05-01-2026

2001CMD303031250013 MD

PHYSICS

1) A convex glass lens has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air. What is the focal
length of the lens when it is immersed in water ?

(1) 4 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 32 cm

2) An object, a convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a plane mirror are arranged as shown in Fig.
How far behind the mirror is the final image formed? (Assume single reflection and single refraction)

(1) 20 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 50 cm

3) A point source of light is placed inside the liquid at depth 'd'. If refractive index of liquid is .
Then find the radius 'R' of bright disc on the surface of liquid from where light will come out to the
air

(1) R = d
(2) R = 2d
(3) R = 4d
(4) R = 3d

4) A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of the same radius of curvature R.
On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a

(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

5) Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 5 cm, respectively, are placed at a distance d.
If a parallel beam incident on the first lens emerges as a parallel beam from the second lens, then
the value of d is :-
(1) 5 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 25 cm

6) Three prisms 1,2 and 3 have the prism angle A = 6°, but their refractive indices are respectively
1.4, 1.5 and 1.6. If d1, d2,d3, be their respective angles of deviation then

(1) d3 > d2 > d1

(2) d1 > d2 > d3
(3) d1 = d2 = d3
(4) d2 > d1 > d3

7) If the speed of light in ice is 2.3 × 108 m/s. What is critical angle of incidence for light going from
ice to air?

(1) Sin-1 (0.143)

(2) Sin-1(0.304)
(3) Sin-1(0.67)
(4) Sin-1(0.77)

8) An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm diameter appears 1 cm from surface nearest to eye when
looked along diameter. If aμg = 1.5, the distance of bubble from refracting surface is :-

(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 3.2 cm
(3) 2.8 cm
(4) 1.6 cm

9) An object is placed on the axis of a convex lens. Its real image is formed 80 cm from the lens. The
magnification is 3. The focal length of the lens is :-

(1) 45 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm

10) Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and [Link] power of the combination
is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of

diameter in central region of lens is covered by a black paper Focal length of lens and intensity of
image now will be respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with coloumn-2 (Where m is the magnification

produced by the mirror) :-

(1) A → b and c, B → b and c, C → b and d, D → a and d.

(2) A → a and c, B → a and d, C → a and b, D → c and d.
(3) A → a and d, B → b and c, C → b and d, D → b and c.
(4) A → c and d, B → b and d, C → b and c, D → a and d.

13) An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm)
of the slab is :-

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 10

14) A telescope has a magnification equal to 5 and the length the its tube is 60 cm. The focal length
of its eye piece is

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

15) A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s. The speed of the image relative to the man is:-

(1) 15 ms–1
(2) 30 ms–1
(3) 35 ms–1
(4) 20 ms–1

16) Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in time t2 in another denser medium. What is
the critical angle for this medium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected
at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive index n :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for :

(1) Red colour

(2) Green colour
(3) Yellow colour
(4) Violet colour

19) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is-

(1) virtual, erect and magnified

(2) real, erect and magnified
(3) real, inverted and magnified
(4) virtual, erect and reduced

20) Time taken to cross a 4 mm window glass of refractive index 1.5 will be:

(1) 2 × 10–8 sec

(2) 2 × 108 sec
(3) 2 × 10–11 sec
(4) 2 × 1011 sec

21) For a concave mirror, if real image is formed the graph between and is of the form

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) An object 2.5 cm high is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 30 [Link] size of the image is

(1) 9.2 cm
(2) 10.5 cm
(3) 5.6 cm
(4) 7.5 cm

23) A light wave travels from glass to water. The refractive index for glass and water are and
respectively. The value of the critical angle will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) When a beam of light goes from denser medium (μd) to rarer medium (μr), then it was observed
that magnitude of angle of incidence is half that of angle of refraction. Then magnitude of incident
angle will be : (here μ = μd/μr)

(1)

(2) 2 cos–1μ

(3)

(4)

25) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself. (focal

lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) None of these

26) A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the
principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be

(1) 2D
(2) 3D
(3) 4D
(4) 5D

27) Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface (n = 1.5 and radius of curvature
= 20 cm). The distance of the light source from the glass surface is 100 cm. At what position the
image is formed?

(1) 50 cm
(2) 75 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 100 cm

28) One of the refracting surface of a prism is silvered. A ray is incident at an angle 60°, such that it
retraces its path. The angle of the prism is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

29) A ray of light is incident normally on one face of a right angled isosceles prism. It undergo total
internal reflection at another face. The minimum value of the refractive index of the material of the
prism will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Statement-I : Refractive index of turpentine with respect to air is more than that of water with
respect to air.
Statement-II : Mass density of turpentine is more than, that of water.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is a correct explanation
(1)
of Statement-I.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not a correct explanation
(2)
of Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
31) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The

gravitational potential at a point situated at distance from the center will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit

of radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become times the value at the
surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) Assertion (A) :- when a capacitor of capacitance C charged with a battery having voltage v then

energy stored in capacitor is

Assertion (R) :- When a capacitor is charged by battery then 50% of energy is loss as heat.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

36) Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C but their temperature coefficients of resistance
are α1 & α2. The respective temp. coefficients of their series and parallel

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In the figure shown P1 and P2 are two conducting plates having charges of equal magnitude and
opposite sign. Two dielectrics of dielectric constant K1 and K2 fill the space between the plates as
shown in the figure. The ratio of electrical energy in 1st dielectric to that in the 2nd dielectric is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) K1 : K2
(3) K2 : K1
2 2
(4) K2 : K1

38) The equivalent capacitance between A and B is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then battery is disconnected. The effect of
increasing the plate separation on charge, potential and capacitance respectively is

(1) Constant, constant, increases

(2) Increases, constant, increases
(3) Increases, increases, decreases
(4) Constant, increases, decreases

40) What will be the equivalent resistance between the two points A and D

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 30 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

41) A battery of 20 cells (each having e.m.f 1.8V and internal resistance 0.1ohm ) is charged by 220
volts and the charging current is 15A. The resistance to be put in the circuit is

(1) 10.27 ohm

(2) 12.27 ohm
(3) 8.62 ohms
(4) 16.24 ohms

42) A potential difference V is applied to a conductor of length l and radius r. When potential
difference is doubled, the drift velocity is :

(1) halved
(2) unchanged
(3) doubled
(4) quadrupled

43) A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter is reduced to half of its original diameter. If
the initial resistance of the wire were 10Ω, its new resistance would be -

(1) 40Ω
(2) 80Ω
(3) 120Ω
(4) 160Ω

44) A current I flows through a uniform wire of diameter d, when the mean drift velocity is vd. The
same current will flow through a wire of diameter 2d made of the same material if the mean drift
velocity of the electrons is :

(1) v/4
(2) v/2
(3) 4v
(4) 2v

45) In the given circuit, the current in 2Ω resistor is.

(1) 2A
(2) zero
(3) 4A
(4) 6A

CHEMISTRY

1) The pH of 0.5 M aqueous solution of HF (Ka = 2 × 10–4) is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10

2) Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH = 5.4 :

(1) 3.8 × 106

(2) 3.98 × 106
(3) 3.98 × 10–6
(4) 3.68 × 10–6

3) For 10 M CH3COOH solution, if Ka = 10–5 then find the value of degree of dissociation :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–3
(3) 10–2
(4) 10–4
4) The solubility of Ag2CO3 in water at 25 °C is 1 × 10–4 mole/litre. What is its solubility in 0.1 M
Na2CO3 solution ? Assume no hydrolysis of CO32– ion.

(1) 6.323 × 10–6 mole/litre

(2) 4.74 × 10–5 mole/litre
(3) 3.16 × 10–6 mole/litre
(4) 5.51 × 10–5 mole/litre

5) What is pH of a solution that contain 0.02 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) and 0.01 M HCl ?

(1) 4.74
(2) 7
(3) 9.26
(4) 12

6) Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the
solutions will record the highest pH?

(1) BeCl2
(2) BaCl2
(3) MgCl2
(4) CaCl2

7) For which of the following solution pH = pKa :-

(1) 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 200 ml of 0.1M CH3COONa

(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0.1M NaOH
(4) 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0.1M NH3

8)

Addition of HCl will not suppress the ionization of :

(1) Acetic acid

(2) Benzoic acid
(3) H2S
(4) Sulphuric acid

9) The conjugate acid of is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) H3PO4
(4) H3PO3
10) A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration
of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this
solution ? (log 2.7 = 0.43)

(1) 9.08
(2) 9.43
(3) 11.72
(4) 8.73

11)

If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its K(sp) is :-

(1) 5.00 × 10–7 M3

(2) 4.00 × 10–6 M3
(3) 4.00 × 10–7 M3
(4) 5.00 × 10–6 M3

12)

Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer ?

(1) H2CO3 and Na2CO3

(2) H3PO4 and Na3PO4
(3) HClO4 and NaClO4
(4) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

13) 20 ml solution of 0.1 M acetic acid is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH solution. After addition of 16 ml
NaOH, what is the pH of the solution ? (pKa = 4.75) :-

(1) 5.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 5.35
(4) 4.75

14)

Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis?

(1) CuSO4
(2) NH4Cl
(3) AlCl3
(4) K2CO3

15)

pH of 0.1M monobasic acid is 4.5 value of Ka of the monobasic acid is

(1) 10-4
(2) 10-6
(3) 10-9
(4) 10-8

16) A 50 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL solution of pH = 2. The pH of the mixture will

be nearly :-

(1) 0.76
(2) 1.26
(3) 1.76
(4) 2.26

17) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(1) Strong acid-Strong base Titration (P) Not performed practically

(2) Strong base-Weak acid Titration (Q) NH4OH Vs HCl

(3) Strong acid-Weak base Titration (R) NaOH Vs HCl

(4) Weak acid-Weak base Titration (S) NaOH Vs CH3COOH

(1) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
(2) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
(3) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(4) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

18) Expression for Ksp of Hg2(NO3)2 is :-

(1) [Hg+]2

(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Ksp of Zr3(PO4)4 in terms of solubility (S) is :-

(1) 108 S7
(2) 4 S3
(3) 6912 S7
(4) None of these

20) The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts decreases in the order :-

(1) HCl > NaCl > NH4Cl > NaCN

(2) HCl > NaCN > NH4Cl > NaCl
(3) NaCN > NaCl > NH4Cl > HCl
(4) NH4Cl > NaCN > NaCl > HCl

21) The solubility of A2X3 is Y mol dm–3. Its solubility product is :

(1) 6y4
(2) 64y 4

(3) 36y5
(4) 108y5

22) The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12 . The molar solubility of the
salt is :-

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1

(2) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1
(3) 1 × 10–5 mol L–1
(4) 2 × 10–12 mol L–1

23) For which of the following sparingly soluble salt, the solubility (S) and solubility product (Ksp) are
related by the expression :-

(1) BaSO4
(2) Ca3 (PO4)2
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) Ag3PO4

24) Which is correct statement –

(1) H2O act as Lewis base, nucleophilic reagent as well as ligand in complex compound
(2) The pH of decinormal solution of KOH is 1
To a solution containing equimolar mixture of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) and acetic acid
(3) (CH3COOH). If same more amount of sodium acetate solution is added then the pH of mixture
solution decrease
(4) None of these

25)

Column – I Column – II

(A) HClO4 (1) Weak base

(B) HNO2 (2) Strong base

(C) OH– (3) Weak Acid

 (D) ClO4– (4) Strong Acid
(1) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3
(3) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1

26) Assertion : Solubility of sparingly soluble salt decreases due to common ion effect.
Reason : Value of solubility product does not depend on common ion effect.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False

27) Which of the following salt solution is almost neutral and can also act as buffer solution?

(1) NaCl
(2) NH4CN
(3) NH4Cl
(4) CH3COONa

28) CH3NH2 (0.1 mole, Kb = 5 × 10–4) is added to 0.08 moles of HCl and the solution is diluted to one
litre. The resulting hydrogen ion concentration is –

(1) 1.6 × 10–11

(2) 8 × 10–11
(3) 5 × 10–5
(4) 8 × 10–2

29) Hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl solution is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) What should be the number of H+ ions in 1 mL of distilled water, if the number of H+ ions in 1 L
is 6.023 × 1016 ?

(1) 6.023 × 1013

(2) 6.023 × 1016
(3) 6.023 × 10–13
(4) 6.023 × 10–16

31) Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below —

List – I List – II

(A) Normal salt (a) NaHCO3

(B) Acid salt (b) NaNH4HPO4

(C) Complex salt (c) Na2HPO3

(D) Mixed salt (d) CuSO4. 4NH3

(1) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(2) A – a, B – b, C – c, D – d
(3) A – b, B – c, C – a, D – d
(4) A – d, B – a, C – b, D – c

32) ;
Y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following alcohols will undergo easiest dehydration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The order of reactivity for dehydration is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > II > I

36) In which reaction Ist compound acts as nucleophile ?

(1)

H3C–CH=CH2 + HBr →
(2)

(3)

– –
(4) AlCl3 + Cl —→ AlCl4

37) Which of following nucleophilie will show minimum reactivity towards SN2 reaction
 –
(1) Me3CO
(2) MeO–

(3)

–
(4) Me2CHO

38) , B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) In the reaction sequence

y will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
40) Which gives white ppt with AgNO3 most easily?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Compare the rate of electrophilic substitution reaction in given compounds (a)

(b) (c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) d > b > c > a
(4) d > b > a > c

42) The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at the slowest rate, among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) Product will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)
A is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)
Consider the following salts. Which one(s) when dissolved in water will produce an acidic solution ?

1. NH4Cl 2. KHSO4 3. NaCN 4. KNO3

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) Only 3
(4) 2 and 4

BIOLOGY

1) Identify A, B, C, D in the transcription unit mentioned below:

(1) A - Promoter, B - Structural gene, C - Terminator, D - Coding strand

(2) A - Terminator, B - Structural gene, C - Promoter, D - Coding strand
(3) A -Structural gene, B - Promoter, C - Terminator, D - Coding strand
(4) A -Promoter, B - Structural gene, C - Coding strand, D - Terminator

2) A. DNA polymorphism plays important role in evolution and speciation.

B. 99.9 % nucleotides bases are exactly same in all humans.
C. Chromosome 1 has the fewest genes (231) and Y chromosome has most genes (2968).
D. BAC and YAC have been used in Human Genome project.

(1) All correct

(2) All incorrect
(3) A, B, D are correct
(4) B, C, D are correct

3) Find out the correct sequence of structural gene in lac operon

(1) y, a, z
(2) a, z, y
(3) z, y, a
(4) z, a y

4) In eukaryotes the regulation of gene expression could be exerted at :-

I. Transcriptional level
II. Processing level
III. Transport of ribosomal subunits from cytoplasm to the nucleus
IV Translational level
Choose the correct combination for given statements:-
(1) Only I, II, IV
(2) Only IV
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) Only II, III

5) If the base sequence in the sense strand of DNA is 5'GTACGATACCAA3' then the base sequence in
mRNA would be :-

(1) 5'GTACGATACCAA3'
(2) 5'GUACGAUACCAA3'
(3) 3'CAUGCUAUGGUU5'
(4) 3'GUACGAUACCAA5'

6)

Heterogenous nuclear RNA contains

(1) Introns only

(2) Exons only
(3) Both introns and exons
(4) None of these

7) The last human chromosome to be sequenced was chromosome ______ in May ______

(1) 1, 2006
(2) 5, 2006
(3) 1, 2003
(4) Y, 2006

8) In the given picture correctly identify A, B and C :-

A B C

Sigma Stop
1 Rho factor
factor codon

RNA Sigma Stop

2
polymerase factor codon
 RNA
3 Rho factor Terminator
polymerase

RNA Sigma
4 Rho factor
polymerase factor
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Select the correct sequences of steps in DNA finger printing :

(I) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
(II) Isolation of DNA
(III) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon
(IV) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography
(V) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(VI) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.

(1) I, V, VI, II, III and IV

(2) II, VI, V, III, I and IV
(3) V, I, VI, III, IV and II
(4) II, I, V, VI, IV, III

10) In lac operon model, lactose functions as :

(1) Inducer that binds to operator gene

(2) Repressor that binds to operator gene
(3) Inducer that binds to repressor protein
(4) Corepressor that binds to repressor protein

11) The variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR) belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as
:-

(1) SNP
(2) Mini-satellite
(3) Microsatellite
(4) Sequence annotation

12) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: 99.9 percent of the base sequence among humans is the same, which means there
would be differences in 0.1 percent of the base sequences.
Statement II: DNA fingerprinting is a method that can be used to find out genetic differences
between two individuals or among individuals of a population without sequencing the DNA every
time.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

13) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Jan Ingenhousz (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis

(b) Joseph priestley (ii) Essentiality of sunlight to plants

(c) T. W. Engelmann (iii) Discovered oxygen

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

14) 2H2A + CO2 → 2A + CH2O + H2O

If this reaction occurs in cyanobacteria then what is A :-

(1) S
(2) H2O
(3) N2
(4) O

15) Assertion : Single chlorophyll-a molecule form the reaction centre.

Reason : The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

16)

(a) Chl.a (i) Yellow orange

(b) Chl.b (ii) Yellow

(c) Carotene (iii) Blue green

(d) Xanthophyll (iv) Yellow green

Choose the correct match
(1) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d = iv
(2) a = iii, b = iv, c = ii, d = i
(3) a = iii, b = iv, c = i, d = ii
(4) a = iv, b = iii, c = i, d = ii
17) Which of the following correct regarding given graph ?

(1) Graph showing only action spectrum of photosynthesis

Graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis mainly depends upon absorption spectrum of
(2)
chlorophyll-a
(3) Graph showing only absorption spectrum
Graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis only depends upon absorption spectrum of
(4)
accessory pigments

18) The nomenclature of photosystems as PS-I & PS-II is based on :-

(1) The sequence in which they function during light reaction

(2) The sequence of their discovery
(3) The sequence in which they oxidise
(4) The sequence in which they perceive light energy

19) Diplotene stage of meiosis-I in oocytes of some vertebrates completes in:-

(1) 24 hrs
(2) 48 hrs
(3) 72 hrs
(4) Months or years

20) (A) Appearance of chiasmata

(B) Appearance of tetrad
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(D) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(E) Chromosomes get fully condensed
(F) Meiotic spindle assembled
How many of the above events occur during final stage of prophase-I ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

21) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) b → c → d → a
(2) d → a → b → c
(3) b → a → c → d
(4) a → b → c → d

22) If the number of bivalent are 10 in prophase I. What is the number of chromosomes during
anaphase II in one cell :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 30

23) Interkinesis is stage between :

(1) Two mitotic division

(2) Meiosis-I and Meiosis-II
(3) Two interphase
(4) Leptotene and zygotene

24) In meiosis, division of centromere occurs during:-

(1) Interphase
(2) Arppftase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-I

25) Find out the wrong statement -

(1) Meiosis-I is called reductional division

(2) Interkinesis is generally short lived
(3) Synaptonemal complex and nuclear membrane completely disappear in diplotene
(4) Homologous chromosomes move to respective poles in anaphase-I

26) Tetrad is made of -

(1) Four homologous chromosomes with four chromatids

(2) Two homologous chromosomes, each with two chromatids
(3) Four nonhomologous chromatids
(4) Four nonhomologous chromosomes

27) Assertion :- Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous
chromosome.
Reason :- Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process and enzyme involved is recombinase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Which of the following traits in garden pea plants express in both homozygous and heterozygous
condition ?
(a) White flower colour
(b) constricted pod shape
(c) Yellow seed colour
(d) Wrinkled seed shape
(e) Green pod colour

(1) only (c)

(2) only (c) and (e)
(3) a, c and e
(4) a, b and d

29)

Mendel’s principle of segregation is based on separation of alleles during

(1) Gamete formation

(2) Seed formation
(3) Pollination
(4) Embryonic development

30) Assertion (A) :- Law of dominance is based on the fact that both the characters are recovered
as such in F2 generation.
Reason (R) :- In a dissimilar pair of factors one member always dominates the other.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

31) Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

(1) Alleles do not show any belending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other recessive

32) Type of gametes formed by plant with genotype AABbccDdee :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 32
(4) 64

33) tRNA has the function of

(1) Transcription
(2) Adapter for attaching amino acids over mRNA template
(3) Transferring information to mRNA
(4) Carry genetic code to cytoplasm

34) Severo ochoda enzyme is involved in :-

(1) Deoxyribonucleotide polymerisation

(2) Amino acid synthesis
(3) Primer dependent DNA synthesis
(4) Template independent RNA synthesis

35) Which of the following codons has dual function ?

(1) AUG
(2) UAG
(3) UAC
(4) VAA

36) How many tRNA and Anticodon are required to read sequence of following mRNA
5' AUG UGG GUG AUG UUU UAA 3'

(1) 4, 4
(2) 5, 5
(3) 5, 4
(4) 4, 5

37) Given below is a sequence of DNA :-

3' – TACAAGACCTAT–5'
If this sequence is transcribed to form mRNA then what must be the correct order of given tRNA
binding with mRNA ?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) c,b,a,d
(2) a,c,b,d
(3) b,a,d,c
(4) b,c,a,d

38) Statement I: Translation begins when the ribosome binds to mRNA near the start codon AUG.
Statement II: AUG codes for methionine and is recognized only by initiator tRNA.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

39)

Select correct statement about protein synthesis.

(1) Translation begins when mRNA attaches to small subunit of ribosome.

(2) Peptidase catalyses formation of peptide bond.
(3) UTRs are present between start and stop codons.
(4) At the end of translation, release factor binds to intiation codon.

40) Which suspect would you charge with the crime?

(1) Both suspect 1 & 2

(2) Only suspect 1
(3) Only suspect 2
(4) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2

41) What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting?

(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated DNA segments
(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva

42)

Enzyme catalysing synthesis of RNA over DNA template is

(1) DNA polymerase
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Endonuclease

43)

During transcription, the synthesizing mRNA grows in

(1) 3' → 5' direction on coding strand

(2) 3' → 5' direction on non coding strand
(3) 5' → 3' direction on noncoding strand
(4) 5' → 3' direction on coding strand

44)

Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Largest gene i Chromosome 1

B Minimum genes ii 1.4 million

C SNP iii Chromosome Y

D Maximum gene iv Dystrophin

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

45) Which of the following conclusions regarding photosynthesis was proved by using radioisotopic
technique ?

(1) Glucose is stored as starch

(2) Light is essential
(3) Exchange of gases with environment
(4) O2 comes from H2O but not from CO2

46) pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in [Link] is a/an :-

(1) Original bacterial plasmid

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid
(3) Viral genome
(4) Transposon

47) In gel electrophoresis technique the DNA fragments are forced to move through a medium
towards :
(1) Anode
(2) Cathode
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

48) After completing the transfer of a desired DNA in vector which was having 'Lac Z' gene as
marker gene, the recombinant colonies should :-

(1) Give blue colour

(2) Not give blue colour
(3) Have active galactosidase enzyme
(4) Both (2) & (3)

49) Observe the figure and select the correct option out of (1-4).

Enzyme
A Enzyme joining the sticky
B DNA recognize
DNA ends
palindrome

(1) Vector Foreign DNA ligase Exonuclease

(2) Vector Foreign Exonuclease DNA ligase

(3) Vector Foreign EcoRI DNA ligase

(4) Vector Foreign DNA ligase EcoRI

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted in to plasmid PBR322 using enzyme Pvu-I or Pst-I ?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicilin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

51) I. Ori also controls the copy numbers of the linked DNA.
II. If a foreign DNA ligates at the Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322,
the recombinant plasmid loses the tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA.
Choose regarding the above statements.

(1) I is true, II is false

(2) II is true, I is false
(3) Both are true
(4) Both are false

52) Study the given figure carefully and select the incorrect statement regarding this :-

(i) It represents a typical agarose gel electrophoresis in

which lane 1 contains undigested DNA.
(ii) Smallest DNA bands are found at A and largest DNA bands are found at B.
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be visualized after staining in the visible light.
(iv) The separated DNA bands are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is known as Elution.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

53)

Identify the restriction enzyme used to cut the site 'X', 'Y' respectively :

(1) Pvu I, Pst I

(2) Sal I, [Link]
(3) Pvu II, Pst I
(4) BamHI, Sal I

54) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion (A) : The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a
compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to visible light.
Reason (R) : You can not see pure DNA fragments in the UV-light without staining by ethidium
bromide.

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

55) Assertion :- In addition to 'ori' the cloning vector must have selectable markers.
Reason :- Selectable markers helps in identifying & eliminating non-transformant & selectively
permit the growth of the transformant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) 'Restriction' in restriction enzyme refers to :

(1) Waving a phospho-diester bond in DNA by the enzyme.

(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(3) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in host bacteria
(4) All of above

57) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

58) Identify A, B and C.

A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine,
(1)
C → Morphine
(2) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, C → Heroine
(3) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine
 A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids,
(4)
C → LSD

59) Find the correct statement about chemical which is obtained from given plant.

(1) Their receptors are preset on cardiovascular system

(2) Products are - Hashish, charas etc.
(3) Have Hallucinogenic properties
(4) It affects CNS and slows down body functions

60) Cocaine is a stimulant which may cause addiction. It is an alkaloid obtained from-

(1) Eucalyptus
(2) Erythroxylum
(3) Rauwolfia
(4) Papaver

61) What stage of HIV infection does usually show symptoms of AIDS?

(1) When the infected retro-virus enters host cells

(2) When HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes
(3) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with the infected person

62) Following diagram showing schematic representation of HIV label A, B, C and D (respectively) :-

(1) GP – 41, GP – 120, P – 17, P – 24

(2) GP – 120, GP – 41, P – 17, P – 24
(3) GP – 60, GP – 24, P – 120, P – 17
(4) GP – 120, GP – 41, P – 24, P – 17
63)

Refer the given flow chart of the mode of action of AIDS virus and answer the following questions.
Identify the labelled sequences A,B,C and D.

A : Viral DNA introduced into cell ; B – viral DNA, C : Viral DNA incorporates into host RNA: D –
(1)
New viral RNA produced
A : Viral RNA introduced into cell ; B – Viral DNA ; C – viral DNA incorporates in host ; D – New
(2)
viral DNA produced
A : Viral RNA introduced into cell ; B – Viral DNA ; C – Viral DNA incorporate in host; D – New
(3)
viral RNA produced
A viral DNA introduced into cell ; B – Viral RNA ; C – Viral RNA incorporation into host; D – new
(4)
viral DNA produced

64) How many of the drugs in a box belong to the structure given below?

Hashish, Marijuana,
Morphine, Charas
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

65) Assertion : Repeated use of drugs, increases the tolerance level of receptors in our body.
Reason : Addiction occurs as receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

66)

After ovulation, the ruptured follice is converted to a structure called which secretes mainly

Choose the correct option for A and B.

A B
(1) Corpus callosum Oestrogen
(2) Corpus collosum Progestrone
(3) Corpus albicans Progestrone
(4) Corpus luteum Progestron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Observe the following diagram and answer :-

How many hormones among following show

this mechanism of action ?
ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxine, ADH, Testosterone, Mineralocorticoid, Insulin

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
68) In the given figure identify A and B :-

(1) A → Receptor, B → Hormone

A → Secondary Messenger,
(2)
B → Ovarian growth
A → Ovarian growth,
(3)
B → Secondary messenger
A → Biological response,
(4)
B → Ovarian growth

69) Which one is not a secondary messenger?

(1) IP3
(2) Ca+2
(3) cAMP
(4) ATP

70) Which hormone stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas ?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) CCK
(4) GIP

71) Erythropoitin hormone which stimulates erythropoisis is secreted by

(1) Platelets
(2) Bone marrow
(3) JG cells of kidney
(4) Adrenal cortex

72) Which one of the following statements is wrong about mammary gland ?

(1) The lactiferous ducts of each lobe join to form mammary ampulla.
(2) Several mammary ducts join to form a mammary ampulla.
(3) Each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes.
(4) Colostrum contains several antibodies.

73) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis
(b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen
(d) Labia minora
(e) Cervix
(f) Fallopian tube

(1) c, e and f
(2) Only e and f
(3) Only d and f
(4) a, d, e and f

74) Choose the correct option to complete the given statement :-

The ........... of uterus undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle while the ........ exhibits
strong concentration during delivery of the baby.

(1) Perimetrium, myometrium

(2) Myometrium, endometrium
(3) Endometrium, myometrium
(4) Endometrium, perimetrium

75)

Leydig cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as-

(1) FSH
(2) GnRH
(3) Testosterone
(4) ICSH

76) Human semen is liquid at ejaculation but soon coagulates (within 15 minutes) and again under
goes secondary liquefaction by the enzyme released by the prostate. The enzyme is

(1) Prostaglandin
(2) Fibrinolysin
(3) Lysin
(4) Pepsin

77) The fluid which is rich in calcium citrate, fibrinolysin and acid phosphatase and contributes
about 30% of the total volume of semen is released by

(1) Cowper's glands

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Epididymis

78) Identify true or false :-

(i) Restriction site is always a palindromic sequence
(ii) Palindromic sequence is always a restriction site

(1) (i) - True (ii) - False

(2) (i) - False (ii) - True
(3) (i) - True (ii) True
(4) (i) - False (ii) False

79) Credit for construction of first recombinant DNA may be given to

(1) Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(3) Meselson and Stahl
(4) Esther and Joshua Lederberg

80) Which of the following is the most accepted definition of biotechnology by European Federation
of Biotechnology?

Maintenance of sterile ambience for enabling growth of desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large
(1)
quantities
Technique of using live organism or enzyme from organisms to produce products and processes
(2)
useful to animals
(3) Process which use genetically engineered animals only on a large scale for benefit of mankind
The integration of natural science and organisms cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues
(4)
for products and services

81) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In genetic engineering, restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vectors, and
the host organism are the key tools required.
Statement II: The enzyme that adds methyl groups to DNA was one of the two enzymes isolated in
1963 that led to the development of recombinant DNA technology.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

82) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vectors are engineered to facilitate easy linking of foreign DNA and selection of
recombinants from non-recombinants.
Statement II: The origin of replication (ori) in a vector is responsible for the control of the copy
number of the linked DNA and does not influence the replication of DNA within the host cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

83) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In cloning vectors like pBR322, the presence of multiple recognition sites for commonly
used restriction enzymes is preferred to facilitate the ligation of alien DNA.
Statement II: The ligation of alien DNA in the vector pBR322 is carried out at a restriction site
present in one of the antibiotic resistance genes, such as the BamH I site of the tetracycline
resistance gene.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

84)

Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

Stanley Cohen and

(A) (I) Separation of DNA fragments
Herbert Boyer

Construction of first recombinant

(B) Hind II (II)
DNA

(C) Gel electrophoresis (III) First restriction endonuclease

At tetracycline resistance gene in

(D) Bam HI site (IV)
vector pBR322
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

85) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is cal1ed

(1) Electrophoresis
(2) Resolution
(3) Elution
(4) Spooling

86) DNA is a ...l... molecule having . ..2... charge.

(1) 1–Hydrophobic, 2–negative

(2) 1–Hydrophilic, 2–positive
(3) 1–Hydrophilic, 2–negative
(4) 1–Hydrophobic, 2–positive

87) What limitation of traditional hybridization used for plant and animal breeding has been
overcome by the use of rDNA techniques?

(1) High cost

(2) Insertion of undesirable genes
(3) Complexity of the procedure
(4) Antigenicity of the product

88) DNA staining by ethidium bromide is followed by the exposure to UV rays. Now DNA is seen as
bands of

(1) Blue colour

(2) Orange colour
(3) Red colour
(4) Both (2) and (3)

89) In pBR 322 ampR and tetR genes are present. When we ligate a foreign DNA at Pst-I site, then
recombinant plasmids will lose the resistance to the

(1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

90) Read the following statements and find the incorrect statements with reference to agarose gel
electrophoresis
(i) Now-a-days the most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a synthetic polymer extracted
from sea weeds.
(ii) Larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(iii) We can not see pure DNA in UV light without staining.
(iv) DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the
agarose gel.

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) ii, iii and iv
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and ii
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 3 3 1 1 4 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 3 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Putting u = –12 cm and f = + 20 cm in the lens formula gives v = – 30 cm, i.e., the image is
formed
at a distance of 30 cm from the lens on the same side as the object. The distance of this image
from
the mirror = 30 + 10 = 40 cm. Therefore, the final image is formed behind the mirror at a
distance of
40 cm from it. Hence the correct choice is (3).

3)

Theory based

4) The focal length f of a lens of refractive index surrounded by a medium of refractive

index m1 is given by

Now, for a concave lens, f = -f. Given R1 = R and R2 = -R1 = -R. Also and .
Hence, we have

which gives f = 3.5 R. Since the focal length is positive, the lens acts like a convergent lens.

5)

The value of d is 25 cm

6)

Theory based

7)
8)

The distance of bubble from refracting surface is 1.2 cm

9)

The focal length of the lens is 20 cm

10)

The power of the combination is

11)

A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture

of diameter in central region of lens is covered by a black paper Focal length of lens and

intensity of image now will be respectively :-

12)

Theory based

13)

The thickness (in cm) of the slab is 12

14)

The focal length of its eye piece is 10 cm

15)

The speed of the image relative to the man is 30 ms–1

16)

Theory based

17)

If the angle of reflection is 45°, then the refractive index n is

18)

Theory based

19)

Theory based

20)

Time taken to cross a 4 mm window glass of refractive index 1.5 will be 2 × 10–11 sec

21)

Since =+ + ⇒ =– + Putting the sign convention properly

⇒ =– +
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c

Slope = m = tan θ = –1 ⇒ θ = 135° or –45° and intercept C = +

22) R = –30 cm ⇒ f = –15 cm, O = +2.5 cm, u = –10 cm

By mirror formula = + ⇒ v = 30 cm

Also =– ⇒ = ⇒ I = +7.5 cm.

23)

A. Question Explanation
We need to determine the critical angle when a light wave travels from glass (refractive index
μg = 3/2) to water (refractive index μw = 4/3)

B. Concept TIR , CRITICAL ANGLE RELATION

C. Formula- sin C = μw / μg where:

D. Calculation- Gitical angle for the surface separating water from glass.

sin C = (4/3) / (3/2)

sin C = (4/3) × (2/3) = 8/9 Thus,

C = sin⁻¹(8/9) This matches option 3.

E. Final Answer Option 3: sin⁻¹(8/9)

F. Question Level Medium

24) Question Explanation: To find out the angle of incidences when ray of light goes from
denser rarer medium.
Concept : Refraction of light through plane surface.
Formula : Snell's law

Solution :
Given m2 = m4 , m1 = md

or r = 2i

⇒i=
Final Answer : option (3)

25) Explain Question:

An object is placed 10 cm left of a convex lens ( f = 10 cm), followed by a concave lens (f =
–20cm). Find distance d for image at object position.
Concept:
For image on object, final image distance = object distance. Use lens formula: 1/f = 1/v –1/u
Formula:
For Lens 1: 1/v1 = 1/f1+1/u1
For Lens 2: 1/v2 = 1/f2+1/u2
For object-image coincidence: v2 = – (d + 10).
Calculation:
u1 = – 10cm, f1 = 10 cm
1/v1 = 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5 → v1 = 5cm
u2 = (d - 5) (distance from concave lens).
For final image to return to object:
1/f2 = 1/v2 – 1/u2
1/(–20) = 1/(–d –10) –1/(d –5)
Solving gives d = 10cm
Final Answer: 10 cm (Option 1).

26)
Theory based

27) Question Explanation : To find out the position of in a formed in glass sphere of radius
20 cm if print source of light is a 100 cm out side of sphere.

Concept : Refraction through spherical surface.

Formula :

Visual aid :

Solution :
Given :
μ1 = 1 ; μ2 = 1.5
μ = – 109 ; R = + 20 cm

By solving v = + 100 cm

Correct option is : (4) : 100 cm

Level : Moderate

28) Question Explanation: To find angle of prism.

Concept: Geometry, Snell's law
Formula: sin i × μ1 = sin A × μ2
Visual aid:

Calculation:
sin 60º ×μsin = sin A ×

Answer is option (1).

29) Question Explanation : To find the minimum refractive index of on isosceles right angle
prism so that a normal incident ray both T.I.R.

Concept :
T.I.R. in prism.

Formula :
For T.I.R.

sin θc ≥

Visual aid :

Solution :
For point (P)
Angle of incidence q = 45º

for T.I.R. sin 45º ≥

⇒
μmin =

Correct option is : (2)

Level : Moderate

30) NCERT Pg. # 317

31)

Explain Question: A body is projected upwards with speed equals to times of escape
velocity from earth surface we need to find height reach by the body from surface of earth.

Concept: Conservation of mechanical energy.

Solution:
 h = height from surface of earth

Final answer: Option (2)

32)

Question Explanation : A particle of mass M is placed at the center of a spherical shell of the
same mass and radius a. The question asks for the gravitational potential at a point located at
a distance a/2 from the center, i.e., inside the shell.

Concept : Gravitational potential

Solution :

Gravitational potential due to shell at point P V1

Gravitational potential due to point mass at point P

Vnet = V1 + V2
Final answer: Option (2)

33) Question Explanation : A satellite shift from orbit r to r. Find amount of energy
increase in this process.

Concept : This question is based on total energies of satellite.

Solution :

Energy of satellite at orbit r =

Energy of satellite at orbit

Increased in energy =

Final answer : Option (4)

34)

Question Explanation : Determine the depth d below the Earth's surface where the

acceleration due to gravity (gd) becomes exactly times its value at the Earth's surface (g),
given the Earth's radius is R.
Concept: Variation in g with depth.

Solution:

Acceleration due to gravity at depth d is

given that
Final answer: Option (4)

35) energy stored by capacitor

but work done by battery W = U = Q × ΔV = QV
50% of energy is lost as heat.

36) suppose resister a of 0°C is R0

R1 = R0 (1 + α, θ) : R2 = R0 (1 + α2, θ)
In series conbn
Rs = R1 + R2
2R0 (H αsθ ) = R0 (1 + α1 θ) + R0 (1 + α2 θ)

In parallel conn.

a1 a2 → hlgligible

37) Let σ be the charge density of conducting plate and V be the volume of either dielectric

∴ =

38)

39)
 40) Resistances at C and B are not in the circuit. Use laws of resistances in series and parallel
excluding the two resistance.

41)

The resistance to be put in the circuit is 10.27 ohm

42)

Theory based

43)

If the initial resistance of the wire were 10Ω, its new resistance would be 160Ω

44)

Theory based

45) In the given circuit, the current in 2Ω resistor is 0.

CHEMISTRY

46)

pH = 2

47)

pH = 5.4
pH = -log[H+]
[H+] = antilog -5.4
= 3.98 × 10–6

48)

= 9.26

49)
S = 3.16 × 10–6 mole/litre

50)
pH = 9.26

51)

Ba(OH)2 is strong base

52)

CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O

10mmol 5mmol
10 – 5 5–5 5
5 0 5

pH = pKa +
⇒ ∵s=a
pH = pKa for option (2)

53)

H2SO4 is strong acid

54) ⇋ H+ +

55)
pH = 9.43

56)

If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its K(sp) is 5.00 × 10–7 M3

57)

HClO4 and NaClO4 is strong acid

58)
pH = 5.35

59)
K2CO3 is salt of WA and SB

60)

61)

62)

Explain Question:
Discussion of different type of titration.

Concept:
Types of titration.

Solution:
(1) SASB titration - (R) NaOH v/s HCI
(2) SBWA titration - (S) NaOH v/s CH3OOH
(3) SAWB titration - (Q) NH4OH v/s HCI
(4) WAWB titration is not performed practically because there is no sharp change in pH at
equivalence point.

Final answer: Option (3)

63)

Ksp =

64)

Ksp = 6912 S7

65)

NaCN = Salt of WA + SB
NaCl = Salt of SA + SB
NH4Cl = Salt of SA + SB
HCl = Strong acid

66)

ksp = 36y5

67)

Ksp = 4s3
s = 1 × 10–4 mol L–1

68)

NCERT Pg. # 220

69)

Theory based

70)

Theory based

71)

Theory based

72)

NH4CN salt of weak acid and weak base

73)

[H+] = 8 × 10–11

74)

salt of WB + SA

therefore

75)
1000 m1 = 6.023 x 1016
1m1 = 6.023 × 1013

76)

Conceptual

77)

Theory based

78)

Theory based

79)

80)

Rate of E1 ∝ stability of Carbocation

81)

Theory Based

82)

Me3CO–

83) Explanation Question: To identify product B

Concept: This question is based on NBS on alkyl benzene and SN2 mechanism of reaction of
KCN on R-Br

Solution:
CN– will attack on less crowded position
Final Answer option : (2)

84)

Explanation Question: To identify in the given reaction sequence

Concept: This question is based on oxidation of chloroform in light and air and Freidel crafts
acylation reaction

Solution: CHCl3 COCl2(x)

when chloroform is exposed to light and air it gets oxidised to a poisonary gas phosgene
(COCl2)

↓ AlCl3 aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction

Final Answer option : (3)

85)

Theory based

86) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about order of rate of electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR)

Concept :
This question is based on Rate of ESR α +I/+M group attached directly to benzene.

Solution :

(a)

(b)
 (c)

(d)
∴ order of rate of ESR is : - (d) > (b) > (a) > (c)

Final Answer :
Option (4)

87)

Theory based

88)

Theory based

89) Br° is more selective for 3°H atom.

90)

Theory based

BIOLOGY

91)

This correctly identifies the components of the transcription unit. A - Promoter, B - Structural
gene, C - Terminator, D - Coding strand

92) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 119-120

93)

NCERT Based

94)
 NCERT Based

95)

NCERT Based

96)

NCERT Based

97)

NCERT Based

98) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 109, Fig. 6.10

99)

NCERT Based

100)

Concept :- Gene regulation .

Solution :- Lectose act as inducer by binding to the repressor protein, causing it to detech from
the operator and allow gene transcription .
Answer :- 3

101)

NCERT Based

102) Statement I: Correct. If 99.9 percent of the base sequence among humans is the same,
then 0.1 percent is different. Given a human genome size of 3 × 10^9 base pairs (bp), 0.1
percent difference would amount to 3 × 10^6 bp where there could be variations.
Statement II: Correct. DNA fingerprinting is indeed a quick method to compare the DNA
sequences of any two individuals, which is much less daunting and expensive than sequencing
the entire DNA every time.

103)

Correct answer: 4. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

Explanation:

A. (a) Jan Ingenhousz → (ii) Essentiality of sunlight to plants

He showed that plants need sunlight to purify air (photosynthesize).
 B. (b) Joseph Priestley → (iii) Discovered oxygen
He discovered that plants release a gas (later identified as oxygen) which supports
combustion.
C. (c) T. W. Engelmann → (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis
He used a prism and green algae with bacteria to show that blue and red light are most
effective in photosynthesis.

So the correct matching is:

a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

104) NCERT (XI) Pg # 208

105) NCERT-XI, Page No 211

106) NCERT-XI, Page No 210

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 210

108)

NCERT Based

109) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

110) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

111)

Correct answer: Option 3 - b → a → c → d

Correct Sequence of Events in Meiosis:
1. (b) Synapsis → Occurs in Zygotene

A. Homologous chromosomes start pairing (synapsis) and form the synaptonemal complex.

2. (a) Crossing over → Occurs in Pachytene

A. Exchange of genetic material takes place between homologous chromatids.

B. G1 phase (Option 1) → Cell grows and prepares for DNA replication but does not synthesize
spindle proteins.
C. S-phase (Option 2) → DNA replication occurs, but spindle fibre proteins are not produced.
D. G2 phase (Option 3) → Spindle fibre proteins (like tubulin) are synthesized, preparing for
mitosis.
E. Early Prophase (Option 4) → Spindle fibres start assembling, but their synthesis happens
earlier in G2 phase.
Thus, spindle fibre proteins are synthesized in the G2 phase.

112)

NCERT Based

113)

NCERT Based

114)

NCERT Based

115)

NCERT Based

116)

NCERT Based

117)

Question explanation
The question is asking whether the assertion about crossing over and the reason about
recombinase are true, and whether the reason explains the assertion.

Concept: prophase-I

Solution
The assertion is true because crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes.
The reason is also true because recombinase is an enzyme involved in this process.
But the reason does not directly explain the assertion since the assertion defines the event,
while the reason describes the mechanism.
Final answer: Option 2

118) NCERT XII Pg. # 71[E], 79[H], Table 5.1

119)

NCERT Based

120)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks whether the assertion and reason about the law of
dominance in genetics are true or false. Specifically, it questions if the law of dominance is
based on both characters being recovered in the Fâ‚‚ generation, and whether in a pair of
factors one always dominates the other.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is Mendel's law of dominance in genetics. This law
states that when two different alleles are present in a pair, one allele (the dominant one) can
mask the expression of the other (the recessive one) in the heterozygous condition.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that dominance concerns the masking of traits, but both
dominant and recessive traits can appear in subsequent generations due to segregation.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the law of dominance with the concept of trait recovery in the
Fâ‚‚ generation; assuming both traits always appear unchanged due to dominance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices suggesting that the assertion is true are
incorrect because the assertion wrongly claims that both characters are recovered as such in
the Fâ‚‚ generation based on dominance, which is not true. The law only explains masking, not
the complete recovery of both traits. Reason being true refers correctly to the dominance
principle.

121)

NCERT Based

122)

NCERT Based

123)

NCERT XII Pg.# 114

124)

Question Explanation: The question is asking about the function of Severo Ochoa enzyme.

Concept: Molecular Basis of Inheritance (Enzymes in nucleic acid synthesis)

Solution:
Severo Ochoa discovered polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme.
This enzyme synthesizes RNA without requiring a DNA template.
Thus, it is involved in template-independent RNA synthesis.

Final Answer: Option (4)

125)
NCERT Based

126)

NCERT Based

127)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the correct order of sequence in the tRNA
binding with mRNA.

Concept: Translation.

Solution:
tRNA anticodons (in order):
UAC, AAG, ACC, UAU

These will pair with mRNA codons

AUG, UUC, UGG, AUA, respectively.

Final answer: b, a, d, c

128) Explaining: Both statements accurately describe translation initiation.

Concept: Start codon recognition.
Solution: AUG is the start codon coding for methionine, recognized by initiator tRNA.
Final Answer: (1)

129)

NCERT Based

130)

NCERT Based

131)

NCERT Based

132)

NCERT Based

133)

NCERT Based
134)

NCERT Based

135)

NCERT Based

136) The correct answer is:

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid.
Explanation: pBR322 is a modified bacterial plasmid that is commonly used as a vector for
cloning genes in E. coli. It was engineered from a natural plasmid to include specific features
like antibiotic resistance markers, making it easier to select transformed cells.

137)

NCERT Based

138) NCERT-XII Pg # 170

139)

Explanation:

A DNA (Vector) and B DNA (Foreign) have complementary sticky ends created by EcoRI. DNA
ligase joins these sticky ends.

The correct answer is 3. (Vector, Foreign, EcoRI, DNA ligase)

140)

Explaining the Question :-

The question is asking about what happens when a DNA fragment is inserted into plasmid
pBR322 at sites recognized by enzymes Pvul or Pstl.

Concept:- Insertional Inactivation in Plasmid pBR322

Solution :- Pvul and Pstl cut within the ampicillin resistance (ampR) gene of plasmid pBR322.

Inserting foreign DNA here inactivates the ampR gene → (a) correct

Bacteria with this recombinant plasmid cannot grow in presence of ampicillin →(c)
correct
Final Answer :- (2) a and c are correct

141)
NCERT Based

142) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

143)

BamHI is a restriction enzyme that cuts at a specific sequence, commonly used in cloning and
plasmid manipulation.
Sal I is another restriction enzyme used to cut at a specific site, often in recombinant DNA
technology.

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

DNA visualised after staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.

145) NCERT XII, Page # (E) 199, (H) 218

146) NCERT Page No. # 195

147)

NCERT XII Pg. # 158, 159 (E)

148)

Explain Question :

To Identify A, B and C. in given flow chart

Concept : Drugs and alcohol abuse

Explanation :

A: Interferes with dopamine → Cocaine (increases dopamine by inhibiting its reuptake)

B: Causes hallucination → LSD (a hallucinogenic drug)

C: Acts as a painkiller → Morphine (opioid analgesic)

Final answer : 3

149) NCERT Pg#142

150)

NCERT Based
151)

NCERT Based

152)

NCERT Based

153) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 155

154)

NCERT XII Pg # 142

155)

NCERT Based

156)

NCERT Based

157) NCERT Pg. # 339

158) NCERT Pg. # 339

159)

Explanation :
The correct answer is 4. ATP
Solution: IP3​ , Ca+2 , and cAMP are well-established secondary messengers in cell signaling
pathways. ATP is the primary energy currency of the cell, not a typical secondary messenger.

160) Explain Question: The question asks which hormone causes the pancreas to secrete
water and bicarbonate ions.

Concept : GIT HORMONES

Explanation : Secretin, released by the duodenum, acts on the exocrine pancreas to stimulate
secretion of watery, bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice, which neutralizes stomach acid
entering the small intestine.

Final answer : Option 2 – Secretin

161)

NCERT Based

162)

NCERT Based

163)

NCERT Based

164)

NCERT Based

165)

NCERT Based

166)

NCERT Based

167)

NCERT Based

168)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 196,197

169)

Question Explanation: The first recombinant DNA was created by scientists who pioneered
genetic engineering techniques.
Correct Answer option 2
Explanation & Solution : Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer successfully constructed the
first recombinant DNA in 1973 by inserting foreign DNA into a plasmid and introducing it into
E. coli, marking the beginning of modern genetic engineering.

171)

Statement I: Correct. The key tools required for genetic engineering or recombinant DNA
technology include restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vectors, and the host
organism. Statement II: Correct. In 1963, two enzymes were isolated that were responsible for
restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli. One of these enzymes added
methyl groups to DNA, which is a process involved in the protection against restriction
endonucleases, and the other was a restriction endonuclease that cut DNA, which is essential
for recombinant DNA technology.

172)

Statement I: Correct. Vectors are indeed engineered to facilitate easy linking of foreign DNA
and to help in the selection of recombinants from non-recombinants. Statement II: Incorrect.
The origin of replication (ori) is not only responsible for controlling the copy number of the
linked DNA but also is crucial for enabling the replication of DNA within the host cells.

173)

Statement I: Incorrect. For cloning vectors like pBR322, it is preferred to have very few,
preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes to avoid
complications in gene cloning. Multiple recognition sites would generate several fragments,
which would complicate the process. Statement II: Correct. The ligation of alien DNA in
vectors such as pBR322 is indeed carried out at a restriction site present in one of the
antibiotic resistance genes, for instance, the BamH I site of the tetracycline resistance gene.

174)

Explanation:
(A) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer : They are renowned for their groundbreaking work
in (II) Construction of the first recombinant DNA. They successfully combined DNA fragments
from different sources and introduced this recombinant DNA into bacteria, marking the
beginning of modern genetic engineering.

(B) Hind II : This is the (III) First restriction endonuclease to be isolated and
characterized. Restriction enzymes are crucial tools in recombinant DNA technology as they
cut DNA at specific sites.

(C) Gel electrophoresis: This technique is used for (I) Separation of DNA fragments
based on their size. DNA fragments are moved through a gel matrix under an electric field,
with smaller fragments migrating faster than larger ones.

(D) Bam HI site: This specific restriction site is located (IV) At tetracycline resistance
gene in vector pBR322. pBR322 is a commonly used plasmid vector, and the presence of
specific restriction sites like Bam HI within antibiotic resistance genes allows for insertional
inactivation, a technique used in screening for recombinant DNA.

Matching the Columns:

A. A - II

B. B - III
 C. C - I

D. D - IV

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

175)

NCERT Based

176)

NCERT Based

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 164

178)

NCERT Based

179)

The correct answer is Option 1: Ampicillin.

The Pst-I restriction site is located within the ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) in pBR322.
Inserting foreign DNA at this site disrupts the ampR gene, causing the plasmid to lose
ampicillin resistance.

180)

NCERT Pg. No. 168