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Amity Global School Noida Science Exam

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the First Semester Examination in Science at Amity Global School Noida for September 2025. It includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and structured questions covering topics in biology, chemistry, and physics, with a total mark of 120. Students are instructed to answer all questions, show their workings, and adhere to specific guidelines during the examination.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views15 pages

Amity Global School Noida Science Exam

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the First Semester Examination in Science at Amity Global School Noida for September 2025. It includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and structured questions covering topics in biology, chemistry, and physics, with a total mark of 120. Students are instructed to answer all questions, show their workings, and adhere to specific guidelines during the examination.

Uploaded by

adrinafrtn
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

AMITY GLOBAL SCHOOL NOIDA

FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION SEPT 2025

CANDIDATE NAME

SCHOOL
GRADE CODE/CENTRE
LS3 NUMBER

SUBJECT &
COMPONENT Science

DURATION 2 hours SIGNATURE

ADDITIONAL MATERIAL (IF ANY) -

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● There are three sections A, B and C in this paper.
● Each section is further divided in two parts I MCQ and II STRUCURED.
● For each MCQ there are four possible answers a, b, c and d. Choose the one you
consider correct.
● Each correct answer for MCQ will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a
wrong answer.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.
● Write your name, and Centre number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
INFORMATION
●The total mark for this paper is 120.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
BIOLOGY
PART I – MCQ
1. Which of the following is the main site of photosynthesis in a plant? [1]
A. Root hairs
B. Chloroplasts
C. Xylem vessels
D. Guard cells

2. Which pigment absorbs light energy for photosynthesis? [1]


A. Hemoglobin
B. Chlorophyll
C. Carotene
D. Xanthophyll

3. Which mineral is most essential for healthy leaf growth and chlorophyll production? [1]
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Potassium

4. Which process releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere? [1]
A. Photosynthesis
B. Combustion of fossil fuels
C. Transpiration
D. Absorption by root hairs

5. Which structure transports water and minerals from roots to leaves? [1]
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Stomata
D. Cambium

6. Which part of the leaf allows carbon dioxide to enter for photosynthesis? [1]
A. Cuticle
B. Vein
C. Stomata
D. Palisade cells

7. Which of the following best describes transpiration? [1]


A. Loss of water vapour from leaves
B. Uptake of water by roots
C. Movement of glucose through phloem
D. Breakdown of water during photosynthesis
8. Which of the following is NOT an effect of climate change? [1]
A. Rising sea levels
B. Increased global temperatures
C. Increase in biodiversity
D. Melting of glaciers

9. The placenta plays an important role in keeping the foetus healthy by: [1]
A. Producing oxygen for the foetus
B. Allowing exchange of materials between mother and foetus
C. Protecting the foetus from all infections
D. Storing waste materials of the foetus

10. Which product of photosynthesis is used directly for cellular respiration in plants? [1]
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Glucose
D. Water

PART II – Structured
11. The diagram below shows the structure of a leaf. Label two parts where gaseous exchange takes place. [2]

12. Draw and label a root hair cell. Explain how its structure helps in absorption of water. [3]
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13. Explain why plants need water, giving at least three functions. [3]

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14. Describe how fertilisers help in plant growth and state one negative effect of excessive use. [3]

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15. Explain the importance of excretion in humans and name two excretory organs other than kidney [3]

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16. a) Describe the process of photosynthesis with a balanced chemical equation. [3]

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b) State two reasons why photosynthesis is important for life on Earth. [2]

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17. Discuss the carbon cycle with the help of a labelled diagram. Explain two ways in which human 5
activities disturb this cycle

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18. The growth and development of a fetus inside the mother’s body depend on proper nourishment and a
healthy environment. The mother’s body provides protection, oxygen, and nutrients to ensure the fetus
develop well. However, certain lifestyle choices of the mother can negatively affect the fetus and lead to
complications.
a) Explain how the fetus is kept healthy inside the mother’s body. [3]

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b) Mention two lifestyle choices of the mother that can harm the fetus [2]

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CHEMISTRY
PART I – MCQ
1. Which process in the carbon cycle returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere from plants and animals? [1]
A) Photosynthesis

B) Respiration

C) Erosion

D) Condensation
2. Which type of reaction releases heat energy to the surroundings? [1]
a) Endothermic reaction
b) Exothermic reaction
c) Neutralisation
d) Decomposition

3. The number of protons in an atom of sodium (atomic number 11) is: [1]
a) 11
b) 12
c) 23
d) 2
4. Which substance can displace copper from copper sulfate solution? [1]
a) Iron
b) Silver
c) Lead
d) Gold

5. Which statement about noble gases is correct? [1]


a) They are very reactive.
b) They have complete outer electron shells.
c) They easily gain electrons.
d) They form ionic bonds.
6. Which reaction is a neutralisation reaction? [1]
a) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
b) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
c) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
d) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
7. Which of the following is a property of ionic compounds? [1]
a) Low melting points
b) Conduct electricity when molten
c) Conduct electricity in solid state
d) Soft and flexible
8. Which pair of halogens shows decreasing reactivity down the group? [1]
a) Chlorine > Fluorine
b) Fluorine > Chlorine
c) Bromine > Chlorine
d) Iodine > Chlorine

9. Which statement best describes Group 1 metals? [1]


a) They form covalent bonds by sharing electrons.
b) They lose one electron to form +1 ions.
c) They are unreactive and stable.
d) They form giant covalent structures.
10. Which of the following elements is the least reactive? [1]
a) Sodium
b) Chlorine
c) Argon
d) Fluorine

PART II – Structured
11. (a) State the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of fluorine (atomic number [2]
9, mass number 19).

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(b) Explain why chlorine is more reactive than bromine. [2]


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12. Give one difference between:
(a) Ionic and covalent bonding [2]

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(b)Simple molecular and giant covalent structure [2]

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13. Write balanced word equations for the following
(a) Sodium reacting with hydrochloric acid [1]

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(b) Copper oxide reacting with sulfuric acid [1]

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14. (a) Write the electronic configuration of magnesium (atomic number 12). [1]

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(b) Explain how magnesium and chlorine form an ionic bond. Use diagrams if necessary. [3]

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(c) State one property of ionic compounds. [1]

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15. a) Define the term "reactivity series". [2]

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(b) Explain why carbon can be used to extract zinc from zinc oxide, but not to extract magnesium from [2]
magnesium oxide.

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(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for: Iron reacting with copper(II) sulfate solution. [1]

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16. (a) Describe two trends observed in Group 1 metals as you go down the group. [2]
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(b) Compare the physical states, colors, and reactivities of fluorine and chlorine. [3]
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(c) Why are noble gases generally unreactive? [1]

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17. (a) Name two methods of preparing salts in the laboratory. [1]

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(b) Write the word equation for the neutralisation reaction between sodium hydroxide and [2]
hydrochloric acid.

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(c) Define "alkali". [1]

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PHYSICS
PART I – MCQ
1. The unit of density in SI system is: [1]
A) g/cm³
B) kg/m³
C) N/m²
D) J/kg

2. When an object floats in water, the weight of water displaced is: [1]
A) greater than the weight of the object
B) equal to the weight of the object
C) less than the weight of the object
D) zero

3. Which method of heat transfer does not require particles? [1]


A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Conduction and Convection both

4. Evaporation causes cooling because: [1]


A) surrounding air gets heated
B) faster molecules escape, taking energy with them
C) it requires no energy
D) the liquid becomes heavier
5. Which of the following is explained by the theory of plate tectonics? [1]
A) Motion of planets around the Sun
B) Formation of stars from a nebula
C) Earthquakes and volcanic activity
D) Formation of Moon from Earth
6. A nebula is best described as: [1]
A) a burning star
B) a cloud of gas and dust in space
C) fragments of meteors
D) a small planet
7. The Moon is believed to have formed due to: [1]
A) collision of Earth with a Mars-sized body
B) capture of a wandering asteroid
C) cooling and solidification of Earth’s crust
D) explosion of a star near Earth
8. Beats are produced when two sounds: [1]
A) have the same amplitude
B) have slightly different frequencies
C) travel at different speeds
D) are produced by the same source
9. The pitch of a sound depends on: [1]
A) frequency
B) amplitude
C) speed
D) wavelength
10. The loudness of a sound depends on its: [1]
A) frequency
B) amplitude
C) pitch
D) speed

PART II – Structured
11. Define density. A block has a mass of 240 g and a volume of 80 cm³. Find its density in g/cm³. [2]
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12. State the law of conservation of energy with one suitable example. [2]

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13. Why does evaporation cause cooling? Explain briefly. [2]

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14. What is a nebula? Why is it considered important in the formation of stars? [2]

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15. Differentiate between pitch and loudness of sound. [2]

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16. A cube of side 10 cm is floating in water with half its volume submerged. [2]
a) Calculate the volume of water displaced.
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b) Find the weight of the cube. (Density of water = 1000 kg/m³) [1]

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17. A student strikes a tuning fork near a wall and hears 5 beats per second with its echo. Explain how [3]
interference of sound produces beats.

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18. Describe the process of cooling of the Earth’s surface by radiation at night. [3]

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19. Explain with an example how convection helps in transfer of heat in nature. [3]

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20. How does the theory of plate tectonics explain the occurrence of earthquakes? [3]

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21. (a) Explain the Giant Impact Hypothesis for the formation of the Moon. [3]

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(b) How is the study of Moon’s surface and rocks helpful in understanding Earth’s history? [2]

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