destroy school property
b) Fight with classmates
c) Obey school rules
d) Come to school late
Answer: ______
6. When a leader is disloyal, the people may:
a) Trust him more
b) Lose respect for him
 c) Give him more money
d) Make him king forever
Answer: ______
7. Leadership is the ability to:
a) Control people by force
b) Guide and influence people
c) Make people afraid
d) Work alone
Answer: ______
8. A disloyal friend will:
a) Keep your secrets
b) Help you in times of need
c) Gossip about you
d) Support your dreams
Answer: ______
9. A prefect in a school is an example of a:
a) Bad leader
b) Young leader
c) Foreign leader
d) Political leader
Answer: ______
10. One consequence of disloyalty in a family is:
a) Happiness
b) Broken relationships
c) Unity
d) Peace
Answer: ______
11. A good leader listens to:
a) Only his own ideas
b) The opinions of others
c) No one
d) Only rich people
Answer: ______
12. Being loyal to your country means:
a) Throwing trash everywhere
b) Paying taxes honestly
c) Breaking traffic rules
 d) Destroying public property
Answer: ______
13. A disloyal employee may:
a) Work hard
b) Steal from the company
c) Be punctual
d) Respect the boss
Answer: ______
14. Democratic leadership means:
a) The leader makes all decisions alone
b) People participate in decision making
c) People have no say
d) The leader uses force
Answer: ______
15. Loyal citizens will:
a) Spread false rumors about their country
b) Protect national monuments
c) Burn the national flag
d) Avoid voting during elections
Answer: ______
16. Bad leadership can cause:
a) Development
b) Poverty in a nation
c) Happiness
d) Progress
Answer: ______
17. A loyal club member will:
a) Attend meetings regularly
b) Criticize the club always
c) Reveal club secrets
d) Try to break up the club
Answer: ______
18. Nepotism in leadership means:
a) Giving jobs to qualified people
b) Appointing only family members
c) Being fair to everyone
 d) Following the rules
Answer: ______
19. Disloyalty among friends can lead to:
a) Stronger friendship
b) Loss of trust
c) More friends
d) Better understanding
Answer: ______
20. A good leader should be a role model in:
a) Breaking rules
b) Good behavior
c) Telling lies
d) Being late
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Answer all questions in complete sentences.
1. Loyalty
a) What does it mean to be loyal to your country? (2 marks)

b) Mention two ways a student can show loyalty to his/her school. (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
2. Consequences of Disloyalty
a) Explain two consequences of a leader being disloyal to the people. (4 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________

ii. _______________________________________________________

b) What happens when friends are disloyal to each other? (2 marks)

 3. Leadership
a) List three qualities of a good leader. (3 marks)
i. __________________________
ii. __________________________
iii. __________________________
b) Differentiate between a leader and a follower. (2 marks)

4. Application in School
If you are chosen as the class prefect:
a) What are two responsibilities you would have? (2 marks)
i. _______________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________
b) How would you show loyalty to your class teacher and classmates? (3 marks)
HISTORY
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer.
1. The British rule in Nigeria began in which century?
a) 17th century
b) 18th century
c) 19th century
d) 20th century
Answer: ______
2. Who was the first Nigerian nationalist to demand self-government?
a) Nnamdi Azikiwe
b) Herbert Macaulay
c) Obafemi Awolowo
d) Ahmadu Bello
Answer: ______
3. The British introduced this system to administer Nigeria indirectly:
a) Direct Rule
b) Indirect Rule
c) Democratic Rule
d) Military Rule
Answer: ______
4. Nationalism means:
a) Love for one's country
b) Hatred for other countries
c) Supporting colonial rule
d) Opposing independence
Answer: ______
5. Nigeria gained independence in:
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1963
d) 1970
Answer: ______
6. The first political party in Nigeria was:
a) Action Group
b) Northern People's Congress
 c) Nigerian National Democratic Party
d) People's Redemption Party
Answer: ______
7. The British merged different ethnic groups to form Nigeria in:
a) 1900
b) 1914
c) 1920
d) 1930
Answer: ______
8. Who is called the "Father of Nigerian Nationalism"?
a) Herbert Macaulay
b) Nnamdi Azikiwe
c) Obafemi Awolowo
d) Tafawa Balewa
Answer: ______
9. The main reason for nationalism was to:
a) Continue British rule
b) Gain independence
c) Learn English language
d) Promote British culture
Answer: ______
10. The last British Governor-General of Nigeria was:
a) Lord Lugard
b) Sir James Robertson
c) Sir Arthur Richards
d) Sir John Macpherson
Answer: ______
11. Nationalists used these to fight for independence EXCEPT:
a) Newspapers
b) Political parties
c) Violent protests
d) Peaceful negotiations
Answer: ______
12. The first capital of Nigeria was:
a) Lagos
b) Abuja
c) Calabar
 d) Kaduna
Answer: ______
13. The name "Nigeria" was coined by:
a) Flora Shaw
b) Lord Lugard
c) Queen Victoria
d) Herbert Macaulay
Answer: ______
14. Which nationalist founded the West African Pilot newspaper?
a) Nnamdi Azikiwe
b) Obafemi Awolowo
c) Ahmadu Bello
d) Tafawa Balewa
Answer: ______
15. The British ruled Nigeria for about:
a) 50 years
b) 100 years
c) 150 years
d) 200 years
Answer: ______
16. The main product of Nigeria during colonial period was:
a) Gold
b) Palm oil
c) Crude oil
d) Cocoa
Answer: ______
17. Nationalism became strong in Nigeria after:
a) World War I
b) World War II
c) The Civil War
d) Independence
Answer: ______
18. The first prime minister of Nigeria was:
a) Nnamdi Azikiwe
b) Obafemi Awolowo
c) Tafawa Balewa
 d) Ahmadu Bello
Answer: ______
19. The British used this to control the economy:
a) Nigerian banks
b) Traditional rulers
c) British currency
d) Marketing boards
Answer: ______
20. The first president of Nigeria was:
a) Tafawa Balewa
b) Nnamdi Azikiwe
c) Obafemi Awolowo
d) Ahmadu Bello
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
1. List three reasons why the British colonized Nigeria. (3 marks)

2. Explain what nationalism means and name two Nigerian nationalists. (4 marks)

3. What was Indirect Rule and why did the British use it? (4 marks)

4. Describe two methods nationalists used to fight for independence. (4 marks)

5. Why is 1960 an important year in Nigerian history? (2 marks)

GEOGRAPHY
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer.
1. The planet closest to the sun is:
a) Venus
b) Mercury
c) Earth
d) Mars
Answer: ______
2. Villages are different from towns because they have:
a) More people
b) Fewer facilities
c) Tall buildings
d) Many industries
Answer: ______
3. The layer of the Earth we live on is called:
a) Mantle
b) Core
c) Crust
d) Atmosphere
Answer: ______
4. Rocks are made up of:
a) Water
b) Minerals
c) Air
d) Plants
Answer: ______
5. The largest planet in our solar system is:
a) Earth
b) Jupiter
c) Saturn
d) Neptune
Answer: ______
6. Which of these is a characteristic of a town?
a) Many farms
b) Few people
 c) Markets and banks
d) Traditional rulers only
Answer: ______
7. The center of the Earth is called:
a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Surface
Answer: ______
8. Igneous rocks are formed from:
a) Water deposits
b) Molten magma
c) Plant remains
d) Animal skeletons
Answer: ______
9. Earth is the ______ planet from the sun.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: ______
10. People in villages mainly work as:
a) Bankers
b) Farmers
c) Teachers
d) Doctors
Answer: ______
11. The thickest layer of the Earth is:
a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Ocean
Answer: ______
12. Sedimentary rocks often contain:
a) Fossils
b) Diamonds
c) Lava
 d) Magma
Answer: ______
13. The planet known for its rings is:
a) Mars
b) Venus
c) Saturn
d) Jupiter
Answer: ______
14. Towns usually have these EXCEPT:
a) Piped water
b) Electricity
c) Good roads
d) Only mud houses
Answer: ______
15. The outer core of the Earth is:
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gaseous
d) Rocky
Answer: ______
16. Marble is an example of ______ rock.
a) Igneous
b) Sedimentary
c) Metamorphic
d) Volcanic
Answer: ______
17. The hottest planet is:
a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Earth
d) Mars
Answer: ______
18. One advantage of living in a village is:
a) More job opportunities
b) Fresh air and quiet environment
c) Better hospitals
 d) Many schools
Answer: ______
19. Earthquakes occur in the:
a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Atmosphere
Answer: ______
20. Granite is an example of ______ rock.
a) Sedimentary
b) Metamorphic
c) Igneous
d) Volcanic
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
1. List three differences between a town and a village. (3 marks)

2. Name the three layers of the Earth and describe each briefly. (6 marks)

3. What are the three types of rocks and how is each formed? (6 marks)

4. Name four planets in our solar system. (2 marks)

5. Why is Earth called the "living planet"? (3 marks)

PHE
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer.
1. Creative rhythmic activities help to develop:
a) Only strength
b) Coordination and expression
c) Only speed
d) Only flexibility
Answer: ______
2. The ability to carry out daily tasks without getting tired is:
a) Physical fitness
b) Physical education
c) Physical exercise
d) Physical training
Answer: ______
3. Dancing is an example of:
a) Creative rhythmic activity
b) Measuring fitness
c) Swimming activity
d) Ball game
Answer: ______
4. The sit and reach test measures:
a) Flexibility
b) Strength
c) Speed
d) Endurance
Answer: ______
5. Marching to music is a:
a) Creative rhythmic activity
b) Fitness test
c) Game skill
d) Swimming style
Answer: ______
6. Physical fitness components include all EXCEPT:
a) Flexibility
b) Endurance
 c) Strength
d) Laziness
Answer: ______
7. Creative rhythms can be done with:
a) Only instruments
b) Only voices
c) Music, instruments, or body sounds
d) Only recorded music
Answer: ______
8. The 50-meter dash measures:
a) Speed
b) Strength
c) Flexibility
d) Endurance
Answer: ______
9. Benefits of creative rhythms include:
a) Improved coordination
b) Reduced creativity
c) Poor posture
d) Less social skills
Answer: ______
10. Push-ups measure:
a) Arm strength
b) Leg strength
c) Flexibility
d) Speed
Answer: ______
11. Creating your own dance steps is:
a) Creative rhythm
b) Fitness test
c) Game rule
d) Sports skill
Answer: ______
12. The ability to bend easily is:
a) Strength
b) Flexibility
c) Endurance
 d) Speed
Answer: ______
13. Clapping to a beat is a:
a) Simple rhythm
b) Fitness test
c) Sports rule
d) Game strategy
Answer: ______
14. Regular exercise improves:
a) Physical fitness
b) Laziness
c) Sickness
d) Weakness
Answer: ______
15. Creative rhythms help to express:
a) Only anger
b) Only sadness
c) Feelings and emotions
d) Only happiness
Answer: ______
16. The shuttle run measures:
a) Agility
b) Strength
c) Flexibility
d) Endurance
Answer: ______
17. Moving to music improves:
a) Timing and rhythm
b) Reading skills
c) Writing skills
d) Eating habits
Answer: ______
18. Body composition measures:
a) Fat and muscle percentage
b) Height only
c) Weight only
 d) Age only
Answer: ______
19. Creative rhythms make PHE lessons:
a) Boring
b) Enjoyable
c) Difficult
d) Tiring
Answer: ______
20. The curl-up test measures:
a) Abdominal strength
b) Arm strength
c) Leg strength
d) Back strength
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
1. What are creative rhythmic activities? Give two examples. (4 marks)

2. List three components of physical fitness. (3 marks)

3. Describe how to perform the sit and reach test. (4 marks)

4. Explain two benefits of creative rhythmic activities. (4 marks)

5. Why is it important to measure physical fitness? (3 marks)

SCIENCE
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer.
1. Erosion is the:
a) Building up of soil
b) Wearing away of soil
c) Planting of trees
d) Construction of houses
Answer: ______
2. The main cause of land pollution is:
a) Planting trees
b) Proper waste disposal
c) Dumping of refuse
d) Cleaning the environment
Answer: ______
3. Noise pollution can cause:
a) Better hearing
b) Hearing loss
c) Improved sleep
d) Better concentration
Answer: ______
4. Water erosion is caused by:
a) Wind
b) Ice
c) Rainfall
d) Earthquakes
Answer: ______
5. The best way to dispose of biodegradable waste is:
a) Burning
b) Composting
c) Dumping in rivers
d) Throwing on roads
Answer: ______
6. Gully erosion creates:
a) Small channels
b) Deep valleys
 c) Mountains
d) Plateaus
Answer: ______
7. Environmental quality refers to:
a) The state of our surroundings
b) The number of cars
c) The size of buildings
d) The amount of money
Answer: ______
8. Wind erosion is common in:
a) Forests
b) Deserts
c) Swamps
d) Rivers
Answer: ______
9. Land pollution makes soil:
a) Fertile
b) Unproductive
c) Healthy
d) Rich in nutrients
Answer: ______
10. Loud music is an example of:
a) Noise pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Land pollution
Answer: ______
11. Sheet erosion removes:
a) Topsoil evenly
b) Deep gullies
c) Rocks only
d) Sand only
Answer: ______
12. Recycling helps to:
a) Increase waste
b) Reduce waste
c) Create more pollution
 d) Use more resources
Answer: ______
13. Rill erosion forms:
a) Small streams
b) Large rivers
c) Tiny channels
d) Big lakes
Answer: ______
14. Deforestation causes erosion because:
a) Tree roots hold soil
b) Trees make soil hard
c) Trees cause rainfall
d) Trees attract animals
Answer: ______
15. Proper waste disposal prevents:
a) Diseases
b) Clean water
c) Fresh air
d) Good health
Answer: ______
16. The main cause of soil erosion is:
a) Planting trees
b) Water and wind
c) Building houses
d) Farming activities
Answer: ______
17. Noise above ______ decibels is harmful.
a) 50
b) 85
c) 100
d) 120
Answer: ______
18. Chemical waste from factories causes:
a) Land pollution
b) Clean environment
c) Better soil
 d) Improved water
Answer: ______
19. Cover crops help to:
a) Increase erosion
b) Prevent erosion
c) Cause pollution
d) Create gullies
Answer: ______
20. The 3Rs of waste management are:
a) Run, Ride, Read
b) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
c) Rain, River, Road
d) Red, Blue, Green
Answer: ______
SECTION B: THEORY QUESTIONS (20 Marks)
1. Define erosion and name three types of erosion. (4 marks)

2. List three causes of land pollution. (3 marks)

3. Explain two effects of soil erosion on farming. (4 marks)

4. What is noise pollution and give two examples. (3 marks)

5. Describe two proper methods of waste disposal. (4 marks)

6. How does deforestation contribute to erosion? (2 marks)