1. Which of the following is the correct order of software development evolution?

A) Agile → Structured Programming → Object-Oriented Programming

B) Structured Programming → Object-Oriented Programming → Agile
C) Object-Oriented Programming → Agile → Structured Programming
D) Agile → Object-Oriented Programming → Structured Programming

2. What is the primary goal of a software development project?

A) Writing as much code as possible
B) Developing software in a systematic, efficient, and cost-effective manner
C) Avoiding testing to save time
D) Completing the project without user feedback

3. Exploratory software development focuses on:

A) Strictly following a pre-defined plan
B) Experimentation, iterative refinements, and learning while developing
C) Ignoring user feedback
D) Following only the Waterfall model

4. Software engineering emerged due to:

A) Increasing complexity and failures in software projects
B) The success of early coding techniques
C) Decreasing demand for software
D) The replacement of software with hardware solutions

5. Which of the following is NOT a notable change in software development?

A) Shift from Waterfall to Agile
B) Increased use of automation and CI/CD
C) Reduced focus on security
D) Adoption of cloud computing

6. Computer system engineering focuses on:

A) Only writing software
B) Integrating hardware and software for complex systems
C) Ignoring system reliability
D) Avoiding scalability concerns

7. The purpose of a software life cycle model is to:

A) Provide a structured process for software development
B) Eliminate the need for testing
C) Develop software without a plan
D) Skip the maintenance phase

8. Which of the following is TRUE about the Waterfall model?

A) It is an iterative and flexible model
B) It follows a sequential, step-by-step approach
 C) It does not require documentation
D) It is best suited for rapidly changing requirements

9. RAD focuses on:

A) Slow and sequential development
B) Quick prototyping and user feedback
C) Skipping testing to save time
D) Developing software without user involvement

10. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Agile development?

A) Strictly following a fixed plan
B) Iterative and incremental approach with frequent releases
C) Ignoring customer feedback
D) Developing the entire software in one go

11. The Spiral model combines:

A) Prototyping and risk assessment
B) Agile and Waterfall
C) Only a linear approach
D) No risk analysis

12. Software development has evolved from:

A) Structured Programming → Object-Oriented Programming → Agile
B) Agile → Structured Programming → Object-Oriented Programming
C) Object-Oriented Programming → Agile → Structured Programming
D) Agile → Object-Oriented Programming → Structured Programming

13. What is a key characteristic of exploratory software development?

A) Strictly following a pre-defined plan
B) Ignoring user feedback
C) Experimentation, iterative refinements, and learning while developing
D) Following only the Waterfall model

14. Which of the following is not a symptom of the present software crisis?
A) Software is expensive.
B) It takes too long to build a software product.
C) Software is delivered late.
D) Software products are required to perform very complex tasks
15. Which of the following is an extension of the Waterfall model?
A) Spiral Model
B) V-Model
C) Agile Model
D) Prototyping Model
16. Which of the following is NOT a complexity in software project management?
A) Changing user requirements
 B) High maintenance costs
C) Simple and predictable workflows
D) Managing large teams
17. A software project manager is responsible for:
A) Only writing code
B) Managing resources, scheduling, and ensuring project success
C) Ignoring risk management
D) Avoiding communication with stakeholder
18. Which metric is commonly used for software project size estimation?
A) Lines of Code (LOC)
B) Number of Bugs Fixed
C) CPU Usage
D) Number of Screens Used
19. Which of the following is NOT a project estimation technique?
A) Expert Judgment
B) Function Point Analysis
C) Random Guessing
D) Use-Case-Based Estimation
20. Empirical estimation techniques rely on:
A) Historical data and mathematical models
B) Intuition and assumptions
C) Coin tosses
D) Fixed budgets only
21. The COCOMO model is used for:
A) Risk Management
B) Software Cost Estimation
C) Testing Strategies
D) UI/UX Design
22. Halstead’s software science is based on:
A) Measuring software complexity using mathematical formulas
B) Visualizing software design
C) Managing software teams
D) Automating testing processes
23. Which of the following is the first step in risk management?
A) Risk Identification
B) Risk Mitigation
C) Risk Monitoring
D) Risk Ignorance
24. What does COCOMO stand for?
A) Cost Constructive Model
B) Constructive Cost Model
C) Computation of Cost Model
 D) Complex Cost Model
25. Which of the following is NOT an example of a software project risk?
A) Unclear requirements
B) Lack of skilled developers
C) Having a well-defined project plan
D) Unexpected technology failures

26. Which of the following is NOT a technique used in requirements gathering?

A) Interviews
B) Surveys
C) Coding
D) Prototyping

27. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a good Software Requirements

Specification (SRS)?
A) Ambiguous and incomplete
B) Clear, complete, and verifiable
C) Based on assumptions only
D) Focused only on design details

28. What are the main components of an SRS document?

A) User manual and installation guide
B) Functional and non-functional requirements
C) Only system architecture
D) Only database schema

29. What is the main purpose of formal system specification?

A) To provide a mathematically precise definition of system behaviour
B) To avoid documentation
C) To write test cases directly
D) To create user interface designs

30. Axiomatic specification is based on:

A) A set of axioms (rules) and inference rules
B) Diagrams and sketches
C) Code implementation
D) Randomly defining system requirements

31. Algebraic specification is used to:

A) Define data types and their operations using equations
B) Write test scripts for software testing
C) Create UI designs for applications
D) Define security policies for a system
32. What is the key feature of an executable specification?
A) It can be directly executed to check expected behavior
B) It only exists in textual form
C) It does not need verification
D) It cannot be used for simulation

33. Which of the following is an example of a 4GL?

A) Assembly Language
B) SQL (Structured Query Language)
C) C Programming Language
D) Machine Code

34. Which of the following is NOT a type of system specification?

A) Formal specification
B) Functional specification
C) UI specification
D) Random specification

35. In an SRS document, non-functional requirements include:

A) Performance, security, and reliability
B) Only functional behavior
C) Algorithm design details
D) Only UI specifications

36.

37. Which one of the following COCOMO II estimation levels would provide most
accurate estimations?
A) Application composition
B) Early design
C) Post architecture
 D) Different COCOMO II estimation levels provide equally accurate results, but each is
applicable to only those software projects that have certain defined
characteristics.

38. Which one of the following techniques is not suggested by Boehm to handle the risk
of gold-plating?
A) Requirements scrubbing
B) Cross training of personnel
C) Cost-benefit analysis
D) Prototyping

39. Suppose you are the project manager of a software project. Based on your experience
with three similar past projects, you estimate the duration of the project, i.e., 5 months.
Which one of the following types of estimation techniques have you made use of?
A) Three point estimating
B) Bottom-up estimating
C) COCOMO
D) Expert judgment

40. Which one of the following is not true about estimating by analogy?
A) Estimation is based on data about past projects
B) It is essentially a heuristic estimation technique
C) It is usually a bottom-up approach
D) It is a form of an expert judgment

41. Which one of the following is an advantage of the Delphi estimation technique over
the expert estimation?
A) Largely free from bias of the individual experts
B) Results in a quantitative estimation
C) Takes project peculiarities into account
D) Takes into account the fact that different components may have different
complexities

43. Purchasing insurance cover can be is considered to be an example of which one of

the following risk handling strategies:
A) Mitigation
B) Transfer
C) Acceptance
D) Avoidance

44. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of activities recommended by a
typical proactive risk management framework?
A) Risk Control, Risk Identification, Risk Assessment
B) Risk Assessment, Risk Identification, Risk Control
C) Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Control
D) Risk Identification, Risk Control, Risk Assessment
 E) Risk Assessment, Risk Control, Risk Identification

45. Which one of the following may be a reason as to why COCOMO project duration
estimation may be more accurate than the duration estimation obtained by using the
expression, duration = size/productivity?
A) Productivity of personnel for a project cannot be determined
B) Duration is dependent on the number of personnel deployed
C) Productivity can vary widely among team members
D) Duration can only be derived from effort

46. The use of resources such as personnel in a software development project varies with
time. Which one of the following distributions should be the best approximation for
modelling the personnel requirements for a software development project?
A) Poisson
B) Beta
C) Rayleigh
D) Log-normal

47. Which one of the following correctly characterizes the accuracy of project estimations
carried out at different stages of the project life cycle?
A) Accuracy decreases as a project progresses through its life cycle
B) Accuracy increases as a project progresses through its life cycle
C) Accuracy stays constant throughout the project life cycle
D) Accuracy is independent of the specific point in project life cycle at which
estimation is made.

48. Using COCOMO estimation model, which one of the following can be estimated?
A) LOC
B) Effort
C) Function points
D) Project milestones

49. Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project
activities into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
A) PERT chart
B) GANTT chart
C) Task network representation
D) Work breakdown structure

50. Which one of the following is an important purpose of software configuration

management?
A) Replace the need for program management
B) Help avoid multiple copies of the same information
C) Eliminate “firefighting” during the development life cycle
D) Ensure that adequate test cases are developed
51. Using the data of the following table, what can be said about the total project
duration?

A) 20
B) 27
C) 37
D) 44