CONTENT PAGE

NUMBER
Unit 1-India and the contemporary world-II
1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 1-16
2. Nationalism in India 16-37
3. The Making of a Global World 37- 53
Unit 2-Contemporary India-II
4. Resources and Development 53-66
5. Agriculture 66-79
[Link] Industries 79-94
7. Lifelines of National Economy 95-107
Unit 3-Democratic Politics-II
8. Power Sharing 108-117
9. Federalism 117-126
[Link] Parties 126-140
[Link] of Democracy 141-150
Unit 4- Understanding Economic Development
[Link] 150-162
[Link] of The Indian Economy 162-176
14. Money and Credit 176-191
15. Globalisation and The Indian Economy 191-208
Map Questions 209-229
Picture Based Questions 230-259
CBSE Board Papers, March 2020 (Set 1,2 & 3) 260-285
CBSE Board Sample Question Paper, 2020-21 286-293
NCERT SOLUTIONS 294-329

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 THE COMPLETE SYLLABUS FOR CBSE GRADE 10 (2020-21)
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Unit-Wise Weightage
Units Unit Name Marks
I India and the Contemporary World – II 20
II Contemporary India – II 20
III Democratic Politics – II 20
IV Understanding Economic Development 20
Total 80
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Course Structure:
Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World - II (46 Periods)
Themes Learning Objectives
Section 1: Events and Processes:  Enable the learners to identify and comprehend
1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe: the forms in which nationalism developed
The French Revolution and the Idea of the along with the formation of nation states in
Nation The Making of Nationalism in Europe Europe in the post-1830 period. Establish the
The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848 The relationship,bring out the difference between
Making of Germany and Italy Visualizing the European nationalism and anti-colonial
Nation [Link] the way the idea of
 Nationalism and Imperialism nationalism emerged and led to the formation
2. Nationalism in India: of nation states in Europe and elsewhere.
 The First World War, Khilafat and Non – Recognize the characteristics of Indian
Cooperation Differing Strands within the nationalism through a case study of Non-
Movement Towards Civil Disobedience The Cooperation and Civil Disobedience
Sense of Collective Belonging Movement.
Section 2: Livelihoods,  Analyze the nature of the diverse social
Economies and Societies: Any one theme of movements of the time.
the following. The theme selected should be Familiarize with the writings and ideals of
assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will different political groups and individuals.
not be evaluated in Board Examination.  Appreciate the ideas promoting Pan Indian
3. The Making of a Global World:The Pre- belongingness Show that
modern world The 

 globalization has a long history and point to
Nineteenth Century global economy, the shifts within the process.
colonialism) The Inter war Economy (Great  Analyze the implication of globalization for
Depression) Rebuilding the World Economy local economies.
4. The Age of Industrialization: Discuss how globalization is experienced
 Before the Industrial Revolution Hand Labour differently by different social groups.
and Steam Power Industrialization in the Familiarize with the Pro- to-Industrial phase
colonies and Early – factory system. Familiarize with

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 Factories Come Up The Peculiarities of the process of industrialization and its impact
Industrial Growth Market for Goods on labour [Link] them to understand
industrialization in the colonies with reference
to Textile industries.
Unit 2: Contemporary India – II (34 Periods)
Themes Learning Objectives
1. Resources and Development:  Understand the importance of forests and wild
 Types of Resources Development of life in one environment as well as develop
Resources Resource Planning in India concept towards depletion of resources.
 Land Resources Land Utilization Land Use Identify different dams in the country. Explain
Pattern in India Land Degradation and the importance of agriculture in national
Conservation Measures Soil as a Resource economy.
Classification of Soils Soil Erosion and Soil  Identify various types of farming and discuss
Conservation the various farming methods; describe the
3. Water Resources: spatial distribution of major crops as well as
Note: The theoretical aspect of this chapter understand the relationship between rainfall
will not be assessed in Periodic Tests and regimes and cropping pattern. Identify places
Board Examination. Only Map Items as of availability of different energy resources.
given in the Map List from this chapter will Bring out the importance of industries in the
be evaluated in Board Examination. national economy as well as understand the
4. Agriculture: regional disparities which resulted due to
 Types of farming Cropping Pattern concentration of industries in some areas.
 Major Crops Technological and Institutional  Discuss the need for a planned industrial
Reforms Impact of Globalization on development and debate over the role of
Agriculture government towards sustainable development.
5. Minerals: Explain the importance of transport and
communication in the ever-shrinking world.
Note: The theoretical aspect of this chapter  Understand the role of trade and tourism in the
will not be assessed in Periodic Tests and economic development of a country.
Board Examination. Only Map items as
given in map list from this chapter will be
evaluated in Board Examination.
6. Manufacturing Industries:
 Importance of manufacturing
 Contribution of Industry to National Economy
Industrial Location Classification of Industries
Spatial distribution Industrial pollution and
environmental degradation Control of
Environmental Degradation
7. Life Lines of National Economy:
Transport – Roadways, Railways, Pipelines,
Waterways, Airways
Communication International Trade
 Tourism as a Trade

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 Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II (27 Periods)
Themes Learning Objectives
1. Power Sharing: Familiarize with the centrality of power
 Case Studies of Belgium and SriLanka sharing in a democracy. Understand the
 Why power sharing is desirable?Forms of working of spatial and social power sharing
Power Sharing mechanisms.
2. Federalism  Analyse federal provisions and institutions.
 What is Federalism? What make India a Explain decentralization in rural and urban
Federal Country? How is Federalism areas.
practiced? Decentralization in India  Analyse party systems in democracies.
6. Political Parties:  Introduction to major political parties,
Why do we need Political Parties?How many challenges faced by them and reforms in the
Parties should we have?National Political country.
Parties State Parties Challenges to Political
Parties How can Parties be reformed? Evaluate the functioning of democracies in
comparison to alternative forms of

7. Outcomes of Democracy:How do we [Link] the causes for

assess democracy’s outcomes? continuation of democracy in India.
Accountable, responsive and legitimate  Distinguish between sources of strengths and
government Economic growth and weaknesses of Indian democracy.
development Reduction of inequality and
poverty
 Accommodation of social diversity Dignity
and freedom of the citizens
Unit 4: Understanding Economic Development (44 Periods)
Themes Learning Objectives
1. Development:  Familiarize with concepts of macro
 What Development Promises Different people economics. Understand the rationale for
different goal Income and other goals National overall human development in our country,
Development How to compare different which includes the rise of income,
countries or states? improvements in health and education rather
 Income and other criteria Public Facility than income. Understand the importance of
Sustainability of development quality of life and sustainable development.
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy: 
 Sectors of Economic Activities Comparing the Identify major employment generating
three sectors Primary, Secondary and Tertiary sectors. Reason out the government
Sectors in India Division of sectors as investment in different sectors of economy.
organized and unorganized Sectors in terms of Understand money as an economic concept.
ownership: Public and Private Sectors Understand the role of financial institutions
3. Money and Credit: from the point of view of day-to- day life.
 Money as a medium of exchange Modern Explain the working of the Global Economic
form of money Loan activities of Banks 2 phenomenon.
different credit situations Terms of credit

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 Formal sector credit in India Self Help Groups
for the Poor
4. Globalisation and the Indian Economy:
Production across countries Interlinking
production across countries Foreign Trade and
integration of markets What is globalization?
Factors that have enabled Globalisation World
Trade

Organisation Impact of Globalization on India

The Struggle for a fair Globalisation
PROJECT WORK
in
SOCIAL SCIENCE CLASS X (2020-21) 5 Periods 5 Marks
1. Every student has to compulsorily undertake any one project on the following topics.
CONSUMER AWARENESS
OR
SOCIAL ISSUES
OR
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
2. Objective: The overall objective of the project work is to help students gain an insight and
pragmatic understanding of the theme and see all the Social Science disciplines from
interdisciplinary perspective.
It should also help in enhancing the Life Skills of the students.
Students are expected to apply the Social Science concepts that they have learnt over the years in
order to prepare the project [Link] required, students may go out for collecting data and use
different primary and secondary resources to prepare the project. If possible, various forms of art
may be integrated in the project work.
3. The distribution of marks over different aspects relating to Project Work is as follows:
[Link]. ASPECTS MARKS
a. Content accuracy, originality and analysis 2
b. Presentation and creativity 2
c. Viva Voce 1
4. The projects carried out by the students in different topics should subsequently be shared among
themselves through interactive sessions such as exhibitions, panel discussions, etc.
5. All documents pertaining to assessment under this activity should be meticulously maintained by
concerned schools.
6. A Summary Report should be prepared highlighting: Objectives realized through individual work
and group interactions calendar of activities innovative ideas generated in the process; list of
questions asked in viva voce.
7. It is to be noted here by all the teachers and students that the projects and models prepared should
be made from eco-friendly products without incurring too much expenditure.
8. The Project Report should be handwritten by the students themselves.

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9. Records pertaining to projects (internal assessment) of the students will be maintained for a
period of three months from the date of declaration of result for verification at the discretion of
Board. Subjudiced cases, if any or those involving RTI / Grievances may however be retained
beyond three months
PRESCRIBED BOOKS:
1. India and the Contemporary World - II (History) - Published by
NCERT
2. Contemporary India - II (Geography) - Published by NCERT
3. Democratic Politics II (Political Science) - Published by NCERT
4. Understanding Economic Development - Published by NCERT
5. Together, Towards a Safer India - Part III, a textbook on Disaster
Management - Published by CBSE
Note: Please procure latest reprinted edition (2020) of prescribed NCERT textbooks

LIST OF MAP ITEMS FOR SOCIAL SCIENCE

Subject – History: Outline Political Map of India

Chapter-3: Nationalism in India - (1918 – 1930)

(For locating and labelling / Identification)
1. Indian National Congress Sessions:
a. Calcutta (Sep. 1920) b. Nagpur (Dec. 1920) c. Madras (1927)
2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement
(Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement)
a. Champaran (Bihar) - Movement of Indigo Planters
b. Kheda (Gujrat) - Peasant Satyagrah
c. Ahmedabad (Gujarat) - Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
d. Amritsar (Punjab) - Jallianwala Bagh Incident
e. Chauri Chaura (U.P.) - Calling off the Non Cooperation Movement
f. Dandi (Gujarat) - Civil Disobedience Movement

Subject-Geography: Outline Political Map of India

Chapter 1: Resources and Development (Identification only)

a. Major soil Types. (All)

Chapter 3: Water Resources (Locating and Labelling)

Dams:
a. Salal b. Bhakra Nangal c. Tehri d. Rana Pratap Sagar e. Sardar Sarovar
f. Hirakud g. Nagarjuna Sagar
h. Tungabhadra. Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter ‘Water Resources’ to be assessed in
the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. However, the map items
of this chapter as listed above will be evaluated in Board Examination.

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 Chapter 4: Agriculture (Identification only)
(a) Major areas of Rice and Wheat.(b) Largest / Major producer states of Sugarcane; Tea;
Coffee; Rubber; Cotton and Jute.

Chapter: 5 Mineral and Energy Resources.

Power Plants: (Locating and Labelling only)
(a) Thermal:
a. Namrup b. Talcher c. Singrauli d. Harduaganj e. Korba f. Uran g. Ramagundam h.
Vijaywada i. Tuticorin
(b) Nuclear:
1. Narora 2. Rawat Bhata 3. Kakrapar 4. Tarapur 5. Kaiga 6. Kalpakkam Note: Only
Map Items of this chapter as listed above will be evaluated in Board Examination.

Chapter 6:Manufacturing Industries (Locating and Labelling Only)

(1) Cotton Textile Industries:
a. Mumbai b. Indore c. Ahmedabad d. Surat e. Kanpur [Link] g. Madurai
(2) Iron and Steel Plants:
1. Durgapur 2. Bokaro 3. Jamshedpur 4. Bhilai 5. Vijaynagar 6. Salem
(3) Software Technology Parks:
a. Noida b. Gandhinagar c. Mumbai d. Pune e. Hyderabad f. Bangaluru g. Chennai h.
Thiruvanantapuram

Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy (Locating and Labelling)

Major Ports:
1. Kandla 2. Mumbai 3. Marmagao 4. New Mangalore 5. Kochi 6. Tuticorin
7. Chennai 8. Vishakhapatnam 9. Paradip 10. Haldia
International Airports:
a. Amritsar (Raja Sansi) b. Delhi (Indira Gandhi International) c. Mumbai (Chhatrapati
Shivaji) d. Chennai (Meenam Bakkam) e. Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose)
f. Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)
Note: Items of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.

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 SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE NO. 087)
QUESTION PAPER DESIGN(2020-21) Time:3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

Note:
 Teachers may refer ‘Learning Outcomes’ published by NCERT for developing lesson plans,
assessment framework and questions.
 Two items from History Map List and four from Geography Map List.


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 INTERNAL ASSESSMENT

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 HISTORY
CHAPTER 1 - THE RISE OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Complete the following table.
King of Frankfurt Vote for an all-German
Prussia Parliament National Assembly on
A---? Church of St. Paul B---?
th
Ans: A. Friedrich Wilhelm IV B. 18 May 1848
2. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
During the middle of the 19th century, Germany was divided into seven states of which
only one, two Sicilies was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Ans: During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into seven states of which
only one, Sardinia- Peidmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
3. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ------- in 1789.
Ans: French Revolution
4. What do you mean by modern state?
Ans: A centralized power exercised sovereign control over a clearly defined territory
had been developing over a long period of time in Europe.
5. Who among the following, hosted the Congress at Vienna in 1815?
i. Mazzini ii. Garibaldi iii. Duke Metternich iv. Otto Von Bismarck
Ans: iii. Duke Metternich
6. Industrialisation began in -----.
Ans: England
7. Who remarked “when France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
Ans: Metternich
8. Which of the following is included in revolutionary France?
i. The Right to Vote marked as the first political experiment in liberal democracy.
ii. Men without property included from political rights.
iii. All women are included from political rights.
iv. None of these.
Ans: i. The Right to Vote marked as the first political experiment in liberal democracy.
9. Arrange the following in its correct sequence.
i. Mazzini subsequently founded young Italy and Young Europe.
ii. He was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
iii. Giuseppe Mazzini became a member of the secret society.
iv. Mazzini was born in Genoa in 1807.
Ans: iv, iii, ii, i
10. Which of the following is true?
i. Cities like Brussels, Tokyo, Milan and Warsaw, the French armies were
welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
ii. Cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan and U.S.A, the French armies were
welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
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 iii. Cities like Brussels, Mainz, Russia and Warsaw, the French armies were
welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
iv. Cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw, the French armies were
welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
Ans: iv. Cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw, the French armies were
welcomed as harbingers of liberty.
11. Name any two activities seemed to outweigh the advantages of the administrative
changes in France.
Ans:Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies.(any 2)
12. What is nation-state?
Ans: A nation-state was one which the majority of its citizens and not only its rulers,
came to develop a sense of common identity and shared history or descent.
13. Which of the following is the appropriate statement?
i. Metternich described Mazzini as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.
ii. Mazzini described Metternich as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.
iii. Metternich described Garibaldi as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.
iv. Garibaldi described Mazzini as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.
Ans: i. Metternich described Mazzini as “the most dangerous enemy of our social order”.
14. Which revolution is famous for the installment of constitutional monarchy with Louis
Philippe at its head?
Ans: July revolution
15. Name the French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a
world made up of “democratic and social republic”.
Ans: Frederic Sorrieu
16. A vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist is called.
Ans: Utopian
17. Find the correct option.
Leading the procession, way past the statue of liberty, are ……which by this time were
already nation-states.
i. U.S and Switzerland ii. U.S and Netherlands iii.U.K and Switzerland iv.U.K and U.S
Ans: i. U.S and Switzerland
18. True or false.
“From the heavens, Christ, saints and angels symbolize equality among the nations’. If
false, correct the statement.
Ans: False. From the heavens, Christ, saints and angels symbolize fraternity among the
nations.
19. Which country recognized as an independent nation related to the Treaty of
Constantinople of 1832?
Ans: Greece
20. Error correction: Italy, identifiable by the revolutionary tricolor, has just reached the
statue.
Ans: France, identifiable by the revolutionary tricolor, has just reached the statue.
21. Give reason for Louis Philippe forced to flee.
Ans: Food shortages and unemployment.
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 22. In which year France had brought about the abdication of the monarch and
proclamation of republic?
Ans: 1848
23. Examine the significance of Plebiscite.
Ans: A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a
proposal.
24. Choose the correct option.
i. The procession of France followed by the people of Germany, bearing
black, white and gold flag.
ii. The procession of France followed by the people of Germany, bearing
black, red and gold flag.
iii. The procession of France followed by the people of Germany, bearing
black, green and gold flag.
iv. The procession of France followed by the people of Germany, bearing
black, yellow and gold flag.
Ans: ii. The procession of France followed by the people of Germany, bearing black, red
and gold flag.
25. Match the following.
i. Napoleon invades Italy 1. 1866-1871
ii. Fall of Napoleon 2. 1797
iii. Unification of Italy 3. 1814-1815
iv. Unification of Germany 4. 1859-1870
Ans: i-2 ii-3 iii-4 iv-1
26. Who claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common
people-das volk?
Ans: Johann Gottfried Herder
27. ------ celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk
dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.
Ans: Karol Kurpinski
28. A Government or a system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised is
referred as----.
Ans: Absolutist
29. Which of the following is an incorrect option?
i. Marching in a long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as
they pass by it.
ii. French revolution personified liberty as a female figure.
iii. Torch of enlightenment bears in one hand.
iv. The image lie the shattered remains of the symbols of Utopian institutions.
Ans: iv. The image lie the shattered remains of the symbols of Utopian
(correct-absolutist) institutions.
30. Awareness of women’s rights and interests bases on the belief of the social, economic
and political equality of the genders is called---.
Ans: Feminist
31. When an abstract idea is expressed through a person or a thing is called----.
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 Ans: Allegory
32. Junkers refers to----.
Ans: The large land owners who support the combined forces of the military and the
monarchy.
33. In which year Frederic Sorrieu, the French artist, prepared a series of four prints
visualizing his dream of a world made up of “democratic and social republic”?
Ans: 1848
34. Choose the correctly matched pair from the Following.
[Link] of oak leaves Readiness to fight
[Link] Heroism
[Link] of the rising sun Beginning of a new era
[Link] chains Symbol of the empire
Ans: iii. Rays of the rising sun- Beginning of a new era
35. Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognized Greece as an independent nation.
Ans: The Treaty of Constantinople (1832)
36. Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across
Europe in 1830-1848.
Ans: The Greek War of Independence.
37. What was the main aim of the revolutionaries of Europe during the years following
1815?
Ans: To oppose monarchical forms of government, that had been established after the
Congress of Vienna and to fight for liberty and freedom.
38. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony at Versailles in January
1871?
Ans: Kaiser William I of Prussia
39. What was the meaning of ‘liberalism’ in early 19th century in Europe?
Ans: Liberalism means freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. It
emphasised the concept of government by consent. Liberalism stood for the freedom of
markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital.
40. What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
Ans: The Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was signed with the main aim of undoing most of
the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. It was signed
to re-establish conservative regions in Europe.
41. What was the strong demand of the emerging middle classes in Europe during the 19th
century?
Ans: Men and women of liberal middle classes combined their demands for
constitutionalis with national unification.
42. What was the major issue taken up by the liberal nationalists?
Ans: The freedom of press.
43. Name the female allegory, which was invented by artists in the 19th century to
represent the nation of France.
Ans: Marianne.
44. Explain any one feature of the female allegory Marianne.
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 Ans: The following were its features: It underlined the idea of a people’s nation. Her
characteristics were drawn from liberty and republic.
45. A system of governance in which absolute power is exercised by an individual,
unregulated by legal and constitutional checks is associated with:
(a) Despotism (b) Nepotism (c) Marxism (d) Socialism
Ans: (a) Despotism
46. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
The first clear cut expression of nationalism in America came with the French
Revolution in 1789.
Ans: The first clear cut expression of nationalism in France came with the French
Revolution in 1789.
47. When conservative regimes were restored to power, many liberal minded people went
underground because of the fear of..........
Ans: Repression
48. ...........were the most serious nationalist tension in Europe after 1871.
Ans: Balkans
49. Which one of the following is not true regarding romanticism and national feeling in
Europe?
(a) It was a cultural movement which sought to Develop particular form of nationalist
sentiment.
(b) The romantic artists and poets generally did not criticized the glorification of
science and reason.
(c) It focused on emotions and mystical feelings.
(d) Its effort was to create a sense of collective heritage.
Ans: (b) The romantic artists and poets generally did not criticized the glorification of
science and reason.
50. Which one of the following is true regarding how the new artists depicted liberty
during the French Revolution?
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of
Rights of Man in the other hand.
(b) Blindfold woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.
(c) The gold red and black tricolour
(d) Rays of the rising sun
Ans: (a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the Charter
of Rights of Man in the other hand.
51. What does the German oak stand for?
A. Heroism B. Patriotism C. Liberalism D. Socialism
Ans: (A) Heroism
52. What was the major change that occurred in the political and constitutional scenario
due to the French Revolution in Europe?
Ans: The transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
53. Which power dominated the nation-building process in Germany?
Ans: Power of the Purssian State.
54. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
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 In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Hitler simplified
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial due.
Ans: In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napolean
simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants
from serfdom and manorial due.
55. Match the following.
Column A Column B
(A) French Revolution (1) brought the conservative regimes
back to power
(B) Liberalism (2) ensured right to property for the
privileged class
(C) Napoleonic Code (3) transfer of sovereignty from
monoarch to the French citizens
(D) The Treaty of Vienna (4) individual freedom and equality
before law
Ans: A − 3, B − 4, C −2 , D− 1
56. In 1815, representatives of European powers— Russia, Germany, France and Austria
– who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for
Europe.
Ans: In 1815, representatives of European powers— Britian, Russia, Prussia and
Austria — who had collectively defeated Napolean, met at Vienna to draw up a
settlement for Europe.
57. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as:
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Conservative Regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic in France. They
did not tolerate criticism and dissent and sought to curb activities that questioned
legitimacy of autocratic government.
Reason (R): Most of the regimes did not impose censorship laws to control what was
said in newspapers.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (C) A is correct but R is wrong.
58. Who is a person that refuses to accept established beliefs and practices?
Ans: A dissenter
59. Germania wears red cap, the tricolour, the cockade. State whether the statement True
or False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: False. Germania became the allegory of the German nation and wears a crown
of oak leaves as the German oak stands for heroism.
60. Define “Romanticism”.Ans: “Romanticism” was a movement in the arts and
literature, which originated in the late 18th century, emphasizing inspiration,
subjectivity and the primacy of the individual. It is a cultural movement which
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 sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment.
61. Who among the following wrote 95 Theses criticising many of the practices and
rituals of the Roman Catholic Church?
(a) Galileo Galileo (b) Martin Luther (c) Copernicus (d) Petrarch
Ans: (b) Martin Luther
62. The US became a colonial power in the late 1890s by occupying some colonies earlier
held by:
A. France B. Germany C. Belgium D. Spain
Ans: (D) Spain
63. What did Das Volk stand for?
A. Democracy B. Factory workers C. Common people D. Slum dwellers
Ans: (C) Common people
64. Germania wears red cap, the tricolour, the cockade. State whether the statement
True or False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: False. Germania became the allegory of the German nation and wears a crown
of oak leaves as the German oak stands for heroism.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
1. “The local people in the areas conquered by the Napoleon react to French rule”.
Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: i. Peasants, artisans, workers and businessmen enjoyed this newly found freedom.
ii. Uniform laws and standard system of weight and measures and a common currency
would be more helpful in trade.
iii. Increase in taxes, censorship and forced conscription in French armies were seen as
outweighing the advantage of administrative changes which Napoleon brought.
2. "The Napoleonic rule over other regions unpopular with some sections of Europe”. Do
you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.
Ans: Yes I agree.
i. Administrative reforms did not go hand in hand with political freedom. The newly
annexed regions found themselves under the French rule.
ii. The newly acquired territories had to face increased taxation and censorship.
iii. The forced conscription into French army to conquer other parts of Europe, was not
popular with the newly conquered people.
3. Write a note on Greek war of Independence.
Ans: Greece had been a part of the Ottoman empire since fifteenth century. The growth
of revolutionary nationalism and liberalism in 19th century sparked off a struggle for
independence among Greeks in 1821. Nationalists in Greece got support of Greeks living
in exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek
culture. The Treaty of Constantinople in 1832 recognised Greece as an independent
state. Art, poetry, stories and music helped express and shape Greek nationalist feelings.
4. Highlight the events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people
belonging to other parts of Europe.
Ans: (i) When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe,
students and other members of educated middle- classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
(ii) Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which
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 moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.(iii) With the
outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of
nationalism abroad.
5. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A: Romanticism and National Feeling
Let us look at Romanticism, a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular
form of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the
glorification of reason and science and focused instead on emotions, intuition and
mystical feelings. Their effort was to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a
common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
Source B: Economic Hardship in Europe
The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the
nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most
countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural
areas migra ted to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
Source C: The Revolution of the Liberals
In other parts of Europe where independent nationstates did not yet exist — such as
Germany, Italy, Poland, the Austro-Hungarian Empire — men and women of the
liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national
unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands
for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles — a constitution, freedom
of the press and freedom of association.
Source A : Romanticism and National Feeling
5.1 What are the other aspect of idea of nationalism? (1)
Ans: The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and
territorial expansion. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of
nationalism. Romanticism is most accepted cultural movement which helped and
expressed the nationalist feelings in Europe.
Source B : Economic Hardship in Europe
5.2 What do you meant by economic hardship in Europe? (1)
Ans: The economic hardship in Europe refers to most of the European countries during
1830s faced more seekers of jobs than employment. Small producers in towns were
often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from
England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
Source C : The Revolution of the Liberals
5.3 What were the demand of Liberals? (1)
Ans: In the year of 1848, in many European countries liberal middle classes were
emerged. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands for
the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles.
6. How did the concept of nation state develop in Europe?
Ans: (i) Nationalism emerged as a force which brought changes in the political and
mental world of Europe.
(ii) It resulted into ‘Nation state’ in place of the multinational dynastic empire of
Europe.
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 (iii) In a nation-state, people living in it developed a sense of common identity and
shared history.
(iv) This commonness was developed through struggles, actions of leaders and the
struggle of the common people.
7. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A: The Napoleonic Code
The Civil Code of 1804 — usually known as the Napoleonic Code — did away with all
privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to
property. This Code was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch
Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative
divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial
dues. In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication
systems were improved. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a
new-found freedom.
Source B: The Aristocracy and The New Middle Class
In Western and parts of Central Europe the growth of industrial production and trade
meant the growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes whose existence
was based on production for the market. Industrialisation began in England in the
second half of the eighteenth century, but in France and parts of the German states it
occurred only during the nineteenth century. In its wake, new social groups came into
being: a working-class population, and middle classes made up of industrialists,
businessmen, professionals.
Source C: A New Conservatism After 1815
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit
of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state
and society — like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family
— should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the
society of pre- revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the
monarchy.
Source A : The Napoleonic Code
7.1 What was the core concept of the Napoleonic Code? (1)
Ans: The Napoleonic Code defined the concept of equality before the law and secured
the right to property. This code abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial dues as well as improvement in the transport and
communication system.
Source B: The Aristocracy and The New Middle Class
7.2 Who were the new middle class in Europe? (2)
Ans: The growth of industrial production and trade in Europe led to emergence of
commercial classes whose existence was based on production for the market. In its
wake, new social group came into being such as a working class population and middle
classes population. The middle class population were industrialists, businessmen,
professionals.
Source C: A New Conservatism After 1815
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 7.3 What do you meant by conservatism? (2)
Ans: A political philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established
institutions and customs, and preferred gradual development to quick change is called
conservation.
8. ‘Napoleon was a great administrator.’ Explain the statement in the light to the changes
he brought about in France.
Ans: (i) The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code- did away with
all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to
property.
(ii) This Code was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic,
in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative divisions,
abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In the
towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
(iii) Transport and communication systems were improved.
(iv) Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods,began to realize that uniform laws,
standardised weights and measures, and a common national currency would facilitate
the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.
9. What were Jacobin Clubs? How did their activities and campaigns help to spread the
idea of nationalism abroad? Explain.
Ans: Jacobin clubs were the political clubs that were set up by educated middle class in
all over Europe to replace autocratic regimes in Europe with democratic governments.
They were inspired by the events in France. The activities and campaigns of these clubs
paved the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium and
Switzerland and much of Italy in 1790. With the outbreak of revolutionary wars, the
French armies carried the ideas of nationalism in foreign countries.
10. Mention any 3 contributions of Otto Von Bismarck in German unification.
Ans: Otto von Bismarck was the chief architect of German unification. He carried out
the process with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy. He helped in infusing
nationalism in the mind of the masses. Three wars for over seven years were fought to
seek the German nation and defeat of Austria, Denmark and France. Bismarck
initiated in proclaiming the new German nation under Kaiser William I of Prussia,
thus completing the process of German unification.
11. Mention any three ways in which nationalists feelings were kept alive in Poland in the
18th and 19th century.
Ans: Polish people used their culture in a big way. They strived hard to keep their
national identity. Nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in the following ways:
They used music to keep their unity and identity. Karol Kurpinski raised the national
struggle by staging his Polish operas and music. Traditional dance forms of Poland
polonaise and mazurka became their national symbols. In the regions occupied by the
Russia, Polish people used their language to develop nationalist feelings. It was used as
a weapon of national resistance in Church gatherings and religious instructions.
12. Describe any three features of the ‘Nation State’ that emerged in Europe in the
twentieth century.
Ans: The following were the features of the ‘Nation State’ that emerged in Europe in
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 the twentieth century: This period witnessed intense rivalry and group were formed
among nations over trade and colonies as well as naval and military might. Ottoman
Empire had disintegrated and subject nationalities declared their independence. Colonies
waged anti-colonial struggle which led to the independence of these nations.
13. Highlight any three ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere.
Ans: Liberal nationalists wanted the freedom of markets and abolition of state-imposed
restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. They argued for the creation of
unified economic territory. Reduction of currency disparities and following of uniform
weights and measures. Creation of infrastructure to stimulate mobility and harness
economic interests to national unification.
14. Specify any three beliefs of the conservatism that emerged after 1815.
Ans: The conservatives held the belief that established, traditional institutions of state
and society like monarchy, church, social hierarchies, property and family must be
protected and preserved. They never proposed a pre-revolutionary period to return to
but they knew that as Napoleon had carried out changes, modernization would in fact
contribute to a strong monarchy. They believed that it would trengthen power of the
state and make it much more effective. For them it was a firm belief that aristocratic
monarchies of Europe would gain much from a modern army, an efficient bureaucracy,
a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom.
15. Describe any three features of Napoleonic Code.
Ans: The administrative system was made rational and efficient. Administrative
divisions were simplified. Privileges based on birth were abolished and equality before
the law was established. Secured the right to property. Abolished the feudal system.
Freed peasants firestrictions were removed. (Any 3)
16. “Romanticism pave the way for nationalism in Europe”. Elaborate upon the statement.
Ans: Romantic artists criticized the glorification of reason and science and focused on
emotions, intuitions, and mystical feelings. Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that
through folksongs, folk poetry and folk dances, the true spirit of the nation could be
popularized. They gave emphasis on vernacular language to recover not only the
ancient national spirit but also to carry the modern nationalist message to a large
audience who were mostly illiterate.
17. Write a short note on the Silesian revolt.
Ans: In 1845, weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied them
raw materials and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their
payments. On 4th June a large crowd of weavers emerged from their homes and
marched to the mansion of their contractor demanding higher wages. They were broke
storehouse and plundered the supply of cloth, tore to shreds and also smashed
furniture, window panes etc. As a result, the contractors fled away from their houses
with their families.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS [5 MARKS]
1. ‘The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardships in Europe’. Support the
statement with arguments.
Ans: The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe because: The first half
of the nineteenth century saw an increase in population, all over Europe. There was
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 scarcity of jobs and few employment opportunities. Population from rural areas
migrated to the cities in search of jobs. They lived in overcrowded slums. Small
producers in towns faced stiff competition from imports of cheap machine goods from
England. In those parts of Europe where aristocracy was strong and enjoyed enormous
powers, the peasants groaned under the burden of feudal dues and taxation. The rise of
food prices or a year of bad harvest, added to the miseries of the common man.
2. “Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe
during the 18th and 19th centuries”. Analyze the statement with examples.
Ans: Culture played an important role in creating the idea of a nation in Europe in the
following ways. Art, music, literature and drama helped to express, shape and
strengthen nationalist sentiments. Romantics like the German philosopher Johann
Gottfried Herder held the view that true German culture could be discovered only
among the common people, the das volk. Glorification of reason and science was
criticised by the romantic artists, rather they favoured emotions, intuitions and mystical
feelings. Language too boosted nationalism. The Polish people opposed the Russian
occupation and the ban on Polish language, by using it in the Church gathering for all
religious ceremonies and for religious instruction. The Polish language became a weapon
of the nationalists. Two Germans, Grimm Brothers, used stories and folktales written in
German to promote the German spirit against the domination of the French. Operas
and music, like that of Karol Kurpinski, kept alive the national spirit. Folk dances like
the polonaise and mazurki became national symbols.
3. “The female figures become an allegory of the nation during the 19 th century in Europe”.
Comment.
Ans: In the 19th century in Europe, the female figures became an allegory of the nation in
the following ways. The artists, in the 18th and 19th centuries in Europe, wanted to
represent a country, as if it was a person. In other words, they wanted to personify the
nation. Nations were represented as female figures. The female form did not belong to
any particular woman in real life. It was an abstract idea, which gave the nation a
concrete form. The female figure became an allegory of a nation. In France, the female
form was given the name of Marianne, which represented the nation. Her characteristics
were red cap, the tricolour and the cockade, drawn from those of Liberty and the
Republic. Similarly,Germania became the allegory of the German nation. Germania
wears a crown of oak leaves because oak stands for heroism.
4. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
The ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the
ideology of liberalism. In the economic sphere liberalism stood for the freedom of
markets and the abolition of stateimposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle
classes. Napolean had created a confederation of 39 states. Each of them had their own
currency, weights and measures. A customer travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg in
1833 to sell his goods had to pass through 11 customs barrier and peg a customs dug of
about 5 percent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the weight or
measurement of the goods. As each region had its own system of weights and measures,
it was a time consuming calculation. The measure of cloth, was the elle which in each
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 region stood for a different length. An elle of textile material bought in Frankfurt would
get a person 54.7cm of cloth, in Mainz 55.1cm,in Nuremberg 65.6cm,in Freiburg 53.5cm.
(i) What were the ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century similar to? (1)
Ans: (i) The ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied
to the ideology of liberalism.
(ii) What was the ideology of Liberalism? (2)
Ans: Ideology of Liberalism:In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of
markets and the abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital. During the 19th century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes.
(iii) Why was trading in nineteenth century a tedious process? (2)
Ans: Trading in 19th century was a tedious process as Napolean had created a
Confederation of 39 states. Each had their own currency, weights and measures. Duties
were often levied according to the weight or measurement of goods. As each region had
its own system of weights and measures, it was time consuming calculation.
5. “The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria- Hungary, for example, was a patchwork
of many different regions and peoples”. Justify.
Ans: (i) It included the Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland – as well
as Bohemia, where the aristocracy was predominantly German speaking. It also
included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. (ii) In Hungary, half
of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of dialects. In
Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. (iii) Besides these three dominant groups, there
also lived within the boundaries of the empire, a mass of subject peasant peoples —
Bohemians and Slovaks to the north, Slovenes in Camiola, Croats to the south, and
Roumans to the east in Transylvania. (iv) Such differences did not easily promote a
sense of political [Link] only tie binding these diverse groups together was a common
allegiance to the emperor.
6. “French territory undergo changes due to the Treaty of Vienna in 1815.” Support the
statement with arguments.
Ans: Representatives of European powers, i.e. Austria, Britain, Russia and Prussia, met
at Vienna in 1815 after having defeated Napoleon. The Austrian Chancellor Duke
Metternich was the head of the Congress. Here the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was drawn
up to undo the changes after the Napoleonic wars. Thus the Bourbon dynasty, deposed
during the French Revolution, was put back in power even as France lost the territories
it had annexed under Napoleon. To prevent every future expansion of France, many
states were set up on France’s boundaries. So the kingdom of Netherlands including
Belgium came up in the north, while Genoa came together with Piedmont in the south.
Prussia received some important new territories on its western frontiers. Austria gained
control of northern Italy. The 39 states in the German Confederation as set up by
Napoleon underwent no changes. In the east, Russia received a part of Poland and
Prussia received a part of Saxony. The objective was to restore the monarchies
overthrown by Napoleon and create a new conservative order in Europe.
7. Analzse any five measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to
create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Ans: The measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a
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 sense of collective identity among the French people were as follows. The idea of la
patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the idea of united people
enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen
to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected bythe active
citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken
and martyrs commemorated in the name of nation. Regional dialects were discouraged
and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the
nation. A centralised administrative system was put in practice and it formulated
uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were
abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
8. “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he had
incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational
and efficient”. Substantiate the statement with arguments.
Ans: Napoleon declared himself the emperor of France and destroyed democracy. In the
administrative field, he incorporated revolutionary principles, which were as follows.
The Civil Code of 1804, also known as Napoleonic Code, abolished all the privileges
based on birth, established equality before the law and gave the right to property. The
code which was introduced in the regions under French control, like Italy, Germany,
Switzerland, simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed
peasants from serfdom and manorial dues, In towns guild restrictions came to an end.
Uniform weights and measures were adopted. A common national currency helped in the
movement of goods and capital from one region to another. Transport and
communication systems were improved.
9. “Nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal democratic sentiments by the last
quarter of the 19th century in Europe’. Evaluate the statement with examples.
Ans: Towards the end of the 19th century, nationalism became a narrow belief with
inadequate ends. This period saw nationalist groups becoming increasingly prejudiced of
each other and ready to wage a war at the slightest of the pretext. Nationalism was now
identified with increasing one’s sphere of influence, by establishing control over more
territories. Balkan states became jealous of each other and entered into a conflict to
establish more control and power in the region at the cost of others. The chief European
authorities saw this as an opportunity and manipulated the nationalist desires of the
subject peoples. ‘European powers were keen on countering the hold of other powers
over the Balkans. They did nothing serious to solve the Balkan issue rather watched the
situation to turn fruitful for [Link] most severe tensions emerge after 1871,
leading to a series of wars and ultimately led to the First World War in 1914.
10. “A wave of economic nationalism strengthen the wider nationalist sentiments growing in
Europe”. Examine the statement.
Ans: wave of economic nationalism strengthened wider nationalist sentiments growing in
Europe with: (a) the demands of new commercial classes for a unified economic province
for unconstrained transfer of commodities, people and funds. (b) the formation of the
zollverein in 1834. (c) the elimination of tariff barriers by the union. (d) the reduction in
the number of currencies from over thirty to two. (e) the formation of a network of
railways that further helped mobility and connected economic interests to national
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 unification.
11. Describe the process of unification of Germany.
Ans: The Process of unification of Germany: By 1848, the popular effort of political
associations failed in installing a constitutional monarchy in Germany. The Failure of
Frankfurt Parliament made it clear that German unification had to come through the
combined effort of monarchy and army supported by large landowners. From 1848,
Prussia took on the leadership of the movement of national unification. In this process
Otto von Bismarck, the Chief Minister of Prussia, proved to be the main architect.
Bismarck reached his goal with the help of Prussian army and the bureaucracy. He
fought three wars in seven years with Austria, Denmark and France which ended in
Prussian victory and completed the process of German unification.
12. Describe the process of unification of Italy.
Ans: During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which
only Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by Italian princely house. Mazzini, a great
revolutionary leader of Italy, inspired the youth with the ideas of establishing a single
unified Italy. He set up secret societies like Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe
in Berne with like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and German states.
Mazzini prepared the ground for Cavour to complete the process of unification. After a
series of failures of Mazzini, King Victor Emmanuel II took to unifying Italy through
wars. Cavour, the Chief Minister, through his tactful diplomatic alliance with France,
defeated Austrian forces in 1859. Under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi, armed
volunteers marched into South Italy in 1860 along with the Kingdom of two Sicilies and
won the support of local peasants and drove the Spanish away, thus unifying Italy in
1861. Victor Emmanuel II was made the King of united Italy.
13. Describe the process of unification of Britain.
Ans: In Britain the formation of a nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval,
revolution or national struggle but of a long drawn out parliamentary process. England
had people of many ethnic groups such as English, Welsh, Scot and Irish with their own
cultural and political traditions. The English nation steadily grew in importance, wealth
and power and extended her influence over other nations of the island. The British
Parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy in 1688, was the instrument
through which a nation-state, with England at the centre, came to be forged. The Act of
Union of 1707 between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of United
Kingdom of Great Britain. Ireland, after a prolonged conflict between Irish Catholics and
British Protestants, was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801.
The symbols of the new Britain—the British flag (Union Jack), the national anthem and
the English language—were actively promoted.
14. “Balkans become the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871.”
Examine the statement with examples.
Ans: Balkan become the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871
because of the following reasons: It was a region consisting of multi-nationalities including
modem day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece etc. It was under the control of Ottoman
Empire. There arouse internal conflicts among the different nationalities and they voiced
protest to assert their [Link] romantic sentiments made the people understand
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 that they were subjugated by a foreign power. The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of
each other and they wanted to gain more territories at the cost of others. Other big
European powers like Russia, Germany, England, etc. were keen on controlling the hold
of other powers over the [Link] too had their imperialistic ambitions on Balkans.
This made the situation in Balkans worse and led to First World War in 1914.
15. Analyze the impact of the ‘Revolution of Liberals’ of 1848 in Europe.
Ans: The Revolution of the Liberals in 1848 was led by the educated middle classes. The
impact of the Revolution was: In France, it brought about the abdication of monarch and
a republic based on the principles of universal male suffrage was set up. Germany,
Poland, Italy, Austro-Hungarian Empire did not exist as independent nation states. Men
and women of liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism and
national unification. They wanted a nation state on parliamentary principles—a
constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association. In the German regions,
middle class professionals, businessmen and rich artisans came to the city of Frankfurt to
vote for an all-German National Assembly. The Frankfurt Assembly was convened, they
drafted a constitution, headed by a monarchy subject to the crown. However, the king
Friedrich Wilhelm-IV of Prussia refused to accept the crown.
16. Describe the contribution of Giuseppe Mazzini in spreading revolutionary ideas in Europe.
Ans: Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in Genoa in 1807. He became a
member of the secret society of the Carbonari. At the age of 24, he was sent into exile in
1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He founded two underground societies, first,
Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne. The members of the society were d
rawn from Poland, France, Italy and the German states. Mazzini strongly believed that
God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy could not continue
to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified
republic within a wider alliance of nations. This unification alone could be the basis of
Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France,
Switzerland, and Poland. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of
democratic republics frightened the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most
dangerous enemy of our social order’.
17. How did Frederic Sorrieu visualise his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and
social republics’?
Ans: (i) The French artist Frederic Sorrieu visualised his dream of a world made up of
democratic and social republic. (ii) The first print of series shows the people of Europe
and America, marching in a long train and offering homage to the Statue of Liberty as
they pass by. (iii) The people of the world are grouped as distinct nation, identified
through their flags and national costume. (iv) The procession was led by the USA and
Switzerland which had become nation-state at that time.(v) Christ, saints and angels
gazing upon the scene symbolize fraternity among the nations of the world.
CHAPTER 2 - NATIONALISM IN INDIA
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Modern nationalism in Europe came to be associated with the formation of modern-states.
Ans: Modern nationalism in Europe came to be associated with the formation of nation-
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 states.
2. Complete the following table.
Peasant Leader of Peasant movement Set up headed by
Movement in Awadh. Nehru and others.
Awadh A----? B----?
Ans: A. Baba Ramchandra B. Oudh Kisan Sabha
3. Fill in the blanks. The idea of satyagraha emphasized the ------.
Ans: Power of truth and the need to search of truth.
4. Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment is called---------.
Ans: Begar
5. Which incident is associated with ‘produce a moral effect’ to create in the minds of
satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe?
Ans: Jallianwalla Bagh incident
6. Which of the following is not a feature of satyagraha?
i. Dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.
ii. Being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
iii. If the cause was true, the struggle against injustice need not require physical
force to fight the oppressor.
iv. A satyagrahi win the battle through violence.
Options: A. ii and iv B. I and iii C. Only I D. Only iii
Ans: Option A. ii and iv
7. Arrange the following according to its correct sequence.
[Link] the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920, a compromise was worked out
among the members within the Congress party.
ii. Many members within the Congress were reluctant to boycott the council elections.
[Link] a while seemed no meeting point between the supporters and
the opponents of the movement.
iv. In the months between September and December there was an
intense tussle within the congress.
Ans: ii, iv, iii, i
8. Which of the following is true?
i. Civil Disobedience was re-launched in 1932.
ii. First Round Table Conference was held in 1933.
iii. Gandhi begins Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking Forest Law.
iv. Jawaharlal Nehru establishes Daepressed Classes Association.
Ans: [Link] Disobedience was re-launched in 1932.
9. What is martial Law?
Ans: The imposition of direct military control of normal civil functions or suspension of
civil Law by a Government, especially in response to a temporary emergency where civil
forces are overwhelmed.
10. “The right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed” is
the notion of swaraj of-------.
Ans: Plantation workers in Assam.
11. Find the incorrect option.
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 i. Entering the forest to graze their cattles, or to collect fuel wood and fruits is an idea
of swaraj interpreted by tribal peasants in Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh.
ii. Entering the forest to graze their cattles, or to collect fuel wood and fruits is an idea
of swaraj interpreted by tribal peasants in Awadh.
iii. Entering the forest to graze their cattles, or to collect fuel wood and fruits is an idea
of swaraj interpreted by tribal peasants in Gudem Hills of Assam.
iv. Entering the forest to graze their cattles, or to collect fuel wood and fruits is an idea
of swaraj interpreted by tribal peasants in Gudem Hills of Arunachal Pradesh.
Ans: i. Entering the forest to graze their cattles, or to collect fuel wood and fruits is an idea
of swaraj interpreted by tribal peasants in Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh.
12. Who among the following pressed for more radical mass agitation and for full
independence?
i.C.R Das and Motilal Nehr ii. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
[Link] and Nehru [Link] and Motilal Nehru
Ans: ii. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
13. The involvement of women in Civil Disobedience Movement seemed to be only on their
‘symbolic presence’ because-----.
Ans: For long time the Congress was reluctant to allow women to hold any position of
authority within the organization.
14. Error correction:
Simon Commission allowed detention of political prisoners without trail for two years.
Ans: Rowlatt Act (1919) allowed detention of political prisoners without trail for two
years.
15. A spinning wheel in the centre of swaraj flag representing the Gandhian ideal of ----.
Ans: Self-help
16. The figure of Bharat Mata painted by Abanindranath Tagore is the symbol of----.
Ans: Power and authority
17. The Swaraj flag comprises of the colours:
[Link],Green,White [Link],Green,Yellow [Link],Green,Yellow [Link],Yellow,White
Ans: [Link],Green,White
18. The Swaraj flag designed by -----.
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi
19. Examine the significance of Lahore Congress Session.
Ans: In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore Congress
formalized the demand of “Purna Swaraj” or full independence for India.
20. Mahatma Gandhi had to find a way to relate the abstract idea of freedom to more concrete
issues of everyday life because….
Ans: The Lahore Session in December 1929, declared that 26 th January 1930, would be
celebrated as the Independence Day. But the celebrations attracted very little attention.
21. Who painted the famous image of ‘Bharat Mata’?
Ans:Abanindranath Tagore
22. Examine the significance of Simon Commission.
Ans: The Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India
and suggest changes.
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23. Who persuaded upper castes to change their hearts and give up the sin of untouchability?
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi
24. Match the following.
i. Movement of indigo planters. A. Ahmedabad in Gujarat.
ii. Movement of peasants. B. Uttar Pradesh
iii. Movement of cotton mill workers. C. Champaran in Bihar
iv.“No rent” campaigns. D. Kheda in Gujarat.
Ans: i. C ii. D iii. D iv. B
25. After the decline of the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat movement, a large section of muslims
felt alienated from the Congress because---
Ans: From the mid 1920’s the Congress came to be more visibly associated with openly
Hindu religious nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha.
26. What is the significance of Poona Pact of September 1932?
Ans: The Poona Pact gave the Depressed Classes reserved seats in provincial and central
legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.
27. Who is the author of “The folklore of Southern India”?
Ans: Natesa Sastri
28. Which of the following is marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience movement?
[Link] Law [Link] Satyagraha
[Link] India Movement [Link] Satyagraha
Ans: ii. Salt Satyagraha
29. Devotion to mother figure, Bharat Mata,came to be seen as evidence of ----
Ans: One’s nationalism
30. The industrial working class (industrialists) felt alienate in the Civil Disobedience
Movement because---
Ans: The Congress was reluctant to include worker’s demands as part of its programme
of struggle.
31. After the failure of Round Table Conference the business groups were no longer uniformly
enthusiastic in Civil Disobedience Movement because---.
Ans: They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities, and worried about
prolonged disruption of business as well as the growing influence of socialism amongst the
younger members of the congress.
32. In which year Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place?
i. 13th April 1919. ii. 6th April 1919 iii. 11th April 1919 iv. 16th April 1919
Ans: i. 13th April 1919.
33. Choose the correctly matched pair from the Following.
i. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, Gandhiji convinced the l
leaders of the need to start non cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as
for swaraj.
ii. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in December 1920, Gandhiji convinced the
leaders of the need to start non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as
for swaraj.
iii. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1927, Gandhiji convinced the
leaders of the need to start non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as
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 for swaraj.
iv. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in December 1927, Gandhiji convinced the
leaders of the need to start non cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as
for swaraj.
Ans: i. At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, Gandhiji convinced the
leaders of the need to start non cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as for
swaraj.
34. Who is the author of “Vande Mataram”?
Ans: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhya
35. Who is called “Frontier Gandhi”?
Ans: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
36. Choose the correctly matched pair from the Following.
[Link] Bagh massacre April 1929
[Link]-Chaura incident February 1922
[Link] ends Civil Disobedience March 1921
Movement
[Link] Sitaram Raju arrested May 1934
Ans: II. Chauri-Chaura incident- February 1922
37. “Vande Mataram” is a hymn included in ------ novel written by Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay.
Ans: Anandamath
38. The relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained uncertain because.
Ans: The Congress was unwilling to support “no rent” campaign in most
places.
39. When the Civil Disobedience Movement was restarted in 1932, many of rich peasants
refused to participate because:
Ans: They were deeply disappointed when the movement was called off in 1931 without the
revenue rates being revised.
40. Which of the following book was written by Mahatma Gandhi?
[Link] and peace [Link] Swaraj [Link] iv. Othello
Ans: [Link] Swaraj
41. Who was responsible for killing many innocent people at Jallianwala
Bagh in Amritsar?
(a) General Campbell (b) General Hugh Ross (c) General Neil (d) General Dyer
Ans: (d) General Dyer
42. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.
i. Champaran Satyagraha ii. Kheda Satyagraha
iii. Ahmedabad Satyagraha iv. Rowlatt Act
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) iv, iii, ii, i (c) i, iii, ii, iv (d) iv, i, ii, iii
Ans: (a) i, ii, iii, iv
43. ‘The Poona Pact’ took place in:
(a) August 1933 (b) September 1932 (c) July 1933 (d) May 1932
Ans: (b) September 1932
44. Which one of the following option portrayed Bharat Mata best?
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 A. An ascetic figure B. Calm C. Divine D. All of these
Ans: (D) All of these
43. Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against----
Ans: The proposal of Rowlett Act
44. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.
Column A Column B
(A) Bankim Chandra Chathopadhayay (1) Depressed Classes Association
(B) B.R Ambedkar (2) Famous image of Bharat Mata
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal (3) President of the Muslim League
(D) Abanindranath Tagore (4) Vande Matram
Ans: A −4 , B −1 , C −3 , D−2
47. Which of the following is not true regarding Rowlatt Act, 1919?
(a) The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
(b) It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
(c) It empowered the government to detain the political prisioner without trial.
(d) The Act controlled the movement of plantation workers.
Ans: (d) The Act controlled the movement of plantation workers
48. What was the Civil Disobedience Movement associated with?
Ans: It was associated with the breaking of salt law.
49. A compromise between the supporters and opponents of Non-
cooperation movement was worked out in the congress session at:
A. Hoshiarpur B. Ahemdabad C. Ambala D. Nagpur
Ans: (D) Nagpur
50. The Act that gave enormous powers to the British government to repress political
activities was:
A. Rowlatt Act B. Seditious Meetings Act C. Arms Act D. Vernacular Press Act
Ans: (A) Rowlatt Act
51. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.
(i) Chauri Chaura Incident (ii) Khilafat Movement
(iii) Jallianwala Bagh Incident (iv) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India
Options:
A. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) B. (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv) C. (iv)-(ii)-(i)-(iii) D. (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(1)
Ans: (D) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
52. At the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920, a compromise was worked out
and the programme was adopted.
Ans: Non-Cooperation
53. Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of ‘Bharat Mata’?
A. One’s Nationalism B. Vande Mataram
C. Heroism and Justice D. Folk and Cultural Tradition
Ans: (A) One’s Nationalism
54. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-
Cooperation Movement.
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 Reason (R): It was done due to Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (C) A is correct but R is wrong.
55. After arrving in India, _____ travelled to Champaran in Bihar in 1917 to inspire the
peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi
56. Why did Mahatma Gandhi organise the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar?
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi organised the Champaran Satyagarha in order to voice against
the oppressive indigo plantation system.
57. To protest against the salt tax, Gandhiji undertook:
(a) Non-cooperation movement (b) Civil disobedience
(c) Dandi March (d) Go back Simon
Ans: (c) Dandi March
58. Which of the following option is incorrect related to Dandi March organised by
Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March from Sabarmad Ashram
(b) Dandi March is also known as salt march
(c) Dandi March was started on 11 March 1930
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members
Ans: (d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.
59. Arrange the following events of Indian history in increasing order of their date of
occurring.
(i) Rowlatt act passed by council
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi returned to India
(iii) Jallian Wala bagh Massacre
(iv) Simon Commission arrived
(a) i—ii—iii—iv (b) iv—iii—ii—i (c) ii—i—iii—iv (d) iii—ii—i—iv
Ans: (d) iii—ii—i—iv
60. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in Madras Congress b
Session in 1919.
Reason (R): Chauri-Chaura was the places where non-cooperation movement was
called off.
(a) Both A and R are true and It is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but It is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (d) A is wrong but R is correct.
61. In which Congress session the Non-Cooperation programme was adopted?
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 (a) Wardha (b) Bombay (c) Lahore (d) Nagpur
Ans: (d) Nagpur
62. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(A) 1919 (i) Khilafat movement
(B) 1920 (ii) Bardoli Satyagrah
(C) 1921 (iii) Satyagrah against Rowlatt Act
(D) 1928 (iv) Firing at peasants near Rae Bareilly
Ans: (A)-(iii) (B)-(i) (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii)
63. By whom was the Swaraj flag developed in the year 1921?
Ans: By the year 1921 the swaraj flag was developed by Motilal Nehru.
64. What did Mahatma Gandhi called to ‘Untouchables’?
Ans: Harijan
65. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non
Cooperation Movement.
Reason (R): It was done due to Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (C) A is correct but R is wrong.
66. To protest against the salt tax, Gandhiji undertook:
(a) Non-cooperation movement (b) Civil disobedience
(c) Dandi March (d) Go back Simon
Ans: (c) Dandi March
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Who had designed the ‘Swaraj Flag’ by 1921? Explain any two features of the ‘Swaraj
Flag’.
Ans: By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj Flag.
i. It was a tricolour (saffron, green and white).
ii. It had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help.
2. What type of flag was designed during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal? Mention
any two features of it.
Ans: During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red,green and yellow)
was designed. It had eight lotuses, representing eight provinces of British India. It also
had a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.
3. ‘The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi
and the notion of Swaraj.’ Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant right to move freely in and out of
the confined space in which they were enclosed, and to retain a link with the native
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 village. When they heard of the Non- Cooperation Movement thousands of workers left
the plantations and headed home. They believed that Gandhi Raj meant that they would
be given land in their own villages.
4. Why did different social groups join the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
Ans: Rich peasant communities like Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh
joined the movement because, being producers of commercial crops, they were hard-hit
by depression and falling prices. For them, Swaraj meant struggle against high
revenues. Poor peasants joined the struggle because they found it difficult to pay the
rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to be remitted. Rich business classes were against
colonial policies which restricted trade. They joined the movement because they wanted
protection against import of foreign goods. They thought that Swaraj would cancel
colonial restrictions and trade would flourish without constraints.
5. Simon Commission was greeted with slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ at arrival in India.
Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.
Ans: Simon Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in
India and suggest changes. The Commission did not have a single Indian member. They
were all British. According to Indians, the commission did not hold any hopes for
further constitutional reforms. Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928. It was
greeted with the slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ and black flags. All parties including the
Congress and Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations.
6. “The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its
programme of struggle.” Analyse the reasons.
Ans: Congress wanted to include the demands of the masses as a whole and not a
particular group or class. If the demand of the workers were included, then
industrialists would get offended. The industrialists were supporting the Congress
financially. The Congress did not want to alienate the industrialists and create anti-
imperialist feelings. A big portion of the Congress membership and funding came from
industrialists and small businessmen.
7. Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down in the cities? Explain.
Ans: Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor
people could not afford to buy it. So people could not boycott mill cloth for very long.
Similarly boycotting British institutions also posed a problem as there were no
alternative national institutions to fulfil the educational needs. The students and
teachers trickled to government schools. The lawyers joined government courts. With all
these, the enthusiasm of people in the cities lost its force.
8. Mention any three major problems faced by the peasants of Awadh in the days of Non-
Cooperation Movement.
Ans: The landlords and talukdars of Awadh demanded exorbitantly high land rent and
a number of other cesses from the [Link] peasants were compelled to do begar,
that is, they had to work at landlord’s farm without payment. As tenants, the peasants
had no security of tenure and were often evicted from their land, they could not acquire
any right over the leased land.
9. What do you mean by satyagraha? What does it emphasise?
Ans: Satyagraha was a novel method of protesting through mass agitation, without the
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 use of force. Satyagraha emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for
truth. The oppressor could be persuaded to see the truth and it will ultimately triumph.
It suggested that in a struggle against injustice, if the cause is right, there was no need
for aggression or physical force. Victory could be won by appealing to the conscience of
the oppressor.
10. Describe the impact of ‘worldwide economic depression’ on India.
Ans: There was a fall in agricultural prices from 1926 and it collapsed after 1930. As
the demand for agricultural goods fall and exports declined, peasants found it difficult
to sell their harvest and pay the revenue. In the countryside, rich peasant communities
were the producers of commercial crops. They were hard hit by trade depression and
falling prices. By 1930, the countryside was in turmoil.
11. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A : Simon Commission
Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a Statutory
Commission under Sir John Simon. Set up in response to the nationalist movement, the
commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and
suggest changes. The problem was that the commission did not have a single Indian
member. They were all British.
Source B : Dominion Status
When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go
back Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in
the demonstrations. In an effort to win them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in
October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a
Round Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the
Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas
Chandra Bose, became more assertive.
Source C : The Salt March
The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something
consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of
food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma
Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
Source A : Simon Commission
11(1) Why did Tory government set up Simon Commission?
Ans: The new Tory government set up the Simon Commission in response to examine the
state of Indian constitutional affairs and also in response to the nationalist movement.
Source B : Dominion Status
11 (2) Why did Lord Irwin announced dominion status?
Ans: All parties including the Congress and the Muslim League against the Simon
Commission arrival to India in 1928 and participated in the demonstrations and greeted
commission with slogan ‘Go Back Simon’. In an effort to win them over, the Viceroy,
Lord Irwin announced a vague offer of dominion status for India.
Source C : The Salt March
11 (3) Why did Gandhiji find in salt is a powerful symbol of unity?
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation
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 because it is consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most
essential items of food.
12. Distinguish between the Non-Cooperation movementand the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
Ans: (i) The Rowlett Act, Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and injustice done to Khilafat
were the basic causes for the movement. Rejection of Gandhiji’s eleven demands was
the main cause for launching the movement.(ii) People were asked not to cooperate with
the British. People broke the colonial laws and refused to pay taxes. (iii) Tribal peasants,
common people in towns, plantation workers participated in the movement. Rich
peasants, poor peasants, business classes and women participated the movement. (iv)
This movement was launched in 1920 in a peaceful way. This movement was launched
in 1930 in a violent way.
13. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A : The Idea of Satyagraha
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January [Link] you know, he had come from
South Africa where he had successfully fought the racist-regime with a novel method of
agitation, which he called satyagraha. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the
struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to fight the
oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the
battle through non-violence.
Source B : The Jallianwala Bagh incident
On 13 April a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some
came to protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Other had come to
attend the annual Baisakhi [Link] from outside the city, many villagers were
unaware of the martial law that had been imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the
exit points, and opened fire on the crowd killing hundreds.
Source C: The Movement in the Towns
The movement started with middle-class participation in the [Link] of students
left government controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and
lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most
provinces except Madras.
Source A : The Idea of Satyagraha
13 (1) What do you mean by the idea of Satyagraha?
Ans: The idea of satyagraha means the power of truth and the need to search for truth. It
also suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical
force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
Source B : The Jallianwala Bagh incident
13 (2) Why most of the people gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh?
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt [Link] gave the government repressive powers, and allowed detention of
political prisoners without trial for two years. Due to this episode most of the people
gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh.
Source C: The Movement in the Towns
13 (3) Which movement was talking about in the paragraph? What does it
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 mean to the people?
Ans: The paragraph talks about the Non- Cooperation-Khilafat Movement. It was started
in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement each with its own
specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of Swaraj but the term meant
different things to different people.
14. What was Rowlatt Act? How did the Indians show their disapproval towards this Act?
Ans: During Indian struggle for freedom British government passed a law named after
Sidney Rowlatt who was a government official. This was the Rowlatt Act. Three officers
in the commission were all British. Indian freedom fighters called it “Black Law”. This
Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed
detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. The opposition against this law
started with a call for strike by Gandhi. March and April 1919 witnessed a remarkable
political awakening in India. Rallies were organised in many cities, workers stopped
working,went on strike. Shops and workshops were closed.
15. Read the source below and answer the question that follows.
SOURCE-A
‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he
does not seek his destruction ... In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever.’
Satyagraha is pure [Link] is the very substance of the soul. That is why this
force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of
love ... Non-violence is the supreme dharma... ‘It is certain that India can not rival
Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the wargod and they can all of
them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India
can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own.
SOURCE-B
“It is said to ‘passive resistance’ that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is
the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive
resistance; indeed it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not
passive but active...”
SOURCE-C
‘I have no hesitation in declaring that if the principle that the Indian Muslims is entitled
to full and free development on the lines of his own culture and tradition in his own
Indian homelands is recognized as the basis of a permanent communal settlement, he will
be ready to stake his all for the freedom of India. The principle that each group is
entitled to free development on its own lines is not inspired by any feeling of narrow
communalism ... A community which is inspired by feelings of ill-will towards other
communities is low and ignoble. I entertain the highest respect for the customs, laws,
religions and social institutions of other communities. Nay, it is my duty according to the
teachings of the Quaran, even to defend their places of worship, if need be. Yet I love the
communal group which is the source of life and behaviour and which has formed me
what I am by giving me its religion, its literature, its thought, its culture and thereby its
whole past as a living operative factor in my present consciousness
SOURCE-A
15 (1) What do the British worship?
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 Ans: The British worship the war-god, as they are becoming bearers of arms.
SOURCE-B
15 (2) Which passive resistance is the author talking about?
Ans: Satyagraha
SOURCE-C
15 (3) What does Quran say about the places of worship of other communities?
Ans: Quran says that the places of worship of other communities need to be defended.
16. “Industrialization and urbanisation go hand in hand.” Comment.
Ans: After an industrial activity starts in a town, urbanisation [Link] provides
employment to the people of the area. Population migrates from rural hinterlands to seek
jobs. Housing and transport facilities are developed to accommodate these people. Other
infrastructural developments take place leading to growth and development of the town
into a city. Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Cities provide markets
and services such as banking,insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial
advice, etc. to the industry. Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand.
17. Highlight the importance of the Lahore session of Indian National Congress of
December 1929.
Ans: The Lahore Session of Indian National Congress of December 1929 was held under
the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru. The session formalised the demand of ‘Puma
Swaraj’ or full independence for India. It was decided that the day of 26 January, 1930
would be celebrated as the Day of Independence. But the decision of Lahore Session was
unable to attract good attention. By taking the idea from this Puma Swaraj agenda
Gandhiji planned `Dandi March’ (to break salt the law) as the initial step for Civil
Disobedience.
18. What was the objective of Simon Commission? Why was it opposed in India?
Ans: The effects of the worldwide economic depression in the late 1920s were severely
felt in the countryside in India. Against this background the new Tory government in
Britain constituted a statutory commission under Sir John Simon. Set up in response to
the nationalist movement,the Commission was to look into the functioning of the
constitutional system in India and suggest changes. But the problem was that the
Commission did not have a single Indian member. All members were British. When the
Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan, ‘Go Back Simon’.
All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, opposed it and participated
in the demonstrations.
19. When and where Khilafat Committee was formed? What was its objective?
Ans: The Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in March 1919. Mahatma Gandhi
felt the need to launch a broad-based movement to defend the Khalifa’s temporal powers
and to oppose the harsh treaty imposed on the Ottoman empire after the First World
War. Gandhiji saw the Khilafat movement as a great opportunity to bring Hindu and
Muslim communities together under the umbrella of a unified national movement.
20. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows.
Source A: Idea of Satyagraha
‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he
does not seek his destruction ..... In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever.
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 ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this
force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of
love ..... Non-violence is the supreme dharma ..... ‘It is certain that India cannot rival
Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the wargod and they can all of
them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India
can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own .....’
Source - B : Great leader-Jawaharlal Nehru
On 6 January 1921,the police in United Provinces fired at peasants near Rae Bareli,
Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to go to the place of firing, but was stopped by the police.
Agitated and angry, Nehru addressed the peasants who gathered around him. This is
how he later described the meeting: ‘They behaved as brave men, calm and unruffled in
the face of danger. I do not know how they felt but I know what my feelings were. For a
moment my blood was up, non-violence was almost forgotten-but for a moment only. The
thought of the great leader, who by the God’s goodness has been sent to lead us to
victory, came to me, and I saw the kisans seated and standing near me, less exited, more
peaceful than I was - and the moment of weakness passed, I spoke to them in all humility
on non-violence - I needed the lesson more than they - and they heeded me and peacefully
dispersed’.
Source -C : The Independence Day Pledge,26 January 1930
‘We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to
have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that
they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe also that if any government
deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to
alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian
people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has r
uined India economically, politically, culturally, and spiritually. We believe, therefore,
that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete
Independence.’
Source -A: Idea of Satyagraha
20 (1) What do the British worship?
Ans: The British worship the war-god, as they are becoming bearers of arms.
Source -B: Great leader-Jawaharlal Nehru
20 (2) What is the source of the above passage?
Ans: The source of the above passage is A Biography, Vol.I. Jawaharlal Nehru by
Sarvapalli Gopal.
Source -C: The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January 1930
20 (3) What do you mean by purna Swaraj?
Ans: The Purna Swaraj declaration, or declaration of the Independence of India was
promulgated by the Indian National Congress on January26, 1930, resolving the
congress and Indian Nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj, or complete self rule
Independent of the British Empire.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed
Rowlatt Act of 1919? How was it organized?
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 Ans: In 1919, Rowlatt Act was hurriedly passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
Indian members unitedly opposed it. The Act gave the government enormous powers to
repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for
two years. The Act deprived the Indians of their civil rights. It was organised in the
following ways: i. Gandhiji wanted a non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust
laws. ii. It started with hartal on 6th April 1919. iii. Rallies were organised in various
cities in India. iv. Workers in the railway work shop went on strike. v. Shops were closed
down in protest.
2. ‘Cultural processes play an important role in making nationalism in India’. Support
the statement with examples.
Ans: The sense of collective belonging inculcated the spirit of nationalism among the
people. History and fiction, folklore and songs and popular prints and symbols played an
important part in the making of nationalism. Bharat mata as identity of the nation: In
the twentieth century, various images of Bharat mata, came to light. It represented India.
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, who had written Vande mataram as a hymn dedicated
to the motherland, created the first image of Bharat mata. Abanindranath Tagore
portrayed Bharat mata, as a calm, composed and spiritual figure. It was influenced by
the Swadeshi movement. Folklore to restore a sense of pride: Rabindranath Tagore
revived folk songs, folk tales, hymns, legends and stories. In Madras, Natesa Sastri
published a collection of Tamil folktales the Folklore of southern India. Flags as identity
of the Nation: During the Swadeshi Movement flags were carried to create a sense of
national belonging. Carrying the flag and holding it aloft during marches became a
symbol of defiance. Many Indians wrote about the glorious developments in ancient
times, when art and architecture, mathematics and science flourished.
3. “Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement”.Suggest the
reasons.
Ans: The British got worried by the developments of Civil Disobedience Movement and
started the arrest of various top Congress leaders. This led to violent clashes in many
parts of the country. When Abdul Ghaffar Khan was arrested from Peshawar, angry
crowd demonstrated in the streets facing armoured cars and police firing many were
killed. The arrest of Gandhiji led to the attacks on police force, municipal buildings
and law courts by industrial workers in Sholapur. Colonial government got frightened
and responded with the policy of brutal repression. At many places, Satyagrahis were
attacked, women and children were beaten and about one lakh people ere arrested. It
was under these circumstances, Gandhiji called off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
4. How had Non-Cooperation Movement spread in cities? Explain.
Ans: The movement started with the participation of middle-class the cities. Thousands
of students left the government-controlled schools and colleges, teachers resigned and
lawyers gave up their practice. It was to be a nonviolent movement. In Awadh, peasants
movement started gainst talukdars and landlords who demanded high rents and other
cesses from peasants. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, a militant guerrilla
movement started in the early 1920. It was started against the colonial government,
which had closed large forest gates, preventing people from entering the forests to graze
their cattle or to collect firewood and fruits. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom
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 meant the right to move freely in and out of their confined place, which was not
permitted under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859. In many places, nai-dobhi bandhs
were organised to deprive landlords of the services of barbers and washerman.
5. How had Non-Cooperation Movement spread to the countryside? Explain.
Ans: In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra. Here, the movement was
against talukdars, who charged high rents and peasants had to do begar. The peasant
movement demanded reduction of revenue and abolition of begar. By the end of 1920,
Jawaharlal Nehru,Baba Ramchandra and others had formed Oudh Kisan Sabha. So
after the beginning of the Non- [Link], Congress wanted to integrate
the Awadh peasants struggle into a wider [Link] peasants interpreted the
message of Gandhiji and idea of swaraj in their own way. In Gudem Hills in Andhra
Pradesh, a militant guerrilla movement was organised against colonial oppression under
the leadership of Alluri Sitaram Raju. He was inspired by the Non-Cooperation
Movement. The Gudem rebels attacked police stations,attempted to kill British officials
and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj. The movement also spread
among the plantation workers in Assam. They were not permitted to leave the tea
gardens without permission.
6. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in
February 1922? Analyse the reasons.
Ans: Gandhiji felt the movement was turning violent at many places and the satyagrahis
needed to be properly trained before they would be eady for the mass struggle. Within
the Congress some leaders were by now tired of mass struggles and wanted to
participate in the elections to the provincial councils set up after by the Government of
India Act 1919. The final blow however came after the violent incident in Chauri
Chaura in 1922 when a violent mob burnt a police station killing many policemen.
Immediately after that, Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
7. Describe the main features of ‘Poona Pact’.
Ans: At the second Round Table conference, Dr BR Ambedkar demanded separate
electorates for dalits. When the British conceded
[Link]’s demand, Gandhiji, who was opposed to this, went on a fast unto death.
He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their
integration into [Link] ultimately accepted Gandhiji’s position by signing a
pact in 1932, known as the Poona Pact. The Poona Pact gave the depressed classes
reserved seats in the provincial and legislative councils but they were to be voted by
general electorate.
8. “Salt March become an effective tool of resistance against colonialism”. Comment.
Ans: Gandhiji found in salt a powerful bond that would unite the nations as it was
consumed by all rich and poor alike. Gandhiji’s letter to Viceroy Irwin stated eleven
demands. Most of them were of general interest but the most stirring was to abolish the
salt tax imposed by the colonial government. Irwin’s unwillingness to negotiate forced
Gandhiji to start his salt March which was joined by thousands. It developed the feeling
of nationalism. People in different parts of the country broke salt law and manufactured
salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories. People unitedly followed
Gandhiji’s [Link] refused to pay taxes, revenues, picketed liquor shops, boycotted
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 foreign clothes, resigned from government jobs violated forest laws.
9. How did the industrialists relate to the Civil Disobedience Movement? Analyse their
role.
Ans: During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists made huge
profits and emerged as a powerful section. They opposed colonial policies that restricted
business activities because they wanted to expand their business. They formed Indian
Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber
of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. They supported the Civil Disobedience
Movement when it was launched and attacked colonial control over the Indian economy.
They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods. Most
businessmen came to see swaraj as a time when colonial restrictions on business
would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without constraints.
Eminent businessmen like Purshotamdas, Thakurdas and GD Birla also came in
support of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
10. “One of the most important features of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large
scale participation of women”. Do you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.
Ans: One of the most important features of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the
large scale participation of women. They participated in the movement in the following
ways. During Gandhiji’s salt satyagraha, thousands of women came out of their homes
and engaged themselves in various activities. They participated in protest marches,
manufactured salt and picketed shops selling foreign goods, liquor, etc. Many of them
were arrested and went to jail. In urban areas, women from high-caste families whereas
in rural areas women from the rich peasant households, inspired by Gandhiji’s call,
regarded service to the nation as a sacred duty.
11. Write a short note about the Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre.
Ans: On 13 April, a crowd of villagers gathered in an enclosed ground of Jallianwalla
Bagh near Amritsar in Punjab. These people came there to attend a fair and were
unaware of the current political situation or about the martial law imposed by the
military governor General Dyer. Dyer entered the ground, blocked the exit points and
opened fire on the innocent crowd, killing hundreds. This incident is referred to as the
Jallianwalla Bagh massacre. General Dyer declared that his main aim was to produce a
moral effect and to create a feeling of terror and awe in the mind of the Satyagrahis a
feeling of terror and [Link] incident proved to be a turning point in the Indian
national movement. As the news of Jallianwalla Bagh massacre spread, crowds took to
streets in many towns in North India. There were strikes and clashes with police and
attacks on government [Link] government responded with brutal repression.
Innocent people were humiliated and terrorised.
12. Highlight the developments which led to the launching of Non Cooperation Movement.
Ans: (1) In 1916, Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire peasants to
struggle against the oppressive plantation system. (2) In 1917, he organised satyagraha
to support the peasants of Kheda in Gujarat. (3) In 1918, he organised satyagraha for
cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad.(4) In 1919, nationwide satyagraha was launched
against Rowlatt Act. (5) Passing of the Rowlatt Act leading to unrest among Indians
and arrest of prominent leaders made Gandhiji launch the Non-Cooperation Movement.
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 13. Describe the significance of the Civil Disobedience Movement in the freedom Struggle
of India.
Ans: Unlike the Non-Cooperation Movement, the satyagrahis in the movement broke
various colonial laws. This was a more successful and widespread mass movement.
Thousands of people in different parts of the country broke salt law, manufactured salt
and demonstrated in front of government offices and factories. The peasants refused to
pay revenue and chaukidari taxes. Officials in villages resigned and forest people
violated forest laws. In this movement, the satyagrahis displayed immense courage and
sincerity. Despite the oppression of colonial government,they did not resort to violence
and bravely courted arrests. All Congress leaders were arrested but this could not
break the morale of the people. Another significant feature of the movement was the
increased participation of women. Thousands of women came out of their comfortable
life at home to participate in the mass movement. They demonstrated courage and
determination, broke salt laws and manufactured salt, picketed shops selling foreign
goods and organised various other [Link] the Civil Disobedience Movement, the
business and industrial class also supported the national leaders by financial assistance
and participated in Khadi movement.
14. Describe the importance of the ‘Salt March’.
Ans: Gandhiji started the historic Dandi March (Salt March) from Sabarmati Ashram,
(Ahmedabad) accompanied by 78 trusted volunteers. The distance from Sabarmati
Ashram to Dandi, a coastal town on the coast of Gujarat was 240 miles. The volunteers
walked for 24 days, 10 miles a days. Thousands of people came to hear Gandhiji. The
explained the meaning of Swaraj to them. On 6th April, he reached Dandi, violated the
salt law and manufactured salt by boiling sea water.
15. ‘Some of the Muslim political organizations in India, were lukewarm in their response
to Civil Disobedience Movement’. Substantiate the statement.
Ans: When Gandhiji called the Civil Disobedience Movement, Muslims were lukewarm
in their response due to The disappointment with Non-Cooperation Movement and how
it ended without any concrete outcome. The Congress had become visibly associated
with the Hindu nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha, making large sections of
Muslims feel alienated. The relations between Hindus and Muslims worsened as each
community began organising religious processions. In 1927 the Congress and Muslim
League tried to negotiate a compromise, but some important differences remained
unsolved. Muslim leaders were concerned about the minority status of Muslims in
India. Negotiations over the Ques of representation continued but all hopes of resolving
the issue at the All Party Conference disappeared,when Hindu Mahasabha strongly
opposed efforts at [Link] when Civil Disobedience began, there was an
atmosphere of distrust and suspicion among the communities and Muslim response was
lukewarm.
16. Describe the demands mentioned by Gandhiji in his letter to Viceroy Irwin on 31
January 1930?
Ans: On 31 January 1930, Gandhiji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin, stating eleven
demands. Some of the demands were of general nature, others were more specific
demands from industrialists to peasants. They were wide ranging demands, so that all
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 classes could identify with them and they could be brought under the common
campaign. The most stirring demand was to abolish salt tax. Salt is item of food,
consumed by all sections of the society. It is one of the most essential food item. The tax
on salt and government monopoly over its production, showed the most oppressive face
of British rule.
17. ‘Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement’. Elaborate upon
the statement.
Ans: Dalit participation was limited in Civil Disobedience Movement because the
Congress did not want to offend to ‘Sanatanis’ the upper caste Hindus by including the
Dalits. The dalits believed that political empowerment would solve all the problems, of
their social [Link] dalit leaders were keen on a different political solution to
their problems. They organised themselves and demanded reserved seats in educational
institutions and separate electorate that would choose dalit members for councils.
Ambedkar had clashed with Gandhiji at Second Round Table Conference for
demanding separate electorate for dalits. Gandhiji viewed this as slowing down the
process of unity and their integration into society. The dalits continued to be
apprehensive of Congress led movements because it was dominated by conservative
high class Hindus. So the dalit participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement was
limited, particularly in Maharashtra and Nagpur region where their organisation was
strong.
18. Why did Gandhiji start the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Mention any four features
of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Ans: Gandhiji started the Civil Disobedience Movement. On 31 January 1930, he sent a
letter to Viceroy Irwin, stating eleven [Link] most stirring demand was to
abolish salt tax. Salt is the commodity consumed by all, both rich and poor. It is one of
the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and its monopoly over production
revealed the oppressive face of British government. Mahatma Gandhi started his
historic march from Sabarmati Ashram. On 6 April, he reached Dandi and violated the
law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water,This was the beginning of the Civil
Disobedience Movement. Main features of the Civil Disobedience Movement are: [Link]
successful mass movement. ii. People from all sections participated in the Movement.
[Link] for the first time left their homes and joined the movement [Link] the first
time the movement was launched with the goal of Purna Swaraj.
19. Describe the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in inspiring the rebels with Gandhiji’s ideas.
Ans: Alluri Sitaram Raju led the peasant rebellion in the Gudem Hills of Andhra
Pradesh. He became popular because he claimed that he had special powers of
astrological predictions and the power to heal people. He could survive bullet [Link]
Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, a militant guerrilla movement spread in early 1920s.
The main aim of the movement was to protest against colonial laws. The government
had closed forest areas for grazing of cattle and collection of firewood or fruits.
Government compelled them to work free for road building (begar).The people revolted
under Alluri Sitaram Raju. He spoke about the greatness of Gandhiji and he was
inspired by Non-Cooperation Movement. The people were persuaded to wear Khadi and
give up drinking alcohol. He believed India will become independent by force and not
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 by non-violence. The Gudem rebels attacked police stations and attempted to kill
British officials.
20. “ B.R Ambedkar tried to improve the conditions of the Depressed Classes.” Elaborate
upon the statement.
Ans: In 1930,Dr. BR Ambedkar organised the Dalits (the untouchables) into an
organization called the Depressed Classes Association, now known as scheduled caste.
His ideas regarding depressed class deferred from that of Mahatma Gandhi. He wanted
separate electorates for Dalits. Whilst at Round Table Conference in London he
demanded separate electorates for Dalits and the British council conceded his demand.
This caused Mahatma Gandhi to fast unto the death because he believed that separate
electorate for the Dalits would slow down the process of their integration into the main
society. He signed the Poona Pact with Gandhiji and the Congress giving the
opportunities to depressed to secure reserved seat for Dalits in the provincial and
Central Legislative Council to be voted in general election.
21. Why did the rich peasants take part in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Give
reasons.
Ans: Among the different social groups which participated in the Civil Disobedience
Movement the rich peasants also had their ideals and perceptions of Swaraj which
encouraged them to join the movement. Rich peasants like Patidars of Gujarat and Jats
in Uttar Pradesh who were producers of commercial crops were hard hit by depression
and falling prices. As their cash income reduced, they were unable to pay government
revenue. The government refused to reduce revenue. So, the rich peasants became
enthusiastic supporter of the Civil Disobedience Movement to free themselves from the
situation.
22. Give a brief description of Gandhiji’s contribution to the Indian freedom struggle.
Ans: When Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from Africa in January
1915 he started Satyagraha Movements in various places. i. In 1916 he travelled to
Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation
[Link]. In 1917, he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda
district of [Link]. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a
Satyagraha Movement amongst cotton mill workers. iv. In 1919, he decided to launch a
nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919).v. To unite Hindus and
Muslims Gandhiji started Non-Cooperation Movement in support of, Khilafat as well as
for swaraj. vi. In 1930, Gandhiji started his famous Salt March (Dandi March)
accompanied by 78 followers, from his ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal
town of Dana On 6 April, he reached Dandi, and openly violated the law and
manufactured salt by boiling sea water. vii. During Gandhiji’s salt march, thousands of
women came out of their homes to listen to him. They participated in protest marches.
Manufactured salt ‘picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. viii. He did a lot for the
upliftment of the untouchables. He called the ‘untouchables’ Harijans, and organised
Satyagraha to secure heir entry into temples and access to public wells, tanks, roads and
schools. He himself cleaned toilers to dignify the work of the bhangi (the sweepers). He
convinced upper castes to change their heart and give up the sin of untouchability.
23. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow.
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 During civil disobedience movement, people were not only to refuse cooperation with the
British, as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial laws. Thousands in
different parts of country broke salt low, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front
of government salt factories. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and
liquor shops were picketed Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village
officials resigned and in many places forest people violated forest laws, going to collect
wood and graze cloth.
(i) When did the civil disobedience movement started? 1
(ii) How did civil disobedient movement different from non cooperation movement? 2
(iii) How did Indians took part in civil disobedience movement? 2
Ans:(i) Civil disobedience movement initiated in the year 1930.
(ii) In non-cooperation movement were to refuse cooperation with British but in civil
disobedience movement people were also needed to break colonial laws.
(iii) People took part in civil disobedience movement and broke salt law, manufactured
salt and demonstrated in front of salt factories of government. Also, foreign clothes
were boycotted, village officials resigned and forest people violated forest laws. Liquor
shops were icketed and peasants refuse to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
24. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which
is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive
resistance; indeed it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not
passive but active... ‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain
on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction... In the use of satyagraha, there is no
will whatever. Satyagraha is pure [Link] is the very substance of the soul.
That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it
burns the flame of love. ...Non-violence is the supreme dharma... ‘It is certain that
India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god
and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds
of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence
their own...’
(i) What do you mean by passive resistance? 1
(ii) To what extent do you feel that Truth should be called the force of Satyagraha?
(iii) What was the difference between the gandhian and British way of dealing the
Satyagraha in India? 2
Ans: (i) Passive resistance commonly refers to actions of non-violent protect or resistance
to authority. It is widely used by Mahatma Gandhi during the independence struggle in
India. Sometime it has been called as ‘the weapon of the weak’. (ii) Satyagraha is not
physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary, he does not seek his
destruction in the use of satyagraha there is no ill-will whatever. Thus, Satyagraha is
pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called
satyagraha. (iii) It is certain that India cannot rival Britain in force of arms. The British
worship the wargod and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of
arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the
religion of non-violence their own. By this the satyagraha was bound to ultimately
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 triumph. Mahatma Gandhi believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all
Indians.
CHAPTER 3 - THE MAKING OF A GLOBAL WORLD
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Name key factor that forced the government of Britain to abolish Corn Laws.
A. Unhappy with high food prices, industrialist and urban people forced.
B. Unemployment forced
C. Wars diverted food
D. None of the above
Ans: (A) Unhappy with high food prices, industrialist and urban people Forced
2. Who were the indentured labourers?
Ans: Indentured labourers were bonded labourers who were transferable to any countries
on contract for a specific amount of wage and time.
3. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.
Column A Column B
(A) Great depression (1) IMF and World Bank
(B) Hosay (2) Punjab
(C) Bretton Wood Institution (3) Riotous carnival
(D) Canal colonies (4) Agricultural over production
Ans: A −4 , B −3 , C −1 , D−2
4. .......... is a process by which business or other organisations develop international
influence or start operating on an international scale.
Ans: Globalisation
5. The famous economist .......... thought that Indian gold exports promoted global economic
recovery.
Ans: John Maynard Keynes
6. Who wrote “Dawn of the Century?”
A. GD Birla B. Henry Patullo C. Dinshaw D. E.T. Paull
Ans: (D) E.T. Paull
7. What is ‘El Dorado’ in South America famous for?
A. Imaginary land of great wealth and fabled city of gold B. A form of trade
C. Another name for ‘Silk Route’ D. None of the above
Ans: (A) Imaginary land of great wealth and fabled city of gold
8. What was El-Dorado?
Ans: James Watt improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen and patented the
new engine in 1781. El Dorado was a fabled city of gold.
9. How did Britain come under huge external debts after First World War?
Ans: After the war Britain found it different to recapture its earlier position of
dominance in Indian market, and to compete with Japan internationally. Moreover, to
finance war expenditures Britain had borrowed liberally from U.S. And at end of war
Britain was burdened with huge external debts.
10. ----was a series of ancient trade networks that connected China and the Far East with
countries in Europe and the Middle East.
Ans:The Silk Route
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 11. What is ‘Chutney music’? Where is it seen?
Ans: ‘Chutney music’, popular in Trinidad and Guyana, is a creative contemporary
expression of the post indenture experience.
12. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) demand for food grains in Britain (ii) corn laws
(iii) consumption of food in Britain rose (iv) Food came from thousands of miles away
Options:
A. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) B. (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i) C. (ii)-(iv)-(i)-(iii) D. (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
Ans: (A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
13. Match the following items given in column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Column A Column B
A. High cost of borrowing 1. Monopoly
B. Complete control on trade and its management 2. Hosay
C. Annual Muharram procession in Trinidad 3. Caste Hierarchy
D. Class structure determined by birth 4. Increase the debt burden
Ans: A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
14. Give one reason to show that the First World War was the ‘first modern industrial war’.
Ans: It saw the use of machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on a massive
scale.
15. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(A) First World War (i) 1914
(B) Second World War (ii) 60 million
(C) Casualties of first World War (iii) 1939
(D) Casualties of Second World War (iv) 9 million
Ans: (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
16. Identify which of the following statements is not true about globalization.
(a) Globalisation is the process of rapid integration between countries.
(b) It is movement of more and more investments and technology between countries.
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.
(d) It is movement of more and more goods and services between countries.
Ans: (c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.
17. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Most of the common foods such as potatoes tomatoes and so on were only introduction
in Europe and Asia after Vasco Da Gama accidentally discovered the Africa.
Ans: Most of the common foods such as potatoes tomatoes and so on were only
introduction in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered
the Americas.
18. One who refuses to accept established beliefs and practices is called ----.
Ans: Dissenter
19. Which of the following is not belongs to the three types of movement or ‘flows’ within
international economic exchanges.
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 i. Flow of goods ii. Flow of labour iii. Flow of investment iv. Flow of capital
Ans: iii. Flow of investment
20. What is ‘Corn Law’?
Ans: The laws allowing the government to restrict the import of corn in Britain.
21. Complete the following table.
descended from indentured labour migrants from India.
Indian Banker/Trader A Nobel prize winner West Indies cricketers
Nattukottai Chettiars A---? Chanderpaul and B---?
Ans: A- V.S Naipaul B- Ramnaresh Sarwan
[Link] Allies were----.
Ans: Britain, France, Russia later joined by U.S.
23. Period of 1st World War.
Ans:1914-1918
[Link] Central Powers were-----.
Ans: Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman Turkey
[Link] realized that the ‘assembly line’ method would allow a faster way of producing
vehicles.
Ans: Henry Ford
26. ---- was the world’s first mass-produced car.
Ans: T-Model Ford
27. Great Depression began around----.
Ans: 1929-1930
28. Mahatma Gandhi launched The Civil Disobedience Movement in----.
Ans:1931
29. The period of 2nd World War.
Ans: 1939-1945
30. The Axis Powers were----.
Ans: Germany, Japan, Italy
31. The main aim of the post war international economic system was -----.
Ans: To preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world.
32. Complete the table.
Organisation Establishments UNMF Conference held in
Bretton Woods IMF and---- (A)? July----- (B)?
Ans: (A) IBRD (B) 1944
33. Name of the fast-spreading disease of cattle plague in Africa in the 1890’s is called-----.
Ans: Rinderpest
34. Full form of IBRD.
Ans: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
35. IMF stands for ------.
Ans: International Monetary Fund
36. Which is called Bretton Woods twins?
Ans: IMF and IBRD
37. IBRD popularly known as----.
Ans: The World Bank
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 38. A tax imposed on a country’s imports from rest of the world levied at the point of entry
is called----.
Ans: Tariff
39. ----- link national currencies for purposes of international trade.
Ans: Exchange rates
40. When exchange rates are fixed and governments intervene to prevent movements in
them is called-----.
Ans: Fixed Exchange Rate
41. The rates fluctuate depending on demand and supply of currencies in foreign exchange
markets is called-----.
Ans: Flexible/floating exchange rate
42. Find the correct option.
The main destination of Indian indentured migrants were the…
[Link] islands, Mauritius and Fiji
ii. Caribbean islands, Malesia and Fiji
iii. Mauritius, Fiji and Andaman Nicobar islands
[Link] islands, Fiji and Andaman Nicobar islands
Ans: i. Caribbean islands, Mauritius and Fiji
43. Match the following.
i. Hosay [Link] protest religion
[Link] [Link] contemporary expression
[Link] music [Link] annual Muharram procession
[Link] indentured workers [Link]
Ans: i-C ii-A iii-B iv-D
44. In which one of the following states where indentured workers were recruited for tea
plantations.
i. Kerala ii. Assam iii. Goa iv. Sikkim
Ans: [Link]
45. 19th century indenture has been described as a -----.
Ans: New system of slavery
46. The industry where the demand for labour was seasonal:
A. Breweries B. Iron and steel industry C. Cotton industry D. None of these
Ans: (A) Breweries
47. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Cotton from Farmer (ii) Cloth market (iii) Garment Factory (iv) In Market
Options:
A. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) B. (i)-(iii)-(iv)-(ii) C. (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i) D. (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
Ans: (A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
48. This war was the first modern industrial war. It saw the use of machine guns, tanks,
aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on a massive scale. These were all increasingly
products of modern large scale [Link] fight the war, millions of soldiers had to be
recruited from around the world and moved to the frontlines on large ships and trains.
Analyse the above given information, considering one of the following correct option.
A. It is talking about the Industrial War
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 B. It is talking about the First World War
C. It is talking about the Cold War
D. It is talking about the Second World War
Ans: (B) It is talking about the First World War
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARK)
1. ‘There was no other war earlier like first World War’. Support the statement with
three points.
Ans: This was the only war in the modern world which involved almost all countries in
one or the other [Link] this war, the weapons used had a deadly potential to kill and
destroy whatever came in their [Link] was an immense loss of young and productive
population. Economies of the countries round the world crashed beyond the level of
[Link] winners were the losers themselves.
2. Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th Century? Give three reasons.
Ans: (1) Poverty and hunger were common and widespread in Europe in the beginning
of the 19th century. (2) Cities were overcrowded and people feared deadly diseases.
(3) Religious conflicts were frequent as dissenters were persecuted on a large scale.
3. Why did household incomes decline after the First World War? Give reasons.
Ans: (1) During the war, much of the attention was on the production of war related
goods and people for fighting. (2) Large tracts of lands were left uncultivated which
reduced household income. (3) The war saw large scale killing, most of them were men
of working age.(4)The deaths and injuries in the war reduced the able-bodied
workforce.(5) Families left behind found it difficult to survive.
4. ‘The withdrawals of US loans during the phase of the Great Depression affect the rest
of the world’. Comment.
Ans: It led to some major banks crashing and the collapse of currencies such as the
British pound sterling in Europe. It also led to a fall in agricultural productivity and
raw material prices in Latin America. Unemployment became rampant as no jobs could
be generated. It led to mass migration from rural areas to cities.
5. ‘Rinderpest become instrumental in subjugating the Africans’. Support the statement
with arguments.
Ans: It affected the livelihood, economy and even the social peace and harmony of the
Africans. About ninety-nine per cent of the cattle were killed, which forced Africans to
work for the Europeans in the plantations. It enabled the Europeans to colonise and
subdue Africa. The colonial government forced Africans into labour market.
6. Explain the impact of First World War on the British economy.
Ans: (1) 15 to 25 per cent of Britain’s wealth was spent on the war.(2) It had borrowed
heavily from the United States and after the war, the debts mounted. (3) Because of the
war, British industries could not produce goods for exports.(4) Its monopoly in
production was taken over by its colonies. Being unable to modernize its industries and
compete with the United States, Germany and Japan, British economy crumbled.
7. Describe any three features of the Canal Colonies.
Ans: (1) The areas irrigated by the new canals built by the British were called the Canal
Colonies. (2) These were introduced in the region of west Punjab. Peasants from
the other parts of Punjab settled around these canals. (3) The British wanted to
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 transform semi-desert wastelands into fertile agricultural land. Their aim was to grow
wheat and cotton for export.
8. Describe the effects of abolishing the Corn Laws.
Ans: (1) After the Corn Laws were scrapped, food could be imported into Britain more
cheaply than it could be produced within the country. (2) British agriculture was unable
to compete with imports.(3) Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated and
thousands of men and women were thrown out of work. Peasants flocked to the cities or
migrated overseas.
9. When was the Bretton Woods Conference convened? State the main aim of the
conference.
Ans: The Bretton Woods Conference was convened in July 1944 in New Hampshire,
USA. The main aims of the conference were: To preserve the economic stability of
Europe and ensure full employment in the industrial world. To control the influence of
the outer world on flow of capital, goods and labour.
10. How did the Great Depression of 1929 affect the farmers and the middle classes in
India in different ways?
Ans: Agricultural prices began to fell and finally collapsed in 1930. This further
decreased the demand for agricultural goods. It became difficult for the peasants to sell
their harvest and pay revenues. Peasants and farmers ran into huge debts who had
mortgaged their land and used their savings. This depression however did not hit the
urban areas where the middle class lived and had fixed incomes. Middle class salaried
people were not affected and rather they could buy goods at a cheaper rate. They rather
became well-off and could buy more by spending less.
11. Define trade surplus. Why did Britain have a trade surplus with India?
Ans: The amount by which the value of a country’s exports exceeds the cost of its
imports is called trade surplus. Britain had trade surplus with India because of the
following reasons. The value of British exports to India was much higher than the value
of British imports from [Link] wanted to balance its trade deficits. Trade surplus
also helped to pay the ‘home charges’, which included interest payments on India’s
external debts and pensions of British officials in India.
12. Explain how the First World War was so horrible a war like none other before.
Ans: The First World War was a horrible was like none before,because of the following
reasons. There was a massive use of new destructive weapons like machine guns, tanks,
aircrafts and above all chemical weapons. The scale of death and destruction was
beyond the limits, with countless number of injured. Able-bodied workforce had
reduced. European countries had found their economics shattered.
13. Describe in brief the destruction caused during the Second World War.
Ans: The Second World War was more devastating than the first. The following points
sum up the destruction caused during the Second World War. It led to the persisting of
three per cent of the total world’s population. Irony was that more civilians died than
the fighting soldiers. Aerial bombardment and artillery attacks devastated several
cities. Apart from this, there was huge economic and social disruption, reconstruction of
which seemed to be long and difficult.
14. How was the food problem solved in Britain after scrapping of the Corn Laws?
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 Ans: Large tracts of land were cleared to expand food production. Railways were built
to link agricultural regions to ports. Now harbours were built and old were expanded.
Homes and settlements were developed to settle people on lands brought under
cultivation.
15. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Pre-Modern World
All through history, human societies have become steadily more interlinked From
Ancient times, travelers, traders, priests and pilgrims travelled vast distances for
knowledge, opportunity and spiritual fulfillment, or to escape persecution. They carried
goods, values, money,skill, ideas, inventions and even diseases.
Source B: Silk Routes
The silk routes are good examples of vibrant premodern trade and cultural links between
distant part of world. The name ‘silk routes’ points the importance of west-bound
Chinese silk can goes along this route.
Source C: Food Travels
Food offers many examples of long distance cultural exchange. Traders and travelers
introduced new crops to lands they travelled even ‘ready’ food stuffs in distant parts of
world might share common origins. Take spaghetti and noodles. It is believed that
noodles travelled from China to become spaghetti
Source A: Pre-Modern World
15 (1) Who were the people travelled and what did they bring?
Ans: The people travelled were travelers, traders, priests and pilgrims. They carries,
goods, values, money, ideas and even diseases.
Source B: Silk Routes
15 (2) How did the silk routes named so?
Ans: The importance of west-bound Chinese silk can goes long the route named it as
‘silk routes’.
Source C: Food Travels
15 (3) What is ‘ready’ food?
Ans: The food like spaghetti and noodles is known as ‘ready’ food.
16. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A : The First World War
In the First World War, 9 million were dead and 20 million were injured. The scale of
death and destruction was unthinkable without the use of industrial arms the war led to
snapping of economic links between some of the world’s largest economic powers.
Source B : Indian Trade
Heavy taxes were imposed on export of Indian textiles into England So the export of fine
Indian cotton to Britain declined. Excluded from British markets by tariff barriers,
Indian textiles faced stiff competition in other international markets also.
Source C : Indian Enterpreneurs
Many Bankers and traders from India financed export agriculture in Central and
Southeast Asia. They used their own funds borrowed from European banks. Indian
traders and money lenders followed European colonisers into Africa.
Source A : The First World War
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 16 (1) Name any two countries that played major role in First World War
Ans: Germany, Britain
Source B : Indian Trade
16 (2) How did Britain flood the Indian Market?
Ans: Britain flooded the Indian market with cheap, attractive machine made goods.
Source C : Indian Entrpreneurs
16 (3) Name any two Indian entrepreneurs before independence of India.
Ans: JRD Tata, Shikari Puri Shroffs
17. Mention the two key lessons learnt from the interwar economic experiences by the
economists and politicians after the Second World War.
Ans: (1) An industrial society based on mass production needs mass consumption. For
mass consumption, steady income was necessary and for stable income, full employment
was necessary. For this, the government has to take step to minimise the fluctuation of
price, increase, production and employment. Hence, economic stability could be
ensured by the government intervention. (2) The goal of full employment could be
achieved only if the government controls the flow of goods, capital and labour.
18. “Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands as well as ‘ready’ foodstuff
in distant parts of the world they travelled and share common origins.” Support your
answer with any three suitable examples.
Ans: (i) Take spaghetti and noodles. It is believed that noodles travelled west from China
to become spaghetti. (ii) Perhaps Arab traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily, now in
Italy.(iii) Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize,
tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes, and so on were not known to our ancestors until about
five centuries ago.
19. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A : Indentured Labour Migration from India
The example of indentured labour migration from India also illustrates the two-sided
nature of the nineteenth-century world. It was a world of faster economic growth as
well as great misery, higher incomes for some and poverty for others, technological
advances in some areas and new forms of coercion in others.
Source B : Indian Entrepreneurs Abroad
Indian traders and moneylenders also followed European colonisers into Africa.
Hyderabadi Sindhi traders, however, ventured beyond European colonies. From the
1860s they established flourishing emporia at busy ports worldwide, selling local and
imported curios to tourists whose numbers were beginning to swell, thanks to the
development of safe and comfortable passenger vessels.
Source C : Indian Trade, Colonialism and the Global System
Historically, fine cottons produced in India were exported to Europe. With
industrialisation, British cotton manufacture began to expand,and industrialists
pressurised the government to restrict cotton imports and protect local industries.
Tariffs were imposed on cloth imports into Britain. Consequently, the inflow of fine
Indian cotton began to decline.
Source A : Indentured Labour Migration from India
19 (1) What do you mean by indentured labour?
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 Ans: A bonded labourer under contract to work for an employer for a specific amount
of time, to pay off his passage to a new country or home.
Source B : Indian Entrepreneurs Abroad
19 (2) How did Indian traders flourished?
Ans: The Indian traders established flourishing emporia of busy ports worldwide,
selling local and imported curios to tourists whose numbers were beginning to swell.
Source C : Indian Trade, Colonialism and the Global System
19 (3) Why did Indian cotton begin to decline?
Ans: With industrialisation, British Cotton manufacture began to expand and
industrialists pressurised the government to restrict cotton imports and protect local
industries. Tariffs were imposed on cloth imports into Britain. Consequently, the
inflow of fine Indian cotton began to decline.
20. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A – From Travels
Spaghetti and Potato Noodles are travelled West from China to become spaghetti. Or,
perhaps Arab traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily, an island now in Italy. Similar
foods were also known in India and Japan, so the truth about their origins may never be
[Link] such guesswork suggests the possibilities of long-distance cultural contact
even in the premodern world.
Source B – Silk Route link the World
Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries
almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few
centuries later. Much before all this,Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread
in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
Source C – Conquest, Disease and Trade
Before its ‘discovery’, America had been cut off from regular contact with the rest of the
world for millions of years. But from the sixteenth century, its vast lands and abundant
crops and minerals began to transform trade and lives everywhere.
Source A – From Travels : Spaghetti and Potato
20 (1) How does it say that food offers cultural exchange?
Ans: Food offers many examples of long distance cultural exchange. It is said because
noodles travelled west from China to became spaghetti, and Arab travellers took pasta
to Sicily.
Source B – Silk Route link the World
20 (2) How did trade and cultural exchange take place through silk route?
Ans: The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links
between distant parts of the world. Many Christian missionaries and Muslim preachers
travelled from this route to Asia. Later Buddhism emerged from eastern India and
spread in several directions through this route.
Source C – Conquest, Disease and Trade
20 (3) What did happen after discovery of America?
Ans: After discovery of America, its vast lands and abundant crops and minerals
began to transform trade and lives everywhere. Its precious metals enhanced Europe’s
wealth and finance its trade with Asia.
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 21. The indentured labour gave rise to new culture in the Caribbean’. Justify this
statement with three examples.
Ans: Cultural fusion’ comes to exist when two or more different cultures intermingle
and interact with each other and give birth to a new culture which inherits the features
of both the cultures. The life of the indentured labour was very harsh, troublesome and
difficult. This forced them to seek new avenues of comfort, ease and relaxation. As such,
they developed new means to make their life worthliving. Some means and methods they
adopted were as follows: a. In Trinidad the annual Muharram procession was
transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay’ (for Imam Hussain) in which workers
of all races and religions joined. b. Similarly, the protest religion of Rastafarianism
(made famous by the Jamaican reggae star Bob Marley) is also said to reflect social and
cultural links with Indian migrants to the Caribbean. c. Chutney music’, popular in
Trinidad and Guyana, is another creative contemporary expression of the post-indenture
experience.
22. “The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural Links
between distant parts of the world”. Substantiate the statement.
Ans: Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, Knitting
together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and North Africa. They have
been known to have existed since before the Christian era and thrived almost till the
fifteenth century. Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices
from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals–gold and silver–flowed from
Europe to Asia.
23. Why did the Europeans flee to America in the 19th century?
Ans: (1) Poverty and hunger were widespread in Europe. (2) Overcrowded cities and
wide spread deadly diseases. (3) Religious persecution.
24. What was the impact of the Great Depression of 1929 on jute producers of Bengal?
Ans: They grew raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form of gunny
bags. As gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than 60 per cent.
Peasants who borrowed in the hope of better times or to increase output in the hope of
higher incomes faced ever lower prices, and fell deeper and deeper into debt.
25. What did the G-77 countries want to gain from the NIEO?
Ans: Real control over their natural resources, More development assistance, Fairer
prices for raw materials, Better access for their manufactured goods in the developed
countries markets.
26. What was the importance of the Indian trade for the British?
Ans: Trade Surplus – Britain had a Trade Surplus with Indian. Britain used this
Surplus to balance its trade deficit with other countries. Home Charges – Britain‘s
trade Surplus in India also helped to pay the so called home charges that included
private remittance by British officials and traders, interest payments on India’s
external debt and pensions of British officials in India. Major Supplier of cotton – India
remained a major supplier of raw cotton to British which was required to feed the
cotton textile industry in Britain. Supplier if indentured workers – Many indentured
workers from Bihar, U.P., central India migrated to other countries to work in mines
and plantations.
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 27. How did Bretton Woods System Work?
Ans: The international monetary system is the system linking national currencies and
monetary system. The Britton woods system was based on fixed exchange rates. In this
system the national currencies were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange rate. The
Bretton woods system inaugurated an era of unprecedented growth of trade and
incomes of the western industrial nations.
28. What were the advantages of the invention of refrigerated ship?
Ans:(1) This reduced the shipping costs and lowered meat prices in Europe. (2) The poor
in Europe could now consume a more varied diet. (3) To the earlier, monotony of Bread
and Potatoes many, not all could add meat, butter or egg. (4) Better living conditions
promoted social peace within the country and support for imperialism abroad.
29. What were the methods used by the European employers in Africa to recruit and
retain Labour?
Ans: (1) Heavy taxes were imposed which could be paid only by working for wages on
plantations and mines. (2) Inheritance laws were changed so that peasants were
displaced from the land: only one member of a family was allowed to inherit land, as a
result of which the others were pushed into the labour market. (3) Mineworkers were
also confined in compounds and not allowed to move about freely.
30. What was the role of Indian entrepreneurs abroad?
Ans: Many groups of bankers and traders who financed export agriculture in Central
and Southeast [Link] had a sophisticated system to transfer money over large
distances. Indian traders and money lenders also followed European colonizers into
Africa. Hyderabadi Sindhi traders, however, ventured beyond European colonies.
31. What was the importance of the Indian trade for the British?
Ans: i. Trade Surplus-Britain had a trade surplus with Indian. Britain used this surplus
to balance its trade deficit with other countries. ii. Home Charges— Britain’s trade
Surplus in India also helped to pay the so called home charges that included private
remittance by British officials and traders, interest payments on India’s external debt
and pensions of British officials in India. iii. Major Supplier of cotton— India remained
a major supplier of raw cotton to British which was required to feed the cotton textile
industry in [Link]. Supplier if indentured workers— Many indentured workers from
Bihar, UP., central India migrated to other countries to work in mines and plantations.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Describe in brief the world economic condition of the post First World War period.
Ans: The post-war economic recovery proved to be very difficult. Britain, the leading
world economy in the pre-war days, faced grave crises. Because of heavy borrowing
from the United States before the war and unable to recapture its earlier position,
Britain was burdened with huge external [Link] transformed the United States from
international debtor to international creditor. The United States and its citizens owned
overseas assets. Many agricultural economies also went in crises. After the war, food
grain production boomed dramatically. It resulted in fall of grain prices and reduced
rural income. End of War boom led to huge job losses because the governments reduced
War expenditure. In Britain one out of five workers was jobless.
2. How did the global transfer of disease in pre-modem world helped in colonisation of
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 the Americas?
Ans: From the sixteenth century, vast lands, abundant crops and minerals of the
mericas attracted sea-facing nations. The Portuguese and Spanish started the conquest
and colonisation of America. Most interesting fact is that it was not a result of any
military or political action. It was through global transfer of diseases, which took place
in the following [Link] was long isolated from the rest of the world. Its
inhabitants had no knowledge and immunity against diseases of Europe. The Spanish
conquerors used their instance to introduce germs of smallpox through their smallpox-
infected person. It proved to be a deadly killer. It spread deep into the continent and
killed and decimated whole communities, (id) Weapons and soldiers could not be used
for this as they could be bought or captured and used against the invaders also.
3. How did technology help to solve hardship of food availability throughout the world in
the late-nineteenth century? Explain with example.
Ans: Technological advancement stimulated the process of food availability. Technology
help to solve hardship of food availability in the following ways. Because of new
investments and improvements in transport, like faster railways with lighter wagons
and large ships, food moved quickly and cheaply from farms to final markets. Now
perishable food could travel long distances easily through refrigerated ships. Earlier
animals were carried long which posed problems like utilisation of space, diseases and
loss of weight. Now animals could be slaughtered and easily packed for long distances.
Cost of transportation also reduced. The poor could now consume more varied diet
including meat as it was available in plenty and at reduced costs.
4. Describe the circumstances responsible for the formation of G-77.
Ans: After the Second World War, most colonies in Asia and Africa emerged as free and
independent nations. They were however overburdened with poverty and lack of
resources because of long period of colonial rule. The International Monetary Fund
(IMF) and World Bank, set up to finance post-war reconstitution, helped only the
industrial countries. They were not equipped to meet the challenges of poverty of
developing countries. In order to remove poverty, newly-independent countries came
under the guidance of international financial institutions dominated by former colonial
masters. Colonial powers still controlled vital resources of newly-independent
[Link] newly-independent nations felt that they are not benefiting from the growth
of western economics and international financial institutions as they should. Therefore,
these countries organised themselves to form G-77 or the Group of 77.
5. “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand.” Explain the statement in the
light of silk route.
Ans: Trade and internal exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian
missionaries travelled to Asia from the Silk route as did the early Muslim preachers a
few centuries later. Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions via the silk routes. Historians have identified several silk routes over land and
by sea. Now the vast regions of Asia could be connected. It also linked Asia, with
Europe and northern Africa through trade and culture. Silk routes are known to have
existed since before the Christian Era. It continued to thrive almost till the fifteenth
century. Chinese pottery also followed the same route, like textiles and spices from
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 India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals like gold and silver flowed from
Europe to Asia. Traders and travelers introduced new crops to the areas they travelled.
if Along this trade route ideas too travelled to distant places.
6. Explain the different types of movements or flows within international economic
exchange. Mention any one example of any one type of flow from India and one from
England.
Ans: (1) Flow of goods: The first is the flow of goods, such as cloth or wheat. After the
Corn Laws were scrapped in Britain, it started importing food. Eastern European
countries, Russia and America increased their food productivity to meet the needs of
Britain. There was faster growth of industry in Britain and, with increased food
productivity in other countries, more land was put under [Link] meant
building homes and settlements, which required capital and labour. (2) Flow of labour:
This refers to the migration of people from one place to another in search of work. The
demand for labour in places like America and Australia led to migration. There was
flow of labour in search of employment. Nearly 50 million people migrated from Europe
to America and Australia in the nineteenth century. All over the world about 150
million are estimated to have left their homes and crossed oceans for a better future.(3)
Flow of capital: This led to the third flow—flow of capital for short-term or long-term
investments. In this, the movement of resources from one country to another takes place
through loans or business investments. By 1890, a global agricultural economy had
taken shape, accompanied by complex changes in labour patterns. The British
transferred a lot of capital from India to England before independence. All three are
closely associated and affected the lives of people in the nineteenth century.
7. Describe the impact of Rinderpest on people’s livelihood and local economy in Africa in
the 1890.
Ans: Rinderpest was a cattle epidemic that came to Africa with the infected meat
imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa.
It came with the horses which were imported from British Asia. It killed more than 90
percent of the live stocks in Africa, making them dependent on Europeans for food and
turned them subservient. Rinderpest spread in the African continent like the forest fire.
It reached to western coast of Africa by 1892 and within five years after that, it reached
to southernmost tip of the continent. Loss of cattle meant loss of livelihood for the
Africans. They had no choice but to work as labourers in plantations and mines. Thus, a
cattle disease enabled the Europeans to colonise Africa.
8. Suggest any five new economic and political situation created during the First World
War in India.
Ans: (i) It led to huge increase in defence expenditure which was financed by war loans
and increasing taxes. Custom duties were raised and income tax was introduced. (ii)
Prices increased doubling between 1913-18 leading to extreme hardship for the common
people. (iii) Villagers were called upon to supply soldiers through forced recruitment in
rural areas caused wide spread anger. (iv) During 1918-19, crops failed in many parts of
India which created shortage of food. (v) Spread of Influenza epidemic and famine-12 to
13 million people died.
9. Analyse the new economic and political situation created during the First World War
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 in India.
Ans: (i) It led to huge increase in defence expenditure which was financed by war loans
and increasing taxes. Custom duties were raised and ncome tax was introduced. (ii)
Prices increased doubling between 1913-18 leading to extreme hardship for the common
people.(iii) Villagers were called upon to supply soldiers through forced recruitment in
rural areas caused wide spread anger. (iv) During 1918-19, crops failed in many parts of
India which created shortage of food. (v) Spread of Influenza epidemic and famine-12 to
13 million people died.
10. What is meant by Bretton Woods Twins? How can G-77 be seen as a reaction to the
activities of Bretton Woods Twins?
Ans: (i) The IMF and the World Bank are referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions
or sometimes the Bretton Woods twins. The post-war international economic system is
also often described as the Bretton Woods system. (ii) Most developing countries did not
benefit from the fast growth the Western economies experienced in the 1950s and 1960s.
Therefore, they organized themselves as a group — the Group of 77 (or G-77) —to
demand a new international economic order (NIEO). (iii) By the NIEO they meant a
system that would give them real control over their natural resources, more
development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for their
manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.
11. “One important feature of the US economy in the 1920s was mass productions.”
Evaluate this with example.
Ans: A well known pioneer of mass production was the car manufacturer ‘Henry Ford’.
(i) He adopted an assembly line technique of a slaughter house. (ii) He realised that the
assembly line method would allow faster and cheaper way of producing vehicles.
(iii) This method forced workers to repeat a single task mechanically and continuously.
(iv) This was a way of increasing the output per worker by speeding up the pace of
work. (v) Later on, this system of mass production was followed by many other
countries. In the US, with this system car production rose from two millions to above
five millions.
12. Explain the impacts of the First World War.
Ans: It was the first modern industrial war which involved industrial nations. Machine
guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons etc. are used to a massive scale. Unthinkable
death and destruction. Most of the people killed and injured were man of working age.
Declined the household income. Men were forced to join in the war. Women slapped into
undertake jobs which they were not used to.
13. What were the effects of the Great Depression on the Indian economy?
Ans: (1) The economic depression immediately affected Indian Trade, as India‘s exports
and imports nearly halved between 1928- [Link] prices fell sharply, but the
colonial government refused to reduce revenues. Peasants producing for the world
markets were worst hit. Raw jute was produced, processed in the industries to make
gunny bags. Its exports collapsed and prices fell by 60% peasants of Bengal fell into debt
traps. Peasants used up their savings mortgaged lands and sold their precious jewelry to
meet their expense.
14. 19th century indenture has been described as a ‘New system of slavery’. Explain.
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 Ans: In the 19th century, hundreds of thousands of Indians and Chinese labourers went
to work on plantations in mines and in road and railway construction projects around
the world. In India, indentures labourers were hired under contracts which promises
return travel to India after they had worked for five years on plantations. Gradually in
India cottage industries declined, land rents rose, land was cleared of mines and
plantations. All this affected the lives of the poor. They failed to pay their rents, become
indebted, and were forced to migrate in search of work. The main destinations of Indian
indentured migrants were the Caribbean islands, Trinidad, Guyana, Surinam,
Mauritius, Fiji and Ceylon and Malaya. Recruitment was done by agent engaged by
employers and paid a small commission.
15. “One important feature of the US economy in the 1920’s was mass production.” Do
you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.
Ans: Yes, I agree. A well-known pioneer of mass production was the car manufacturer,
Henry Ford. He adopted an assembly line technique of a slaughter house. He realized
that the Assembly line method would allow a faster and cheaper way of producing
vehicles. This method forced workers to repeat a single task mechanically and
continuously. This was a way of increasing output per worker by speeding up the pace of
[Link] doubling goes daily wages were considered best cost – cutting decision he had
ever made.
16. Describe the effects of the British Government's decision to abolish the Corn Laws.
Ans: (1) Food could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it would be produced
within the country.(2) British agriculture was unable to compete with imports.(3) Vast
Areas of land were left uncultivated and people started migrating to cities or other
countries.(4) As food prices fell, consumption in Britain rose. Faster industrial growth in
Britain also led to higher incomes and therefore more food imports. (5) Around the
world in Eastern Europe, Russia, America and Australia land were cleared and food
production expanded to meet the British demand.
17. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A : The Age of Indian Textiles
Before the age of machine industries,silk and cotton goods from India dominated the
International market in textiles. Coarser cottons were produced in many countries, but
the finer varieties often came from India. Bales of fine textiles were carried on camel
back via the north-west frontier through mountain passes and across deserts. A vibrant
sea trade operated through the main pre-colonial ports.
Source B: What Happened to Weavers
The East India Company appointed a paid-servant, the gomastha to supervise weavers,
collect supplies, and examine the quality of [Link] weavers were prevented
from dealing with other dealers. This was achieved through the system of advances Once
an order was placed the weavers were given loans to purchase raw material. Those who
took loans had to band over the cloth they produced to the gomastha. They could not
take it to another trader.
Source C : Manchester Comes to India
As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about
imports from other countries. They pressurized the government to impose as on cotton
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 textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing competition from
outside. At the same time industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British
manufactured cloth in India. Cotton weavers thus faced two problems at the same time;
their export market collapsed, and the local markets shrank, being glutted with
Manchester imports.
Source A: The Age of Indian Textiles
17 (1) Why were Indian textiles most popular the world over?
Ans: Indian textiles were more popular the world over because of their fine quality:
Though a number of countries produced cotton cloth but it was of a much coarser
quality.
Source B: What Happened to Weavers
17 (2) How were the weavers trapped by the Fast India Company to work exclusively
for them?
Ans: Once a weaver agreed to work for the company, he was given an advance as a loan
which he could use to buy the raw material . this loan eased the weaver’s burden, but at
the same time he became bound to the company to sell the finished goods only to the
company and that also at a very nominal rate.
Source C: Manchester Comes to India

17(3) State two ways in which the Industrialists at Manchester destroyed the Indian
cotton industry?
Ans: The Industrialists of Manchester were worried about import of cotton from India
so they pressurized the government into taxing all cotton imports and thus raising their
price. Secondly, they persuaded East India Company to sell British cloth in India. This
was much cheaper as it was mass produced in the factories and the Indian weavers could
not match their prices.
18. Illustrate with examples that food offers many opportunities of long-distance cultural
exchange.
Ans: (i) Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they travelled.(ii) Even
‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world might share common origins like spaghetti
and noodles or perhaps Arab traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily. an island now in
Italy. (iii) Similar foods were also known in India and Japan, so the truth about their
origins may never be known. Yet such guesswork suggests the possibilities of long-
distance cultural contact even in the pre-modern world. (iv) Many of our common foods
such as potatoes soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes,. and so on
were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago. (v) These foods were
only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally
discovered the vast continent that would later become known as the Americas.
19. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:
The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s. But it was only in the late 18th
century that the number of factories multiplied. The first symbol of the new era was
cotton. Its production boomed in the late nineteenth century. In 1760 Britain was
importing 2.5 million pounds of raw cotton to feed its cotton industry. By 1787 this
import soared to 22 million pounds. This increase was linked to a number of changes
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 within the process of production. Let us look briefly at some of these. A series of
inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficacy of each step of the production
process (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling). They enhanced the output per
worker, enabling each worker toroduce more, and they made possible the production of
stronger threads and yarn. Then Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill. Till this
time, as you have seen, cloth production was spread all over the countryside and carried
out within village households. But now, the costly new machines could be purchased, set
up and maintained in the [Link] the mill all the processes were brought together
under one roof and management. This allowed a more careful supervision over the
production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of which had
been difficult to do when production was in the countryside.
19.1. When did the number of factories multiply?
Ans: The earliest factories in England came up by the 1760s. But it was only in the
late 18th century that the number of factories multiplied.
19.2. What was the first symbol of the new era?
Ans: The first symbol of the new era was cotton. Its production boomed in the late 19th
century. This increase was linked to a number of changes within the process of
production. A number of inventions enhanced the production of cotton. Cloth production
was spread all over the countryside and carried out within village households and
production of cotton were increased.
19.3 How did the production of cotton enhanced?
Ans: A series of inventions increased the efficiency of each step of the production process
(carding, twisting and spinning and rolling). They enhanced the output per worker.
Richard Arkwright is credited as the driving force behind the development of the
spinning frame known as the water frame. He further patented a rotary carding engine
to convert raw cotton to cotton lap prior to spinning.

GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER 1- RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Complete the following table.
On the basis On the basis of On the basis of Status of
of origin Ownership development
Biotic and National, International, Potential, [Link]
Abiotic Community and -----A? and -----B?
Ans: A. Individual B. Stock
2. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Human beings interact with technology through nature and create institutions to
accelerate their economic development.
Ans: Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions
to accelerate their economic development.
3. Resources are a function of-------.
i. Human activities ii. Intellectual activities
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 iii. Developmental activities iv. Material activities
Ans: i. Human activities
4. Which of the following is not a feature of renewable resources?
[Link] and fossil fuels [Link] millions of years in their formation
[Link] exhausted with their us [Link] of these
Ans: All of these
5. Which of the following is included biotic resources?
i. Rock ii. Metals iii. Plant iv. Brick
Ans: iii. Plant
6. What is the full form of UNCED?
Ans: United Nations Conference on Enviroment and Development
7. Write two examples for community owned resources.
Ans: Village pond, Burial ground
8. All the minerals, water resources, forest, wild life, land within the political
boundaries and oceanic areas upto 12 nautical miles(22.2 k.m) from the coast is
termed as -----
Ans: Territorial water and resources belong to the nation
9. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the exclusive economic zone
belongs to no individual country is associated with…..
Ans International resources
10. Rows of trees that breaks up the force of wind is called----
Ans: Shelter belts
11. The type of farming where strips of grass are left to grow between the crops called--
Ans: Strip cropping
12. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
In July 1982, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Austria, for the
first international Earth Summit.
Ans: False. In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in
Brazil, for the first international Earth Summit.
13. The type of farming in steps can be cut out on the slopes called-----.
Ans: Terrace farming
14. What is contour ploughing?
Ans: Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the
slopes called contour ploughing.
15. Match the following.
i. Gullies A. Chambal basin
ii. Bad land B. Deep channels
iii. Ravines C. Water flows down
iv. Sheet erosion D. Unfit for cultivation
Ans: i. B ii. D iii. A iv. C
16. A widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources is called---.
Ans: Resource planning
17. Arid soil is mainly found in -----.
Ans: Rajastan
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 18. Error correction:
The lower horizons of the arid soil are occupied by kankar because of the
decreasing potassium content downwards.
Ans: The lower horizons of the arid soil are occupied by kankar because of the
increasing calcium content downwards.
19. Give the reason for less humus content in laterite soil.
Ans: Most of the decomposers like bacteria get destroyed due to high temperature.
20. Formation of which soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain?
Ans: Laterite soil
21. The laterite soil develops in areas with---
Ans: high Temperature and heavy rainfall
22. Which of the following is not belongs to the term ‘resource’?
i. Culturally acceptable ii. Socially variable
iii. Economically feasible iv. Technologically accessible
Ans: ii. Socially variable
23. Laterite has been derived from the Latin word “later” which means:
Ans: Brick
24. Which soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of eastern and southern
parts of Deccan plateau.
Ans: Red and yellow soil
25. The major soil type found in Deccan Trap region is---.
Ans: Black soil
26. Another name of black soil is—.
Ans: Regur soil
27. Choose the correct option.
The process of transformation of things involves an inter-dependent relationship
between---
i. Nature, Technology and substitution ii. Nature, Technology and Institution.
iii. Nature, Institution and Innovation. iv. Nature, Technology and Innovation.
Ans: ii. Nature, Technology and Institution.
28. Black soil is also called ‘black cotton soil’ because---.
Ans: Black soil is ideal for growing cotton.
29. Development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future
generations referred as------.
Ans: Sustainable development.
30. Match the following.
1. Potential resources A. Do not have appropriate
technology to access them.
[Link] resources B. Use has not been
started.
[Link] C. Surveyed and quality have
been determined.
[Link] D. Found in a region but
have not been utilized.
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 Ans: 1-D 2- C 3-A 4-B
31. Which of the following is the inappropriate statement?
i. Alluvial soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars and Terai.
ii. Old alluvial is called Bangar.
iii. The Khadar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules.
iv. The new alluvial is called Khadar.
Ans: iii. The Khadar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules.
32. Which of the following is false?
i. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil’
ii. The entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil.
iii. These have been deposited by Himalayan river systems
iv. It also found in the western coastal plains.
Ans: iv. It also found in the western coastal plains.
33. What is the cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and U.P?
Ans: Waterlogging due to over irrigation leading to increasing salinity and alkalinity
in the soil.
34. Which of the following is a feature of renewable resources?
i. Reproduced by physical process ii. Occur over a long geological time
iii. Get exhausted with their use iv. All of these
Ans: Reproduced by physical process
35. What is the main reason for land degradation in Gujarat and Rajastan?
Ans: Overgrazing
36. What is the cause of land degradation in Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
and Odisha?
Ans: Mining
37. Land use data, is available only for 93% of the total geographical area because----
Ans: The land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not
been done [Link] areas of Jammu and Kashmir occupied by Pakistan and China
have also not been surveyed.
38. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the Following.
i. Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million [Link]
ii. About 43% of the land area is plain
iii. Mountains account for 30% of the total surface area of the country.
iv. About 37%of the area of the country is the plateau region
Ans: About 37% of the area of the country is the plateau region.
39. Who is the author of ‘Small is Beautiful’?
Ans: Schumacher
40. Who said, ‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed’?
i. Gandhiji [Link] iii.C.R Das [Link]
Ans: i. Gandhiji
41. ----- report introduced the concept of sustainable development and advocated it as a
means for resource conservation.
Ans: Brundtland Commission Report, 1987.
[Link] Commission Report, 1987 introduced the concept of sustainable
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 development and advocated it as a means for resource conservation which was
subsequently published in a book entitled-
Ans:Our Common Future
42. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year + Net Sown Area = ----
Ans: Gross Cropped Area
43. How is biotic resource different from abiotic resource?
Ans: All living things are biotic and non-living things are abiotic.
44. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined
for utilisation is called potential resources. State whether the statement True or
False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: False. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been
determined for utilisation are called developed resources.
45. Black soil has good moisture holding capacity. State whether the statement True or
False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: True
46. Do you think that resources are free gifts of nature as is assumed by many? Suggest
any one argument.
Ans: Resources are not free gifts of nature as: Resources are a function of human
activities.
47. “Planning is widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources in a country like
India.” Justify this statement with one relevant point.
Ans: An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained
quality of life and global peace.
48. What are non-renewable resources? Give Example.
Ans: Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
Example: Crude oil.
50. What is bangar?
Ans: According to its age,alluvial soil is classified as khadar (new alluvial) and bangar
(old alluvium). Bangar has high concentration of hanker nodules.
[Link] is the most widely spread and important soil in India?
Ans: Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil in India
52. Classify resources into two groups on the basis of their origin.
Ans: On the basis of their origin, resources can be classified as biotic and abiotic.
53. Classify resources into two groups on the basis of their exhaustibility.
Ans: On the basis of exhaustibility, resources can be classified as renewable and non-
renewable.
54. Give two examples of biotic resources.
Ans: Flora, fauna, fisheries and livestock are examples of biotic resources, (any two)
55. Which one of the following is not an example of renewable resource
[Link] energy B. Water C. Rock D. Wildlife
Ans: (C) Rock
56. Biogas and solar energy are the examples of-----sources of energy.
Ans: Renewable sources of energy.
57. Antarctica is an example of which category of resources?
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 A. National B. Non-renewable C. International D. Fixed
Ans: (C) International
58. What are Resources?
Ans: Natural endowments which can be utilised to satisfy our needs,provided they are
technologically accessible economically feasible and culturally acceptable are termed as
resources. Resources are a function of human activity.
59. In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
A. Punjab B. Plains of Uttar Pradesh C. Haryana D. Uttarakhand
Ans: (D) Uttarakhand
60. Which soil has best moisture holding capacity?
Ans: Black Soil
61. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora&fauna?
(a) Agricultural expansion (b) Large-scale developmental projects
(c) Grazing and fuel wood collection (d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanization
Ans: (c) Grazing and fuel wood collection
62. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development
of any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes
in technology and institutions may hinder development.
Reason (R): There are many regions in our country that are rich in resources but these
are included in economically backward regions.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
63. Iron ore belongs to which category of resources?
A. Non-renewable B. Biotic C. renewable D. Flow
Ans: (A) Non-renewable
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
[Link] is the meaning of development? Explain the two aspects of development.
Ans: Development refers to progress or improvement in [Link] aspects of
development are: (i) Different persons can have different developmental goals. (ii) What
may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be
destructive for others.
2. “The future generation may not have sufficient resources as compared to the present
generation.” Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.
Ans: It is quite true that the future generation may not have sufficient resources as
compared to the present generation. (i) The statement explains that the overuse of
resources by the present generation would lead to insufficiency of resources for the
future generation. (ii) Development without adequate resources is impossible.
Examples: (a) Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their ground water resources.
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 (b) Overusing of fossil fuels like petroleum, coal.
3. Distinguish between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.
Ans:
Ferrous Non-Ferrous
Metallic minerals containing Metallic minerals that contain
iron are called ferrous metals other than iron are called
minerals. non-ferrous minerals.
They account for about three India’s reserves and production of
fourths of the total value of non-ferrous
production of metallic minerals is not very satisfactory.
minerals in India.
Iron ore, manganese, chromite, Copper, lead, tin, bauxite, gold are
tungsten, nickel and cobalt are examples of nonferrous minerals as
examples of ferrous minerals. they do not contain iron.
4. What are renewable resources? Why has it become necessary to use renewable energy
resources?
Ans: The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical,chemical or
mechanical processes are known as renewable resources. Dependence on fossil fuels ie,
coal, oil and gas and rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised
uncertainties about security of energy supply in future, which affect the growth of
national economy. Besides, the use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental
problems. Hence, there is a need for use of renewable energy resources.
5. “Resource planning so important in a country like India”. Support the statement with
argument.
Ans: i. India has enormous diversity in the availability of [Link] are regions
which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. ii.
There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the
availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some
vital resources. iii. The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are
rich in minerals and coal [Link] Pradesh has no dearth of water resources
but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is gifted with solar
and wind energy but lacks in water resources. Ladakh has rich cultural heritage but it
is deficient in water,infrastructure etc. This calls for balanced resource planning at the
national, state, regional and local levels.
6. Mention any three features of arid soil.
Ans: The following are the three features of arid soils. The colour of the arid soil ranges
from red to brown. Arid soils are generally sandy in texture and saline in [Link]
soils lack humus and moisture because of dry climate, high| temperature and fast
evaporation. The lower parts of the soils are occupied by kankar because of high
calcium content. It restricts the infiltration of water in lower layers.
7. How can you contribute to minimize the pollution? Explain.
Ans: We can contribute to minimizing pollution by creating awareness about not
burning fallen leaves or garbage in the parks or on the roads. Requesting our parents
and the people in the neighbourhood not to dump garbage in the ponds, rivers and
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 other water bodies, especially, while performing rituals. Not polluting the water
storage tanks at home.
8. “Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.” Justify the statement with
appropriate arguments.
Ans: Land is a natural resource of utmost importance. It supports natural vegetation,
wildlife, human life and economic activities like agriculture, mining, transport and
communication system. 95 per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are
obtained from land. Therefore, it is very important to use the available land for various
purposes with careful planning, otherwise we will be responsible for the adverse
consequences.
9. Name the soil type which is widely found in western [Link] two important
characteristics of this type of soil type which make it unsuitable for cultivation.
Ans: Arid soil is largely found in Western Rajasthan. The following are the two
characteristics which make it unsuitable for cultivation. Arid soil is generally sandy in
texture and saline in nature. The lower layers are occupied by Kankar. It restricts the
filtration of water. Due to dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster and
the soil acks humus and moisture.
10. Distinguish between red and yellow and laterite soils, stating five points of distinction.
Ans:
Red and yellow soil Laterite soil
Develops on crystalline igneous Develops in areas of high temperature and
rocks. Soil develop a reddish colour heavy rainfall. Reddish to yellow in colour
Found in the parts of Odisha, Found in Kerala,Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,
Chhattisgarh, Ganga plain and Madhya Pradesh, hilly areas of Odisha and
piedmont zone of Western Ghats. Assam.
Due to the diffusion of iron in This is a result of intense leaching due to
crystalline and metamorphic rocks. heavy rain. Humus content of the soil is low.
It took yellow when it occurs in a with a lower content of nitrogen,
hydrated form. phosphorus, potassium, lime and magnesia.
11. Mention any two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion.
Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India.
Ans: Two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion are
deforestation, overgrazing, construction and mining. (any two) The following are the
two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India. (1) Sheet erosion: It is the result of
excessive flowing of water resulting in the removal of the topmost layer of soil.
(2) Gullies cut the clayey soils into deep creeps and the land becomes unfit for
cultivation and popularly known as bad lands.
11. Describe any three measures of controlling land degradation.
Ans: (1) Afforestation and proper management grazing lands. (2) Planting of shelter
belts for stabilizing sand dunes Proper management of wastelands Control on mining
activities (3) Proper discharge of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment.
Adopting effective ploughing techniques.
12. “Indiscriminate use of resources has led to numerous problems.” Justify the
statement.
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 Ans: Human activities, like cutting and felling of trees, and lopping of trees, have led
to destruction of forests. Such losses have increasingly marginalised and impoverished
many communities, who depend upon forests for food medicine, etc. Some human
activities, such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying, have contributed
to land degradation. Water resources have been polluted by domestic and industrial
wastes, chemicals, pesticides and fertilizers used in agriculture, thus making it unfit
for human and as well as animals’ consumption.
13. Mention three physical factors as well as three human factors which determine the
use of land in India.
Ans: 1. Topography 2. Climate 3. soil type Three human factors determining the land
use in India are: 1. population density.2. Technological capability. 3. culture and
traditions.
14. Explain the types of resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Ans: 1. Renewable resources: These are the resources that can be reproduced by
physical, chemical or mechanical processes. For example, solar, tidal and wind energy.
2. Non-renewable resources: These resources occur over a very long geological time
taking millions of years in their formation. They get exhausted with their use. For
example, minerals, coal, etc.
15. Explain the role of humans in resource development.
Ans: The process of transformation of things into resource involves an inter-dependent
relationship between nature, technology and institutions. Human beings interact with
nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate the pace of economic
development. Human beings are essential components of resources as they transform
materials in the environment into resources and use them.
16. Distinguish between national and international resources by giving three points.
Ans:
National resources International resources
Resources belongs to the nation. Resources not belongs to a nation.
Urban Development Authorities get There are international institutions
empowered by the Govt. to acquire land. which regulate some resources.
All the minerals, water resources, forest, The oceanic resources beyond 200
wildlife, land within the political nautical miles of the Exclusive
boundaries and oceanic area upto 12 Economic Zone belong to open ocean
nautical miles(22.2 km) from the coast and no individual country can utilize
termed as territorial water and resources these without the concurrence of
belong to the nation. international institutions.
17. Describe briefly any four measures to conserve land from degradation.
Ans: (1) Afforestation and management of grazing can solve the problem to some
extent. (2) Planting of shelter belts of trees and growing of thorny bushes can stabilize
sand dunes and check land degradation.(3) Control over mining activities can also
contribute to it.(4) Proper discharge of industrial effluents can be done by grinding,
sedimentation and flocculation.
18. Give the importance of soil. Explain three factors responsible for soil formation.
Ans: Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. Plants grow in the soil. It
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 also supports different types of living organisms on earth. The three factors responsible
for soil formation are as follows.1. Relief, parent rock, climate, vegetation and other
forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil. [Link] of nature
like running water, wind, glaciers, temperature and decomposers help in the formation
of soil. (3)Chemical and organic (humus) changes are also important factors in the
formation of soil.
17. Describe ‘Agenda 21’.
Ans: ‘Agenda 21’ is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to
sustainable development It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on
Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro Brazil in 1992. It aims to
achieve global sustainable development. It is an Agenda to combat environmental
damage,poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests,mutual
needs and shared responsibilities.
18. Define sustainable development.
Ans: Development that meets the needs of present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs. Using recycled materials or renewable
resources when building is an example of sustainable development. Building a new
community in a previously underdeveloped area without destroying the eco system or
harming the environment is an example of sustainable [Link] growth,
environmental stewardship and social inclusion are the three major components of
sustainable development. Sustainability is made up of three pillars: Economy, Society
and the Environment.
19. Distinguish between individual resources and community owned resources.
Ans:
Individual resources Community owned resources
Resources owned privately by Resources owned by community.
individual.
Plantation, water in wells, Grazing grounds, burial grounds, village
cultivation in own land etc are the ponds, public parks, public library, play
examples of individual resources. grounds in urban areas etc are the examples.
No one can use individual Anyone can use the Community
resources without the owner's resources without owner's permission.
permission.
20.‘Soils are described on the basis of their age’. Comment.
Ans: According to their age alluvial soil can be classified as old alluvial and new
[Link] alluvial soil is calledBangar and new alluvial is Khadar. The Bangar soil
has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar. It has more fine
particles and is more fertile than Bangar.
20. What consequences would we face if non-renewable resources get exhausted in the
world?
Ans: (1) Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
We have a fixed stock on earth which cannot be replenished. (ii) We can discover new
resources that we did not know of [Link] sources in this way add to the stock.
(iii) However, overtime, even this will get exhausted. In that situation life would be
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 difficult for us. There would be total chaos all over the world.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources. Give examples.
Ans:
Renewable resources Non- renewable resources
Resources whose quantity is not Substances whose stock get reduced are
reduced due to use are termed as gradually exhausted with use are termed
renewable resources. as non renewable resources.
They are inexhaustible esources They are exhaustible resources.
They can be renewed or reproduced They cannot be renewed or recovered.
Resources whose stock is continuous Their quantity is more or less fixed
and are being used since time quantity because their formation takes
immemorial. long geological period of million of years.
Renewable resources are sunlight, Non-renewable resources are minerals,
wind, water etc. Fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum etc.
2. What is regur soil? Write its features. Mention two regions where they are found.
Ans: Regur soil is the other name of black soil. The following are the two features of
regur soil. The regur soils are made up of clayey material. They can hold moisture and
are rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. They
develop deep cracks during hot weather. When the soils are wet, they are very sticky
and difficult to work on unless tilled immediately. The regur soils are found in the
Deccan trap region, which is spread over north-west Deccan plateau. There soils are also
found in the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh and along the Godavari and Krishna Valleys.
2. “In India, some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some
other resources.” Do you agree with the statement? upport your answer with three
examples.
Ans: India is a vast country. It has fertile plains and high mountains,which are a source
of perennial rivers. It also has plateaus, which are a rich source of minerals, fossil fuels
and forests. However some regions are rich in certain types of resources and deficient
in others, like the [Link] cold desert of ladakh has very rich cultural heritage
but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital [Link] Pradesh
has abundant water resources but lacks in infrastructure development, as it is a
mountainous state. The state of Rajasthan is well endowed with wind and solar energy
but lacks in water resources.
3. Describe the reasons for land degradation.
Ans: At present there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India. It has
mainly been due to the following reasons. Human activities like deforestation, mining,
quarrying, overgrazing are mainly responsible for land degradation. In states like
Chhatisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining has caused
severe degradation. In Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra,
overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. Industrial effluents have
become a major source of land and water degradation in many parts of the country.
Over-irrigation in the states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, has led to
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 waterlogging and increased alkalinity and salinity in the soil.
4. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:
Natural resources are the things that exist freely in nature human beings use for
survival These things include the water, land, fires animals, rocks, fossil fuels, and
minerals inside the Earth. Human beings did not create natural resources. They have
always been a part of the Earth Wore humans append Most of the natural resources are
connected to each other in some way. For example, water is a natural resource, and
there was a limited supply then other resources such as animal and plants would be
affected Natural resources are consumed directly or indirectly. For example when
animals eat plants they are consuming a natural resource directly. However, the many
trees of rain forest act as climate control flood control and storm protection. The trees
of a forest can also be used as raw materials for making houses, furniture, paper or
other items. Natural resources can be a solid liquid, or gas. They can also be organic
coming from living things, or inorganic, coming from a non-living source. They can
also be made out of metal or be non-metallic All natural resources are also either
renewable or nonrenewable.
(i) What are resources? (1)
(ii) Why it has been considered natural resources to be connected to each other? (2)
(iii) Give 10 examples of natural resources in various categories? (2)
Ans: (a) Resources are things that exist freely and are used for survival of human beings.
(b) Most of natural resources are connected to each other in some [Link] example,
water is a natural resource, and there was a limited supply, then other resources such as
animal and plants would be affected. (c) Natural resources—water, land, forests,
animals, rocks, fossil fuels, minerals, sun energy, biogas, mountains, humans.
5. Describe any 5 features of alluvial soil.
Ans: 1. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil.2. These have been
deposited by 3 important river system-The Indus,The Ganga and The Brahmaputra. 3.
It found in northern plains and also extend in Rajastan and Gujarat through a narrow
corridor. 4. Alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. 5. Soil
particles appear somewhat bigger in size and in the upper reaches of the river valley,
near the place of the break of the slope, the soils are coarse. These are found in
piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
6. Describe any 5 features of forest soil.
Ans: (1) Forest soil are found in hilly and mountainous areas. (2) Mostly these are
available in rainforests. (3) The soil texture varies according to the mountain
environment where they are formed. (4) Soil is loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse
grained in the upper slopes. (5) In the snow covered areas of Himalayas, these soil
experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content.
7. Describe the significance of Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit.
Ans: The first International Earth Summit of more than 100 heads of states met in Rio
de Janeiro in Brazil in June 1992. This meet addressed urgent problems of
environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level. The
assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climate Change and Biological
Diversity. This convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda
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 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
8. Describe the resources on the basis of the status of development.
Ans: Potential Resources: Resources which are found in a region but have not been
utilized. Example: The enormous potential of solar and wind energy in Rajastan and
Gujarat Developed resources: Resources which are surveyed and their quality and
quantity have been determined for utilization. Stock: Human beings do not have the
appropriate technology to access the resources called stock. Example: Hydrogen and
Oxygen. Reserves: Resources, which can be put into use with the help of existing
technical know-how but their use has not been [Link] can be used for future
requirements. Example: Water in the dams, forests etc.
9. Which type of soil is ideal for growth of cotton? What are the main characteristics of
this type of soil?
Ans: Black soil, primarily of the Deccan Trap region, is ideal for the growth of cotton.
This soil type is also known as black cotton soil for this reason. Black soil is well known
for its moisture or water retaining capacity because it is clayey in nature. It is rich in
soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime but generally
poor in phosphoric contents. On account of its clayey nature, black soil develops deep
cracks in the hot dry season. This aids proper aeration of the soil. This soil becomes
sticky when wet and difficult to work unless tilled immediately after the first shower
during the pre-monsoon period.
10. Describe the importance of conservation of resources.
Ans: Resources are essential for all kinds of developmental activities. But indiscriminate
use of resources and overuse of resources may lead to socio-economic and
environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various
levels is important. For example, Gandhiji rightly said, “There is enough for
everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. For the first time, conservation of
resources had been advocated by the Club of Rome at the international level in a more
systematic way in 1968. Another significant contribution was made at the Earth
Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992.
11. “33% area should be under forests.” Justify the statement highlighting the
environmental values of forests.
Ans: According to the international norms, the forest cover in a country should be 33
per cent of the total geographical area. However the forest cover in India is estimated at
637,293 sq. km, which is 19.39 per cent of the total geographical area. The following
points sum up of the environmental values of forests. If a country does not have 33 per
cent geographical area under forest it may lead to poor quality of support system—
water, air and soil. Forests preserve the genetic diversity of plants and animals. The
forest ecosystem is the storehouse of valuable forest products, minerals and other
resources.
12. Why does the pattern of net sown area vary from one state to another?
Ans: On account of the vast expanse of India, its relief, climate, soil and socio-economic
set-up, net sown area varies from region to region. The pattern of net sown area is over
80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana. Geographical conditions like
climate and soil here are favourable for cultivation. Further, due to agricultural
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 advancement through Green Revolution, more areas have been brought under
cultivation. On the other hand, less than 10 per cent of the total area is net sown area in
Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Topographical constraints, unfavourable climate and socio-economic reasons account
for the low proportion of net sown areas in these states.
13. ‘India has land under a variety of relief features’. Support the statement with three
arguments.
Ans: The name of these relief features are mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.
i. About 43 percent of the land area is plain which provides facilities for agricultural
and industrial activities. ii. Mountains account for 30 percent of the total surface area
of the country and ensure perennial flow of some rivers. They also provide facilities for
tourism and ecological aspects. iii. About 27 percent of the area of the country is the
plateau region. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.
14. Explain major human activities that are mainly responsible for land degradation in
India.
Ans: Use of land over a prolonged period without taking necessary steps to conserve
and manage it has resulted in land degradation. The major human activities
responsible for land degradation in India are as follows: i. In states like Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused
severe land degradation. Mining sites are dug, drilled or quarried and abandoned
leaving the land overburdened and in a highly degraded state. ii. Mineral processing
like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic
industry generate huge quality of mineral dust in the atmosphere, which ultimately
settles down on the land. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil,
thus, degrading the land. iii. Discharge of industrial effluents and wastes cause
pollution and land degradation in industrial regions. iv. In states like Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons
for land degradation. [Link] Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh over irrigation
is responsible for land degradation. It leads to water logging which in turn increases
salinity and alkalinity in the soil and reduces its fertility.
15. What is soil erosion? Suggest measures to stop soil erosion.
Ans: The denudation of the soil cover and the subsequent washing down is described as
soil erosion. Steps to stop soil erosion: i. Contour ploughing : Ploughing along the
contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. ii. Terrace cultivation :
Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
iii. Strip cropping:Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow
between crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. iv. Creating shelter belts: Planting
lines of trees to create shelter also stops soil erosion by checking force of wind and
running water. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts.

CHAPTER 2-AGRICULTURE
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Which of the following country was the largest producer of fruits and vegetables in
the world in 2008?
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 i. U.S.A ii. China iii. India iv. Pakistan
2. Complete the following table.
Crop The Arabica variety initially Initially the cultivation
brought from was introduced in
Coffee (A)---? (B) ------ Hills
Ans: A-Yemen B. Baba Budan
3. Analyse the table.
Sector 10th Five Year 11th Five Year
Plan (2002-07) Plan (2007-12)
Agriculture 1.7 3.2
Industry 8.3 7.4
Service 9.0 10.0
GDP 7.2 8.2
Which sector contribute less to the growth rate?
[Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] of these
Ans: Industry
4. ----- is recognized as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of
seeds.
Ans: Genetic Engineering
5. Organic farming is much in vogue today because--.
Ans: It is practiced without factory made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides.
6. Write any two bio-diesel crops.
Ans: Jatropha and Jojoba
7. What is the major obstacle to grow a wide range of high-value crops such as fruits,
medicinal herbs, bio-diesel crops and so on?
Ans: India’s diverse climate can be harnessed to grow a wide range of high-value
crops.
8. Indian farmers should diversify their copping pattern from cereals to high-value
crops to increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation because------------.
Ans: High-value crops such as fruits, medicinal herbs, bio-diesel crops and so on
need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane.
9. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
Indian farmers should diversify their copping pattern from high value crops to
cereals to increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation.
Ans: False. Indian farmers should diversify their copping pattern from cereals to
high-value crops to increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation.
10. Identify the key reason. Organic farming does not affect environment in a
negative manner.
Ans: It is practiced without factory made chemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides.
11. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
India is a producer of tropical as well as temperate fruits.
Ans: True
12. What is the full form of ICAR?
Ans: Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
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 13. Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as ----.
Ans: Blood-Less Revolution
14. Who is the founder of ‘Bhoodan’?
Ans: Vinoba Bhave
15. Mention any two schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of
the farmers.
Ans: Kissan Credit Card (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)
16. Which revolution is associated with operation flood?
Ans: White Revolution
17. Error correction: Cotton is known as golden fibre.
Ans: Jute is known as golden fibre.
18. Complete the table.
Crop Temperature Annual rainfall
Sugarcane (A)---? (B)---?
Ans: (A) 21°C to 27°C. (B) 75 cm to 100 cm
19. In 2008, ---- was the second largest producer of cotton after ----.
i. Bangladesh ii. China iii. Brazil iv. Italy
Ans: ii. China
20. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk is known as----.
Ans: Sericulture
21. Which of the following fibre crop belongs to cocoons of the silkworms?
[Link] ii. Jute iii. Hemp iv. Natural silk
Ans: iv. Natural sil
22. In 2010-11 India ranked------- among the world’s natural rubber producers.
i. Second ii. Third iii. Fourth iv. First
Ans: iii. Fourth
23. Which country was the third largest producer of tea after China and Turkey in
2008?
Ans: India
24. Which beverage crop grow well in tropical and sub-tropical climates?
Ans: Tea
25. Which beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British?
Ans: Tea
26. Which crop is grown both as rabi and kharif crop?
i. Cotton seed ii. castor seed [Link] [Link]
Ans: ii. castor seed
27. Match the following.
1. Unirrigated land a. Setting up agro-based mill
[Link] prices for crops b. Procurement of food grains by government
[Link] burden c. Construction of canals by the government
[Link] job in the off season d. Banks to provide credit at low interest
Ans: 1 – c 2 – b 3–d 4–a
28. Which crop is a kharif crop in North and rabi crop in South India?
[Link] [Link] [Link] iv. soyabean
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 Ans: i. Sesamum
29. Which of the following state was the largest producer of groundnut in India in
2011- 2012?
[Link] ii. Gujarat iii. Andhra [Link]
Ans: ii. Gujarat
30. Which country was the second largest producer of ground nut in the world after
China in 2008?
Ans: India
31. India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after----
i.U.S.A ii. Brazil iii. China iv. Srilanka
Ans: ii. Brazil
32. Which of the following is a tropical as well as subtropical crop?
[Link] ii. Tea iii. Coffee iv. Rubber
Ans: i. Sugarcane
33. Which of the following is a feature of primitive subsistence farming?
i. Practised in areas of high population. [Link] doses of chemical inputs used.
[Link] type of farming depends upon monsoon. iv. Innovations in farming
Ans: iii. This type of farming depends upon monsoon.
34. India is the largest producer as well as consumer of which crop in the world?
Ans: Pulses
35. Which of the following crop used both as food and fodder?
[Link] ii. Wheat iii. Maize iv. Rice
Ans: iii. Maize
36. Choose the correctly matched pair from the Following.
[Link] Myanmar
[Link] Peru
[Link] Japan
[Link] Vietnam
Ans: D Ray-Vietnam
37. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the Following.
i. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.
ii. Paddy is an important rabi crop.
iii. Rabi crops are harvested in summer from April to June.
iv. All of these
Ans: ii. Paddy is an important rabi crop.
38. A short season during the summer months known as---.
Ans: Zaid
39. Which country is the second largest producer of rice in the world?
Ans: India
40. Which is the second most important cereal crop?
Ans: Wheat
41. Which of the following not an important millets grown in India?
[Link] ii. Bajra iii. Wheat iv. Ragi
Ans: iii. Wheat
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 42. Which of the following state is not a major jower producing state?
[Link] ii. Karnataka iii. Goa iv. Andhra
Ans: iii. Goa
43. In which season are rabi crops sown in India?
Ans: The rabi crops are sown in India in winter from October to December.
44. Which is the leading sugarcane producer state of India?
Ans: Uttar Pradesh
45. What term is used for grouping of small land holdings with bigger ones?
Ans: The term used for grouping of small land holdings with bigger ones is
consolidation of land holdings.
46. What is White Revolution related to?
Ans: White Revolution is related to the production of milk. It is also called
Operation Flood.
47. By what other name is ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known?
Ans: ‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is also known as jhumming.
48. Of which agricultural product is India the largest producer as well as consumer in
the world?
Ans: India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world.
49. India is the largest producer and consumer of the ---- in the world.
Ans: India is the largest producer and consumer of the pulses in the world.
50. Mention the sowing period of kharif crops.
Ans: Kharif crops are sown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the
country.
51. Mention the sowing period of rabi crops.
Ans: Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.
52. Which is the main food crop grown in north and northwestern parts of India.
Ans: Wheat is the main food crop grown in the north and northwestern parts of
India.
53. India, is the largest exporter of Jute after ..........
Ans: Bangladesh
54. Kharif crops are grown with on set of .......... in different parts of country.
Ans: Mansoon.
55. What is the full form of IADP?
Ans: Intenisve Agriculture Development Programme.
56. Arrange the following state according to the percent share of rice to
all India.
1. Punjab 2. West Bengal 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Rajasthan
(a)2, 3, 1, 4 (b)1, 2, 3, 4 (c)4, 3, 2, 1 (d)4, 3, 1, 2
Ans: (a) 2, 3, 1, 4
57. Which of the following is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major
oilseeds produced in the country?
(a) Mustard (b) Coconut (c) Groundnut (d) Soyabean
Ans: (c) Groundnut
58._____ crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India.
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 Ans: Kharif
58. Wheat and rice are --------.
A. cereal crops B. coarse grains C. plantation crops D. horticulture crops
Ans: (A) cereal crops
59. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of
Rice:
Crop Sown Harvested Major Area
Kharif A-----? B-----? Punjab
Ans: A-Onset of Monsoon B- September-October
60. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of
Rubber:
Rubber Producing states Temperature Rainfall
Kerala, Tamilnadu A —? B —?
Ans: A – 20-34°C B – Around 250 cm
61. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of
fibre crops:
Examples Natural silk is obtained from Rearing of silk
worms called

Cotton, jute, hemp

and natural silk A —? B —?
Ans: A — Cocoons of silk worms B — Sericulture
62. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of
cotton:
Soil Cotton Number Time to get
type of frost free days Matured

Black A –? B –?
Ans: A – 210 B – 6 to 8 month
63. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as---.
Ans: sericulture
64. “Rice is grown with the withdrawal of monsoon in different parts of India. It is a
Rabi crop”. State whether the statement is True or False. If false, correct the
statement.
Ans: False. Rice is grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India. It is a
kharif crop.
65. “Rice, wheat and maize are important millets grown in India”.
State whether the statement is True or False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: False . Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in
India.
66. ............. crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India.
Ans: Kharif
67. Name the state which is the largest producer of ragi.
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 Ans: Karnataka is the largest producer of ragi.
68. What are the two cotton-producing states of north India?
Ans: The two cotton-producing states of north India are Punjab and
Haryana.
69. What is Jhumming?
Ans: Jhumming is the local name of ‘slash and burn’ agriculture in north-eastern
states of India.
70. Find the Incorrect option:
A. Kisan Credit Card, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme are some other schemes
introduced to benefit of the farmers.
B. Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir.
C. The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the white
revolution were some of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian
agriculture.
D. Cotton is known as the golden fibre and grows well on well drained fertile soils in
the flood plains.
Ans: (D) Cotton is known as the golden fibre and grows well on well drained fertile
soils in the flood plains.
71. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
A. Maximum support price B. Minimum support price
C. Moderate support price D. Influential support price
Ans: (B) Minimum support price
72. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Evaporation from Oceans, Lakes and Streams (ii) Condensation
(iii) Precipitation (iv)Surface Runoff or Ground water
Options
A. (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv) B. (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i) C. (i)-(iii)-(iv)-(ii) D. (iv)-(ii)-(iii)-(i)
Ans : (A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
73. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): In fact organic farming is much in vogue today.8905629969
Reason (R): It is practised without factory made chemicals such as
fertilisers and pesticides.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
74. Pamlou, a term of jhumming cultivation is in-----
A. Meghalaya B. Manipur C. Mizoram D. Nagaland
Ans: (B) Manipur
75. West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are major Cotton producing
states.
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 Ans:West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are major Jute producing
states.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. What is plantation farming? State two characteristics of plantation farming. Also
mention two examples of plantation crops.
Ans: A single crop is grown on a large area is called plantation farming. Characteristics:
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Use large tracts of land and
capital intensive inputs with manual labour. Examples of plantation crops: Tea, coffee,
rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc. (any two)
2. Describe geographical conditions required for the growth of [Link], 2. Cotton
Ans: 1. Jute: It is called the golden fibre of India. It mainly grows on well drained fertile
soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year. It requires high temperature
during the growing season. 2. Cotton: It requires warm climate. It grows very well in the
drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau. It requires high temperature,
light rainfall or irrigation.
3. Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of wheat and its
distribution in the country.
Ans: (i) Wheat is a rabi crop which requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine
at the time of rippeing. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over
the growing season. (ii) There are two important wheat growing zones in the country,
the Ganga- Satluj plains in the north west and black soil region of the Deccan.(iii) The
major wheat producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan
and some parts of Madhya Pradesh.
4. Name the two important by-products of sugarcane other than the sugar and jaggery.
State the temperature and rainfall requirements of sugarcane. Also name the two major
sugarcane producing states of India.
76. Ans: (i) Sugarcane by-products: Khandsari and molasses. (ii) Find the
Incorrect option:
A. Kisan Credit Card, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme are some other schemes
introduced to benefit of the farmers.
B. Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir.
C. The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the white
revolution were some of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian
agriculture.
D. Cotton is known as the golden fibre and grows well on well drained fertile soils in
the flood plains.
. (iv)States: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,Punjab and Haryana.
5. Mention any three geographical conditions required for rice cultivation in India.
Ans: Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature (above 25°C). It requires
high humidity with annual rainfall above 100cm. Rice is grown in the plains of north
and north eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
[Link] between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming.
Ans:
Primitive subsistence farming Intensive subsistence farming

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 It is practiced on small patches of It is practiced in areas of high population
land. pressure on land.
It used primitive tools like hoe,dao, It is labour intensive farming and use
digging stick and family/community high doses of biochemical inputs.
labour.
This type of farming depends upon Irrigation, canals and other sources of
monsoon, natural fertility of the soil. water are used for obtaining higher
and environmental conditions. production.
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[Link] / Crop / Climatic Requirements / Area of Production / Season

1. Rice-Kharif Temperature above25°C, -high Plains of north and

north-eastern, coastal [staple crop]humidity- areas, and deltaic regions
Annual Rain fall above 100cm West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Alluvial
soil Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
2 Wheat- 50-75 cm annual rainfall, Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar,
Rajasthan cool growing season and Rabi [cereal bright Ganga-Satluj
plains in north- western black crop] Sunshine at the time of ripening.
soil region of Deccan. Alluvial loamy soil.
3 Maize-Kharif -Temperature 21-27°C Bihar,[grown in Rabi season]
Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Old Alluvial soil Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh
4 Sugarcane- Temperature 21-27°C India-second largest producer,
Uttar Pradesh, Rain fall 75-100 cm, low rainfall Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Grow on variety of soils Andhra Pradesh,
Punjab, Haryana, Bihar Well drained soil, rich in Potassium, Calcium,
Iron, Zinc, Manganese etc.
5 Tea- humus, Assam, hills of Darjiling and Jalpaiguru in [Beverage
and organic matter West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, crop] Warm-moist-frost
free days, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Uttrakand, Meghalaya, [leading
frequent showers evenly Andra Pradesh and Tripura. producer and
distributed over the years exporter]
6 Coffee- Cool climate, hilly region Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
Well drained soil
7 Rubber- Temperature –moist and humid- Rain fall more than 200
cm- Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, climate, above 25°c Meghalaya,
Andaman and Nicobar
8 Cotton- Temperature average=25°C Maharashtra,Gujarat, M.P,
Punjab, Kharif Rain fall = 100 cm Haryana 210 frost free days Black
soil
9 Jute-Kharif Temperature average=25-30°C Bengal Bihar, Assam,
Orissa, Rain fall = 15-200 cm Meghalaya Well drained fertile soil

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 10 Jowar-(Millet Maharashtra is the largest producer) Rain-fed crop –
grown in moist Karnataka , Andhra Pradesh and Madhya area
Pradesh
11 Bajra- Sandy soil and shallow black Rajasthan is the largest
producer, Uttar (Millets) soil Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and
Haryana
12 Ragi- Grows in dry region. Grows well Karnataka is the largest
producer of ragi, (Millets) on red , black , sandy, loamy and Tamil
Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, shallow black soils. Uttarakhand, Sikkim,
Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.
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7. Write the uses of jute. Why is it losing its market in India today?
Ans: It is known as the golden fibre. It is used in making gunny bags,mats, ropes, yarn,
carpets and other artefacts. Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres
and packing materials, particularly the nylon.
8. List any one beverage crop of India and write the climatic conditions need for its growth.
Ans: Tea. The tea plant grows well in tropical and subtropical climates endowed
with deep and fertile well-drained soil and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm
and moist frost-free climate all through the [Link] showers evenly distributed
over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is processed within the tea
garden to restore its freshness.
9. State any three characteristics of commercial farming in India.
Ans: (i) Crops are grown on a large scale in large farms or plantations for commercial
purposes and for export to other countries.(ii) It is a capital intensive farming required
high application of modern inputs. (iii) Modern inputs like high yielding variety (HYV)
seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides are used to obtain higher
productivity. Irrigation is applied to meet water requirement.
10. Describe the major horticulture crops in India.
Ans: India is a producer of tropical as well as temperate [Link] of
Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh Telangana, U.P and West Bengal. Oranges of Nagpur
and Cherapunjee. Bananas of Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Lichi
and Guava of U.P and Bihar, Pineapples of Meghalaya, Grapes of Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana and Maharashtra. Apples, Pears, Apricot and Walnuts of Jammu and
Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh etcare great demand the world over. India produces
about 13%of the world’s vegetables. India is an important producer of pea, cauliflower,
onion, cabbage, tomato, brinjal and potato.
11. When were the comprehensive land development programmes launched in India?
Explain the provisions of this programme.
Ans: 1980s and 1990s. Programmes: (i) Bank facilities: Under this programme many
Grameen Banks and cooperative societies were established. They provided loans at
lower rates to the farmers. (ii) KCC: Government provided with Kisan Credit Card to
the farmers. These cards helped farmers getting financial help from the banks.
(iii) PAIS: Government also provided Personal Accident Insurance Schemes for
benefiting the farmers. This enabled the farmer’s family to get money due to any
accident.

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Describe the three cropping seasons in India.
Ans: India has three cropping seasons —rabi, kharif and zaid. Rabi crops are sown in
winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some
major rabi crops are — wheat,barley, peas, gram and mustard. Kharif crops are grown
with the onset of monsoons and harvested in September to October. Important kharif
crops are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, cotton, jute, groundnut, etc. In between rabi and
kharif seasons, there is a short season during summer,called zaid season. Some major
crops grown during zaid are —watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and
fodder crops.
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2. Differentiate between subsistence and commercial agriculture.

Subsistence Agriculture Commercial Agriculture
Crops are cultivated for sustenance Crops are cultivated for sale in the
not for sale in the market. market not for individual /family use.
No crop specialization, use only Crop specialization is more, HYV
natural seeds and manures seeds, high doses of chemicals are used.
Practised in developing countries Practised in developed countries where
where capital, investment and capital, investment and infrastructure
infrastructure comparatively very less. comparatively more.
d. Farms size is small-small patches of Farms size is large. Single crop being
land used for cultivation aimed to cultivate in large area aimed to
produce less quantity. produce large quantity.
e. It need more time. Farm work is Machines are used in farming aimed to
mainly done by hands of family produce more products within a short
members and use traditional tools. period of time.
3. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
Primitive farming is a “Slash and burn” agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and
produce cereals and other food crops to sustain [Link] soil fertility decreases,
the farmer shift and clear afresh patch of land to cultivate. In commercial farming the
main features of this type of farming is the use of higher dose of modern inputs.
Generally the degree of commercialistion varies from one region to another. Plantation
is a type of Commercial farming in which a single crop is grown on a larger area.
Plantation has an interface of agriculture and [Link] on the above
comprehension, answer the following questions:
(i) What is commercial farming? (1)
(ii) How is Soil fertility affected in primitive farming? (2)
(iii) How is plantation farming different from other farmings. Give examples of
plantation farming. (2)
Ans: (i) The farming in which the use of higher modern inputs is dosed is known as
commercial Escaping. (ii) Soil fertility replenish through the natural process. In
primitive farming, as and when the soil fertility decreases, the farmer shift and clear a
fresh patch of land to cultivate. (iii) Plantation is a type of farming in which single crop
is grown on a large area. It has an interface of agriculture and industry for example—
Coffee, Rubber, Jute, Apple etc.

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 4. Describe any five steps taken by the government of India to increase the productivity of
agriculture in India.
Ans: (1) In 1960s and 1970s, two most important reforms were introduced. The Green
Revolution and the White Revolution were some of the strategies initiated to improve
the Indian agriculture. (2) Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone,
fire and disease, establishment of Grameen banks, cooperative societies and banks for
providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest were some important
steps.(3) Kissan Credit Card, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme are some other s
chemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers. (4) Special
Weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the
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radio and television.(5) The government also announces Minimum Support Price (MSP),
remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of
farmers by speculators and middlemen. (6) The government provides HYV seeds and
fertilisers.(7) Government provides technical assistance and training for farmers.
(8) Soil testing facilities, cold storage and transportation facilities are provided by
government for farmers.
5. “The growth rate in agriculture decelerating”. Do you agree? How did the Government
of India make efforts to modernise agriculture? Explain.
Ans: It is a fact that the growth rate in agriculture is decelerating. There are several
reasons for this, such as: (i) Today, Indian farmers are facing a big challenge from
international competition. Subsidy on fertilisers is decreased leading to the increase in
the cost of production.(ii) Moreover, reduction in import duties on agricultural products
have proved detrimental to agriculture in the country. (iii) Farmers are withdrawing
their investment from agriculture causing a downfall in the employment in agriculture.
Considering the importance of agriculture in India, the Government of India made
concerted efforts to modernise agriculture. Establishment of Indian Council of
Agricultural Research (ICAR), agricultural universities, veterinary services and animal
breeding centres, horticulture development, research and development in the field of
meteorology and weather forecast, etc. were given priority for improving Indian
agriculture.
6. Explain any five features of Indian agriculture.
Ans: (1) Intensive subsistence, labour intensive farming, high doses of biochemical
inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining high yield. (2)The right of inheritance has
led to division of land among successive generations. (3) Slash and burn‟ agriculture –
Clears a patch of forest land and produce crops, when the soil fertility decreases the
farmer shifts and clear a fresh patch of land, known by different names in different
parts of India- like Jhumming ,mostly done in the Northeastern-states (4) Rabi Crops-
Sown in Winter from October to December and harvested in Summer from April to
June eg. Wheat, Barley, Peas,Gram (5) Kharif Crops -Grown with the onset of the
Monsoon,harvested in September October eg. paddy,Maize,Jowar,Bajra Zaid Crops-in
between Rabi and Kharif season-short season during the summer months eg. water
melon, cucumber.
7. Describe the conditions required for the cultivation of rubber. Name the major
producing states of rubber in India.

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 Ans: Rubber is an equatorial crop. But under special conditions it is also grown in
tropical and sub-tropical regions. It requires moist and humid climate. It requires
rainfall of more than 200cm. It requires temperature above 25°C. It is mainly grown in
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of
Meghalaya. Rubber is an important industrial raw material.
8. Name the three most important millets in India. Mention the producing areas and
geographical features required.
Ans: Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in [Link] are coarse
grains and high nutritional values. Jowar is a rain fed crop mostly grown in the moist
areas which hardly needs irrigation. Major jowar producing states are Maharashtra,
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Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Bajra grows well on sandy soil and
shallow black soil. The major bajra producing states are Rajastan, U.P, Maharahtra,
Gujarat and Haryana. Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy,
loamy and shallow black soils. Major ragi producing states are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.
9. Suggest any five measures to enhance the agricultural production in India.
Ans: (1) Each district and block can be made self-sufficient in agricultural production if
the government provides proper agricultural infrastructure, irrigation facilities,
electricity, etc. Loans can be provided at lower interest rates to cultivator. The use of
latest techniques can be encouraged. Instead of concentrating only on rice or wheat, the
food crop with a better growth potential in that particular area must be encouraged.
attracting foreign investment in agriculture and also free trade in grains will not only
increase agricultural production, but will also create massive employment and reduce
poverty in rural areas. Farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to
high-value crops.
10. Mention the importance of oil seeds along with their uses.
Ans: Main oil-seeds produced in India are groundnut, mustard,coconut, sesamum,
soyabean, castor seeds, linseed and sunflower. Most of these are edible and used as
cooking mediums. Some of them are used as raw material in the production of soap,
cosmetics and ointments. In 2008 India was the 2nd largest producer of groundnut in
the world after China. Different oilseeds are grown covering approximately 12% of the
total cropped area of the [Link] is a kharif crop and accounts for about
half of the major oil seeds produced in the country. Linseed and mustard are rabi
[Link] is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India. Castor eed is
grown both as rabi and kharif crop.
11. Write the major producing states and geographical conditions required for the
cultivation of Maize and pulses.
Ans: Maize- The major producing states are Karnataka, U.P, Maharashtra, Andhra
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Maize is a kharif crop requires temperature between
21°C-27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. In some states like Bihar maize is grown
in rabi season also. It is used both as food and fodder. Pulses- The major producing
states are Karnataka, Maharashtra, U.P, Rajastan and Madhya Pradesh. Pulses need
less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, crops such as
urad, moong, masur, peas and gram except arhar(tur) help in restoring soil fertility by

K64
 fixing nitrogen from the air.
12. Explain any five characteristics of commercial farming in India.
Ans: (1) The main characteristic of commercial farming is the use of high doses of
modern inputs, like HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers,insecticides and pesticides, in order
to obtain higher productivity. (2) The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies
from one region to another, for example rice is a commercial crop in Punjab and
Haryana but in Odisha it is a subsistence crop.(3) Plantation is also a type of
commercial farming where a single crop is grown on a large area.(4) Plantations cover
large areas using capital intensive inputs with the help of migrant labourers.(5) In India
tea, coffee, rubber, sugar cane and banana are important plantation crops.
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13. “Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.” Justify the statement.
Ans: Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other in the following ways.
Agro-based industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its
productivity. Industry has contributed to agriculture by using the implements like
irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines
tools, sprinkles and drip irrigation systems. Thus, development and competitiveness,and
manufacturing industry has not only assisted agriculturalists in increasing their
productivity, but also made production process very efficient. In the present day world
of globalisation, industry needs to be more efficient and competitive. Today we are not
only self-sufficient in agriculture but our farmers are able to compete with other
farmers in the world. Today, we are able to produce goods for international market.
14. “Irrigation changed the cropping pattern in many regions of India”. Support the
statement with examples.
Ans: Irrigation has changed the cropping pattern of many regions, with farmers
shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. Due to the success of the Green
Revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan, these
states have started growing rabi crops like wheat, barley, peas and gram. Paddy has
become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal
and Orissa, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. They are Aus, Aman and Boro.
The development of canal irrigation and tubewells has made it possible to grow rice in
areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh and parts of
Rajasthan. The use of modem inputs like HYV (High Yielding Variety) seeds,
fertilizers and irrigation has contributed to high production of maize.
15. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state
boundries.” Explain.
Ans:Environmental degradation is a global issue, which has been discussed and debated
over the past decades. It is the deterioration of the environment through depletion of
resources such as air, water and soil. It affects and depletes the ecosystem, hampers the
ozone layer and is responsible for extinction of wildlife. Environmental degradation is
not restricted to national or state boundaries. It hampers the surroundings irrespective
of any national or state boundaries and its harmful effects are well felt in the
surrounding states and neighbouring countries and even globally. For example, if India
has a lot of air pollution through massive thermal power plants and other sources, it
affects its neighbouring countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka and angladesh. Acid rain and

K64
 climate change are some transcontinental issues. Land degradation in India affects.
Bangladesh as it brings massive silt and floods. Therefore, environmental degradation is
a serious issue which has grabbed the attention of all countries irrespective of
boundaries because protecting the environment is the need of the hour at the global
level.
CHAPTER 3 - MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Why is the ‘least cost’ known as decision making factor for ideal location of an
industry?
Ans: Least cost is the key factor that determines the location of an industry because
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industry tends to be located at a place where factors of production are either available
or can be arranged at low cost.
2. Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?
Ans: National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up with
the objective of appropriate policy intervention, by the Government and renewed
efforts, by the industry to improve productivity and achieve its target over the next
decade.
3. Which two prime factors are important for the location of ‘Aluminium Smelting’
industry?
Ans: The two prime factors for the location of aluminium smelting industry are:
1. Regular and cheap supply of electricity.2. Assured supply of raw material at
minimum cost.
4. Name the industry which uses limestone as its main raw material.
Ans: Cement and Iron and Steel industry uses limestone as its main raw material.
5. According to their main role, copper smelting comes under which industry?
Ans: Key or basic industries
6. Write one example of joint sector industry.
Ans: Oil industry
7. Name the industry which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain.
Ans: Textile industry is the only industry in the country, which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain which means from raw material to the highest value added
products.
8. Match the following Industries into their correct locations:
COLUMN A LOCATION
(A) Cotton Textile (i) Durgapur
(B) Iron & Steel Plants (ii) Singrauli
(C) Software Parks (iii) Surat
(D) Thermal Power Plant (iv) Noida
Ans: (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
9. What is agglomeration economies?
Ans: Many industries that tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered
by the urban centers like markets and services are known as agglomeration economies.
10. Name the river-basin where jute industries are concentrated in India.
Ans: Hugli river-basin in West Bengal.

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 11. Name the region which has maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
Ans: Chotanagpur plateau region in Jharkhand has maximum concentration of iron
and steel industries.
12. Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth (b) Rapid Urbanisation
(c) Pollution (d) Foreign exchange earning
Ans: (c) Pollution
[Link] oil reserves are limited all over the world. If people continue to extract it at the
present rate, the reserves would last only 35-40 year more. Suggest any one way to solve
this problem.
80

Ans: Drive at a constant and moderate speed as far as possible. Driving at a high speed
or slow speed wastes a lot of fuel.
[Link] of energy in all forms has been rising all over the [Link] is an
urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.
Suggest any one measures to solve this burning problem.
Ans: We can do one bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicle.
15. India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able
to perform to our full potential. Suggest any one measure to get full potential.
Ans: India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world yet, we are not
able to perform to our full potential largely due to high costs and limited availability of
coking coal.
16. Correct the following statement and rewrite.
Bokaro has emerged as the electronic capital of India.
Ans: Bengaluru has emerged as the electronic capital of India.
17. Arrange the following cotton textile industries place in the direction of North to south.
1. Kanpur 2. Indore 3. Coimbatore 4. Madurai
(a)1, 2, 4, 3 (b)1, 2, 3, 4 (c)4, 3, 2, 1 (d)3, 4, 2, 1
Ans: (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
18. Your uncle works in a telephone and computer manufacturing [Link] type of
industry is it?
(a) Iron and Steel (b) Electronics (c) Aluminium (d) Information Technology
Ans: (b) Electronics
19. Suggest any one measure to control industrial pollution in India.
Ans: Minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or
more successive stages.
20. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing
industries. Support the statement with one argument.
Ans: Manufacturing Industries not only help in modernizing agriculture, which forms
the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on
agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
21. Where was the first jute mill in India set up?
Ans: At Rishra near Kolkata.
22. Which of the following public sector steel plants of India is located near a port?
(a) Durgapur (b) Vijaynagar (c) Bhadravati (d) Vishakhapatnam

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 Ans: (d) Vishakhapatnam
23. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Aluminium Refinery (ii) Aluminium Smelter
(iii) Bauxite Quarry (iv) Pitch from a colliery
Options:
A. (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii) B. (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii) C. (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv) D. (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv)
Ans: (B) (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)
24. Which one of the following set up first Jute Mill in India?
A. Seth Hukum Chand B. JRD Tata C. British Government [Link]
Ans: (A) Seth Hukum Chand
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25. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Blast Furnace (ii) Pig Iron (iii) Shaping Metal (iv) Steel Making
Options:
A. (i)- (ii)-(iii)-(iv) B. (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i) C. (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i) D. (i)-(iv)-(iii) -(ii)
Ans: (A) (i)- (ii)-(iii)-(iv)
26. What is the significance of National Thermal Power Corporation?
Ans: NTPC is a major power providing corporations in India.
27. The process of transformation of raw materials in to finished products called----.
Ans: Manufacturing
28. Give two examples of private sector enterprises.
Ans: TISCO, Dabur Industries and Bajaj Auto Ltd.
29. Complete the following table.
Iron and steel plant Raurkela Salem
State ----A? ----B?
Ans: A. Odisha B. Tamilnadu
30. The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in ----.
Ans: 1859
31. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
India has the third largest installed capacity of spindles in the world after Japan in
2011-12.
Ans: India has the second largest installed capacity of spindles in the world after China
in 2011-12.
32. In 2010-11, ------ is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods.
Ans: India
33. Odd one out:
Cotton, Jute, Silk, Iron and steel
Ans: Iron and steel (it is not an agro based industry)
34. National Jute Policy was formulated in ----
Ans: 2005
35. India stands at second place as an exporter of jute after ----in 2010-11
Ans: Bangladesh
36. Arrange the following software technology parks according to its correct sequence
from South to North.
Mohali, Mysuru, Pune, Hyderabad

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 Ans: Mysuru, Hyderabad, Pune, Mohali
37. ----- are required in the ratio of approximately 4:2:1 for making steel.
1. Iron ore, Coking coal and Lime stone 2. Lime stone, Iron ore and Coking coal
3. Coking coal, Iron ore and Lime stone 4. Iron ore, Lime stone and Coking coal
Ans: i. Iron ore, Coking coal and Lime stone
38. Write the full form of SAIL.
Ans: Steel Authority of India Ltd.
39. Which of the following is true?
i. America is the largest producer as well as consumer of steel.
ii. India is the largest producer as well as consumer of steel.
82

iii. China is the largest producer as well as consumer of steel.

iv. England is the largest producer as well as consumer of steel.
Ans: iii. China is the largest producer as well as consumer of steel.
40. What is the full form of NMCC?
Ans: The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.
41. Which of the following is the appropriate statement?
[Link] region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
[Link] plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
[Link] plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
[Link] of these
Ans: i. Chhotanagpur region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.
42. Which is the second most important metallurgical industry in India?
Ans: Aluminium smelting
43. The first cement plant was set up in-----in 1904.
Ans: Chennai
44. Name the electronic capital of India.
Ans: Bangalore
45. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
In 2014, with 86.5 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked second among
the world crude steel producers.
Ans: False. In 2014, with 86.5 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked
fourth among the world crude steel producers.
46. Give two examples of Public sector enterprises.
Ans: BHEL, SAIL
47. Match the following.
i. Software technology park [Link]
ii. Iron and steel plant [Link]
iii. Cotton textile [Link]
iv. Woolen textile D. Hugli
Ans: i. B ii. A iii. D iv. C
48. First successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in ------.
Ans: 1854
49. Choose the correctly matched pair related to the major cotton growing belts.
i. Maharashtra and Gujarat

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 ii. Maharashtra and West Bengal
iii. Gujarat and West Bengal
iv. Gujarat and Punjab
Ans: i. Maharashtra and Gujarat
50. India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world yet, we are able to
perform to our full potential largely due to:
Ans: High costs and limited availability of cokingcoal lower productivity of labour,
irregular supply of energy and poor infrastructure.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Distinguish between an integrated steel plant and a mini steel plant stating three points
83

of distinction.
Ans: i. An integrated steel plant is larger than a mini steel plant. ii. Mini steel plants use
steel scrap and sponge iron while integrated steel plant use basic raw materials, i.e. iron
ore for making steel. iii. Mini steel plant produces mild and alloy steel while integrated
steel plant produces only steel.
2. “Agriculture and industry are complimentary to each other.” Support the statement with
three examples.
Ans: Agriculture and industry both depend on each other1. Agriculture supplies raw
material for the manufacturing industries. Shortage of these raw materials can spell
doom for the industry. 2. Agriculture gets its basic inputs form the manufacturing
industries. 3. In this way agriculture offers a big market for industrial products,
fertilizers, water pumps, tractors, farm equipment etc. 4. In short,agriculture and
industry are not exclusive of each other they move hand in hand.
3. Read the source below and answer the question that follows.
SOURCE-A
‘From the depredation of a lawless Banditti of colliers and their wives, for the wives had
lost their work to spinning engines ... they advanced at first with much insolence,
avowing their intention of cutting to pieces the machine, lately introduced in the woolen
manufacture; which they suppose, if generally adopted, will lessen the demand for
manual labour. The women became clamorous. The men were more open to conviction
and after some expostulation were induced to desist from their purpose and return
peacefully home.’
SOURCE-B
‘It appears that twenty years ago, a brisk trade was carried on in the manufacture of
cloth at Jahanabad and Bihar, which has in the former place entirely ceased, while in
the latter the amount of manufacture is very limited, in consequence of the cheap and
durable goods from Manchester with which the Native manufactures are unable to
compete.’
SOURCE-C
‘The Koshtis, like the weavers of the finer kinds of cloth in other parts of India, have f
allen upon evil times. They are unable to compete with the showy goods, which
Manchester sends in such profusion and they have of late years emigrated in great
numbers, chiefly to Berar,where as day labourers they are able to obtain wages...’
SOURCE-A

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 3 (1) What made the women to make strong protest? Why?
Ans: The introduction of Spinning Jenny, made the women to make strong protest as
they feared they would lose their jobs.
SOURCE-B
3 (2) Give any one main reason for the decline of India’s textile industry, according to
the author.
Ans: Indian textile industry declined because of the cheap and durable goods from b
Manchester (England) which were flooding the Indian markets.
SOURCE-C
3 (3) Why did the Indian cloth market decline?
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Ans: The Indian cloth market declined due to the showy goods that flooded the markets
from Manchester.
4. Why are we not able to perform to our full potential in the iron and steel industry?
Explain any four reasons.
Ans:High cost and limited availability of coking coal. Labour engaged in production has
low productivity. Irregular supply of electricity add up to its problems of production.
Technological development in iron and steel industries is less. Resource allocation for
research and development in production of steel are comparatively very less.
5. What is the main reason of water pollution? How can the industrial pollution of fresh
water be reduced? Suggest three ways.
Ans: Water pollution is caused by the discharge of industrial effluents into the water
bodies. Thermal pollution occurs when hot water from factories and thermal power
plant is drained into rivers and ponds, before cooling. Aquatic life is effected by it.
Rainwater percolates into the soil carrying pollutants to the ground and leading to
contamination of ground water. The major industries causingwater pollution are paper
pulp, textitle, chemical, tanneries, petroleum, refineries and electroplating industries
give out dyes, detergent, acids, salts, heavy metals like lead, synthetic chemicals, plastics
and rubber. Fly ash phospo-gypsum and iron and steel slags are the solid wastes
discharged into the water. Measures to control water pollution are: Minimising the use
of water by reusing or recycling it in two or more stages. Harvesting of rainwater to
meet water needs. Treatment of industrial effluents and hot water before releasing them
in rivers and ponds. Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industries should be
minimised.
6. Explain with examples, how do industries give boost to the agriculture sector.
Ans: Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, but also
reduces the dependence of people on agricultural income by providing jobs in secondary
and tertiary sectors. Agroindustries boost agriculture by increasing its productivity.
They depend on raw materials from agricultural sector. The industries sell their
products like irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides,machines and tools to
the farmers. The manufacturing industries thus make production process efficient.
Industries boost agriculture by transporting the goods produced to various markets.
7. “Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector.” Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: Agriculture boost industrial sector by providing raw materials to agro-based
industries. It depends on industries for irrigations pumps, machines and tools thus

K64
 providing industries to set up production units. Agriculture allows industries to make
production process efficient.
8. Describe three major problems faced by the weaving and processing sectors in cotton
textile industry.
Ans: Most of the production is carried out in fragmented small [Link] supply is
erratic in nature. Machinery used by the weavers is outdated. The labour has low
productivity. Textile industry faces stiff competition from synthetic fibre industry. Much
of the high quality yarn is not used by our weavers as it is exported.
9. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one
another? Explain with examples.
85

Ans: On the basis of capital investment, the industries are classified into small scale
industry and large scale industry. The maximum investment in small scale industry is
upto 1 crore, e.g., toy industry. If the investment is more than one crore rupees, then it is
known as large scale industry, e.g., iron and steel industry.
10. “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain”. Justify the statement.
Ans: The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-relaint and
complete in the value chain i.e. from raw materials to the highest value added products.
The statement can be justified as follows: Textile industry is dependent on agriculture
and provides jobs to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in ginning,
spinning, weaving, dying, packaging, tailoring and sewing. The industry by creating
demand support industries like dyeing. It contributes significantly to industrial
production. Textile industry has been a major foreign exchange earner with increase in
foreign trade across the world. It contributes significantly to the National GDP.
11. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from
each other?
Ans: On the basis of the sources of raw materials used industries are classified into agro-
based industries eg cotton, silk, rubber, tea etc. and mineral based industries, e.g., iron
and steel, cement etc. They are different from each other in the following ways: Agro
based industries are based on agricultural raw materials, e.g. cotton, wool, sugarcane
etc. Mineral based industries use minerals and metals as raw materials e.g. iron ore,
bauxite etc. Agro based industries depend on manufacturing industries for machinery,
tools and implements. On the other hand, mineral based industries feed manufacturing
industries.
12. “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able
to perform to our full potential”. Suggest and explain any three measures to get full
potential.
Ans: Liberalisation and Foreign Direct Investment can encourage our entrepreneurs to
boost production. Resources need to be allocated for research and development to add up
steel production. Apart from this regular supply of coking coal and electricity has to be
dealt with. Productivity of labour needs to be increased through proper training.
Efficient system of roadways and railways has to be maintained for quick delivery of raw
material and finished goods. Moreover domestic demand of iron and steel has to be
increased.

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 13. Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each
other?
Ans: Basic or key industries. These industries supply their raw materials to manufacture
other goods, e.g., iron and steel, copper smelting [Link] industries. These
industries produce goods for direct consumption by consumers, e.g., sugar, fans paper,
toothpaste, etc.
14. ‘Environmental degradation has been everywhere.’ Explain any three values that can
help to prevent environmental degradation.
Ans: Proper water management: Stress on recycling and reuse of water and proper
treatment of discharged water. Control air pollution: Spread awareness to install
86

electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters in [Link] use of oil and gas instead
of coal. Educate people for proper management of solid waste. Separate biodegradable
and non-biodegradable waste and dispose accordingly. Non-biodegradable waste can be
recycled and reused.
15. Analyse any three major challenges faced by the sugar industry in India.
Ans: The [Link] are concentrated in the sugar producing areas because the raw
materials (sugarcane) used by this industry is bulky. To reduce the cost of transporting
sugarcane to sugar industries, they are concentrated in sugarcane producing areas. The
three problems faced by the sugar industry in India are: Old and inefficient methods of
production Delay in transporting sugarcane to the factories The need to make maximum
use of baggase. Above all seasonal nature of the industry is also a major issue.
16. Describe any three major problems faced by cotton textile industry in India.
Ans: Most of the production is carried out in fragmented small units. Power supply is
erratic in nature. Machinery used by the weavers is outdated. The labour has low
productivity. Textile industry faces stiff competition from synthetic fibre industry. Much
of the high quality yarn is not used by our weavers as it is exported.
17. Describe the three major problems faced by iron and steel industry in India.
Ans: High cost and limited availability of coking coal. Labour engaged in production has
low productivity. Irregular supply of electricity add up to its problems of production.
Technological development in iron and steel industries is less. Resource allocation for
research and development in production of steel are comparatively very less.
18. Write any three objectives of the ‘National Jute Policy 2005’.
Ans: (1) Increasing productivity. (2) Growing better quality of jute (3) Higher yield per
hectare and better price for jute goods.
19. Why is India not able to perform to her full potential in iron and steel production?
Explain any three reasons.
Ans: High cost and limited availability of coking coal. Labour engaged in production has
low productivity. Irregular supply of electricity add up to its problems of production.
Technological development in iron and steel industries is less. Resource allocation for
research and development in production of steel are comparatively very less.
20. Classify industries into two categories on the basis of source of raw material used.
Mention two features of each category.
Ans: Agro based industries: These are dependent on raw material produced in the
agricultural sector. These industries are labour intensive. Mineral based: These

K64
 industries produce goods which are used in other industries. These industries are capital
intensive.
21. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment into two categories. Mention two
features of each category.
Ans: Small-scale industry: The maximum investment allowed is 1 [Link] produce
light consumer goods like fans. Large-scale industry: If investment is more than one
crore on any industry then it is known as large scale industry. They produce durable
goods.
22. Classify industries on the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods
into two categories. Mention any two features of each category.
87

Ans: Heavy industry such as iron and steel. Light industries that use light raw-materials
and produce light good such as electrical [Link] produce those goods which are
used by other [Link] satisfy our wants indirectly. The two features of light
industries are: They produce consumer goods like electrical bulbs, sewings machines etc.
They produce goods which satisfy our wants indirectly, e.g. fuse wires.
23. How do industries pollute air? Explain the effects of pollution.
Ans: Industries cause different types of pollution—land, air and [Link] pollution is
caused by the release of undesirable gases and smoke like sulphur dioxide, carbon
monoxide. Air-borne particulate materials like dust, sprays, mist and smoke cause air
pollution. Smoke is emitted from chemical and paper mills, brick kilns, refineries,
smelting plants. Burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories which do not follow
pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects. Air
pollution adversely affects human health, plants and animals. In human beings, air
pollution can cause respiratory problems. Smog in the atmosphere cause respiratory
problems.
24. Describe any three factors that control industrial location.
Ans: Availability of raw materials: Close proximity to raw material,regular supply at
cheap cost are of utmost significance, e.g., concentration of heavy industries in
Chattisgarh. Labour: Modern industry requires both skilled and unskilled labour at low
cost. It also determines the location of industry, e.g., cotton textile industry in
Maharashtra. Capital: Industries are capital intensive. Banks and other financial
institutions, insurance etc. play an important role in setting up production units. Power:
All production units depend on one or other sources of power like coal, oil, gas etc.
Regular and cheap supply of power is required to keep industries operational, e.g., iron
and steel industries near Raniganj and Jharia coal fields. Market:Goods manufactured
need to be sold in the market to maintain the demand and supply.
25. Examine the contribution of manufacturing industry to national economy.
Ans: Manufacturing industries contributes to about 17 per cent to [Link] 2003,
industries have grown at the rate of 9-10 per cent per annum, thus providing
employment. National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up
‘ to improve the productivity of the industries. They have reduced the dependence of
people upon agriculture.
26. Explain three phases in which treatment of industrial effluents can be done.
Ans: Primary treatment by mechanical means like screening, grinding,flocculation and

K64
 sedimentation. Secondary treatment by biological process. Tertiary treatment by
biological, chemical and physical processes. Recycling of water is also included in the
tertiary treatment.
27. Explain any three characteristics of the chemical industry of India.
Ans: Chemical industries in India are fast growing and diversifying. It contributes 3%
of GDP approximately. It is 3rd largest in Asia and occupies the 12th place in the world
in the terms of size. It contains both large scale and small scale manufacturing units.
There has been a rapid growth in the manufacture of organic and inorganic chemicals.
Inorganic chemical industry is more widespread while organic chemical industry is
located near oil refineries or petro-chemical plants.
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28. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A: Where did the workers come from?
In most industrial regions workers came from the districts around. Peasants and
artisans who found no work in the village went to the industrial centres in search of
work. Over 50 per cent workers in the Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the
neighbouring district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of Kanpur got most of their textile
hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur. Most often mill workers moved
between the village and the city, returning to their village homes during harvests and
festivals.
Source B: Dominated industrial production in India
European Managing Agencies, which dominated industrial production in India, were
interested in certain kinds of products. They established tea and coffee plantations,
acquiring land at cheap rates from the colonial government; and they invested in mining,
indigo and jute. Most of these were products required primarily for export trade and not
for sale in India.
Source C: Industries shifted from Yarn to cloth production
From 1906, moreover, the export of Indian yarn to China declined since produce from
Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market. So industrialists in India began
shifting from yarn to cloth [Link] piece-goods production in India doubled
between1900 and 1912.
Source A: Where did the workers come from?
28 (1) Where did the workers come in cotton mills in India during 1900s?
Ans: The workers came from the districts around. Over 50% workers in Bombay cotton
industries in 1911, came from the neighbouring district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of
Kanpur got most of their textile hands from the villages of Kanpur district.
Source B: Dominated industrial production in Indi
28 (2) What helped the European Managing Agencies to dominate the Indian markets?
Ans: The European Managing Agencies established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring
land at cheap rates from the colonial government and they invested in mining, indigo
and jute. Through this activities they dominated the Indian markets.
Source C: Industries shifted from Yarn to cloth production
28 (3) Why did industrialists shift from yarn to cloth production?
Ans: From 1906, the export of Indian yarn to China declined since produce from
Chinese and Japanese mills flooded the Chinese market. So industrialists in India

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 began shifting from yarn to cloth productions.
29. What are software technology parks? State any two points of significance of information
technology industry in India.
Ans: Software Technology Park: Software technology parks provide single window
service and high data communication facility to software [Link] of IT
industry:(i) A major impact of this industry has been on employment generation Upto
31st March, 2005, the IT industry employed over one million persons.(ii) It is
encouraging to know that 30 percent of the people employed in this sector are women.
(iii) This industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last two or three
years because of its fast growing Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector. (iv) The
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continuous growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of IT industry
in India.
30. Explain any four measures to control water pollution created by industries in India.
Ans:Methods to control water pollution:a. Minimizing use of water for processing by
reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.b. Treating hot water and
effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.c. Use of ground water resources also
needs to be regulates legally.d. Strict legal laws to be passed against water pollution.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARK)
1. Analyse the role manufacturing industries in the economic development of a country.
Ans: (a) Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture,which forms the
backbone of Indian economy.(b) Manufacturing industries also reduce the heavy
dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and
tertiary sectors.(c) Industrial development reduces unemployment and poverty.(d) It
also brings down regional disparities.(e) Export of manufactured goods expands trade
and commerce, and brings foreign exchange.(f) Prosperity of our country depends on
transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value and diversifying our
industries.(g) Industrial sector contributes 27% of GDP and manufacturing contributes
17% of GDP.
2. Cotton textile industry has a large concentration in and around Maharashtra and
Gujarat. Give three reasons to support the statement. Mention any two problems faced
by cotton textile industry.
Ans: The major reasons for concentration of cotton textile in Gujarat and Maharashtra
are:(i) Availability of raw material: Due to suitable climate and rich black cotton soil,
cotton is grown in abundance here. This ensures a regular supply of raw material for
the industry.(ii) Humid climate: The humid climate of the region promotes spinning of
thread.(iii) Capital:The rich Parsee community invested heavily in the industry in initial
years which promoted the growth of the industry (iv) Labour: Easy availability of
cheap and abundant labour from the surrounding states.(v) Transport: Well developed
means of transport and port facilities were helpful for the [Link]. Problems Faced
by Industry: (i) Obsolete machinery (ii) Out dated technology (iii) Erratic power supply
(iv) Labour problem (v) Spoiling of the crop (vi) Indian cotton is small staple crop
3. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation
(NTPC) for preserving the natural environment and resources.
Ans:The pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation

K64
 (NTPC) for preserving the natural environment (i) Equipment: Optimum utilisation of
equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment (ii) Waste
Regeneration: Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilization. (iii)
Maintain Ecological Imbalance: Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance
and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation. (iv) Ways to
reduce environmental pollution: Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond
management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.(v) Monitoring:
Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power
stations.
4. How do industries cause water pollution?
90

Ans: a. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and
effluents discharged into rivers. b. Some pollutants are dyes detergents, acids, salts and
heavy metals. c. Pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics, rubber,
etc are discharged by different industries into water bodes.d. How water from factories
and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds, affect adversely aquatic life. e.
Every litre of waste water discharged into rivers/ water bodies degrade the quality of
fresh water.
5. Why does the textile industry occupy a unique position in the Indian economy?
Ans:(i) The textile industry contributes significantly to industrial production, i.e. about
14%. (ii) Wide market and the availability of transport, banking and electricity facilities
in almost all parts of the country have led to the spread of textile mills in different areas
of the country (iii) It is the only industry in India which is self-reliant and complete in
the value chain, i.e. from raw material to the highest value added products. (iv) Textile
industry is a labour intensive industry so a large number of people are employed in
different stages of its working such as weeding, spinning, leaving, dyeing, designing,
printing, tailoring and sewing. (v) The textile industry not only employs lot of people but
also provides a huge amount to country. In rural areas the handloom industry is doing
its work while in the urban areas the textile mills and factories work day, and night.
6. When and where was the first jute mill set up in India? Explain the reasons why most of
the jute mills concentrated in the Hugli river basin.
Ans: (i) Rishra, near Kolkata in 1859. (ii) Factors responsible for location in the Hugli
river basin: • Availability of raw material: The Hugli river basin is rich in extremely
good quality alluvial soil. Hence,jute is grown abundantly in this region and raw
material is available in this region. • Abundant water: For jute industry huge amount of
water is required. Abundant water is supplied from the Hugli river to the jute industries
• Network of transport: Inexpensive water transport is provided by the Hugli river itself.
Moreover, the region is rich in railways, roadways and water transport. This helped in
the growth of jute industry in this region.
7. Describe the significance of Textile industry in India with specific reference to Cotton
industry.
Ans: (a) The Textile Industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy, because it
contributes significantly to industrial production (14 per cent), employment generation
(35 million persons directly–the second largest after agriculture) and foreign exchange
earnings (about 24.6 per cent). (b) It contributes 4 per cent towards GDP. It is the only

K64
 industry in the country, which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain i.e., from
raw material to the highest value added products. (c) In the early years, the Cotton
Textile Industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and
Gujarat. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities,
labour,moist climate, etc. contributed towards its localization. (d) This industry has close
links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers, cotton ball pluckers and workers
engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and
sewing.(e) The industry by creating demands supports many other industries,such as,
chemicals and dyes, mill stores, packaging materials and engineering works.
8. What is the ideal location for sugar mills? Why is this industry ideally suited to the
91

cooperative sector?
Ans: Sugarcane, the raw material used in sugar industry, is bulky, and its sugar content
reduces in haulage and time lag between reaping and sugar production. Therefore, the
ideal location for sugar mills is in close proximity of sugarcane producing areas. The
sugar industry is seasonal in nature and so is ideally suited to the cooperative sector. For
entire year the farmers are engaged in producing sugarcane as it is an annual crop.
When the crop is reaped, the farmers pool together their resources, set up mills within
the sugarcane producing areas and produce sugar. The seasonal nature of the sugar
industry is combated by setting up cooperative societies where farmers share the profits
and losses.
9. Suggest any five measures to control industrial pollution in India.
Ans: 1. Minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or
more successive stages 2. Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements 3.
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in to rivers and ponds.4.
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases. 5. Primary treatment by
mechanical means involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation,
Secondary treatment by biological process, Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical
and physical processes. This Involves recycling of wastewater.
10. Give reasons as to why sugar mills are located near sugarcane producing [Link]
the statement with reasons.
Ans: (i) Sugarcane is a perishable good, it looses its sucrose content if delays in
transportation occurs, so it needs to be in the nearby place.(ii) Sugarcane is bulky and
perishable, so transportation cost reduces.(iii) Near it is to the production area, its
production automatically increases. (iv) In haulage, its sucrose content reduces.
Challenges: (i) Seasonal nature of the industry. (ii) Old and inefficient methods of
production. (iii) Transport delays in reaching cane to the mills. (iv) Need to maximise
the use of bagasse.
11. How do industries pollute environment? Explain with five examples.
Ans: Industries pollute the environment in many ways. They cause pollution in four
ways-air, water, land and noise. Water pollution is caused by the discharge of industrial
effluents into the water bodies with treating it. Dumping of wastes, harmful chemicals
and industrial effluents e.g. packaging, and garbage makes soil useless. It also results in
contamination of groundwater through seepage of rainwater. Air pollution is caused by
release of undesirable gases and smoke like sulphur dioxide,carbon monoxide, air-borne

K64
 particulate materials like dust, sprays, mist and smoke. Smoke is emitted from paper
mills, burning of fossil fuels, smelting plants etc. Factory equipments, generators, saws
cause noise pollution. Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories
and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
12. ‘Agriculture’ and ‘industry’ are complementary to each other”. Explain with five
examples.
Ans: Agriculture and manufacturing industries have a close relationship. Each of them
serves as market for goods produced by the other and in the process raises demand for
each other’s goods. For example, the agro- based industries, like textiles, sugar, etc.,
depend upon agriculture for raw materials. These industries have given a major boost to
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agriculture by raising their demand and hence, productivity. Manufacturing industries

sell the products such as irrigation pumps,fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and
PVC pipes, agricultural machineries and tools, etc., to the farmers. Agriculture serves
as their market and effects their development. These inputs from industries assists
agriculturists in increasing productivity as well as have made the production processes
very efficient. (e) Agro-based industires in India have given boost to agriculture by
raising its productivity.
13. ‘Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s
development’. Examine the statement.
Ans: The production and consumption of iron and steel reflects the level of
industrialization and economic development of a country. All the other industries
depend on it for their machinery. It provides raw material for making industrial
machinery, electrical machinery, defence equipments, bridges, dams, shops, houses, etc.
Vehicles carrying goods from one place to another are also made up of steel. It is
because of these vehicles that our goods are transported from one place to [Link]
is required to manufacture a variety of consumer goods, like bicycles, fans, furniture,
tractors, etc. It is the basic unit of economy. All buildings and infrastructures are
constructed using iron and steel.
14. Explain any five factors affecting the location of an industry.
Ans: Availability of raw materials: Close proximity to raw material,regular supply at
cheap cost are of utmost significance, e.g., concentration of heavy industries in
Chattisgarh. Labour: Modern industry requires both skilled and unskilled labour at
low cost. It also determines the location of industry, e.g., cotton textile industry in
Maharashtra. Capital: Industries are capital intensive. Banks and other financial
institutions, insurance etc. play an important role in setting up production units. Power:
All production units depend on one or other sources of power like coal, oil, gas etc.
Regular and cheap supply of power is required to keep industries operational, e.g., iron
and steel industries near Raniganj and Jharia coal fields. Market: Goods manufactured
need to be sold in the market to maintain the demand and supply.
15. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of development?
Interpret the reason.
Ans: Manufacturing sector refers to the secondary sector of the economy which deals
with production of goods in large quantities with the help of machines, where raw
materials are transformed into more valuable products. Manufacturing has contributed

K64
 to modernisation of agriculture and reduced the dependency on agriculture by
providing jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors. It has helped in reducing the poverty
and unemployment and aimed at reducing the regional disparities by setting up of
industries in rural, backward and tribal areas. Export of industrial goods contributed
to valuable foreign exchange earnings. It has added value to raw materials by
converting them into finished goods. The prosperity of a nation depends upon the
development and diversification of manufacturing. Thus, it has not only made India
self-sufficient but more competitive in terms of international market. It brings down
regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas. industry
sector contributes substantially to GDP.
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16. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early
years? Explain.
Ans: Abundant availability of raw cotton due to favourable climate and presence of
black soil. Huge market for cotton textile in and around Mumbai. Well-developed means
of transport including the port facilities in Mumbai. Cheap labour from the adjoining
areas. Mild and moist climate is favourable for spinning the cotton yarn.
17. What is manufacturing sector? Describe the four types of manufacturing sectors on the
basis of ownership.
Ans: Manufacturing sector refers to the secondary sector of the economy deals with
production of goods in large quantities with the help of machine, which converts the raw
materials into valuable products. On the basis of ownership, manufacturing is classified
into four types: Public sector: Public sector industries are owned and run by
government agencies like BHEL, SAIL etc. Private sector: Private sector industries are
owned and run by individuals or a group of individuals. Example: TISCO, Bajaj Auto
Ltd. Joint sector: Joint sector industries are jointly run by the state and individuals or a
group of individuals. Example: OIL (Oil India Limited) is jointly owned by private and
public sector. Cooperative sector: Cooperative sector industries are owned and run by
the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both or cooperative societies
who pool their resources. They share the profit or loss proportionately, for example,
sugar mills, coir industry and handloom textiles.
18. Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in
and around Chotanagpur Plateau region.
Ans: Iron and steel industry requires iron ore, coal, limestone and manganese which are
available in close proximity. Good network of roads and railway facilitates the
movement of raw materials to iron and steel plants. Rivers provide the cheapest means
of inland water transport for iron and steel goods. Nearness to the city of Kolkata
provides huge market, banking, insurance and financial services for iron and steel
plants. Availability of cheap labour from Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand and
Chhatttisgarh. Hence due to these locational advantages iron and steel plants like
Jamshedpur, Durgapur, Burnpur, Bokaro and Rourkela are confined to the
Chotanagpur region.
19. “The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of
manufacturing industries”. Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: Industries create a variety of goods and thus reduce the dependence of people on

K64
 agriculture and contributes to modernization of agriculture. Industrial development
helps to reduce unemployment and poverty levels by initiating income and high
standard of living. Export of manufactured goods add value to the economy. It expands
trade and commerce and brings to foreign exchange. Industries utilise primary
materials and convert them into articles of utility, thus adding value to the raw
materials. Countries that transform their raw material into a wide variety of furnished
goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its
manufacturing industries.

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CHAPTER 4- LIFEINES OF NATIONAL ECONOMY

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. The North-South corridor of Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways linking:
[Link] and Kanyakumari 2. Silcher and Porbander
3. Goa and Kolkata [Link] and Delhi
Ans: Srinagar and Kanyakumari
2. NHAI stands for:
Ans: National Highway Authority of India
3. Match the following.
i. N.H 7 A. Delhi and Amritsar
ii. N.H 8 B. Rajastan
iii. N.H 1 C. Varanasi and Kanyakumari
iv. N.H 15 D. Delhi and Mumbai
Ans: i. C ii. D iii. A iv. B
4. District roads are maintained by the -------.
Ans: Zila Parishad
5. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Rural roads, which link rural areas and villages with town received special impetus
under the Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana.
Ans: Rural roads, which link rural areas and villages with town received special
impetus under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana.
6. On the basis of the type of material, roads can be classified into -------
Ans: Metalled and unmetalled roads.
7. The length of road per 100 [Link] of area is known as:
Ans: Density of roads
8. Which are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India?
Ans: Railways
9. Which of the following is the largest public sector undertaking in India?
1. The Indian Railways 2. TISCO 3. BHEL [Link]
Ans: The Indian Railways
10. The Indian Railway is recognized into ----- zones.
Ans: 16
11. Arrange the following according to its correct sequence National Waterway N.W No. 1
to NO. 4

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 i. The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and
Champakkara Canals
ii. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia.
iii. Godavari and Krishna river stretches along with Kakinada- Puducherry
stretch of canals
iv. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
Ans: ii, iv, i, iii.
12. ----- network is a new arrival on the transportation map of India.
Ans: Pipeline transport
13. Which is the cheapest means of transport?
95

Ans: Waterways
14. India’s coastline of ----- km.
Ans: 7,516.6
15. Which was the first port developed soon after independsence?
Ans: Kandla in Kuchchh in Gujarat
16. ----- is a tidal port.
Ans: Kandla
17. ----- is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbor.
Ans: Mumbai
18. Which port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub
port of this region?
Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru port
19. Match the following.
i. Marmagoa Port A. Concentrated from Kudremukh.
ii. New Mangalore Port B. Natural harbor and rich hinterland
iii. Kochchi Port C. Lagoon with a natural harbour
iv. Tuticorin Port D. The premier iron ore exporting
Ans: i. D ii. A iii. C iv. B
20. ------------ is one of the oldest artificial ports ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the
volume of trade and cargo.
Ans: Chennai
21. Which is the deepest landlocked and well protected port?
Ans: Vishakhapatnam
22. Name of the port located in Odisha, specializes in the export of iron ore.
Ans: Paradwip port
23. ---- is an inland riverine port.
Ans: Kolkata
24. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on
the-----.
Ans: Kolkata port
25. ---- is the fastest mode of transport.
Ans: Airways
26. The air transport was nationalized in ----.
Ans: 1953

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 27. STD stands for-----.
Ans: Subscriber Trunk Dailing
28. What is the full form of ISD?
Ans: International Subscriber Dailing
29. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
The first train steamed off from Kolkata to Pune in 1863, covering a distance of 34 km.
Ans: False. The first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853, covering a
distance of 34 km.
30. Border Road Organisation was established in ----
Ans: 1960
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31. Complete the following table.

Gauge ----A? Metre Gauge Narrow Gauge
In metres 1.676 1.000 B----?
Ans: A. Broad Gauge B. 0.762 and 0.610
32. Complete the following table with the correct information regarding the distance
between the two inner edges of the railway track.
Railway Gauge Broad Metre Narrow
Gauge Gauge Gauge

Distance between inner A---? 1.00 B---?

edges Metre
Ans: A − 1.676 Metre B − 0.762 and 0.610 Metre
33. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
The television and mobile are two electronic media of mass communication.
Ans: The television and Radio are two electronic media of mass communication
34. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port in order to relieve growing pressure on
Chennai port.
Ans: Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port in order to relieve growing
pressure on Kolkata port.
35. Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation map of India. In the
past, these were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are used for
transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas
fields to refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be
transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.
Analyse the consumer movement information given above, considering one of the
following correct option:
A. Water transport is the cheapest means transport.
B. The waterways are helpful in spreading the Indian commerce and culture.
C. Waterways are the ecofriendly means transport.
D. All of the above
Ans: (D) All of the above
36. Name any two cities of terminal stations connected with National Highway No.7.
Ans: Varanasi and Kanyakumari

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 37. The ........... is the largest public sector undertaking in India.
Ans: Indian Railways
38. What is the major objective to develop Super Highways?
Ans: The main objective to develop Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance
between the four mega cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata with the
development of fast and uninterrupted traffic along six lanes between these cities.
39. Why was the Haldia seaport set up?
Ans: Haldia seaport was set up to decongest the port of Kolkata as a subsidiary port.
40. Why was Jawaharlal Nehru port developed?
Ans:Jawaharlal Nehru port is a subsidiary port mainly developed to decongest the port
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of Mumbai and serve as a hub port for this region.

41. What is the total length of road networks in India?
Ans: Length of road networks: 2.3 million km.
42. Fill with the correct Maintenance Authority in the blank given below in table:
Basis of Difference National highways State highways
Meaning National Highways link all They link a state capital
major cities of entrance Parts with different districts
of country
Maintenance Maintained by (A) - ? Maintained by (B) - ?
Areas of Service They service the need of nation They serve need of states
Ans: (A) Central Public Works Department (CPWD) (B) Public works Department
43. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to Golden
quadrilateral super highways:
Golden Links Number of lanes Number of Maintained
Quadrilateral lanes by
super highways
Delhi,Mumbai,Chennai,Kolkata A----? B----?
Ans: A – Six lanes B – NHAI (National Highway Authority of India)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARK)
1. Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight
and passengers in India.
Ans: Railways have contributed to the development of multifarious activities like
business, sightseeing, pilgrimage and tourism along with the transportation of goods
over long distance. It is an important means of transport for long distance travel with
ease. It has binded the economic life of the country that has accelarated the
development of agriculture and industry by carrying the raw materials to the industries
and distribution of finished goods to the consuming markets.
2. Describe any three features of waterways in India.
Ans: (1) They are the cheapest means of transport for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
(2) They are fuel efficient.
(3) They are an eco-friendly mode of transport, however the slowest means of transport.
3. Describe the significance of tourism as a trade in India.
Ans: Tourism means an activity of visiting places, especially in foreign countries for

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 pleasure. Tourism is known as a trade because of the following reasons. Foreign
tourist’s arrivals have increased over the years. 5.78 million foreign tourists visited
India in 2010. It contributed 64,889 crores as foreign exchange in the year 2010. More
than 15 million people are directly engaged in tourism industry. It helps in the
development of Indian handicrafts and other economic activities. Foreign tourist visits
India for business tourism, adventure tourism,medical tourism, eco-tourism, heritage
tourism, etc.
4. Describe the major problems faced by the road transport in India.
Ans: In terms of volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
About half of the roads are unmetalled and get damaged during the rainy season. The
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number of National Highways is inadequate and are poorly maintained. The roads are
congested in cities and are lacking safety measures. Most of the bridges and culverts are
old and narrow.
5. What is pipeline transportation? Write two merits and demerits of the same.
Ans: Pipeline transport network is the new mode of transport these days. In the past,
pipelines were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are used for
transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas
fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be
transported through a pipeline when converted into [Link]: i. Useful in
transporting liquids and solid slurry from far away [Link]. Subsequent Ginning
costs after laying down the network are minimal iii. It rules out trans-shipment losses or
[Link]: i. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high. ii. Pipelines can burst or can
have leaks
6. Why are metalled roads better than unmetalled roads? What is the role of roads and
national highways in transportation?
Ans: Metalled roads are made of either cement, concrete or even bitumen of coal and
are therefore more durable than unmetalled roads. Unmetalled roads go out of use in
rainy season. They are not [Link] roads play an important role in connecting
strategically important difficult areas and help in the economic development of the area.
National Highways are the primary road system which links various parts of the
country. They provide the backbone of transportation.
7. Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for the fast development.’ Express your
views in favour of this statement.
Ans: The movement of goods and services from the supply location to demand locations
necessitates the need for transport. It widens the market for goods. It allows distant
and remote areas to be linked with urban and developed regions. The development and
improvement of transport have made delivery of goods faster across long distances and
thus reduced cost. Immediate relief during war, natural calamity,famine or flood can
be easily accessed through efficient means of transport.
8. “Means of transport and communication play an important role in the economic
development of the country.” Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: We use different material and services in our daily life. Some of these are available
in our immediate surroundings while other requirements are met by bringing things
from other places. Movement of these goods and services can be over three domains of

K64
 earth. Today the world has converted into a large village with the help of efficient and
fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally
developed communication system. Therefore transport, communication and trade are
complementary to each [Link], India is well linked with rest of the world despite
its vast size diversity, linguistic and socio-cultural plurality.
9. Mention the six mail channels introduced recently to facilitate quick delivery of mails.
Ans: The following are the six mail channels. 1. Rajdhani Channel 2. Metro Channel 3.
Green Channel 4. Business Channel 5. Bulk Mail Channel and 6. Periodical Channel.
10. “India is a land for tourism development”. Comment.
Ans: India has been an excellent place for heritage tourism. It is rich in culture and
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ethnicity. Many tourists come here for adventure in the mountainous regions of
Himachal Pradesh, Uttrakhand, etc. Southern India provides excellent opportunities for
medical tourism, which attracts tourists from the world.
11. “The distribution of roads not uniform in India.” Do you agree? Give reasons to
support your answer.
Ans: India has vast and diverse relief features with high mountains and plateaus which
restrict construction of roads in many area. India is a land of rivers with dissected
tributaries. It is not possible to lay roads in these areas where the rivers often create
havoc during floods. Keeping in view the low volume of passengers and traffic, it is not
economical to lay roads in such areas.
12. “The means of transport and communication complementary to each other.” Elucidate
with three examples.
Ans: Transport and communication provide basic infrastructure for each other to carry
on their process. They create possibilities for investment to upgrade and expand their
services. Communication has widened the horizons of trade far and wide. Transport
had limited access earlier. With the advancement of science and technology the world
has converted into a large village. Communication has widened the scope of
transportation even in the remote areas.
13. “Air travel preferred in the north-eastern states of India.” Examine any three reasons.
Ans: (1) North eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers
where other means of transport cannot be laid.(2) It is marked with dissected relief that
makes it impossible to access the area through other means of transport other than air.
(3) The entire area is covered with dense forest that resists land movement. This area is
often hit by frequent floods. Air travel is thus required. It has a long international
frontier that requires quick response which is possible only through air transport.
14. How can you help the Indian Railways to run the trains as per schedule? Explain.
Ans: keeping the trains tracks clean, clear and well [Link] the pulling of
chains for unnecessary reasons. Avoiding the damage done to the railway property.
15. Describe any three major problems faced by road transport in India.
Ans: (1) In terms of volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
(2) About half of the roads are unmetalled and get damaged during the rainy season.
(3) The number of National Highways is inadequate and are poorly maintained.
(4) The roads are congested in cities and are lacking safety measures.
(5) Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow. (any three)

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 16. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic prosperity.
Support the statement with five arguments.
Ans: Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic
prosperity. No country can survive without international trade because resources are
space bound. Advancement of international trade of a country leads to its economic
prosperity because such a trade provides so many jobs to workers as well as business to
traders. It is through international trade that we earn much of our foreign exchange
which is required for importing many essential goods. Foreign trade helps in transfer of
technology. International trade gives rise to competition. Domestic producers make their
production process efficient to meet the international standards and thus, are able to
100

compete.
17. ‘Roadways have an edge over railways in India.’ Justify the statement with five
arguments.
Ans: Roadways still have an edge over railways in India in the following ways. Roads
are cheaper than railways and are easier to construct and maintain. Roads provide
door-to-door service, therefore the cost of loading and unloading is much less. Road
transport is used as a feeder to other means of transport, i.e. it is a link between railway
stations, airports and seaports. Roads can traverse more dissected and undulating
topography. It can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and can traverse mountains.
Roads are economical is transporting few number of people and smaller amount of
goods over short distances.
18. How is road transport more advantageous than other means of transport for short
distances? Explain with five suitable examples.
Ans: Road transport is economical in transportation of few people and smaller amount
of goods. It reduces cost. Road transport do not need a station or a port (sea port and air
port). It can cover short distances easily and quickly. There are a large variety of
vehicles on the roads, carrying one, two or more than sixty persons. They can negotiate
traffic jams. They provide door to door service. Road transport like rickshaws, bicycles,
autos and scooters can negotiate the narrow and congested lanes and by-lanes and carry
people and goods.
19. “There are some improvements made by the Indian railways in its functioning”. State.
Ans: Construction of new railway lines and extension of additional routes along certain
routes. Electrification of railway network. Introduction of super-fast trains like
Shatabadi, Rajdhani, etc. Computerised reservation of booking and cancellation of
tickets.
20. Describe any three reasons for dense railway network in the North Indian plains.
Ans: (1) Vast level land that is topographically suitable for laying railway lines. (2) High
population density makes it economical to operate.(3) Rich agricultural resources in the
plains require network of railways to sustain economy.
21. “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic
prosperity.” Support the statement with three arguments.
Ans: Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic
prosperity. No country can survive without international trade because resources are
space bound. Advancement of international trade of a country leads to its economic

K64
 prosperity because such a trade provides so many jobs to workers as well as business to
traders. It is through international trade that we earn much of our foreign exchange
which is required for importing many essential goods. Foreign trade helps in transfer of
technology. International trade gives rise to competition. Domestic producers make
their production process efficient to meet the international standards and thus, are able
to compete.
22. Describe the significance of air transport in India giving three points.
Ans: (1) North eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers
where other means of transport cannot be laid. (2) It is marked with dissected relief that
makes it impossible to access the area through other means of transport other than
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air. (3)The entire area is covered with dense forest that resists land movement. This
area is often hit by frequent floods. Air travel is thus required. It has a long
international frontier that requires quick response which is possible only through air
transport.
23. Mention any two inland waterways of India. Write three characteristics of each.
Ans: The two inland waterways of India are: The Brahmaputra River between Sadiya
and Dhubri. The West-Coast Canal in Kerala The characteristics of Brahmaputra
River between Sadiya and Dhubri are:The waterway is 891 km long on river
Brahmaputra. Long cruise tourist vessels make voyages between Sivsagar near
Dibrugarh and Manas wildlife sanctuary near Jogighopa continuously. Thus, making it
a commercially beneficial proposition. Border security force deployed on this inland
prove to be an important base for defence of the [Link] characteristics of West-
Coast Canal in Kerala are: The stretch is 205 km long of the canals of [Link]
waterway provides 24 hours navigation facility in the entire stretch. The backwaters of
Kerala prove to be cheap means of transport attracting tourists.
24. Write any three characteristics of Kandla sea port.
Ans: (1) It is a tidal port. (2) It was the first port developed soon after the Independence
of India in Kuchchh.(3) It was developed to ease the volume of trade from Mumbai port
after the loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition in 1947.(4) It caters to the
convenient handling of imports and exports of granary and industrial belt spreading
from states like Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
and Gujarat. (Any 3)
25. Explain any four merits of pipeline transport in India.
Ans: (1) Solids (when converted into slurry), liquids and gases can be transporte
through pipelines. (2) Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running
costs are minimal.(3) Trans-shipment of losses and delays are ruled out.(4) It is
economical to transport petroleum, natural gas, ferlilizers to interior places of the
country.
26. What is the meaning of road density? Describe any three major problems faced by
road transportation in India.
Ans: In terms of volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate.
About half of the roads are unmetalled and get damaged during the rainy [Link]
number of National Highways is inadequate and are poorly maintained. The roads are
congested in cities and are lacking safety measures. Most of the bridges and culverts are

K64
 old and narrow.
27. Describe any three major problems faced by Indian Railways.
Ans: (1) Passengers travel without ticket.(2) Thefts and damages of railways property.
(3) Unnecessary chain pulling by the passengers cause delays
28. Describe any three features of Indian tourism as a trade.
Ans: Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades with the
bumper increase in foreign tourists. It provides employment and financial support to
local handicrafts and cultural pursuits. India has become a popular destination for
heritage, adventure, medical and business tourism. Indian tourism has achieved the
status of maximum foreign exchange.
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LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARK)

1. ‘Dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite for
national and international trade’. Support the statement with four arguments.
Ans: (1) We use different material and services in our daily life. Some of these are
available in our immediate surroundings while other requirements are met by bringing
things from other places.(2) Movement of these goods and services can be over three
domains of earth. Today the world has converted into a large village with the help of
efficient and fast moving transport.(3) Transport has been able to achieve this with the
help of equally developed communication system. Therefore transport, communication
and trade are complementary to each other.(4) Today, India is well linked with rest of
the world despite its vast size diversity, linguistic and socio-cultural plurality.
2. Mention any four merits and any two demerits of air transport.
Ans: Merits of air transport are:(1) air transport is most comfortable means of
transport. (2) It is the fastest means of transport. (3) Air transport covers long stretches
of mountains, deserts, thick forests and oceanic stretches with great ease.(4) Helicopters
can land and take off from any place. Demerits of air transport are:(1) Air transport is
very expensive. (2) It is often affected by weather phenomenon like fog and strong
currents in upper atmosphere.
3. ‘Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.’ Support
the statement with suitable examples.
Ans: No country can survive without international trade because resources are space
bound. Advancement of international trade of a country leads to its economic
prosperity because such a trade provides so many jobs to workers as well as business to
traders. It is through international trade that we earn much of our foreign exchange
which is required for importing many essential goods. Foreign trade helps in transfer of
technology. International trade gives rise to [Link] producers make their
production process efficient to meet theinternational standards and thus, are able to
compete.
4. ‘Indian railways binds the economic life of the country as well as accelerates the
development of industry and agriculture.’ Justify the statement.
Ans:They are principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers. They help in
multifarious ways like business, sightseeing,along with transportation of goods over
long distances. Economic development of a region depends upon the dense network of
rail transport. They link areas of production with that of consumption, agriculture

K64
 with industry and village with towns and cities. They help in industrial development by
assemblage of raw materials and distribution of finished goods. They help in regional
development. Railways help in the development of all the three sectors of the
economy— primary, secondary and tertiary.
5. Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution
pattern of the railway network in our country.
Ans: The northern plains have dense network of railways due to extensive level land,
agriculturally and industrially productive region and support high density of population
which is favourable for the development of railways. However, the presence of large
number of rivers requires the construction of bridges across the rivers which poses
103

some difficulties. In the hilly regions of the north and the peninsular plateau regions,
railways are constructed through narrow gaps, or tunnels. The Himalayas region has less
network of railways due to rugged terrain, sparse population and lack of economic
opportunities. In the sandy plains of western Rajasthan, swampy regions of Gujarat,
thickly forested regions of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand,construction
of railways is difficult and expensive. Recently,the development of Konkan railway along
the western coast has contribute to the movement of goods and passengers through the
passes and gaps along the Western Ghats to link the most economic region of India.
6. ‘Road transport and rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to
each other.’ Justify the statement.
Ans: Road transport is more suitable for short distances whereas rail transport is more
suitable for long distances. Road transport is economical in transportation of few
persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances whereas rail
transport is more suitable for large number of people and heavy goods. Road transport
is beneficial for perishable goods to be carried by roads in short period of time whereas
non-perishable and bulky are transported by railways for a longer distances. Road
transport increases the efficiency of [Link] transport links the rural areas with
railway stations. The deficiency of railways is compensated by road transport.
7. ‘Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.’ Support the statement with
arguments.
Ans: Roads are cheaper than railways and are easier to construct and maintain. Roads
provide door-to-door service, therefore the cost of loading and unloading is much less.
Road transport is used as a feeder to other means of transport, i.e. it is a link between
railway stations,airports and seaports. Roads can traverse more dissected and
undulating topography. It can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and can traverse
mountains. Roads are economical is transporting few number of people and smaller
amount of goods over short distances.
8. Classify communication services into two categories. Explain main features of each.
Ans: It is the communication between person to person. In this communication, only
personal messages are exchanged. Personal communication is done through mobile
phones, letters, e-mails, post cards, etc. Main features of mass communication: It is the
communication among masses. It provides entertainment as well as awareness about
various national programmes. Mass communication is done through radio, television,
newspapers, magazines, books, films, etc.

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 9. Explain with examples the conditions responsible for uneven distribution pattern of the
railway network in India.
Ans: The northern plains have dense network of railways due to extensive level land,
agriculturally and industrially productive region and support high density of
population which is favourable for the development of railways. However, the presence
of large number of rivers requires the construction of bridges across the rivers which
poses some difficulties. In the hilly regions of the north and the peninsular plateau
regions, railways are constructed through narrow gaps, or tunnels. The Himalayas
region has less network of railways due to rugged terrain, sparse population and lack
of economic [Link] the sandy plains of western Rajasthan, swampy regions of
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Gujarat, thickly forested regions of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand,

construction of railways is difficult and expensive. Recently,the development of Konkan
railway along the western coast has contributed to the movement of goods and
passengers through the passes and gaps along the Western Ghats to link the most
economic region of India.
10. Why is air travel more popular in the north-eastern states of India? Explain.
Ans: North eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers where
other means of transport cannot be laid. It is marked with dissected relief that makes it
impossible to access the area through other means of transport other than air. The
entire area is covered with dense forest that resists land movement. This area is often
hit by frequent floods. Air travel is thus required. It has a long international frontier
that requires quick response which is possible only through air transport.
11. Define the term tourism. Why is tourism known as a trade? Explain.
Ans: Tourism means an activity of visiting places, especially in foreign countries for
pleasure. Tourism is known as a trade because of the following reasons. Foreign
tourist’s arrivals have increased over the years. 5.78 million foreign tourists visited
India in 2010. It contributed 64,889 crores as foreign exchange in the year 2010. More
than 15 million people are directly engaged in tourism industry. It helps in the
development of Indian handicrafts and other economic [Link] tourist visits
India for business tourism, adventure tourism, medical tourism, eco-tourism, heritage
tourism, etc.
12. Explain any five major problems faced by road transport in India.
Ans: (1) The road network is inadequate when volume of traffic and passengers are
taken into consideration.(2) Nearly half of the roads are unmetalled and it limits their
usage during the rainy season. (3) Roadways are highly congested in the cities, with
frequent traffic jams. (4) Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow. (5) The
national highways are inadequate to accommodate increasing vehicles.
13. Write a short note on various kinds of roads in India.
Ans: i. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways: The government has launched a major
road development project Uniting Delhi-Kolkata-Claennai-Mumbai and Delhi and six-
lane super Highways. The North-South corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu and
Kashmir) and Kanniyakumari (Tamil Nadu) and East-West Corridor linking
Silchar(Assam) and Porbander (Gujarat) are part of this project. ii. National
Highways: National highways link extreme parts of the country. These are primary road

K64
 systems and are laid and maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).
iii. State Highways: Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are
known as State Highways. State highways are constructed and maintained by the State
Public Works Department(PWD).iv. District Roads: Roads which connect the district
headquarters with other places of the district are called district roads. These roads are
maintained by the Zila Parishad. v. Rural Roads: Roads which link rural areas and
villages with towns are classified as rural roads. Under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen
Sadak Yojana scheme special provisions are made so that every village in the country is
linked to a major town in the country. vi. Border Roads: Strategically important roads
in the bordering areas of the country are called border roads. Border Roads
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Organisation (BRO) a government of India undertaking constructs and maintains

border roads.
14. Compare and contrast the merits and demerits of Roadways with those of [Link]
India has one of the largest road networks in the world, aggregating to about 2.3 million
km. at present. On what basis roadways have taken an edge over railways? Explain.
Ans: i. Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines and
construction time is also comparatively less. ii. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of
slopes and as such can traverse mountains like the Himalayas, whereas the mountainous
regions are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief, sparse
population and lack of economic opportunities. Likewise, it is difficult to lay railway
lines on the sandy plains in the deserts, swampy or forested tracks. iii. Road transport is
economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over
short distances whereas railways are suitable for transportation of large number of
people and goods in bulk, especially over long [Link]. Roadways provide door-to-
door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower but railways have not
reached everywhere.v. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of
transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and sea ports. On the
other hand railways work as a life line for the economic growth of a country as they
carry raw materials and produced goods from one part of the nation to another on a
large scale.
15. The pace of change has been rapid in modem times and has impacted the ways of
communication as well. In light of the given statement explain the role of a variety of
means of communication that are used in India in the currents times.
Ans: Means of Personal Communication in India: (i) The Indian postal network handles
parcels as well as personal written communications. To facilitate quick delivery of
mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. (ii)
India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia. Excluding urban places more
than two thirds of the villages in India have already been covered with Subscriber
Trunk Dialling, (STD) telephone facility. (iii) All India Radio broadcasts a variety of
programmes in national, regional and local languages for various categories of people .
Doordarshan, the national television channel of India, broadcasts a variety of
programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc. (iv) India publishes a large
number of newspapers and periodicals annually. (v) India is the largest producer of
feature films in the world. It produces short films; video feature films and video short

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 films.
16. Why is road transport mainly preferred in India?
Ans: (i) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography
than rail lines.(ii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can
traverse mountains such as the Himalayas. (iii) Road transport is economical in
transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short
distances.(iv) Roads also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and
unloading is much lower.(v) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other model of
transport and they provide a link between railway stations, airports and seaports.
17. India has one of the largest road networks in the world, aggregating to about 2.3
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18. million km at present. On what basis roadways have taken an edge over railway
Ans: (a) Construction cost of roads is lower than that of railway lines. (b) Roads can
traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography, they can negotiate
higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
(c) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller
amount of goods over short distances.(d) It also provides door- to-door service, thus the
cost of loading and unloading is much lower.(e) Road transport is also used as a feeder
to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air
and sea ports.
19. Explain how tourism plays a significant role in the growth of the economy of our
country.
Ans: (i) Foreign exchange: Foreign tourist’s arrivals in our country witnessed an
increase of 4.5 per cent during the year 2015 as against the year 2014, contributing
1,35,193 crore of foreign exchange in 2015. 8.03 million foreign tourists visited India in
2015.(ii) Employment generation: More than 15 million people are directly engaged in
the tourism industry. This enhances the income of the people. (iii) National integration
and international understanding: Tourism promotes national integration. People
understand the culture and heritage of our country. (iv) Promotes local handicrafts:
Tourist show keen interest in buying local made articles of handicrafts. Thus, local
handicrafts manufactures get a boost and support from tourism of the country.
(v)Types of tourism: Eco tourism, adventure tourism, medical tourism etc.
20. What are the means of communication? How do they create awareness among the
masses and integrate the people? Explain with four examples.
Ans: Communication refers to conveying of messages and ideas between individuals or
to the masses. The means of mass communication are radio, television, media and films.
Every day at regular intervals, we hear or watch the news on the radio and television.
News are given on variety of subjects and topics and people come to know what is
happening in the society, politics and economy. Newspaper also gives news on variety of
subjects like politics, society, financial, sports and international. The news are given in
details (of the day before). They also carry advertisements. India is the largest
producer of feature films in the world. It produces short films, feature films and video
short films also integrate the people. If we see about any unforeseen calamity on
television or read about it in the newspaper, the country stands united to help the
victims.

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 21. Describe the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways.
Ans: (i)The government has launched a major road development project linking Delhi-
Kolkata- Chennai-Mumbai and Delhi by six-lane Super Highway (ii) The North-South
corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu),
and East-West Corridor connecting Silcher (Assam) and Porbander (Gujarat) are
part of this project. (iii) The major objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the
time and distance between the mega cities of India.(iv) The National Highway
Authority of India (NHAI) implements and maintains these super highways.

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CIVICS
CHAPTER 1- POWER-SHARING
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
The minority Dutch-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful.
Ans: The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and
powerful.
2. Complete the following table related to the ethnic composition of Belgium.
Population 59% ----A? 1%
Language Dutch French ----B?
Ans: A. 40% B. German
3. “Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and
education much later. This led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-
speaking communities”. Suggest any one way to solve this problem.
Ans: Open up more educational institutions, small, large and cottage industries, and
also infrastructural development.
4. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Himachal
Pradesh.
Ans: Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana.
5. The major social groups in Sri Lanka are Sinhala-speakers and -----
Ans: Tamil-speakers.
6. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The democratically elected government of Sri Lanka adopted a series of
majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
Reason: The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over
government by virtue of their majority.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

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 (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
7. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in ----
Ans: 1948
8. Which of the following is true?
i. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called “Tamil Sri Lankans”
ii. Forefathers came from India as plantation workers are called “Tamil Indians”.
iii. Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in the north and east of Sri Lanka.
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iv. None of these.

Ans: iii. Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in the north and east of Sri Lanka.
9. Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are:
1. Christian 2. Hindus 3. Muslims 4. Buddhists
Ans: 4. Buddhists
10. In the question given below, there are two statement marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion: (A) The relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities calmness
over time.
Reason: (B): Due to the Government measures, the the leaders of the Sinhala
community felt alienated.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
11. Which of the following is the appropriate demands related to Civil War in Sri Lanka.
1. Struggle for recognition of Sinhala. 2,Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
3. Need of independent Sinhala Eelam. [Link] in opportunities.
Ans: Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
12. Which of the following not associated with accommodation in Belgium.
i. The members of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the
central government.
ii. Many powers have been given to the Central government than the state
governments.
iii. Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation.
iv. Apart from the Centre and State governments, there is a community
government elected by people.
Ans: ii. Many powers have been given to the Central government than the state
governments.
13. Find the incorrect option.

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 i. Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
ii. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of social order
iii. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy
iv. People have no right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
Ans: iv. People have no right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
14. ----- is based on careful calculation of gains and losses.
Ans: Prudential
15. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Tamil as the only official language, thus
disregarding Sinhala.
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Ans: False. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official
language, thus disregarding Tamil.
16. Power can be shared among legislature, executive and judiciary is called horizontal
distribution of power because……
Ans: It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise
different powers.
17. What do you mean by checks and balances?
Ans: Judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive
or law made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and
balances.
18. Examine the significance of vertical division of powers.
Ans: Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government.
19. What do you mean by federal government?
Ans: A general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or
regional level is called federal government.
20. An arrangement is used to give minority communities a fair share in power is called---
Ans: Reserved constituencies
21. A government should be formed by the alliance of different political parties that
represent different ideologies and social groups referred as
Ans: Coalition government
22. Power shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups
is called ----
Ans: Community government
23. A group, such as traders, farmers and industrial workers that tries to influence public
policy and decision making process is called -----
Ans: Pressure groups
24. In which year Sri Lanka became an independent country?
Ans: 1948
25. Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
Ans: Dutch
26. Between 1970 and 1993 Belgians amended their constitution---
(a) four times (b) three times (c) six times (d) five times
Ans: (a) four times

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 27. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion: Sinhala was recognized as only official language of Sri Lanka.
Reason: The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of Sinhala
community.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
28. Fill in the blanks:
The government of Sri Lanka passed an Act in ------- to recognize Sinhala as only ---------
of Sri Lanka.
Ans: 1956, official language
29. Fill in the blanks:
The government formulated ------- policies to favour Sinhala applicants for university
positions and government jobs. All this was done to establish ------of Sinhala community.
Ans: preferential, supremacy
30. Correct the following statement and rewrite.
Between 1980 and 1993, the Belgian leaders amended their constitution 6 times so as to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country.
Ans: Between 1970 and 1993, the Belgian leaders amended their constitution 6 times so as
to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country.
31. Correct the following statement and rewrite.
Srilanka emerged as an independent country in 1950.
Ans: Srilanka emerged as an independent country in 1948.
32. Which community was rich and powerful in Belgium?
A. German speaking B. French speaking C. Dutch speaking D. None of the above
Ans: (C) French speaking
33. Name the third level of government in Belgium.
A. State Govt. B. Central Govt C. Community Government. D. Regional government
Ans: (C) Community government
34. Which one of the following was not a part of majoritarianism measures adopted in Sri
Lanka?
A. Sinhala Supremacy B. Buddhism
C. Sinhala Official Language D. Economic development of ethnic groups
Ans: (D) Economic development of ethnic groups
35. After independence, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of which community?
Ans: After independence in 1948, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of Sinhala

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 community.
36. What is the official religion of Sri Lanka?
Ans: Buddhism is the official religion of Sri Lanka.
37. After independence, -------- witnessed the supremacy of Sinhala community.
Ans: Sri Lanka
38. Write any one prudential reason for which power sharing is desirable.
Ans: It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
39. Which of the reason for power sharing to reduce the possibility of conflict between social
groups?
A. Prudential reason B. Moral reason C. Both A and B D. None of these
Ans: (A) Prudential reason
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[Link] of the following associated to share power among governments at different levels?
A. Vertical Distribution B. Horizontal Distribution
C. National Power Distribution D. None of these
Ans: (A) Vertical Distribution
41. Name the two types of federation.
Ans: 1. Coming together, 2. Holding Together
42. Which one of the following is not a part of vertical power sharing?
A. Central Govt. B. State Govt. C. Local Government D. Executive
Ans: (D) Executive
43. Which country is associated with the principle of majoritorianism led to civil war.
(a) Belgium (b) Sri Lanka (c) Netherlands (d) Germany
Ans: (b) Sri Lanka
44. The ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one _____ community.
Ans: Language
45. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Community government prevails in France, where power may be shared among
different social groups.
Ans: Community government prevails in Belgium, where power may be shared among
different social groups.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Explain how Belgium was able to solve her ethnic problems. Or Highlight the measures
adopted by the Belgium Constitution for the prevention of conflicts in Belgium. Or
Elucidate the three ways by which Belgium has accommodated the existing regional
differences and cultural diversities. Or Describe the system of Accommodation adopted
in Belgium. Or Explain the elements of the Belgian model of power sharing.
Ans: Equal number of ministers: The Government of Belgium has equal number of
Dutch- and French-speaking ministers. This has been done to give equal power to the
majority and the minority language speaking groups. Setting up of Community
Government: A third kind of government, named the community government, is
introduced in addition to the Central and the State Government. This government has
the power regarding cultural, educational and lingual issues. This government
comprises members from all the three communities –Dutch speaking, French-speaking
and German-speaking. Fair share of power: Many powers of the Central government

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 have been given to the state governments of the two regions of the country. The state
governments are not subordinate to the Central government but are independent.
Equal representation: In the State Government of Brussels—the capital city—both the
French- and Dutch-speaking communities have equal representation.
2. Explain how power is shared among between different organs of government.
Or
What is meant by horizontal distribution of power? Mention the advantage of this kind
of power sharing.
Ans: In democracy, power is shared among different organs of government, i.e.
legislature, executive and judiciary through the horizontal distribution of power. It is
so because it allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level to
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exercise different powers. In horizontal division, different organs exercise their power
based on the concept of separation of powers such as legislature makes laws, executive
enforces these laws and judiciary interprets these laws. This results in balance of power
among different organs of government. No organ can exercise unlimited power as each
organ checks the other. Hence, in horizontal division the concept of checks and balance
is followed.
3. “Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united”. Do you agree with the
statement? Why?
Ans: Yes, I agree with the statement. Power sharing makes a country more united.
Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. It is a
good way to ensure the stability of political order as social conflict often leads to
violence and political instability. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. The
concept of democracy is a system of government of the people, by the people and for the
people, which emphasizes on distribution of power among people. It involves sharing
powers with those affected by its exercise and who have to live with its effects, so that
the people would be consulted on how they are to be governed.
4. Describe any three provisions of the act which was passed in Sri Lanka in 1956 to
establish Sinhala supremacy.
Ans: The following are the majoritarian measures adopted by the Sri Lankan
government to establish Sinhala supremacy. In the year 1956, an act was passed, which
established Sinhala as the official language to be used in Sri Lanka disregarding the
minority group of Tamils. The passing of this act created a feeling of alienation among
the minority group, i.e. Sri Lankan Tamils and they started to feel left-out from the
society. The government then started adopting and formulating government policies
that favoured the Sinhala people in government jobs and for university positions, which
made the Sri Lankan Tamils feel ousted. The Sri Lankan Government further
proclaimed that they shall foster and protect only Buddhism as their Sate religion and
refused to cater to any other religion disregarding the religion of Sri Lankan Tamils.
5. “Belgium and Sri Lanka dealt with power sharing differently”. Support the statement
with arguments.
Ans: Belgium produced an ideal example of democratic system. It adopted the policy of
accommodation of social and ethnics divisions. On the other hand, Sri Lanka also
adopted democratic system but followed majoritarian policies. Under the Belgium

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 model of democracy, power was shared among two ethnic groups. Sri Lanka favoured
the interests of the majority Sinhala community. In Belgium, both the groups had equal
share in working of government but in Sri Lanka the minority community was isolated.
To maintain political stability and unity, equal representation was provided to both the
groups. Apart from that, community government of both the ethnic groups also existed
at the local [Link] Lanka, however, had no such arrangement. Belgium constitution
was amended four times before arriving at a final draft to prevent civil strife. In Sri
Lanka, majoritarianism led to civil war for twenty long years.
6. Describe the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka.
Ans: (i) Sri Lanka has a diverse population. The major social groups are the Sinhala-
speakers (74%) and the Tamil-speakers (18%). Among Tamils there are two subgroups.
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Tamil natives of the country are called ‘Sri Lankan Tamils’ (13%). (ii) The rest, whose
forefathers came from India as plantation workers during colonial period, are called
‘Indian Tamils’. (iii) Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are Buddhists, while most of
the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil
and Sinhala.
7. What led to the tension between the Dutch-speaking and the French-speaking
communities of Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
Ans: (i) The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful.
This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic
development and education much later. (ii) This led to tensions between the Dutch-
speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s. (iii) The
tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a
special problem: the Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a
minority in the capital.
8. “Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens”. Support the
statement with arguments.
Ans: (a) Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social
differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite
plus point of democratic regimes. (b) But the example of Sri Lanka exhibits that a
democracy must fulfil two conditions in order to achieve this outcome. That democracy
is not simply rule by majority opinion. (c) The majority always needs to work with the
minority so that governments function to represent the general view. That rule by
majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or
linguistic group, etc.
9. Describe the ethnic composition of Belgium.
Ans: Of the country’s total population, 59% lives in the Flemish region and speaks
Dutch language. Another 40% people live in the Wallonia region and speak French.
Remaining 1% of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80% people
speak French while while 20% speak Dutch.
10. “As Indian federation is ‘holding together’ federation, all States in the Indian Union do
not have identical powers.” Support your answer with two suitable examples.
Ans: (i) Some States enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir has its own
Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this State

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 without the approval of the State Assembly. Indians who are not permanent residents
of this State cannot buy land or house here. Similar special provisions exist for some
other States of India as well. (ii) There are some units of the Indian Union which enjoy
very little power. These are areas which are too small to become an independent State
but which could not be merged with any of the existing States. These areas, like
Chandigarh, or Lakshadweep or the capital city of Delhi, are called Union Territories.
These territories do not have the powers of a State. The Central Government has special
powers in running these areas.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. What is majoritarianism? How has it increased the feelings of alienation among Sri
Lankan Tamils? Explain with examples.
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Ans: Majoritarianism is a concept which signifies a belief that the majority community
should be to rule a country in whichever way it wants. In this type of rule, the majority
community disregards the wishes and needs of the minority community. The
majoritarian concept has increased the strong feelings of alienation among Sri Lankan
Tamils after a series of majoritarian measures adopted by the democratically-elected
government in Sri Lanka after its independence in 1948 to establish Sinhala Supremacy.
In 1956, an act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, thus
disregarding Tamil. The Government followed preferential policies that favoured
Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution
advocated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
2. Describe the demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their demands?
Ans: The following were the demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. Recognition of Tamil
language and that Tamil should be given equal status with that of the Sinhala language
and should be added as an official language. There should be no discrimination between
the Sri Lankan Tamils and Sinhala residents of Sri Lanka in government jobs and
university posts. Their religion should be equally respected with that of Buddhism and
they should be given equal political rights. They struggled for their demands in the
following ways. By 1980, several political organizations were formed demanding an
independent Tamil state. Sri Lankan Tamils launched struggles for the fulfillment of
their rights. As a result, a civil war was proclaimed and thousands of people were killed
when their legitimate demands were denied by the Sri Lankan government.
3. Describe the two reasons as to why power sharing is desirable.
Ans: (1) Prudential reason: Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict
between social groups. It is a good way to ensure the stability of political order as social
conflict often leads to violence and political stability. (2) Moral Reason: Power sharing
is the very spirit of democracy. The concept of democracy is a system of government of
the people, by the people and for the people, which emphasizes on distribution of power
among people. It involves sharing powers with those affected by its exercise and who
have to live its effects, so that the people would be consulted on how they are to be
governed.
4. Write a short note about different forms of power-sharing.
Ans: 1. Among different organs of government: Different organs of government to be
placed at the same level to exercise different powers. In horizontal distribution of power

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 sharing, different organs exercise their power based on the concept of separation of
powers such as legislature makes laws, executive enforces these laws and judiciary
interprets these laws. This results in balance of power among different organs of
government and none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
2. Among different levels of government: Levels of government to be placed at the
different level to exercise different powers. In the federal division, power can be
extended to levels of government lower than the state Government, such as the
Municipality and Panchayat. In this type of vertical division of powers, each level
exercise special powers.3. Community Government Power shared among different
social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups is called Community
government. 4. Coalition government: A government should be formed by the alliance
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of different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups
referred as Coalition government.5. Pressure groups: A group, such as traders, farmers
and industrial workers that tries to influence public policy and decision making process
is called Pressure groups.
5. Distinguish between the power sharing model accepted by Belgium and Sri Lanka.
Ans:
Belgium Sri Lanka
The Belgian leaders realised that the The majority community of Sinhala
unity of the country can be wanted to force its domination over the
maintained by respecting the minority community of Tamils.
feelings and interests of different
regions and communities.
They shared equal powers with all They refused to share the power.
the communities.
The government enables every The majority rule divided the different
community to live together and communities which resulted in civil
avoid civil war. war.
A secular country with no state Buddhism is the only official religion.
religion.
There is a community government The government follows preferential
to look after the issues related to policies to favour Sinhala in university
culture, education and language. position and government jobs.
6. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give
the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official
language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore,
there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other
languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an
examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the
examination in any of these languages. States too have their own official [Link]
of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned State.
Unlike Sri Lanka,the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in
spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official

K64
 purpose was to stop in 1965. However,many non-Hindi speaking States demanded that
the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The
Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with
Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-
speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government o
of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on
States where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian
political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself
in. (1) How many official languages recognised as scheduled Languages by the
Constitution? (2) How does Constitution of India safeguard the other language (3) How
does India avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in?
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Ans: (1) There are 22 Languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the

Constitution. (2) The Constitution of India did not give the status of national language to
any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. States too have their
own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official
language of the concerned state. Although only 40% of Indians speak Hindi. Therefore
the constitution of India safeguards the other languages and recognised 22 languages as
the scheduled languages. (3) Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a
very cautious altitude in spreading the use of Hindi. Therefore government of India
agreed to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Although,
promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India.
Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on states
where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political
leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
CHAPTER-2 FEDERALISM
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. What is unitary form of government?
Ans: A state governed as a single entity in which the central government is ultimately
supreme is called unitary form of government.
2. What do you mean by federal form of government?
Or
What do you mean by federalism?
Ans: A federal system of government is one that divides the powers of government
between the national (federal) government and state and local governments.
3. Why central government is more powerful than state government?
Ans: Central government is elected by the whole country. It has the power to appoint
the governor of the states as well it can also make the major changes in the
appointment of the various Chief Justice of India and other judges in the judicial
system of India.
4. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Under the unitary system, the central government cannot order the provincial or the
local government.
Ans: Under the federal system, the central government cannot order the provincial or
the local government.

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 5. Education is included in which List?
Ans: Concurrent List
6. Which of the following subject included in Union List?
i. Currency ii. Banking iii. Foreign affairs iv. All of these
Ans: All of these
7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion: The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally
guaranteed.
Reason: The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified
in the constitution.
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(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
8. Give two examples of ‘coming together federation’.
Ans: U.S.A, Switzerland
9. Arrange the following languages on the basis of most proportion of speakers.
Bengali, Hindi, Marathi, Telugu
Ans: Hindi (41.3%), Bengali (8.11%), Telugu (7.19%), Marathi (6.99%)
10. Which of the following is included in ‘holding together’ federation?
i. India ii. Australia iii. U.S.A iv. None of these
Ans: India
11. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion: All states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers
Reason: India follows holding together form of federation
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
12. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local
government is called -----.
Ans: Decentralisation
13. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion: The areas like Chandigarh,Lakshadweep,Delhi are called Union Territories.
Reason: These are areas which are too small to become an independent state.

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 (a)Both assertion and reason are true,and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
14. ----- has been created in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
Ans: State Election Commission
15. Atleast----- of all positions are reserved for women.
Ans: One-third
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16. Rural local government is popularly known by----

Ans: Panchayati raj
17. True or false:
Each village, or a group of villages in some States has a Gram Panchayat.
Ans: True
18. What is Gram Panchayat?
Ans: A council consisting of several ward members, often called panch and a president
or sarpanch is called Gram Panchayat.
19. All the voters in the village are the members of -----.
Ans: Gram Sabha
20. A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form is usually called—.
Ans: A Panchayat Samiti or block or mandal
21. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district together constitute----
Ans: Zilla (district) parishad
22. ------ is the political head of the Zilla Parishad.
Ans: Zilla Parishad Chairperson
23. Local government bodies in towns called-----.
Ans: Municipalities
24. Local government bodies in big cities called----
Ans: Municipal Corporations
25. Who is the political head of municipality?
Ans: Municipal Chairperson
26. Who is the head of Municipal Corporation?
Ans: Mayor
27. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
Under the unitary form of government, state government has powers of its own for
which it is not answerable to the central government.
Ans: False. Under the federal form of government, state government has powers of its
own for which it is not answerable to the central government.
28. The area over which someone has legal authority is called-----.
Ans: Jurisdiction
29. The Parliament cannot on its own change the constitutional arrangement. How it
should be done?

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 Ans: Any change in the constitutional arrangements, it has to be first passed by both
the Houses of Parliament with atleast two-thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by
the legislatures of atleast half of the total states.
30. What is ‘residuary subject’?
Ans: Subjects which are not present in any of the lists mentioned in the constitution are
known as ‘residuary subject’. Example E-commerce,computer software etc.
31. Jurisdiction refers to the area over which someone has legal authority. What does ‘the
area’ in the above sentence really mean?
Ans: Geographical boundaries or certain kinds of subjects.
32. ‘Police, trade agriculture etc included in state list’. Give reason.
Ans: The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned
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in the State List.

33. Defense, currency, banking etc are included in union list because…
Ans: We need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
34. Examine the significance of Concurrent List.
Ans: This include subjects of common interest to both Union and State governments
35. Find out the error in the following sentence and correct it.
The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level
of government.
Ans: The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by
one level of government.
36. When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local
government, it is called----
(a) Distribution (b) Centralisation (c) Reorganisation (d) Decentralisation
Ans: (d) Decentralisation
37. After 1990, there was the rise of regional political parties as well as the beginning of era
of .......... at the centre.
Ans: Coalition Governments
38. In which Schedule of the Indian Constitution are the 22 Scheduled languages included:
(a) Tenth Schedule (b) Eighth Schedule (c) Twelfth Schedule (d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b) Eighth Schedule
39. What makes India a country with a United federation?
Ans: Rigid constitution, written constitution and independent judiciary.
40. Who has the special powers in administering the Union Territories of India?
Ans: Central Government
41. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local
government, it is called decentralisation. State whether the statement True or False. If
false, correct the statement.
Ans: True
42. How many seats are reserved for women in the local bodies in India?
Ans: At least one-third of the seats are reserved for women in the local bodies in India.
43. Name any two subjects which are included in the Union List.
Ans: Foreign affairs and defence are included in the Union List.
44. What is the official post for the chairperson of a municipal corporation?

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 Ans: Mayor is the official post for the chairperson of a municipal corporation.
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (B): A big country divides power between constituent states and national
government.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
46. Under vertical distribution of power, power is shared among different organs of the
government.
Ans: Under horizontal distribution of power, power is shared among different organs
of the government.
47. Match the following items given in column A with those in Column B. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Column A Column B
A. Union of India 1. Prime Minister
B. State 2. Sarpanch
C. Municipal Corporation 3. Governor
D. Gram Panchayat 4. Mayor
Ans: A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
48. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has not its own
jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
Ans: Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own
jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
49. Courts cannot interpret the constitution and also cannot exercise of their powers of
different levels of government.
Ans: Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different
levels of government.
50. The state governments are required to share some power and ..........with local
governments bodies.
Ans: revenue
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Define the term ‘federalism’.
Ans: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a
central authority and various constituent units of the country. Both these levels of the
government the central and the state—enjoy their powers independent of each other.
2. Distinguish between Unitary system and federal system.
Ans: Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-

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 units are subordinate to the central [Link] central government can pass on
orders to the provincial or the local government. In federal system, government and its
powers are divided at Union and State level, in some countries even at local self
government level. In this system, the central government cannot order the state
government to do something. In federal system State government has powers of its own
for which it is not answerable to the central government. Both these governments are
separately answerable to the people.
3. “Five changes towards decentralization brought in the Constitution after the
amendments made in 1992”. Comment.
Ans: It was made constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local
government bodies. Seats were reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled
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Tribes (STs) and Other Backward communities (OBCs) in the elected bodies. Women
were given one-third representation. An independent institution, called state election
commission, was created to conduct local body elections. State governments were
required to share this power and revenue with local bodies.
4. Describe the vertical division of power giving example from India.
Ans: The power shared among the different levels of the government is known as the
vertical distribution of power. It involves higher and lower levels of government. These
levels are the Union government, the State government and the Local government. In
India, the Union government is at the highest level. The government at the provincial or
regional level is the State government. The Indian Constitution has further laid down
the provision of distribution of power. This division of power is further extended to the
levels of the government lower than the state governments. They are also called
Municipal Corporations and the Municipalities in urban areas and Panchayati Raj in
rural areas. Each level of the government exercises its power. There is no specification
of the system of checks and balances. Each level has its own powers and areas of
jurisdiction and no level can interfere in each other’s functioning. Such an arrangement
ensures deepening of democracy.
5. Write a short note about the language policy of India.
Ans: Indian constitution did not give the status of national language to any one
language. Hindi was recognised as the official language. i. Besides Hindi, there are 21
other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. ii. States have
their own official languages and much of the government work takes place in the official
language of the concerned State. iii. A very cautious attitude has been adopted by the
Indian leaders in spreading the use of Hindi. iv. According to constitution the use of
English for official purposes was to stop in 1965 which was not liked by some of the
states. So the central government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English
along with Hindi as official language.
6. Describe the main features of the Centre-State relations in the federation of India.
Ans: (i) For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the
States. In those days, the Central Government would often misuse the Constitution to
dismiss the State governments that were controlled by rival parties. (ii)The period of
1990 saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country. This was
also the beginning of the era of Coalition Governments at the Centre.(iii) Since no single

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 party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into
an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government
at the Centre.
7. “The powers divided between the states and centre”. Support the statement with
examples.
Ans: (i) The three-fold distribution of legislative powers:(a) Union list: It consists of 100
subjects. It includes subjects of national importance such defence of the country, foreign
affairs, banking, communication and currency. (b) State list: It consists of 61 subjects.
It contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation. (c) Concurrent list: It consists of 52 subjects It includes
subjects of common interest to both such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage,
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adoption and succession. (ii) Union Government can make laws on the subjects which
are not covered under these lists. The name has been given to such subjects is residuary
subjects.
8. What are the steps taken by our Constitution to safeguard the different languages?
Ans: Our Constitution identified Hindi as the official language but took many steps to
safeguard the other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised
as scheduled languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted
for the central government positions may take the examination in any of the languages.
States also have their own official languages, and most of the government work takes
place in the official language of the concerned state.
9. What are the factors besides politics keep the federations united?
Ans: Besides politics other factors that keep federations united are:Power sharing
arrangements between the central and state governments, Independent role of
judiciary, Language ethnicity,Response to conflicting claims and Active participation
of the people.
10. Why does the exact balance of power between the central and the state governments vary
from one federation to another? Explain with two examples.
Ans: There are two kinds or two ways in which federations have been formed. a. The
first example is where independent states come together on their own to form a bigger
unit. They, by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity, can increase their security.
This type of coming together federations include USA, Switzerland and Australia. In
this first category, all the constituent states usually have equal powers and are strong
the federal government. b. The second category is where large country decides to divide
its powers between the constituent states and the national government. India, Spain and
Belgium are examples of this kind of holding together federations. In this second
category, the central government is more powerful vis-a-vis the states. Very often
different constituted units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units may be
granted special powers.
11. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A: Union List
It includes subjects of defense of the country, foreign affairs,banking, communications
and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these
matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating

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 to the subjects in the Union List.
Source B: State List
It contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the
subjects the State List.
Source C: Concurrent List
Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as
well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage,
adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make
laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law
made by the Union Government will prevail.
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Source A: Union List

11 (1) How many items are listed in the Union List?
Ans: There are 100 numbered items listed in the Union List (before 97 numbered items
were listed).These include subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign
affairs, banking, communications and currency.
Source B: State List
11 (2) Which kind of subjects are listed in the state list?
Ans: Subject like police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation are listed in State
List. It is of state and local importance.
Source C: Concurrent List
11 (3) Who makes laws in the concurrent list? It conflict occurs then what happen in
the List?
Ans: Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects
mentioned in the Concurrent List. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made
by the Union Government will prevail.
12. What is the difference between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat?
Ans: Gram Panchayat is a council consisting of several ward members often called
panch and a President or Sarpanch. It is the decision making body for the village. The
Panchayat works under the overall supervision of the Gram Sabha. All the voters in
the village are its members. It has to meet at least twice or thrice in a year to approve
the annual budget of the gram panchayat and to review the performance.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Explain the threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government
and the State Governments.
Ans: Legislative powers are divided between the Union government and the State
Governments by the Constitution of India. The Constitution is the supreme power in
the country and the legislative powers are divided into various areas of government
jurisdiction into three lists. The Union List: The Union List is given in Seventh Schedule
in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate. It
contains areas like defense, foreign affairs, currency and communications. The State
List: The State List is also in the Seventh Schedule of the constitution containing
subjects like social service, police and Health,which are under the jurisdiction of the
state government. Only state legislature can pass laws on these subjects. The

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 Concurrent List: The Concurrent List contains items like criminal law, forests,
population control in which both parliament and state legislature can pass laws.
However, in case of any conflict arising between the laws made by the parliament and
the laws made by the state legislature, the laws made by the parliament will prevail.
2. The creation of linguistic states was the first and the major test of democratic politics in
our country. Justify the statement.
Ans: After 1947, the boundaries of several old states of India were proposed to be
changed to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same state. It
was felt that it would case administrative constraints also. Some states like Nagaland
were not created on the basis of language but because of their distinct culture, ethnicity
and geography. When the demand for the formation of linguistic states rose, some
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leaders feared that it would again lead to disintegration. This idea was thus resisted for
some time fearing any further tension or conflict within the country. But when the
actual creation of states was done on the basis of language, it so proved that the country
was more united. This process did away with all fears and tension. Thus, the framing of
the language policy was the test for Indian federation. It inspired the confidence in
different language speaking people that no language will be imposed on them. In a way
Language policy has strengthened the unity and integrity of India.
3. How has federalism succeeded in India? What policies adopted by India have ensured
this success?
Or
Which five provisions of Indian Constitution make India a full-fledged federation?
Or
Explain any four features of federalism.
Ans: Two or more levels of government: We have a federal system whereby the
constitution has more than two tiers of the government, [Link] Union Government, State
Governments and Local [Link] implies that there are more than two levels of
government administration among which powers are divided and duties are given.
Three Lists: Union List deals with the issues relating to the Centre, State List deals with
the issues relating to the States and Concurrent List deals with the matters of both the
Centre and the States. Rigid Constitution:The Government of India is governed by the
Constitution of India and it is considered the Supreme Power in the Country. It is not an
easy task to amend the constitution. For a constitutional provision to be amended, it
requires ratification by half of the State Legislatures, failing which the Constitution
cannot be amended. Bicameral Legislature: India has a bicameral legislature which
means that the Parliament consists of two houses, viz, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha. Financial Autonomy: The revenue sources of both the Centre and States have
been clearly defined, that ensures financial autonomy to both the Centre and the States.
Independent Judiciary: Independent judiciary is the essence of federal government.
Here, courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of the different
levels of government.
4. Explain democratic policies adopted by Government of India which made it a
successful federation.
Ans: The powers of the central and state governments have been clearly separated

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 under the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. It removes the possibility of any type of
interference in the functioning of the central and state governments. A three-tier system
of governance has been approved under the Union, State and Local governments. They
govern the people at their respective levels. The fundamental structure of the Indian
Constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by the [Link] amendment in the
Constitution needs the approval of both the houses of the Parliament and at least half of
the total states. The ources of income of different levels of the government has been
clearly stated in the Constitution to avoid any conflict.
5. Which way does the language policy in India help our country avoid the situation that
Sri Lanka is in today?
Ans: Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language.
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Although Hindi was identified as the official language, there were many safeguards to
protect other languages. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official
purpose was to stop in 1965. However, many non- Hindi speaking states demanded that
the use of English should continue. The Central government decided to continue the use
of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Hindi is not imposed on states where
people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders
helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Shri Lanka finds itself in. In Sri
Lanka, the major social groups are the Sinhala- speakers (74%) and the Tamil speakers
(18%). In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language,
thus disregarding Tamil. Due to this, and other reasons, the relations between the
Sinhala and the Tamil communities got strained over time.
6. What makes India a federation?
Ans: i. The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers
between the Union government and the State governments in the threelists—Union,
State and Concurrent lists. ii. Sources of revenue for each level of government are
clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. iii. This sharing of power is basic to
the structure of the Constitution, and it cannot be changed by Parliament; it has to be
ratified by at least half of the state [Link]. In a federation, judiciary solves the
disputes between different levels of government. In any such case of a dispute, the High
Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.
7. Assess the need, impact and difficulties of local government.
Ans: Need: 1. There are a number of problems and issues that are best settled at the
local level because people have a better knowledge about their problems in their local
area. 2. It helps to initiate the process of direct decision making. 3. It helps to inculcate
the habit of democratic participation. 4. It is the best way to realize local self
government. Impact: 1. Constitutional status for local government hashelped to deepen
democracy. 2. It has increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy.
Difficulties:1. Gram Sabhas are not held regularly 2. Most state governments have not
transferred significant powers to local government. 3. State governments do not
provide adequate resources.
CHAPTER 3- POLITICAL PARTIES
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Write any two regional parties in West Bengal.

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 Ans: 1. Forward Bloc 2. Revolutionary Socialist Party 3. Trinamool Congress (any 2)
2. Complete the following table.
State ---A? Punjab Haryana
Regional party Biju Janata Dal Shiromani Akali Dal ---B?
Ans: A. Odisha B. Indian National Lok Dal
3. What are the two regional parties in Uttar Pradesh?
Ans: 1. Rashtriya Lok Dal 2. Samajwadi Party
4. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Lok Jan Shakti and Rashtriya Janata Dal are the two regional parties in Jharkhand.
Ans: Lok Jan Shakti and Rashtriya Janata Dal are the two regional parties in Bihar.
5. ----- is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the
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government.
Ans: A political party
6. Prejudice in favour of a particular cause, bias is called---
Or
A tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue is called -----.
Ans: Partisanship
7. A person who is strongly committed to a party, group or fraction is called -----.
Ans: Partisan
8. Write any two regional parties in Jammu & Kashmir.
Ans: 1. Jammu & Kashmir National Panthers party 2. Jammu & Kashmir people’s
Democratic Party 3. Jammu & Kashmir National Conference (any 2)
9. Which of the following is included in Tamil Nadu regional parties?
i. Indian Federal Democratic Party and Muslim League
ii. All India Anna DMK and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
iii. Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress
iv. Lok Jan Shakti and Janata Dal (U)
Ans: All India Anna DMK and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
10. What are the three components of a political party?
Ans: The leaders, the active members and the followers
11. Which of the following is true?
i. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
ii. Laws are debated and passed in the executive.
iii. Laws are debated and passed in the judiciary.
iv. None of these.
Ans: i. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
12. Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of ------ to the parties in power.
Ans: Opposition
13. More than ----- parties are registered with The Election Commission in India.
Ans: 750
14. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): We cannot consider one-party system as a good option.
Reason (B) :One-party system is democratic option.

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 (a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
15. Indian National Congress was formed in-----.
Ans: 1885
16. Under the leadership of ----, the party sought to build a modern secular democratic
republic in India.
Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru
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17. What is the full form of INC?

Ans: Indian National Congress
18. Bharatiya Janata Party founded in ----.
Ans: 1980
19. Bharatiya Janata Party founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile-----.
Ans: Bharatiya Jana Sangh
20. Bahujan Samaj party was formed in ----.
Ans: 1984
21. Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj party?
Ans: Kanshi Ram
22. Communist Party of India (Marxist) founded in -----.
Ans: 1964
23. Communist Party of India(CPI) formed in---
Ans: 1925
24. Nationalist Congress Party formed in-----
Ans: 1999
25. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
In India there were major alliances or coalition in 2014 parliamentary elections-The
National Democratic Alliance, The United Progressive Alliance and The Baratiya
Janatha Party.
Ans: False. In India there were major alliances or coalition in 2004 parliamentary
elections-The National Democratic Alliance, The United Progressive Alliance and The
Left Front.
26. What is the criteria for a party recognized as a State Party?
Ans: A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in an election to the Legislative
Assembly of a State and wins atleast two seats.
27. What is the criteria for a party recognized as a National Party?
Ans: A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or
Assembly elections in four states and wins atleast four seats in the Lok Sabha.
28. What do you mean by affidavit?
Ans: A signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn
statement regarding her personal information.
29. Give two examples of Two-party system.

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 Ans: U.S.A and U.K
30. Who allots a ‘symbol’ to the political parties
Ans: The Election Commission allots a symbol to the political parties.
31. Complete the following table with the correct information regarding Indian national
congress.
Political party Foundation Year Alliance Election symbol
INC ---A? ---B? Right Hand
Ans: A-1885 B-United progressive alliance
32. _____ has officially banned wall writing by parties during election times.
Ans: Election Commission
33. Which one country has one-party system?
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Ans: China
34. All the major political parties in the parliament, formed a Seven Party Alliance (SPA)
and called for a four-day strike in the country’s capital. This protest soon turned into
an indefinite strike in which Maoist Insurgents and various other organisations joined
hands.
Analyse the above given statement and find which among the following country is
talking about?
A. China B. Bolivia C. Nepal D. Sri Lanka
Ans: (C) Nepal
35. _____ is the upper house of India’s bicameral parliament.
Ans: Rajya Sabha
36. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was launched on 26th January 1990 under the
leadership of Kanshi Ram.
Ans: All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was launched on 1 st
January 1998 under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee.
37. True or false: Indian National Congress was founded in 1785 and is one of the oldest
political parties of the world.
Ans: False. Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 and is one of the oldest
parties of the world.
38. _____ prevents the elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties, especially after
elections.
Ans: Anti-Defection Law
39. Arrange political parties according to their formation dates in increasing order:
(i) BSP (ii) BJP (iii) INC (iv) CPI
(a) i—iv—iii--ii (b) iii—iv—i—ii (c) iv—i—ii—iv (d) iii—iv—ii—i
Ans: (d) iii—iv—ii—i
40. In which year did the Communist Party of India split into two parties?
Ans: 1964
41. Bhartiya Janta Party was formerly called .....
Ans: Bhartiya Jana Sangh
42. Arrange political parties according to their formation dates in increasing order:
(i) BSP (ii) BJP (iii) INC (iv) CPI

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 (a) i—iv—iii--ii (b) iii—iv—i—ii (c) iv—i—ii—iii (d) iii—iv—ii—i
Ans: (d) iii—iv—ii—i
43. ............ party is recognised as a national party in 2016.
Ans: All India Trinamool Congress
44. The .......... is the only political party that is allowed to function in China.
Ans: Communist Party
45. The Bharatiya Janta Party came in to power in 1998 as the leader of .......... arty.
Ans: NDA
46. Name the institution with which every political party has to get registered.
Ans: Election Commission
47. The rise of political parties can be linked directly to the emergence of-------- democracy.
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(a) Direct (b) Polyarchy (c) Constitutional (d) Representative

Ans: (a) Representative democracy
48. The election commission is the most visible institution of any [Link] whether
the statement True or False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: False. The Political Party is the most visible institution of any Democracy
49. Arrange following parties according to the increasing dates of formation.
(i) TMC (ii) INC (iii) BJP (iv) BSP
(a) iii—iv—i—ii (b) ii—iii—i—iv (c) i—ii—iii—iv (d) iv—iii––ii—i
Ans: (b) ii—iii—i—iv
50. Complete the following table with regard to information about political parties:
Type of party No. of % of total votes No. of seats assembly/Lok
states Required Sabha required.
State 1 6% (B) - ?
National (A)-? 6% in Lok Sabha or 4
Assembly elections
Ans: A. 4 B. 2
51. In which general elections in India did the proportion of women cross 12% mark for
the first time?
Ans: 2014: In india, the proportion of woman in legislature is very low. India is among
the bottom group of nations in the world,in this respect.
52. All these countries follow a dual or multi party government. Find the incorrect option
from those given below.
(a) Japan (b) China (c) Indo-China (d) Germany
Ans: (b) China
53. Name any one political party that has national level political organisation but is not
recognised as the national political party.

Ans: Samajwadi Party, Samta Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal are the
examples of the parties that have national level political organisations
but are not recognised as national political parties.
54. Why did India adopt multi-party system?
Ans: India adopted a multi-party system because of its social and geographical diversity.
In such a diverse country, two or even three parties cannot absorb all the differences.

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 55. Why is one-party political system not considered a good option in democratic system?
Ans: One-party system is not considered a good option in democratic system because
voters are not offered any choice at the time of voting.
56. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other
members are neglected, than what challenge is being faced by that party?
Ans: If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other
members are neglected, then the party faces the challenge of dynastic succession.
57. What is meant by a political party?
Ans: A political party is an association or a voluntary group of people who come
together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some
policies and programmes.
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58. Why do political parties involve partisanship?

Ans: Political parties involve partisanship because they are part of the society and
reflects the fundamental political divisions in a society. They are known by the part they
stand for, policies they support and interests of the society they uphold.
59. What is the requirement laid down by the Election Commission for a political party to
be recognized as a state party?
Ans: The party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in an election to the
Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party.
60. What is a political party?
Ans: A political party is an association or a voluntary group of people who come
together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some
policies and programmes.
61. What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party?
Ans: The guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party is to modernise India on the
basis of Indian traditions and cultural values and the promotion of a uniform civil code.
62. Arrange the following party according to its foundation year.
1. Indian National congress 2. Bharatiya Janta Party
3. Bahujan Samaj Party 4. Communist Party of India
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
Ans: (a) 1, 4, 2, 3
63. In which general elections in India did the proportion of women cross
12% mark for the first time?
Ans: 2014: In India, the proportion of woman in Legislature is very low. India is
among the bottom group of nations in the world, in this respect.
64. What is the symbol of Bhartiya Janta Party?
Ans: Lotus
65. Name the oldest party of india.
Ans:Indian National Congress
66. The _____ provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and
propagate any religion or not to follow any.
Ans: Constitution of India
67. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 12 percent of its

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 total strength for the first time in 2019.
Ans: The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 12 percent
of its total strength for the first time in 2014.
68. What is secularism?
Ans: Secularism means all religions are given the same respect and there is no state
religion.
69. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It..
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) gives official status to one religion.
(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.
(d) ensures equality of citizens within different religious communities.
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Ans: (b) gives official status to one religion.

70. What is sovereignty?
Ans: Sovereignty is a system of government in which the power is divided between a
central authority and various constituent units of the country.
71. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
A political party that runs the government is called opposition party.
Ans: A political party that runs the government is called ruling party.
72. .......... is the freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restrictions on the
movement of goods.
Ans: Liberalism
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. What is a multiparty system? Why has India adopted a multiparty system? Explain.
Ans: A multiparty system is a political system in which several parties contest the
election to hold political power. In this system, there is a chance of two or more parties
coming to power. This system also advocates coalition government and alliance politics.
India adopted a multiparty system because of the following reasons. India is blessed
with tremendous social and geographical diversity. This diversity cannot be easily
accommodated in one or two political parties. Because of multiparty system, variety of
interests and opinions enjoy political representation.
2. ‘Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties
all over the world.’ Analyse the statement.
Ans: It is a tendency among political parties to concentrate power in the hands of one or
few top leaders. Parties do not often keep membership registers and do not hold
organisational meetings and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Sufficient
information on what happens inside the party is not provided to the ordinary members
of the party. In such a situation, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more
important.
3. “Serious efforts were made by the legal organisations to reform political parties in
India.” Support the statement.
Ans: The Supreme Court has made it mandatory for the candidates contesting elections
to produce an affidavit giving details of property and cases pending against them. It is
hoped that this will reduce the influence of money and muscle power in elections. Anti-
defection law has been passed by amending the constitution to prevent elected MLAs

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 and MPs from changing their parties. The Election Commission has made it mandatory
for the political parties to hold organisational elections and file their income tax returns.
4. Describe any three main features of a two-party system.
Ans: (1) Power usually changes between two parties, while other political parties may
exist. (2) The party that wins the majority forms the government, while the other forms
the major opposition. (3) Decision-making and implementation is prompt and quick.
Such a system gives a strong and good opposition.
5. What is meant by a national political party? State the conditions required to be a
national political party.
Ans: A national political party is a party that is present in several or all units of the
federation. It has its unis in various states. By and large, all these units follow the same
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policies. A party has to secure at least six per cent of total votes polled in the Lok
Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states. It has to win at least four seats in
the Lok Sabha to be recognised as a national party
6. ‘Nearly every one of the state parties wants to get an opportunity to be part of one or
the other national-level coalition.’ Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: The members of the state party get a chance of being included in the cabinet or the
council of ministers. State parties get an opportunity and a platform to express their
views and ideology at the national level. It helps in strengthening of federalism and
democracy, and thus bringing diversity in the parliament.
7. What is meant by a regional party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a
regional political party.
Ans: A regional party is a political party which takes care of regional concerns and
state’s interests only. It happens to have succeeded only in some states units of the
federation. The following are the conditions required for a party to be recognised as a
regional party. A party has to secure at least six per cent of the total votes polled in the
election to the legislative assembly of a state. It has to win at least two seats in the
election to the Legislative Assembly.
8. Analyse the three components of a political party.
Ans: (1) The leaders: The leaders contest elections and, if they win, perform the
administrative jobs. (2) The active members: The active members attend party meetings
and are close to the party leaders. They can be called the assistants of the leaders. (3)
The followers: The followers are the dedicated workers of the party. They work under
the able guidance of the active members.
9. What is a political party? State any two points of ideology of Bhartiya Janata Party.
Ans: A political party is an association or a voluntary group of people who come
together to contest election and hold power in the government. They agree on some
policies and programmes. The ideology of Bhartiya Janata Party is as follows. (1) It
wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India. (2) It
wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient
culture and values.(3) It wants a uniform civil code for all people living in the country,
irrespective of religion.(4) It wants religious conversions to be banned in India.
10. ‘No party system is ideal for all countries and all situations.’ Justify the statement with
arguments.

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 Ans: A one-party system cannot be considered a good option because the voters do not
have any choice and it is not a democratic option. A two-party system cannot be
considered ideal for a country because in this system, power usually shifts from one
party to the other. Several other parties with better programmes and policies may exist,
contest elections and win a few seats, but only the two party have serious chance of
forming government. A multiparty system also cannot be considered a good option
because it often appears messy and leads to political instability. In this system the
government is formed by various parties and ideologies coming together which may
further raise issues and conflicts.
11. Name the six national political parties of India in chronological order.
Ans: The following are the six national political parties of India in chronological order.
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Indian National Congress (1885), Communist Party of India (1925), Communist Party
of India-Marxist (1964), Bhartiya Janata Party (1980), Bahujan Samaj Party (1984),
National Congress Party (1999)
12. Name any three national political parties along with their symbols.
Ans: Indian National Congress—symbol: hand, palm facing the [Link] Janata
Party—symbol: a lotus. Bahujan Samaj Party-symbol: an elephant.
13. Name any six regional political parties of the four southern states of India.
Ans: Kerala: Indian Federal Democratic Party and Kerala Congress (Mani). Tamil
Nadu: All India Anna DMK and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam. Andhra Pradesh:
Telegu Desam Party. Karnataka: Janata Dal (Secular)
14. Name the regional political parties predominant in Punjab, Haryana and Uttarakhand
respectively with their symbols.
Ans: The regional political parties predominant in: Punjab—Shiromani Akali Dal,
symbol: scales. Haryana—Indian National Lok Dal, symbol: a pair of spectacles.
Uttarakhand—Uttarakhand Kranti Dal, symbol: chair.
15. Name the regional political parties predominant in Jharkhand, Maharashtra and
Orissa, respectively with their symbols.
Ans: Jharkhand—Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, symbol: bow and arrow. Maharashtra
—Shiv Sena, symbol: bow and arrow. Orissa—Biju Janata Dal, symbol: conch
16. Name the regional political parties predominant in Sikkim, Nagaland and Manipur,
respectively with their symbols.
Ans: Sikkim—Sikkim Democratic Front, symbol: an umbrella. Nagaland—Nagaland
People’s Front, symbol: a cock. Manipur—Manipur People’s Party, symbol: a cycle.
17. Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India’s ancient culture
and values. Mention four features of that party.
Ans: Bharatiya Janata Party. Four features of Bharatiya Janata Party are as follows. i.
It wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India. [Link]
wants a uniform civil code for all people living in the country, irrespective of religion.
iii. It wants a ban on religious conversions. Hindutva or cultural nationalism is an
important element in its conception of politics.
18. Name the national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of
weakersections and minorities. Mention any four features of that party.
Ans: National Congress Party, formed in 1999, espouses secularism and welfare of

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 weaker sections and minorities. Four features of this party are as follows: i. It wants
high offices in the government to be confined to natural-born citizens of the country. ii.
It stands for social justice, federalism and equity. iii. It is a major party in Maharashtra
with a significant presence in Meghalaya, Manipur and Assam. iv. In Maharashtra, it is
a coalition partner in alliance with the Congress. It is a member of the United
Progressive Alliance since 2004.
19. Name the national political party which draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings
of Sahu Maharaj. Mention any four features of that party.
Ans: Bahujan Samaj Party. Four features of this party are as follows. i. It wants to
secure the interest and welfare of the dalits and oppressed classes. ii. It seeks to
represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes dalits, adivasi,OBCs
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and religious minorities. iii. It draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of
Mahatma Phule,Periyar, Ramaswami Naicker and Dr Ambedkar. iv. Its main base is in
Uttar Pradesh.
20. How do political parties shape public opinion? Explain with three examples.
Ans: They highlight and raise issues. Parties have lakhs of members spread all over the
country. Often pressure groups are an extension of political parties, among different
sections of the society. They help in taking up issues and forming public opinion.
Sometimes, parties launch movements for solving the problems faced by people. Often
the public opinion develops on the same lines that the parties take.
21. “The Supreme Court’s order to bring down the influence of money and criminals in
politics is still fraught with defects” Elucidate.
Ans: According to a Supreme Court order, every candidate contesting elections has to
provide details of his personal assets and cases of crime pending against him/her. This is
done to bring down the influence of money and crime in politics However, there is still
no mechanism to check whether the information provided by the candidate is true of
not, as still we do not find any significant decline of the influence of money or crime in
politics.
22. Present your own picture of a Democracy without a political party.
Ans: Let us consider a case where elections are held without any political party. In this
case, each candidate will be an independent one who won’t be giving any promises to the
voters with respect to the whole nation. The government that will be formed after the
elections will lack unity and have an uncertain future. Each candidate will be
responsible to his/her constituency and there won’t be any collective responsibility for
the whole nation.
23. “No system is ideal for all countries and all situations”. Comment.
Ans: No system is ideal for all countries and in all situations because party system is not
something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature
of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of
elections. Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special
circumstances.
24. Write a short note on one-party system.
Ans: One-party system is followed in China, North Korea and [Link] system was
also prevalent in the USSR till its break up into 15 independent states. They are mostly

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 communist countries. There is no competition in this system. The lone party nominates
candidates and the voters have to say “yes” or “no” only against the name of the c
candidates. They have another choice of not voting at all. One-party system is popular
in communist or authoritarian countries. Supporters of one-party system claim that this
system helps the government in mobilising the talents of all citizens towards a common
goal. But this system limits the choices and freedom of the citizens, hence it is not a good
system for a democracy. In democracy people must have at least two parties to choose
from.
25. What is the first thing the Election Commission does after recognising a party? Does it
treat every party as equal?
Ans: It allots a ‘symbol’ to the parties. It has to treat every party as equal, but it offers
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some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique
symbol and only the official candidates of that party can use that symbol. For example,
the Hand is the symbol of only the Congress Party and the Lotus of the BJP. Parties
which have these benefits are called recognised national political parties.
26. State the function of the Opposition party.
Ans: Opposition party is a party which does not win elections in sufficient numbers to
form a government. But it keeps an eye on the working of the ruling party and acts as a
check on their activities. It prevents the ruling party from misusing its powers. It keeps
a check on their expenditures, brings their failure before the public. It also protects the
rights and liberties of the people by not allowing any law to be passed which threatens
their fundamental rights.
27. “Political parties are rightly called the government in disguise”. Justify the statement
in reference to democratic politics.
Ans: i. Parties contest elections. In most democracies elections are fought mainly among
the candidates put up by political parties. ii. A party reduces a vast multitude of
opinions into a few basic positions which it supports. A government is expected to base
its policies on the line taken by the ruling party. iii. Parties play a decisive role in
making laws for a country. Most of the members of a legislature belong to a party and
they go by the direction of the party leadership.
28. Are political parties no longer popular? Discuss with examples.
Ans: People have lost their trust in them and become indifferent towards them.
According to a recent survey in South Asia, majority says that they do not at all trust the
parties. A number of people belong to the “Not much” category. In India, there is
growing indifference towards parties. They have failed to reduce poverty, prices and this
has led to indifference and unpopularity. In the rest of the world, which contains many
democracies, political parties are one of the least trusted institutions. But there is
another side of the [Link] enough membership of the parties has increased in
great numbers. In India, it is higher than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan,
Spain and South Korea. Party membership is higher in South Asia than the rest of the
world.
29. What do you mean by the term defection? What measures were adopted to prevent this
practice?

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 Ans: Defection in politics means moving of a person from one party to another party for
some personal benefit. It means changing party allegiance from the party on which a
person got elected to a different party. Measures adopted to prevent this practice: i. The
Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. ii.
Now, the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties. he or she will lost seat in the
legislature. iii. The new law has brought defection down and has made dissent even more
difficult. Now MLAs and MPs have to accept whatever party leaders say.
30. How do state or regional political parties contribute in strengthening federalism and
democracy in India? Explain with examples.
Ans: They provide a variety of choice to people as each of them has different agendas
and focus on different issues. They provide a platform for different pressure and social
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groups, and communities to put forward their demands. They help in power sharing by
sharing power of government with the help of coalition government.
31. Give the meaning of challenge. Describe four challenges faced by political parties in
India.
Ans: A challenge is a difficultly that carries with it an opportunity for progress. As
political parties are the essence of democracy, it is natural that they are often blamed
for the failure of any policy or the working of democracy.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Mention the challenges faced by political parties in democracies all over the world.
Explain in detail.
Ans: (i) Lack of internal democracy: All over the world, there is a tendency of political
parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. The leaders
assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.(ii) Dynastic
Succession: Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for
their [Link] many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members
of one family. (iii) Money and Muscle Power: Some parties are focussed only on
winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections. In some cases, parties
support criminals who can win elections. Rich people and companies who give funds to
the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.(iv)
Meaningful Choice: In recent years, there has been a decline in the ideological
differences among parties in most parts of the world. Sometimes people cannot elect
very different people either because some group of leaders keep shifting from one party
to another. (v) Corruption: Sometimes leaders use their powers to earn illegal money in
spite of working for the country’s benefits.
2. ‘About hundred years ago there were few countries that had hardly any political party.
Now there are few countries that do not have political parties.’ Examine the statement.
Ans: The statement has two parts. About a hundred years ago, there were few countries
that had hardly any political party. It shows that very few countries were democratic
countries and if they were not democracies, there was no need for political parties. Now
there are few countries that do not have political parties. In the last hundred years
many countries became independent from colonial control. After independence, they
adopted democratic governments. So there was an increasing necessity for political

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 parties. The political parties have become very important in a democratic country
because of the following reasons. Not having political parties will lead to chaos and
turmoil in the society. It will be against democratic principles. Without parties,
candidates elected will be independent and will not be able to make policies. They will
not be responsible and accountable to the people. The existence of parties in a
democracy ensures that a country runs as per its policies and ideologies and have a
government which is answerable to the people.
3. “Dynastic succession a major challenge for political parties in India”. Support the
statement with arguments.
Ans: Usually, an ordinary worker does not rise to the top positions in a party because
the functioning of most political parties is not transparent. Most of the top leaders
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favour and choose members of their families. This is unfair to other members. The top
positions are always controlled by members of one family. This is unhealthy for
democracy. People who are at top levels usually do no have adequate experience,
education or popular support. The challenge of dynastic succession is related to the
challenge of lack of internal democracy. Non-deserving leaders exercise paramount
power and make decisions. Those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to
continue in the party.
4. Describe any five major functions of political parties.
Ans: Contest elections: Parties contest elections. In countries like India, top party
leaders choose candidates for contesting elections. Put forward policies and
programmes: Parties put forward different policies and programmes and voters choose
from them. Political parties accommodate different views and opinions. Play an
important role in making laws: Political parties play a decisive role in making laws for a
country. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the legislature, but since most of the
members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective
of their personal opinions. Form and run government: To run the government, political
parties prepare a council of ministers by recruiting and training the leaders. Provide
access to government machinery and welfare schemes: Political parties provide people
access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments. For
an ordinary citizen, it is easy to approach a local party leader than a government officer.
Play the role of position: The party which loses election plays the role of opposition
Opposition party tries to put checks on the ruling party by constantly criticizing its
policies. Shape public opinion: One of the most important functions of political parties is
that they shape public opinion on relevant issues for the proper functioning of the
government and to deepen the concept of democracy.
5. ‘Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.’ Analyse the statement
with examples.
Ans: In a democratic set-up, political parties are required because without political
parties: Every candidate in the elections will be independent. No promises could be
made and the utility of the government formed will remain uncertain. No one will be
responsible for running the country. Elected representatives will only be accountable to
their constituency. There will be no agency to gather and present different views on
various issues to the government. No one will be responsible for bringing various

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 representatives together so as to form a responsible government. There will be no
mechanism to support the government, make policies and justify or oppose them.
6. Suggest any five measures to reform political parties.
Ans: Regulation of party’s internal affairs: A law should be made to regulate the
internal affairs of political parties. It should be made compulsory for political parties to
maintain a register of their members, to follow their own constitution, to have an
independent authority, etc. State funding: There should be state funding of elections.
The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses to
avoid corruption. Pressure of public opinion:Political parties can be reformed if people
put pressure on them. This can be done through petitions, propaganda and agitations.
Pressure groups and media play an important role in this. Ban on political parties based
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on religion and caste: The Election Commission should ban the political parties which
are formed on the basis of religion and caste. Ensure women participation: It should be
made mandatory for all political parties to allot one-third of the tickets to women to
ensure their decisive voice in decision making.
7. Examine any two institutional amendments made by different institutions to reform
political parties and their leaders.
Ans: Anti-defection law: The anti-defection law was passed to prevent elected MLAs
and MPs from changing their parties. It was seen that many MLAs and MPs were
changing their parties for personal gains. Now, according to the law, if any MLA or MP
changes his/her party, his/her seat in the legislature will be lost. Also, MLAs and MPs
have to accept whatever the party leaders decide. Affidavit: To reduce the influence of
money and muscle power (criminals), an order has been passed by the Supreme Court
making it mandatory for every candidate contesting election to file an affidavit giving
details of his/her property and criminal records. This system has helped in making a lot
of information available to the public. But, we cannot say that this amendment has been
successful as it cannot be said that information provided by the candidates is true.
Mandatory organizational meeting and filing of ITR: An order has been passed by the
Election Commission making it mandatory for political parties to hold their
organisational elections and file their income tax returns. The parties have started
doing this, but sometimes it is only a formality. It is not clear if this step has brought
some reform or not. (any two)
8. Money and muscle power play an important role in elections. Elucidate the statement.
Ans: i. Role of money and muscle power in parties especially during elections is
growing. ii. Parties tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of
money. iii. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have
influence on the policies and decisions of the party iv. In some cases parties support
criminals who can win election. v. Democrats all over the world are worried over the
increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.
9. “The first challenge faced by political parties is lack of internal democracy within
parties.” What do you understand by the statement? Explain.
Ans: i. All over the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the
concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. ii. Parties do not keep
membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal

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 elections regularly. iii. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information
on what happens inside the party. iv. They do not have the means or the connections
needed to influence the decisions. As a result the leaders assume greater power to make
decisions in the name of the party. v. Since one or few leaders exercise paramount
power in the party those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in
the patty. vi. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the
leader becomes more important.
10. “Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties” Evaluate the statement
with the help of few relevant arguments.
Ans: i. They form government after winning elections i.e. the political party which wins
majority seats in the legislature forms the government. ii. Political party which does not
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win majority seats in the legislature forms the opposition. It criticises the government
for its acts of omission and commission. iii. Political parties are important for
representative democracies as they bring representatives together to form the
government. iv. It consists of people seeking to achieve their objectives through
constitutional means and aims at promoting national integration.
11. What is the need of political parties?
Ans: (i) We cannot think modern democracies without political parties. In case there
are no political parties every candidate in the elections will be independent, no one will
be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes. (ii) Elected
representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality.
But, no one will be responsible for how the country will run.(iii) Political parties agree
on policies and programmes to promote collective good and influence people to know
why their policy is better than others. (iv) The absence of political parties would affect a
democracy badly. The interest of all the people would not reach the Parliament, and,
therefore, some sections of people would left out of the mainstream.(v) The role of
opposition party in a democracy necessitates the existence of political parties. (vi) As
societies become large and complex they also need some agencies to gather different
views on various issues and to present these to the government.
12. Mention some of the suggestions made to reform political parties.
Ans: i. Laws could be made to regulate internal politics of parties. ii. It should be \
compulsory to maintain a register of its members, hold independent inquiry in case of a
party dispute and hold open elections to top party posts. iii. It should be mandatory to
give 1/3 party tickets to women candidates. There should be a quota for women in
decision making bodies. iv. The government or the state should help parties during
elections by funding them. Expenses for petrol, paper, telephone etc. can be given. Cash
can be given on the basis of votes secured by the party in the last elections. v. It should
be mandatory to hold regular and periodic organisational elections.
13. Discuss the merits and demerits of two-party system.
Ans: In some countries, there are only two main parties and power changes hands
between them only. They are the only ones who can win seats in elections. There may
be other parties and they may win a small number of seats, but never enough to form a
government. The United States of America and United Kingdom are examples of the
two-party system. Two-party system leads to formation of a stable government but it

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 negates representational or various opinions, interests.
14. Discuss the merits and demerits of multi-party system.
Ans: In a multi-party system, three or more parties have a chance to win elections and
gain control of the government. In a multi-party system, groups come to power on
their own strength or in alliance with others. In India various parties have come
together in a coalition. Two major coalitions UPA and NDA have formed governments
at [Link] system is followed in India, France and Denmark. This system gives a
chance to various interests and concerns, to gain [Link] system appears
very messy and can sometimes lead to instability, as many parties cannot pull together.

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CHAPTER 4 - OUTCOMES OF DEMOCRACY

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Which of the following is correct related to democracy?
a. Promotes equality among citizens. b. Enhances dignity of the citizens.
c. Allows rooms to correct mistakes. d. All of these
Ans: All of these
2. What is the dilemma we face regarding democracy?
Ans: Democracy is seen to be good in principle, but felt to be not so good in practice.
3. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The non-democratic government will take more time to follow
procedures before arriving at a decision.
Reason (B): It has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to
the people and more effective.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
4. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Democracy is not based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
Ans: Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
5. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making is
known as ----.
Ans: Transparency
6. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over
the world.
Reason (B): A democratic government is people’s own government.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of

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 Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): In a democratic set-up, unacceptability would not have legal basis.
Reason (B): The principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal
and moral force in democratic government.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
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(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
8. What is the most distinctive feature of democracy?
Ans: The most distinctive feature of democracy is that its examination never gets over.
As it passes one test, it produces another test.
9. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that:
A. Democracy and development go together. B. Inequalities exist in democracies.
C. Inequalities don’t exist under dictatorship. D. Dictatorship is better than democracy.
Ans: (B) Inequalities exist in democracies.
10. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?
Ans: Democracies are based on political equality as they provide equal rights to all the
citizens to contest elections and cast vote and ensure equal opportunity to be elected.
They also subscribe to one vote, one value and equal political rights.
11. What is meant by transparency?
Ans: Right or means to examine the process of decision-making is called transparency.
12. Why is a democratic government better than other alternatives?
Ans: Democracy is a better form of government because it is legitimate, accountable,
responsive, promotes equality among citizens,enhances dignity of the individual,
improves quality of decision-making and allows room to correct mistakes.
13. Which form of government is considered the best?
Ans: Democratic form of government is considered the best as it enhances dignity of
the individual by giving every person equal treatment.
14. Fill the right challange and example respectively in options A and B, according to the
information given in the table.
Challenge Example Reasons for Preference
Foundational A….? No one should name absolute power
B….? Distribution of money, sarees, To check to give fair chance to all
wheat etc by candidate. candidates.
Ans: A. To make changes in constitution B. Corruption
15. At present how countries of the world are currently members of the WTO?

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 (a) 166 (b) 193 (c) 164 (d) 165
Ans: (c) 164
16. In _____ we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose
their rules.
Ans: Democracy
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the
citizens? Analyse.
Ans: A democratic government ensures that people are able to choose their leaders and
keep a check on them. In an accountable government,people have the right to elect the
leaders to form government and if possible they participate in the decision-making
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process. Citizens also have the right to evaluate the decision-making process. Democracy
produces a responsible government which is responsible for satisfying the needs and
aspirations of people. It promotes the formation of public opinion, needs and
expectations of the citizens. There are proper deliberations and negotiations before
arriving at any decision.
2. ‘There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.’
Support the statement.
Ans: A democratic government is people’s own government. People wish to be ruled by
the representatives elected by them. It promotes equality among citizens. It improves
the quality of decision-making. It provides room for correction of mistakes. It has the
ability to generate its own support. (any three)
3. ‘Some people think that democracy produces a less-effective government.’ Analyse the
statement.
Ans: In democracy, decisions are delayed because of a long decision-making process.
Too many people have to be consulted before reaching a consensus. Non-democratic
governments take quick decisions as they are not worried about deliberations and public
opinion. Democratic governments do not have a very good record when it comes to
sharing information with the citizens. Democracies often frustrate the aspirations of the
people and often ignore the demands of a majority of its population.
4. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate Government
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy,we are most
concerned with ensuring that the people will have the right to choose their rulers and
people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens
should be able to participate in decision making, that effects them all Therefore, the
most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is
accountable to citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
Source B: Economic growth and development
If all democracies and all dictatorships for the last 50 years i.e. between 1950 — 2000
are considered, dictatorships have a higher rate of economic growth. The inability of
democracy to achieve higher economic development is worrying. But this alone cannot
be a reason to reject democracy. Economic development depends on several
factor: Country; population, size, global situation, cooperation from other countries,

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 economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. Overall, we cannot say that democracy
is a guarantee of economic [Link] we can expect democracy not to lag behind
dictatorships in this respect.
Source C: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Perhaps more than development it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce
economic disparities. Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have
equal weight in electing representatives Parallel to this there are growing economic
inequalities. A small number of ultra- rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of
wealth and incomes. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon.
Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing,
house, education and health.
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Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate Government

4 (1) Define democracy in a single sentence on the basis of the above extract.
Ans: Democracy can be defined as a government ‘Of the people by the people, for the
people.
Source B: Economic growth and development
4 (2) State the factors which are responsible for a democracy’s economic growth.
Ans: The factors on which the economic growth of a democracy depends are its
population, size, global situation, cooperation from other countries etc.
Source C: Reduction of inequality and poverty
4 (3) Justify the statement Democracies have successfully eliminated economic
inequalities between people.’
Ans: The statement ‘Democracies have successfully eliminated economic inequalities
between people,’ is incorrect All people have equal rights in electing representatives
but economic inequalities are growing day by day. There are a few ultra-rich people
where as a vast majority of the people are poor.
5. “The dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy”. Support the
statement with example.
Ans: i. Dignity of women: Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today
that respect to and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic
society. ii. Caste inequalities: Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the
disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. iii.
Public expression of dissatisfaction: A public expression of dissatisfaction with
democracy shows the success of the democratic project. It transforms people from the
status of a ‘subject’ to that of a ‘citizen’. Public expression shows that people are aware
and have the ability to look critically at the power holders.
6. What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?
Ans: i. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments
function to represent the general views. ii. It is necessary that rule by majority does not
become rule by majority community in terms of religion, race, linguistic group, etc.
Different persons or groups should be allowed to form a government as a result of an
election conducted. iii. Democracies accommodates diversities based on religion, class
and gender.

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 7. “Some people think that democracy produces less efficient and effective government”.
What is your opinion about this statement?
Ans: It is true that some delay is bound to take place in democracy as it is based on
deliberation and negotiation. It is also true that non-democratic rulers can be very quick
and efficient in decision-making and implementation. But they may take decisions that
are not acceptable to the people and are forced on them. On the other hand, because
democratic governments follow procedures, their decisions may be more acceptable to
the people and more effective. So I do not agree with the view that democracy is a less
effective and an inefficient form of government.
8. “Democracies unable to reduce economic inequalities”. Comment.
Ans: Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal right in
electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political
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arena on an equal footing, there are growing economic inequalities. A few of the rich
enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in
the total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society
have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining and sometimes they
find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life such as food, clothing, house, education
and health.
9. ‘Democracy is an accountable, responsive and legitimate form of government’. Comment.
Ans: (i) Most basic outcomes of democracy should be that it produces a government that
is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the
citizens.(ii) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. So,some
delay is bound to take place but because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be
both more acceptable to the people and more effective. (iii) A citizen who wants to know
if a decision was taken through the correct procedures can find this out. She has the
right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as
transparency.(iv) The democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold
the government accountable and mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision
making whenever they think fit.
9. “A democratic government is a legitimate government.” Support the statement with
arguments.
Ans: It may be slow, less efficient or not always responsive or clean, but it is people’s
own government. It has planned institutions and practices for its functioning, such as: 1.
free and fair elections. 2. regular public debates. 3. right to information to citizens. 4.
planned legislations. In a democracy, decisions are taken in a very transparent manner
citizens have the chance to examine the process of decision-making.
10. ‘Democracy accommodates social diversities.’ Support the statement with examples.
Ans: Democracy develops competitive attitude: Democracy develops a procedure to
conduct competition among social classes. This reduces the possibility of conflicts and
social tensions. Democracy evolves mechanisms to negotiate: No society can fully and
permanently resolve conflicts among different groups, but we can certainly learn to
respect these difference and can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences.
Democracies are best suited to produce this outcome. Democracy represents the general
view: Democracy ensures that the government should not be made by the majority but

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 it should have the representation of minority as well.
[Link] governments in practice are known as accountable.’ Support the statement.
Ans: People have the right to choose their representatives and they have control over the
rulers. if these elected representatives do not work properly, people have a chance to not
elect them in the next election. People have the right to examine the decision-making
process. The Right to Information enables the people to run a check on the government.
11. ‘An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption but also make
fighting corruption and black money a top priority.’ Justify the statement by
highlighting the values attached to it.
Ans: Legitimacy: An elected government is expected to work for the welfare of the
people. Corruption and black money are the source of all social evils like poverty,
inflation and poor political ethics. A government who fails to control corruption losses
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its legitimacy to rule. Responsive: It is the people’s representatives that rule. It is

therefore necessary that they respond to the eradication of corruption and accumulation
of black money. Accountability: An elected government is accountable to the people for
the management of policy and its resources. It has to get support of the people for every
policy it frames. Transparency has to be maintained in the process of governing.
12. Describe any three common features of democracies.
Ans: Regular elections: In a democratic government, the general elections are held to
elect a new government. Right to vote: All the citizens of the country, of and above a
certain age, have the right to vote. Political parties: Political parties are an essential
part of [Link] put up candidates who contest the election. Rule of law:another
common feature of all democracies is that it ensures rule of law. Law is supreme and all
the citizens are equal in the eyes of [Link] one is above the law.
13. Explain any three merits of democratic governments over dictatorship.
Ans: Democracy conducts regular, free and fair elections, promotes equality among
citizens and allows room to correct mistakes. In a dictatorship, the leader comes to
power after a show of force and people are relegated to secondary positions. In
democracy, decision-making is slow but is based on the needs and aspirations of the
citizens. Decisions are taken after deliberation and negotiations. In a dictatorship, rulers
do not have to consider about deliberations and assemblies or think about public
opinion. Democratic government is a legitimate government, elected by the people
(where everyone enjoys the right to vote). It is people’s own government. These factors
are missing in a dictatorship.
14. How do democratic governments ensure transparency? Explain any three points.
Ans: They make sure that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures.
They allow every citizen to participate in decision-making, directly or indirectly,
through representatives. Citizens can examine and find out about the correctness of the
procedure of decision making using their right to information. They are accountable to
the people. If people are not satisfied with the way the government works, they have the
right to change the government in the next general [Link] provide people with
power to demand answers from their representatives and reduce the chances of
corruption.
15. Describe the role of democratic governments in reducing economic disparities.

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 Ans: Government ensures equitable distribution of wealth, so as to reduce the gap
between the rich and the poor. Government undertakes extensive social welfare schemes
and strives to achieve universal literacy rate. Government takes care to provide equal
opportunities to all. It makes sure that no discrimination is being done on the basis of
economic status, caste, etc.
16. Constant complaints by people can be seen as a testimony to the success of a democracy.
Evaluate the sentence.
Ans: Complaints highlight the awareness of the people and their expectations from the
system that has been put in place. It reflects that citizens are not overawed by those in
power and can objectively and critically examine the difference they have made. It is a
measure of their participation in public debates which democracy seeks to encourage.A
public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic
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project. It shows that people have transformed themselves from being subjects to being
citizens.
16. State any three merits of democracy.
Ans: Merits of democracy are: (i) Democracy assures equality in every spheres of life
like political, social and economic. (ii) It upholds basic individual liberties like freedom
of speech, etc. (iii) Due obedience to laws.
17. How can you say that democracy is better than dictatorship?
Ans: (i) Democracy promotes equality among citizens. (ii) It enhances the dignity of the
individual. (iii) It also improves the quality of decision-making. (iv) It provides methods
to resolve conflicts. (v) It allows room to correct mistakes.
18. The Supreme Court’s order to bring down the influence of money and criminals in
politics is still fraught with defects. Discuss.
Ans: According to a Supreme Court order, every candidate contesting elections has to
provide details of his personal assets and cases of crime pending against him/her. This is
done to bring down the influence of money and crime in politics. However, there is still
no mechanism to check whether the information provided by the candidate is true of not,
as still we do not fin find any significant decline of the influence of money or crime in
politics.
19. Bring out any three arguments in support of democracy as a better form of government
as compared to dictatorship.
Ans: i. Democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient,
not always very responsive or clean but a democratic government is people’s own
government. This is not true in case of dictatorship. ii. In a democratic government
citizens enjoy fundamental ights but in dictatorship it is not so. iii. In a democratic form
of government, the decision making process is slow. But it follows the procedures and its
decisions are more acceptable to the people. This is not seen in the dictatorship type of
government, where decisions might be forced on the people.
20. “Democracy is considered to be successful”. Comment.
Ans: (i) The rulers elected by the people must take all major decision and not the rich
and powerful. (ii) The election must offer a free choice and opportunity to the people.
(iii) The choice should be available to all the people based on political equality.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

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 1. Describe four ways in which democracies have been able to reduce inequality and
poverty.
Ans: It ensures political equality by giving equal voting rights to every citizen. It
provides a suitable environment for group activism which leads to equal opportunity to
raise the concerns of poor people. It supports the redistributive mechanism for
transferring economic enefits on the basis of requirement of any section of society. This
leads to more equitable division of benefits to underprivileged which reduces poverty. It
protects the rights of every citizen without discrimination on the basis of economic status
ensuring social equality.
2. ‘Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice’.Justify
the statement.
Ans: Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt not to be so good in practice. In a
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democracy, people expect to have their needs and expectations fulfilled but because
every country has a diverse culture and regions, it is not possible to look after everyone’s
needs. Even though democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion, there are
instances where the minority opinions is not taken into account for a general view. If
there is corruption, then people lose faith in the government and then do not feel the
need to vote which is not healthy for the country because democracy is a people’s
government. Regular elections may lead to change in the ruling party, which causes
instability and fall of economic development. If people are not wise in choosing their
representatives then even though there is room to correct mistakes, the country will s
uffer and so will the people.
3. ‘Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.’ Support the
statement with suitable examples.
Ans: Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens as it gives to its
citizens a sound political system based on social equality. We can prove the statement
by citing the following [Link] provides a conducive political environment
to citizens for their popular participation in politics. Every citizen has the right to vote
and right to contest election. Democracy stands for equal economic status to all citizens.
In democracy, government undertakes extensive social welfare schemes and achieve
universal literacy rate. In the social sphere, democracy tries to help its citizens to lead a
peaceful and harmonious life by accommodating various social divisions and providing
social equality to its citizens. Democratic governments try to resolve differences, respect
differences and try mechanisms which can negotiate differences. (any five)
4. How does Indian democracy meet the expectations of Indian people regarding
democratic outcomes? Explain with examples.
Ans: India can claim to be the largest democracy in the world, granting political
freedom and equality to all. People by virtue of fundamental rights participate in the
governance of the country. Indian democracy has ensured power sharing to all the
groups and has given adequate representation to women, and diverse and weaker
sections of the society. For instances, reservation policy, language policy and principle
of secularism. It provides for smooth and legitimate transformation rom one
government to another by means of electoral competition. It is an accountable
government, which ensures transparency. It is also responsive to the needs and

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 aspirations of the citizens.
5. “Democratic governments better than the other forms of governments”. Do you agree?
Give reasons to support your answer.
Ans: Democracy is a form of society as well as a social order. In democracy, each citizen
is given equal rights and freedoms. There is no discrimination on the basis of religion,
caste, colour, etc. Democracy aims at equitable distribution of incomes and products
among citizens. Democracy enhances dignity of individuals. Democracy permits political
equality for all its citizens. In democracy, there is absence of any domination and
conflicts. As democracy is based on deliberation and negotiations, it improves the
quality of decision-making. In a democracy, every citizen takes part in the decision-
making process, either directly or indirectly through the elected representatives.
Democracy usually develops a procedure to conduct competition among the social
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differences. This reduces the possibility of social tensions becoming explosive or violent.
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups, but we
can certainly learn to respect these differences and also evolve mechanisms to negotiate
the differences. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that
governments function to represent the general view, the most basic feature of
democracy is that it produces a government which is accountable to the citizens,
responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens and it’s legitimate.
6. ‘Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens.’
Justify the statement.
Ans: Democracy promotes equality. It gives equal treatment to every person. It involves
every person in the decision-making process. Every citizen has a right to information.
The passion for respect and freedom are the bases of democracy. It accepts dignity of
women as a necessary ingredient of society. Democracy recognises the principle of
equal treatment to women unlike non-democratic governments. The same is true of
caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the
disadvantaged and discriminated cases for equal status and opportunity. Also,
democracy has to meet the expectations of citizens and people have the right to
complain about the functioning of democracy.
7. ‘Democracies are not appearing to be very successful in reducing economic
inequalities.’ Analyse the statement.
Ans: A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. Their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. The have-
nots lead a frugal life and they have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have
been declining and they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life. According to a
recent report, India is the second most unequal country in the world with 54% wealth
controlled by millionaires. The poor constitute a large population of voters. No party
wants to lose their votes but they do not seem very interested in addressing the Ques of
poverty. People in several poor countries are dependent on rich countries for food with
Bangladesh being the worst with half of its population living in poverty.
8. ‘A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic
project.’ Support the statement with arguments.
Ans: (1) When citizens show their dissatisfaction, it clearly shows that they are actively

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 taking part in democratic projects, because this system is their own. (2) A pubic
expression of dissatisfaction shows that people are not just forcefully following or
agreeing with whatever they are told. (3) It shows that they are enjoying their freedom
and hence they are no more subjects but are responsible citizens. (4) Their freedom and
transformation from the status of subjects to that of citizens is the main aim of
democracy.(5) As people get benefits, they ask for more. This makes democracy better.
9. Describe any four consequences on which democracy has failed.
Ans: i. The evidences show that in practice many democracies did not fulfil the
expectation of economic development. ii. Democracy is the government of the people.
Hence, one can expect it to reduce economic disparities. But, it is a bitter truth that even
when a country achieves economic growth wealth is not distributed in such a way that
all citizens of the country will have a share and lead a better life. Most of the
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democracies of the world have miserably failed on this issue. iii. Democracies have also
failed on the issue of poverty reduction. A smaller number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly
disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that their share in the total
income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very
little to depend upon. Their incomes have been [Link]. Democracies often frustrate
the needs of the people and often ignore the demands of a majority of its population. The
routine talks of corruption.
10. Explain any four consequences on which democracy has failed.
Ans: i. If democracies are expected to produce good governments, then it is fair to expect
that they would also produce development Evidences show that in practice many
democracies did noy fulfil this [Link]. Democracy is the government of the
people. Hence, one can expect it to reduce economic disparities. But, it is a bitter truth
that even when a country achieves economic growth, wealth is not distributed in such a
way that all citizens of the country will have a share and lead a better life. Most of the
democracies of the world have miserably failed on this issue. iii. Democracies have also
failed on the issue of poverty reduction. A smaller number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly
disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total
income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very
little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. iv. Democracies often frustrate
the needs of the people and often ignore the demands of a majority of its population. The
routine talks of corruption.

ECON OMICS
CHAPTER 1 - DEVELOPMENT
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Complete the following table.
Category of person Developmental goal-1 Developmental goal-2
Prosperous farmers from Punjab ----A? ----B?
Ans: A. Higher support prices for their products. B. Settle their children abroad
2. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.

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 Kerala has a high infant mortality rate and high literacy rate because it has inadequate
provisions of healthcare and educational facilities.
Ans: Kerala has a low infant mortality rate and high literacy rate because it has
adequate provisions of healthcare and educational facilities.
3. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): A girl gets as much freedom as her brother and is able to decide what she
wants to do in life.
Reason(B):The developmental goal of a girl from a rich urban family.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false
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(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
4. Analyse the table and answer the questions that follow:
State Infant Literacy Net attendance Per capita
mortality rate rate ratio income
Punjab 49 70 81 26,000
Kerala 11 91 91 2,200
Bihar 60 47 41 5,700
Which state has highest infant mortality and why?
Ans: Bihar. The state lacks health facilities.
5. True or false. If false, correct the statement.
Global warming is a gradual decrease in the overall temperature of the earth’s
atmosphere generally attributed to the greenhouse effect caused by decreased levels of
carbon dioxide, CFC and so on.
Ans: False. Global warming is a gradual increase in the overall temperature of the
earth’s atmosphere generally attributed to the greenhouse effect caused by increased
levels of carbon dioxide, CFC and so on.
6. State any two developmental goals of landless rural labourers.
Ans: 1. More days of work 2. Better wages
7. Match the following category of person to appropriate developmental goals.
A.A farmer depend up on monsoon i. Get seat in abroad for higher education.
for growing crops.
B. A rural women from a land [Link] for job with high salary.
owning family
[Link] unemployed youth. iii. More irrigation facilities like drip.
D. A boy from a rich urban family. iv. High yielding seeds and marketing
facilities.
Ans: A- iii B-iv C-ii D-i
8. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following.
I. Human Development Report- UNEP II. Human Development Report-UNDP

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 III. Hum an Development Report-UNAP IV. Human Development Report-UNOP
Ans: II. Human Development Report-UNDP
9. Divide the weight by the square of the height is called----.
Ans: Body Mass Index
10. Write any two developmental goal of An Adivasi from Narmada vally.
Ans: Adequate health facilities and infrastructure development
11. The total number of children of age group 14 and 15years attending school as a
percentage of total number of children in the same age group is called---.
Ans: Infant mortality rate
12. What is literacy rate?
Ans: The percentage of people in a certain sample of population or country that have
the ability to read and write.
13. What do you mean by infant mortality rate?
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Ans: Number of children that die before the age of one year is called infant mortality
rate.
14. Average income is also known as -----.
Ans: Per capita income
15. Total income of the country divided by total population is called------.
Ans: Average income.
16. What is the rank of India as per the HDI report of 2020?
Ans: India ranked 129 as per the HDI report of 2020.
17. Complete the following table by writing the values of A and B in the table. Find out
Average Monthly income of people in country A and B.
Country A- 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200 A-?
Country B- 500 500 500 500 4800 B-?
Ans: A-10,000 B-10,000
18. The main criterion used by the world Bank in classifying different countries is average
.......... income.
Ans: per capita or average.
19. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these
families is 5000. If the income of these families is 4000,7000 and 3000 respectively. The
income of the fourth family is ------
(a) 7500 (b) 3000 (c) 2000 (d) 6000
Ans: (d) 6000
20. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to proportion of
adults (aged 15-49) whose BMI is below normal (BMI < 18.5 kg/m2) in India (2015-16).
State Male (%) Female (%)
Kerala A…? 10
Karnataka 17 B…?
Madhya Pradesh 28 28
Ans: A – 8.5 B – 21
21. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:

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 Assertion (A): The Developmental goals that people have are not only about better
income but also about other important things in life.
Reason (R): A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a
variety of jobs or run a business.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
22. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small
countries, are generally called:
Ans: Developed countries
23. Which one of the following pertains to development with regard to aspects of
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development.
A. Development relates to satisfaction B. Provides ample opportunities
C. These are different developmental goal D. None of these
Ans: (C) These are different developmental goals
24. Identify the key reason why sustainability is important remain for development.
A. Offers food for all B. Takes car of environment
C. Satisfies today needs without harming environment D. None of these
Ans: (C) Satisfies today needs without harming
25. Which one of the following is the key reason for low human development ranking
despite high income?
A. Less melting tar roads B. Lack of drinking water
C. Low investment in human resources D. None of these
Ans: (C) Low investment in human resources
26. What is meant by the average income?
Ans: The average income is the total income of a country divided by its total
population. It is also called per capita income.
27. What is Net Attendance Ratio?
Ans: The Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 6-10
attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.
28. Which of the following neighbour countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?
A. Bangladesh B. Sri Lanka C. Nepal D. Pakistan
Ans: (B) Sri Lanka
29. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these
families is `5000. If the income of three families is `4000, `7000 and 3000 respectively,
what is the income of the fourth family?
A. `7500 B. `3000 C. `2000 D. `6000
Ans: (D) `6000
30. Which one of the following states recorded least per capita income in India according
to 2013–14 data?

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 A. Madhya Pradesh B. Bihar C. Haryana D. Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (B) Bihar
31. W hich one of the following variable is not part of the Human Development Index?
A. Standard of living B. Knowledge C. Long and healthy life D. Good income
Ans: (D) Good income
32. Kerala, with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than
Punjab. However, it would be wrong to say that per capita income is not a useful
criterion at all. It has some limitations. Butthis does not imply that it is not useful at all.
To counter the inadequacy of this average, the Human Development Index (HDI) is
used. The HD uses a combination of development factors such as health, education,
income for comparison. Analyse the Human Development Comparison given above,
considering one of the following correct option:
A. They hide disparities. Although averages are useful for comparison.
B. Per capita income is one of the development factors and cannot be done away with.
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C. Per capita income is useful for comparing the money index of states.
D. Both B and C
Ans: (D) Both B and C
33. The average income is called:
(a) per person per income (b) per capita income
(c) per house income (d) per national income
Ans: (b) per capita income
34. Based on per capita income, India comes in the category of:
(a) Middle income group (b) Low income group
(c) High income group (d) Low middle income
Ans: (d) Low middle income
35. If there are 4 members in the family and their total income is rs. 32000. What would be
their average income?
(a) 26000 (b) 8000 (c) 7000 (d) 5000
Ans: (b) 8000
36. What is one of the most important attributes considered for comparing countries on
the basis of development?
Ans: Average income of an individual is the most important attribute for development
comparison in countries.
37. Calculate the average income of all members according to the data in table:
Member 1 Member 2 Member 3 Member 4
7000 8000 10000 15000
Ans: An average of all 4 members (7,000 +8,000 + 10,000 + 15,000)/4 we get 10,000.
38. Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate population in the age group:
(a) Above 5 years (b) Above 12 (c) Above 7 years (d) Above 6 years
Ans: (c) Above 7 years
39. There are four families living in a neighbourhood. The average per capita income of
these families is `6000/- If the income of three families is `4000/-, `7000/- and `5000/-
respectively, what is the income of the fourth family.
On the basis of the information given above calculate the income of the fourth family

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 and choose the correct option.
(a) 8000/- (c) 3000/- (c) 2000/- (d) 6000/-
Ans: (a) 8000/-
40. Why is Per Capita Income calculated in the US dollars?
Ans: The Per Capita Income is calculated in the US dollars because US dollar is
considered as the medium of international exchange. It is accepted as method of
payment across the world.
41. Give any two common developmental goals of the people.
Ans: Social equality, freedom, peace, pollution-free environment, improved health and
literacy levels, awareness and control on population are common development goals of
the people.
42. Suggest any one way to solve under-employment situation in rural areas.
Ans: The problem of under employment in the rural areas can be solved by setting up
industries, schools, tourism, regional craft industry,information technology, etc.
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43. Mention any one limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development.
Ans: One limitation of per capita income is that it is impossible to come out to a well-
defined conclusion about the real income of the people or nation.
44. Through which act is Right to Work implemented?
Ans: Right to Work is implemented through National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (NREGA) 2005.
45. What is the rank of India as per the HDI report of 2004?
Ans: India ranked 127 as per the HDI report of 2004.
46. Define average income.
Ans: Average income measures the average income earned per person in a given area in
a specified year. It is calculated by dividing the area’s total income by its total
population.
47. Distinguish between Human Development Report and World Development.
Ans: The following are the differences between Human Development Report and World
Development Report.
48. Suppose there are four families in a country with per capita income of $15000. The
income of three families is $10000, $20000 and $12000. What is the income of the fourth
family?
Ans: The income of the fourth family is $18,[Link] income of the fourth family is
$18,000.
49. Which countries are known as rich countries on the basis of per capita income?
Ans: Countries with per capita income of USD 12616 per annum and above in 2012 are
known as rich countries.
50. Which countries are known as rich countries on the basis of per capita income?
Ans: Countries with per capita income of USD 12616 per annum and above in 2012 are
known as rich countries.
51. Describe any two possible development goals of landless rural labourers.
Ans: More days of work with better wages, Social and economice quality, Low price
food grains, Better education facilities for their children. (any two)

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 52. Besides income, write any four other things people may look for growth and
development?
Ans: Freedom, security, respect, quality of life, health and education. (any four)
53. BMI stands for ...........
Ans: Body Mass Index
54. Literacy rate in Bihar in the year 2001 was…..
Ans: 62%
55. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio
in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason (R): More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary
education.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
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assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
56. Find the mistake and rewrite.
EDI is used to measure level of development of a country.
Ans: HDI is used to measure level of development of a country.
57. .......... is the total percentage of the population of an area at particular time aged seven
year or above who can read and write with understanding.
Ans: Literacy rate
58. .......... may be defined as the process of widening people’s choice as well as raising the
level of wellbeing.
Ans: HDI (Human Development Index)
59. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to comparative data
between Haryana, Kerala and Bihar.
State Infant Mortality Rate Literacy Rate Net Attendance Ratio
Haryana 33 A…? C…?
Kerala 10 94 83
Bihar 38 B…? 43
Ans: A – 84, B – 62, C – 61.
60. Mohit is 28 years of age, has 65 kg of body weight and is 1.4 meters tall. Calculate his
BMI. Find out whether he is under nourished or over weight. Why?
Ans: His BMI is 33.16. He is over weight because his BMI is more than 25.
61. Which one is not an important goal of our life?
A. Good education B. Blood donation
C. High salaried job D. Facilities for going abroad
Ans: (B) Blood donation
62. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to educational
achievement of rural population of Uttar Pradesh.

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 Category Male (%) Female (%)
Literacy rate for rural Population 76% A—?
Literacy rate for rural children in B–? 87%
age group 10- 14 years
Percentage of rural children age 10- C- ? 82%
14 attending school
Ans: A – 54% B – 90% C – 85%
63. Name the befitting conditions that led to low infant mortality rate:
A. More industrie B. More employment
C. Better provisions of basic health and educational facilitie D. None of these
Ans: (C) Better provisions of basic health and educational facilities.
64. What is the per capita income of low income countries?
A. 30,000 or less B. 35,000 or less
C. 37,000 or less D. 40,000 or less
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Ans: (C) 37,000 or less

65. Write the developmental goals for farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops.
Ans: Developmental goals for farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops: (a)
better irrigational facilities (b) better production of crops.
66. The average income is also called:
(a) National Income (b) per capita income (c) Household income (d) GDP
Ans: (b) per capita income
67. Which of the following state has the highest literacy rate?
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar (c) Punjab (d) Kerala
Ans: (d) Kerala
68. NSSO is an organisation under the Ministry of_____,
Ans: Government of India.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Compare India and Sri Lanka on the basis of any three indicators of Human
Development Index for 2004.
Ans: Per capita income: In 2004, per capita income of Sri Lanka ($5170) was much
more than that of India ($3285). Literacy rate:Sri Lanka’s literacy rate (90.6%) was
much more than that of India (62.85%). Life expectancy at birth: In terms of life
expectancy at birth, Sri Lanka (75.15%) was ahead of India (65.8%).
2. “Average income is important but it has limitations while using it”. Evaluate the
statement.
Ans: It ignores equitable distribution of income. It is impossible to come out to a well-
defined conclusion about the real income of the people or nation. It does not reflect the
standard of living of the people.
3. What is Human Development Report? Which organization measures HDR?
Ans: Human Development Index is a tool developed by the United Nations to measure
and rank countries based on the level of social and economic development. The HDI
makes it possible to track changes in development levels from time to time and to
compare development levels in different countries. The concept of HDI goes beyond

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 income and growth to cover overall development with the object of improving the
conditions of people from all angles. The organization that measures the HDI is the
United Nations.
4. Explain three major indicators of Human Development Report.
Ans: (1) Health: Without proper health facilities, no matter how much a country earns,
it will not be able to provide basic facilities to its people.(2) Education: Over the past
few decades, education has become an important factor in leading a quality life. So, if
the country has high income but the literacy rate is low, it cannot be considered
developed.(3) Security: More than income, people want to have a secured life. A country
should be able to provides its citizens a sense of security.
5. What is meant by economic development? What are the two bases of measuring
economic development of a country?
Ans: Economic development can be defined as efforts that seek to improve the economic
wellbeing and quality of life for a community by creating and/or retaining jobs and
supporting or growing incomes and the tax base. It is the increase in the growth and
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welfare of people, improvement of quality. In layman’s language it is a process, which

makes people in general, better off by increasing their command over goods and services
and by increasing the options open to them. The two bases of measuring economic
development of a country are HDI (Human Development Index) and Per capita income.
6. What do you mean by sustainable development? Why it is important for economic
growth?
Ans: Sustainable development means development should take place without damaging
the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs
of the future generation. It is all about judicious use of resources. Environment must be
conserved while development is taking place. Resource must be used in such a way that
they are conserved for future generation. The standard of living of all people must be
raised.
7. Suggest any three measures to ensure sustainable development.
Ans: (i) Using bicycle or walking for short distances rather than using a two wheeler or
four wheeler can help in saving fuel and also will help in reducing air pollution.(ii)
Urbanization without deforestation can help us to sustain the natural environment. (iii)
By using CNG in place of petrol, we can help in reducing air pollution.
(iv) Judiciously using water resources and not polluting them will help us to preserve
our water resources. (any three)
8. Write a short note about Human Development Index.
Ans: Human Development Index is a tool developed by the United Nations to measure
and rank countries based on the level of social and economic development. The HDI
makes it possible to track changes in development levels from time to time and to
compare development levels in different countries. The concept of HDI goes beyond
income and growth to cover overall development with the object of improving the
conditions of people from all angles.
9. Describe the three major indicators of the HDI.
(1) Health: Without proper health facilities, no matter how much a country earns, it
will not be able to provide basic facilities to its people.(2) Education: Over the past few

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 decades, education has become an important factor in leading a quality life. So, if the
country has high income but the literacy rate is low, it cannot be considered developed.
(3) Security: More than income, people want to have a secured life. A country should
be able to provides its citizens a sense of security.
10. “People have conflicting development goals”. Support the statement with suitable
example.
Ans: It is true to say that people have conflicting developmental [Link] may be the
development for one may not be for the other. Different people have different interests,
life situations and state of mind. They visualize things, actions, etc. according to their
level of understanding. For example, the construction of a flyover to reduce the
congestion and traffic jams may be a development goal especially for the daily
commuters. But for the construction of the flyover,surrounding houses, shops, etc. need
to be demolished which may not be like by the occupants of these shops and houses. This
may not be a development goal for them.
11. “Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well” Do you agree
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12. with this statement? Justify your answer with any three suitable arguments.
Ans: Yes, we agree with the statement. Money can buy things that can be one factor on
which our life depends like food. But the quality of non- material things like freedom,
security and respect cannot be bought with money. We cannot buy pollution free
environment, unadulterated medicines and peace with money. Schools, colleges, parks,
hospitals, etc. are the facilities which cannot be run individually. There has to be a
collective effort of team work between the government or society in providing these to
the general public.
13. “For development, people look at a mix of goals.” Support the statement with three
suitable examples.
Ans: It is true that for development, people look at a mix of goals. (i) If women are
engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. So dignity is
an important goal.(ii) However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there
would be more sharing of housework and greater acceptance of women working
outside.(iii) A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety
of jobs or run a business. These are goals other than income. Hence development goal is
not only for better income but for other important things in life.
14. What are the limitations of the criterion used by the World Bank is classifying different
countries?
Ans: Limitation: Limitation of this criterion is that average or per capita income is not
the only factor important for development. This factor hides the other important
factor—distribution of income, which also affects development. Higher average income,
along with equitable distribution of income is considered favourable for development.
15. What are the objectives of social development?
Ans: i. Economic Equality: Social development seeks to bring economic equality to the
poor sections of the society. It requires to raise the standard of living of the people living
below poverty line. ii. Social Justice: The underprivileged section of society should get
equal right for carrying on any job. They should also get justice and legal aid for any
injustice met. iii. Health and Education: It should be ensured that the lower section of

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 the society gets proper health and education facilities so that they can compete with
other people living in society. iv. Cultural Equality: There should not be discrimination
between people on the basis of regional identity, caste, religion, social status etc.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. What is the main norm used by the World Bank in classifying different countries as
rich and poor countries? What are the restrictions of such norms?
Ans: Average income or per capita income is the main domain used by the World Bank
in classifying different coutries as rich and poor countries. According to the World
Bank, income is one of the most important attributes. Countries with average income of
USD 12616 per annum and above are called rich countries. Countries with average
income of USD 1530 or less are called middle-income countries and countries with
average income of USD 1035 or less are called poor countries. This is based on the
conception that the higher the total income of the country, the developed it is. However,
there are certain restrictions to this norm because income, although an important
measure for calculating growth and development, is not the only attribute. Over the
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past few decades, health and education have made an important mark in the
development of a country. So, even if the country has high per capita income and
literacy rate but does not have good medical facilities, it cannot be considered
developed.
2. “The development for one may be the destruction for the other.” Explain the statement
with appropriate examples.
Ans: Yes, it is true that what may be called development for some may turn out to be
destruction for the others. For example, the Sardar Sarovar dam built over the
Narmada river led to a major evacuation of the tribes near the Narmada river and as a
result the tribes lost their land and homes. This development of Sardar sarovar dam
turned out to be a destruction for the tribes. Another example, On the border of
Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, in the Singrauli region, over 200,000 people have
been displaced on different occasions. First by the Rihand dam, then by a series of
thermal power plants of the National Thermal Power Corporation. Singrauli has
illuminated the lives of many in the urban centres, but has seen its natives groping in
endless darkness, grappling to overcome the trauma of displacement. So the
development in Singrauli led to destruction of its people. Multinational companies take
away the land of the farmers for the construction of industries. It may be beneficial for
boosting production but at the same time it causes loss of cultivable land and livelihood
of the farmers. Various movements have been launched against the acquisition of land
from the farmers.
3. “Though the level of income is important, it is an inadequate measure of the level of
development.” Justify the statement.
Ans: It is true that income is an important way to measure the level of development but
it is also true that it is not the only way to measure the level of development. It is an
inadequate method of measuring development since it is only the materialistic measure
of development based on money. Over the past few decades, health, education, sanitary
and other non-materialistic indicators have become an important criteria in measuring
the level of development. The Human Development Index, for example, is a better

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 measure of development since it takes into consideration health and education
indicators as well. For example, even though the income of Punjab is more than that of
Kerala, Kerala has a higher HDI because it has better health and educational facilities.
The literacy rate of Kerala is higher than that of Punjab.
4. Beside income, what can be the other attributes to compare economic development?
Ans: (i) Infant Morality Rate: It is an indicator of the availability of doctors and
medical facilities in the region as well the awareness of the people living there in regard
to diseases and their prevention. Low infant mortality rate indicates good medical
facilities and all round development in the society. (ii) Literacy Rate: This is an
indicator of the number of schools and teachers available in a region and also indicates
whether the facilities are being used or not due to societal pressures. Low literacy rate
shows backwardness and there will not be fast economic development. (iii) Life
Expectancy: This is also an indicator of available health facilities. Low life expectancy
Wil l be a hindrance to economic development.
5. Describe the importance of sustainable development with reference to groundwater by
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giving example.
Ans: It is important that we may enjoy the gifts of nature, but cannot think of our
generations to live without such benefits. It becomes our duty to use nature for the
fulfillment of our needs and not our greed. Our development should not hamper the
needs of the future generations. In the case of groundwater, we have utilized it to the
maximum. It is a natural resource which is replenished by nature. People living in the
areas with surplus water reserves should take care for its conservation. Efforts should
be made not to overuse or degrade the quality of water. Recent evidences show that
groundwater is under serious threat of disappearance. If suitable steps are not taken, it
can pose serious consequences.
6. “Kerala have a better Human Development Index ranking in comparison to Punjab”.
Support the statement with three reasons.
Ans: Education: Kerala has a higher level of literacy rate than Punjab. In fact, the
literacy rate of Kerala is the highest in India. In Kerala, the literacy rate is ninety-one
per cent which is almost as high as that of China. This is mainly because education has
been made available to everyone in Kerala whether they are upper caste or the lower
[Link] is no bias in the field of education, which is one of the major reasons why
Kerala has a better HDI than Punjab. Health care: The health care facilities in Kerala
are far better than those in Punjab. Kerala has over 2700 government medical
hospitals, with 330 beds per 1,00,000 population which is the highest in India, making it
achieve a higher ranking in the HDI. Politics: The political parties in Kerala have taken
steps for genuine welfare of the people and have invested intelligently and
methodologically in the field of health and education.
7. Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways even today.
Assess the statement by giving five suitable [Link] “Ours is still a male
dominated, patriarchal society. Women face disadvantage, discrimination and
oppression in various ways.” Discuss.
Ans: (a) The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent compared with 76 per cent
among men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies.

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 Many of them drop out because parents prefer to spend their resources for their boys’
education. (b) The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still
very small. On an average an Indian woman works one hour more than an average
man every day. Yet much of her work is not paid and therefore often not valued. (c)
The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work.
However, in almost all areas of work, from sports and cinema, to factories and fields,
women are paid less than men, even when both do exactly the same work.(d) In many
parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted
before she is born. Such sex-selective abortion led to a decline in child sex ratio. (e)
They are not safe even within their own home from beating, harassment and other
forms of domestic violence.
8. Describe any five conditions or aspects that you would consider before accepting a job.
Ans: i. Facilities for the family: I would have to check if there is good educational
facility for children, a good house and locality to stay in, good medical facilities should
also be available. ii. Jobs security: I should have clear terms of employment in my
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appointment letter. A job which gives high pay but no job security will reduce one’s
sense of security and freedom. iii. Opportunity to learn: There should be opportunity for
personal career growth, so that no boredom or stagnation sets in. iv. Working
atmosphere needs to be cooperative and healthy: There should be good team spirit and
the seniors should look after the newcomers and guide them. If women are engaged in
paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. A safe and secured
environment may allow more women to take up jobs or run a business. v. Time for your
family: Working hours should be fixed and adhered to so that there is time for spending
with family. Leave facility must be there as well.
CHAPTER 2 - SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of -----
i. Primary ii. Secondary iii. Tertiary iv. None of these
Ans: i. Primary
2. Complete the following table.
Unorganised Sector Organised sector Public sector
---A? Soldier ---B?
Ans: A. Tailor B. All India Radio
3. What do you mean by Gross Domestic Product?
Ans: The money value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a
particular year.
4. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Cotton is a manufactured product and cloth is a natural product.
Ans: Cotton is a natural product and cloth is a manufactured product.
5. Which of the following is not a feature of tertiary sector?
1. It is also called service sector. 2. It includes transport and communication.
3. It can produce goods but never support the production process. 4. All of these
Ans: It can produce goods but never support the production process.
6. Which of the following is included in open unemployment?

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 i. It is hidden ii. More than required people are employed.
iii. When people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than
their potentials. iv. None of these
Ans: None of these
7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Value of intermediary goods not included in the calculation of goods and
services in the sectors of the economy.
Reason (R): The value of intermediate good already included in the value of the final
good.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
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Ans: (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
8. The following table gives the GDP in rupees by the three sectors. Calculate the share of
primary sector in the year 2000.
Year Primary Secondary Tertiary
2000 52,000 48,500 1,33,500
2013 8,00,500 10,74,000 38,68,000
Ans: 52,000 x 100 =22.22%
2,34,000
9. Which of the following is true?
i. Right to Work is implemented through MGNREGA 2005.
ii. Right to Work is implemented through MGNREGA 2015.
iii. Right to Work is implemented through MGNREGA 2025.
iv. None of these
Ans: i. Right to Work is implemented through MGNREGA 2005.
10. Match the following.
[Link] land (a) Setting up agro-based Mills.
[Link] prices for Crops (b) Cooperative marketing societies
[Link] job in the off season (c) Procurement of food grains by government
[Link] to sell their grains (d) Construction of canals by the government
to the local traders after harvest
Ans: 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)
11. The largest producing sector in 1970-71 is------.
(a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Secondary sector (d) Service sector
Ans: (a) Primary sector
12. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): An individual who makes flour from wheat is engaged in primary sector.
Reason (R): When some process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of

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 secondary sector.
(a)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans: (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
13. The goods produced by exploiting natural resources comes under the category of ......
Ans: Primary sector
14. When people produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is
known as----
(a) Tertiary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Primary sector (d) Service sector
Ans: (c) Primary sector
15. .......... unemployment is a kind of unemployment in which some people look like being
employed but are actually not employed fully.

Ans: Disguised
16. .....sector is the part of a country’s economic system that is run by persons and
companies, rather than the government.
Ans: Private
17. In which sector the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services?
(a) Joint sector (b) Private sector (c) Cooperative sector (d) Public sector
Ans: (d) Public sector
18. A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city,11,00,000
worked in the unorganized [Link] total income of the city in this year (1997-1998)
was 60,000 million. Out of this 32,000 million was generated in the organised section.
The number of workers in organised sector is----
(a) 4,00,000 (b) 5,00000 (c) 10,00000 d) 39,000
Ans: (a) 4,00,000
19. Complete the following table by writing the values of A and B in the table.
Primary Sector Secondary Sector Tertiary Sector
Fisherman Matchmaker A-?
Bee-keeping B-? Worker of call centre
Ans: A-Bank Clerk B-Tailor
20. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
A. Employment conditions B. The nature of economic activity
C. Ownership of enterprises D. Number of workers employed in the enterprise.
Ans: (A) Employment conditions
21. Workers in the _____ sector do not produce goods.
Ans: Tertiary
22. A society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant
ethnic differences called---.
Ans: Homogeneous society
23. These activities by themselves do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support
for the production process. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns.

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 Since these activities generate services rather than goods. Analyse the consumer
movement information given above, considering one of the following correct option:
A. Tertiary Sector B. Secondary Sector C. Primary Sector D. Industrial Sector
Ans: (A) Tertiary Sector
24. Women in the _____ sector manufacture goods.
Ans: Secondary sector
25. Which one of the sectors enjoys job security?
A. Unorganised sector B. Organised sector C. Both A and B D. None of these
Ans: (B) Organised sector
26. Which is not a characteristic of unorganized sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government
(b) There are rules and regulations but these are not followed
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often not regular
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leaves due to Sickness.
Ans: (c) Jobs here are high-paid and often not regular
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27. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Disguised unemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not
have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Everyone is working, no one is fully
employed.
Reason (R): In actual fact, labour effort gets divided.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
28. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to the working
people in the city of Surat:
Place of Work Nature of % of Working
Employment People
Own shops,office, clines in market A– ? 15
places with formal license
Working in small Workshops usually
not registered with the government B– ? 50
Ans: A – Organised B – Unorganised
29. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
A. employment conditions B. the nature of economic activity
C. ownership of enterprises D. number of workers employed in the enterprise
Ans: (C) ownership of enterprises
30. Hospitals and schools belong to which of the following:
A. Primary Sector B. Tertiary Sector C. Secondary Sector D. None of these
Ans: (b) Tertiary Sector
31. Workers in the _____ sector provide services.

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 Ans: Tertiary Sector
32. Cotton as a raw material is produced by ___ sector.
Ans: Primary Sector
33. All the activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sector are _____ on each other.
Ans: Interdependent
34. Which one of the following is odd one?
A. Fishing B. Farming C. Automobile D. Good gathering
Ans: (C) Automobile
35. Most of the workers in _____ sector do not have any job security.
Ans: Unorganised sector.
36. The ............ sector which has become the most important in terms of the total
production indeveloped countries.
Ans: Tertiary
37. Which is not a characteristic of unorganized sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government
(b) There are rules and regulations but these are not followed
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often not regular
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays leaves due to sickness
Ans: (c) Jobs here are high-paid and often not regular
38. Fill the blank in table with correct answer.
Occupations Sectors
Tailor Tertiary
(A)- ? Primary
Astronaut (B) - ?
Ans: A. Fisherman/Farmer B. Tertiary
39. Which among the following most appropriately describes the underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid as per their work (b) Workers are not skilled
(c) Worker are working less than what they are capable of doing (d) Workers are lazy
Ans: (c) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
40. Workers in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Unorganized Organized Total
Primary 200 2 202
Secondary 50 5 55
Tertiary 80 20 100
Total 330 27 357
Total in percentage 100%
What is the percentage of people in organised sector?
(a) 8.4% (b) 9.6% (c) 7.6% (d) 10%
Ans: (c) 7.6%
41. In which sector the government owns most assets and provides all the services?
Ans: Public Sector
42. In the .......... sector, goods are directly obtained from agriculture as raw material.
Ans: Primary
43. In which sector workers enjoy job security?
(a) Agriculture sector (b) Private sector (c) Organised sector (d) Unorganised sector
Ans: (c) Organised sector

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 44. Who has the ownership of the assets in the public sector?
Ans: The government of a country has the ownership of the assets in the public sector.
45. What does GDP stand for?
Ans: GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.
46. Mention any two feature of unorganized sector.
Ans: Working hours are more and harsh. No job security is there. No employment
benefits are given. Employees work in poor working conditions (any two)
47. Where is the disguised employment found mostly?
Ans: Disguised employment is mostly found in the rural areas.
48. The disguised employment is mainly found in -----sector.
Ans: Primary (agriculture)
49. In which sector are a large number of workers losing their jobs in, since 1990?
Ans: Primary sector
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50. What was the most important sector of economic activities at the earliest stages of
development?
Ans: Primary sector
51. Name the sector which forms the base for all other products.
Ans: Primary sector
52. Name the sector in which natural products are changed into other forms.
Ans: Secondary sector.
53. Name the sector which helps in the development of primary and secondary sectors.
Ans: Tertiary sector
54.

The largest producing sector in 1970-71 is-----

(a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Secondary sector (d) Both a and b
Ans: (a) Primary sector
55. The Government of India made a law implementing the ___ in many districts of India.
It is called MNREGA.
Ans: Right to Work
56. Since the 1990s, it is also common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs in
the _____.
Ans: Organised Sector
57. True or False. If false, correct the mistake in the following sentence.

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 The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of the sector is called Gross National Income (GNP).
Ans: False. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year provides the total production of the sector for the year is called Gross
Domestic Product (GDP).
58. In the following question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose correct options.
Assertion (A): GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services
produced within a country during a particular year.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explantion of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explantion of A.
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(c) A is correct but R is not correct

(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Ans: (c) A is correct but R is not correct
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. “The entire tertiary sector not grown in importance”. Support the statement with
arguments.
Ans: (1) Peculiarity of skills in the tertiary sector: Highly-educated and skilled
professionals only are able to get employment. Other engage themselves in low-paid
jobs. (2) High incomes: Higher incomes are available for the top-level administrative
jobs only. Low-paid jobs do not attract employment. (3) No job security: Large number
of workers are casual with irregular and low incomes barely to sustain livelihoods.
2. Why does disguised employment not help in productivity of a country? Explain with
the help of an example.
Ans: Disguised employment means that more number of people employed in an
economic activity than required. If these extra people are removed, there will be no
effect on the production. They seem to be employed but actually they are not. The
workforce is not being used to its potential. They divide the work but do not increase
production. They do not help in increasing the productivity as their efforts are not
economic. Hence, it is truly stated that disguised or hidden employment does not help
in productivity of a country.
3. Explain the meaning of disguised employment with the help of an example.
Ans: Disguised employment means that more number of people employed in an
economic activity than required. If these extra people are removed, there will be no
effect on the production. They seem to be employed but actually they are not. For
example, in the rural areas, the entire family is engaged in the production of crops on
the same piece of land. If there are ten people in the family, three people can manage
the production. If the extra seven people ard removed the productivity will be the same.
They seem to be making no contribution.
4. Describe the interdependence of all three sectors giving examples from transportation
system.
Ans: Primary sector makes possible the extraction of natural resource like iron. This

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 iron is then taken to the secondary sector for manufacturing through the transportation
system like trucks. The extraction process is supported by the financing and
information technological institutions. It is through the secondary sector that the
natural resource iron is changed into other forms through the process of
manufacturing. Manufacturing again need the support of the service sector in the form
of engineers, electricians, etc. Iron is changed into iron sheets and then into vehicles for
transportation. These vehicles are used for providing services in the tertiary sector.
5. Name the sector that is the largest employer in India. Why does this sector produce
only a quarter of the National GDP?
Ans:The agricultural sector (Primary) is the largest employer in India. The average size
of the land holdings is very low which results in low productivity per holder. Less use of
modern technology and knowhow among the farmers to increase crop productivity. The
systems of providing financing and marketing facilities have been insufficient since
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independence. The farmers are not able to get benefits from the loan facilities and access
to large markets. Absence of alternate income generating activities in rural areas give
rise to disguised unemployment where efficient labour force is not used to its optimum.
6. How is tertiary sector different from other sectors? Give examples.
Ans: (i) Primary sector includes all those activities which result in output of natural
products. (ii) Secondary sector includes activities which produce a new product by
transforming the shape of a natural product. (iii) Tertiary activities neither produce any
natural product nor transform shape of natural products. It only supports the activities
in both sectors. Steel produced in a factory has to move long distance. It can be done by
a strong network of tertiary activities.
7. Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and
tertiary are useful? Explain how.
Ans: Yes. On account of the information it provides we come to know how and where
the people of a country are employed. It helps in ascertaining as to which sector of
economic activity contributes more or less to the country’s GDP and per capita income.
If the tertiary sector is developing much faster than the primary sector, it implies that
agriculture is depleting, and the government must take measures to rectify this. The
knowledge that the agricultural profession is becoming unpopular or regressive can
only come if we know which sector it belongs to.
8. Define secondary sector. Why is it called industrial sector? Give examples.
Ans: In secondary sector, primary goods/natural products are changed into other
forms through different ways of manufacturing in the industries. It is also called
Industrial sector, because this sector is associated with different kinds of industries.
Example: cotton fibre which we get from agriculture is changed into yarn and cloth
through different ways of manufacturing in the industries.
9. Why primary sector is primary and also called as agriculture and related sector? Give
examples.
Ans: When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the
primary sector. Example: cotton. It is primary because it forms the base for all other
products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are
from agriculture, dairy, fishing,forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related

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 sector.
10. “Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian
economy.” Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Ans: No, it is not true. In fact, tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the
development of the Indian economy. The tertiary sector has contributed vastly to the
Indian economy, especially in the last two decades. In the last decade, the field of
Information and Technology has grown, and consequently, the GDP share of the
tertiary sector has grown from around 40% in 1973 to more than 50% in 2003. It helps
in the development of primary and secondary sectors. Though it does not produce
goods but they are an aid or support for the production processes.
11. What constitutes the unorganized sector in urban areas? Why do workers in this area
need protection?
Ans: In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly small-scale industry,
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casual workers in construction, trade and transport, street vendors, head-load workers,
garment makers, rag pickers, etc. All these workers constitute unorganized sector in
urban areas. A majority of workers in the unorganized sector are from scheduled
castes scheduled tribes and backward communities. Workers in unorganised sector
urban areas need protection because, besides getting the irregular and low- paid work,
these workers also face social discrimination. They are looked down upon by the people
in urban areas. Protection and support to the unorganised sector workers is thus
necessary for both economic and social development.
12. How does service sector help in the development of primary and secondary sectors?
Explain with examples.
Ans: Activities that fall under the service sector helping the other two sectors by
activities that are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods
that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by
trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be
necessary to store these goods in godowns. We may also need to talk to others over
telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow money from banks (banking) to
help production and trade. Transport, storage,communication, banking and trade are
some examples of service or service sector.
13. With the example of sugar cane, explain the interdependence of all the three sectors of
economy.
Ans: The process starts when the sugar is cultivated; Cultivation of sugar cane it comes
in the primary sector. After the cultivation, the sugar cane is processed to make sugar
in the factories, which is an industrial process and thus comes in the secondary sector.
Transportation of sugar packs to various markets. Sale of sugar by wholesalers and
retailers, which is part of tertiary sector.
14. Evaluate the working condition of workers in unorganized sector.
Ans:The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units, which are
largely outside the control of the government. There are rules and regulations but these
are not followed. Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. The condition of
workers in unorganized sector is not good or stable. There is no provision for overtime,
paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness, etc. Employment is not secure. People can be

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 asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some
seasons, some people may be asked to leave.
15. Highlight the three factors responsible for the growth of service sector in the Indian
economy.
Ans: (1) Increase in the demands of the services like maids, cooks, servants and
gardeners. (2) With an increase in number of people in the country, the demand for
service sector has increased. (3) Demands for service like schools, health department
and nursing homes have increased.(4) Increase in the number of working women in
India led to increase in demands in the service sector like household help, babysitters
and cooks.
16. Describe with suitable examples which part of the service sector is not growing in
importance.
Ans: The employment generation part of service sector is not growing in importance.
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The service sector in india employs different kinds of people. At one end, there are a
limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the
other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small
shopkeepers, repair persons cattle, owners transport drivers and electricians. These
people barely manage to earn there living and yet they perform these services because
no alternative opportunity for work are available for them.
17. Analyse the quick measure adopted by Central Government of India to provide
employment to the unemployed in the rural area.
Ans: (i) For the short-term, as a quick measure, the central government in India made a
law implementing the Right to Work in 200 districts of India and then extended to an
additional 130 districts. (ii) The remaining districts in rural areas were brought under
the act with effect from 1 April, 2008. It is called National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005 (NREGA 2005). (iii) Under NREGA 2005, all those who are able to,
and are in need of work are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the
government. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give
unemployment allowances to the people.
18. Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain why the government has
taken them up.
Ans: A few examples include provision of water, electricity and some modes of
transport. The government has taken them up because water and electricity are the
basic needs of every individual. If the work of providing electricity and water is left to
private enterprises, the latter might exploit this opportunity and sell these at rates
which the masses cannot afford. Hence, to ensure that basic amenities like water and
electricity are available for all, the government supplies these at low and affordable
rates and ensures its uninterrupted supply to public.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. In what ways can employment be increased in urban areas?
Ans: Urban unemployment is characterised by the existence of both open
unemployment, which in turn is an offshoot of rural unemployment itself, and the
educated unemployment. Main causes of urban unemployment are insufficient
economic development, defective system of education and slow growth of

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 industrialisation. Reform of the educational system to make it vocational at the school
stage. Concrete action will have to be taken to promote decentralisation and dispersal of
industrial activity. Promotion of small-scale industries and encouragement to self-
employment by banks. Develop techniques of production that can be taken up with low
capital intensity. Provision of infrastructure like railways, roads, hospitals and schools
which will not only create employment opportunities but also contribute to
development.
2. Explain with suitable examples how public sector contributes to the economic
development of the nation.
Ans: Creation of infrastructure: Public sector promotes the economic development
since it brings about creation and expansion of infrastructure and the infrastructure
plays an important role in economic development. Generates financial resources:
Public Sector provides for various employment opportunities since major part of
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public sector depends on manpower and higher employment opportunities implies

higher generation of financial resources for economic development. Contributes to HDI:
Public sector majorly contributes to the Human Development Index since health and
education industries come under the purview of public sector. Availability of goods:
Public sector helps in availability of goods at moderate rates, which helps in
maintaining financial security and thus helps in economic development. Provides
encouragement: It provides encouragement to small, medium and cottage production
units. It also strives for the creation of welfare state.
3. Distinguish between public sector and private sector.
Ans:
Public Sector Private Sector
1. Government owns most of the Ownership of assets and delivery of services
assets and provides all the are in the hands of private individuals or
services. companies.
2. Activities in the public sector Activities in the private sector are guided by
are guided by the motive of public the motive of earning profit.
welfare.
3. Government raise money Individual or company raise money through
through taxes high price on products, delivery-service
charges, fees and fines.
4. The main way of making The main way of making revenue is through
revenue is through public revenue shares and debentures and by taking loans.
like taxes, duty and penalty.
5. The benefits of working in The benefits of working in private sector are
public sector are allowances, paid exciting salary packages and perks.
leave, ESI, P.F, job security etc.
6. Railway and Post Office are the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) and
examples of public sector. Reliance Industries Limited are the examples
of public sector.
7. Revenue is used to meet expense Income is used to meet expenses on services
on services rendered by it. rendered by it.

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 4. How far is it correct to say that several services which cannot be provided by private
sector can be provided by the public sector? Explain.
Ans: A few examples of public sector activities are Indian Railways, water, electricity
board and modes of transport. There are several necessities of common man, but it is
not possible for the private sector to provide all these things at reasonable cost. For
example, water and electricity are the basic needs of everyone. If the work of providing
these is given to private sector then the latter can exploit this opportunity by selling the
same at high rates. Therefore the supply of basic amenities is given to the government
so that it provides these facilities to the people at low and affordable rates, ensuring the
smooth and uninterrupted supply to the public.
5. Distinguish between organised and unorganized sector.
Ans: Organised Sector :The organizations who have regular working hours, weekly
offs, etc. Rules and regulations followed most of the rules followed have been framed by
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the government. It comprises of a government teacher, village officer, a doctor in

government hospital etc. Normally regular and assured work is there and the employees
cannot be dismissed from employment without valid reasons. Workers get several other
benefits from the employers like paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund,
pensions, gratuity medical benefits etc. Unorganised Sector: These are generally small
units and businesses shops, self-employed, individuals, street vendors, [Link] are not
followed, not have been framed by the government. Employees can be asked to go at
any time without any reason being given. It comprises of worker in a large factory, a
clerk in an office, a doctor in a private hospital, a teacher in an unaided school, etc. A
daily wage worker,an agricultural labourer, a shop assistant, etc. There is no provision
for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc.
6. “The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues: wages,
safety and health”. Explain with examples.
Ans: In unorganised sectors workers are exploited by the private individuals because
their aim is to earn more profit. They are not concerned with the safety and health of
the employees. They also pay low wages to increase their profits. In such a type of
organization working conditions are not good. So the protection of their rights is
necessary. They can take the help of labour laws and courts. Outdated and obsolete
machines installed in factories play havoc with health of workers. These need up-
gradation. Government should make laws and strictly implement them for benefit of
workers.
7. Explain the significance of the Tertiary sector.
Ans: Tertiary sector generates services rather than goods, therefore, it is also called
service sector. Some examples of tertiary sector activities are transport, storage, trade,
communication, banking, [Link] activities, by themselves, do not produce a good
but they are an aid for the production process. This sector also includes the services of
teachers, doctors, barbers, lawyers, dry-cleaners etc. In recent times, certain new
services based on information technology such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call
centres, software companies etc. have become important. This sector includes the
services that help in the development of primary and secondary sectors. For example,
goods that are produced in the primary and secondary sectors would need to be

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 transported by trucks or trains and then these are sold at wholesale and retail shops.
At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. Similarly, we may need to avail
the transport services to go from one place to another or borrow money from bank to
help production and trade. Thus, we can say that the tertiary sector supports the other
two sectors.
8. Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain the role of government in
this sector.
Ans: Construction of roads, bridges, railways, harbours, generating electricity,
providing irrigation through dams, building hospitals, dispensaries, schools, colleges
etc. are a few examples of public sector activities. Government has taken up these
activities because these are basic facilities and require a huge amount of investment
which is beyond the capacity of the private sector. Several things are needed by the
society as a whole which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. Even if
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they do provide these things, they would charge a high rate for their use. Let us further
understand this with the help of an example. Selling electricity at a price which covers
the full cost of generation may push up the cost of production in industries. Many units,
specially small scale units, might have to shut down. Government here steps in by
producing and supplying electricity at rates which these industries can afford. So the
government has to bear a part of the cost.
9. Distinguish between primary sector and secondary sector.
Ans: 1. Primary sector includes all agricultural and allied activities, e.g., forestry,
fishing, mining, quarrying, etc. This sector is also known as manufacturing sector.2. It
produces goods by exploiting natural resources such as land, water,forests, mines, etc.
Manufacturing sector converts one type of commodity into another. For example –
manufacturing of cotton cloth from cotton yarn, sugar from sugar-cane, etc. 3. Farmers
buy many goods such as tractors, fertilisers, equipment, etc. from secondary sector.
Thus, it shows the dependence of primary sector on secondary sector. Similarly,
manufacturing sector needs raw materials such as cotton yarn to produce cotton,
sugarcane to produce sugar, wood for furniture, etc. This shows the dependence of
secondary sector on primary sector. Primary Sector Secondary Sector 4. Agriculture, a
part of the primary sector, is the largest sector and plays the most important role in
economic development. Manufacturing is the backbone of the economy and creates
demands in other sectors.
10. Describe the process to calculate GDP.
Ans: The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of
production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
of a country. The GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of
calculating GDP is undertaken by the Central Government. This ministry, with the
help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories,
collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and
then estimates the GDP. The GDP is usually calculated on annual basis. It includes
private and public consumption, government outlays, investments and that occur
within a defined territory.

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 11. The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in the organised and
unorganized sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Worker in different Sectors (in Millions)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 2 240 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28 370 398
Total % 7% 93% 100%
i. Which is the most important sector that provides most jobs to the people?
Ans: The primary sector is the most important sector that provides most jobs to the
people.
ii. What is the number of persons engaged in the unorganised sector?
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Ans: The number of person engaged in the unorganized sector is 370 million.
iii. Why is the unorganised sector more important? Give one reason.
Ans: It provides employment to a far greater number of people (93%),specially from
lower strata of society, when compared to those employed by the organised sector.
iv. Which is the most important organised sector? Give one reason.
Ans: Tertiary sector is the backbone which further boosts the growth of primary and
secondary sectors. For example, infrastructure and communication help in smooth flow
of goods and services across the country.
12. Give four reasons for the rising of the tertiary sector in India. Or “The tertiary sector
becoming more important than other sectors in India”. Support the statement with
reasons.
Ans: Basic services: In any country, several services such as hospitals, educational
institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative
offices, municipal corporations, defense, transport, banks and insurance companies, are
required. These can be considered as basic services. In a developing country, the
government has to take responsibility for the provision of these services. Development of
primary and secondary sector: The development of agriculture and industry leads to the
development of services such as transport, trade and storage. The greater the
development of the primary and secondary sectors, the more would be the demand for
such services. Rise in income levels: As income levels rise, certain sections of people start
demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals,
private schools and professional training centres. We can see this change quite sharply in
cities, especially in big cities. Rise in information technology: Over the past decade or so,
certain new services, such as those based on information and communication technology
have become important and essential. The production of these services has been rising
rapidly. Globalization: Due to globalization, people have become aware of new services
and activities, and communication because of which the tertiary sector has gained
importance.
13. Highlight the objectives of implementing the NREGA 2005.
Ans: National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (NREGA) is an Indian labour
law and social security measure that aims to guarantee the right to work. It aims at

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 enhancing livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage
employment in a financial year to every household whose adult members volunteer to do
unskilled manual work. Another aim of NREGA is to provide employment within 5 km
of an applicant’s residence, and minimum wages are to be paid. If work is not provided
within 15 days of applying, applicants are entitled to an unemployment allowance. Any
Indian citizen who is above the age of 18 years and resides in the rural area is entitled to
apply for work. Workers under NREGA are entitled to the statutory minimum wage
applicable to agricultural labourers in the state, until and unless the central government
notifies a different wage. In whichever case, the minimum wage cannot go below 60 per
day. Workers are to be paid weekly or in any case not later than a fortnight. Payment of
wages should be made directly to the person concerned on pre-announced dates.
14. How do we count various goods and services for calculating Gross Domestic Product
(G.D.P.) of a country? Explain with example.
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Ans: (i) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the total production of the sector for that year. The sum of production in
the three sectors gives Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. (ii) Not every good
(or service), that is produced and sold, needs to be counted. Intermediate goods are used
up in producing final goods and services. The value of final goods already includes the
value of all the intermediate goods used up in producing the final goods. So, only the
value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year
is counted in GDP. Example: A farmer sells wheat to a flour mill for 8/kg. The mill
grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for 10/kg. The biscuit company
uses flour, sugar and oil to make the packets of biscuits. It sells biscuits in the market for
15/packet Now, biscuits are the final goods.
CHAPTER 3 - MONEY AND CREDIT
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. Exchange of goods for goods with out the use of money is called----
Ans: Barter system
2. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
In a barter system goods are directly exchanged with the use of money.
Ans: In a barter system goods are directly exchanged without the use of money.
3. Fill in the blanks.
Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process, it is called a --.
Ans: Medium of exchange
4. Which authority issue coins and currencies in India?
Ans: Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
5. What do you mean by a cheque?
Ans: A cheque is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the
person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.
6. Which of the following is a feature of a cheque?
i. Cheque number ii. Bank Branch Code iii. Account Numbe iv. All of these
Ans: iv. All of these
7. Credit refers to:
Ans: An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or

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 services in return for the promise of future payment.
8. ---- is a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
Ans: Collateral
9. The following table shows source of rural households in India in the year 2003.
Source Share
Money lender 30%
Private finance 27%
Commercial Bank 25%
Other (Merchant,
Relative etc.) 18%
Analyzing the table above, what is the share of formal sector in total
credit?
(a) 25% (b) 27% (c) 52% (d) 18%
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Ans: (c) 25%

10. Anything which has common acceptability as a means of exchange, a measure and a
store of value is called-----.
Ans: Money
11. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Modern forms of money are accepted as a medium of exchange.
Reason (R): The currency is authorised by the government of the country.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (A) Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation of A.
12. What was ‘cowries’?
Ans: The Hindi cowdi or seashells, used as a form of currency is called ‘cowries’
13. What is the main source of income for the banks?
Ans: Investment and deposits.
14. What is the meaning of barter system?
Ans: The exchange of goods, property, services, etc. for other goods,
etc. without using money is known as barter system.
15. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
In India, the Central Government issues currency notes on the behalf of the Reserve
Bank of India.
Ans: In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on the behalf of the
Central Government.
16. Identify the condition when both the parties in a barter economy have to agree to sell
and buy each other’s commodities. What is it called?
Ans: Double coincidence of wants.
17. Find the incorrect option:
(a) Collateral is what pushes the borrower into a painful situation

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 (b) Collateral is the amount that RBI gets from other banks
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender
(d) Collateral is deposit facility like cheque
Ans: (b) Collateral is the amount that RBI gets from other banks
18. If in an area 10 percent of loans are taken from informal source and 90 percent are
taken from formal source what will be that area called as:
(a) Urban Region (b) Semi urban (c) Rural region (d) Rich country
Ans: (a) Urban Region
19. Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment
together comprise what is called the collateral asset.
Ans: Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of
repayment together comprise what is called the terms of credit.
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20. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns such as building, land,
vehicle etc.
Reason (R): For loan borrower can withdraw the guarantee as and when she/he wants.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
21. What is demand deposit?
Ans: It is a facilities provided by the bank to have the provision to withdrawn the money
as and when require.
22. Find the Incorrect option:
A. The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life.
B. When the two parties have to agree to sell and buy each others commodities is
called double coincidence of wants.
C. Modern forms of money include currency paper notes and coins.
D. The other form in which people hold money is as promissory note
with banks.
Ans: (D) The other form in which people hold money is as promissory note with banks.
23. Bank deposits are also called............
(a) Collateral (b) Demand deposits (c) Cheque (d) Currency
Ans: (b) Demand deposits
24. If in an area 10 percent of loans are taken from informal source and 90 percent are
taken from formal source what will be that area called as:
(a) Urban Region (b) Semi urban (c) Rural region (d) Rich country
Ans: (a) Urban Region
25. Banks and cooperatives are informal sources of credit. State whether the statement
True or False. If false, correct the statement.

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 Ans: False. Banks and cooperatives are formal sources of credit.
26. Double coincidence of wants is essential feature of Barter system. State whether the
statement True or False. If false, correct the statement.
Ans: True
27. Simultaneous fulfillment of mutual wants by buyers and sellers is known as...........
Ans: Double coincidence of wants
28. Banks and Cooperative sector are included in which sector of loan?
(a) Informal (b) Formal (c) Credit (d) Saving
Ans: (b) Formal
29. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Not all the money that is deposited in the bank by the depositors
is kept by the banks themselves.
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Reason (R): They use it to extend loans, so that the difference between interest earned
and interest given becomes a source of income.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
30. Banks initiate digital transfer of _____ through _____ card.
Ans: Money, credit
31. Arrange the following options in correct sequence.
(i) Deposit extra cash with bank (ii) Withdraw money
(iii) Write a cheque (iv) Open a bank account
Options:
(a) i-ii-iii-iv (b) i-iii-ii-iv (c) iv-i-iii-ii (d) iv-iii-ii-i
Ans: (c) iv-i-iii-ii
32. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a
guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.
Reason (R): Till the loan is repaid the asset belongs to the lender.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Ans: (b) Both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
33. How do the deposits with the banks become their source of income?
Ans: Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans. They charge a higher rate
of interest on loans than what they offer on deposits. The difference between what is
charged from borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is the main source of income

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 for the banks.
34. Why can one not refuse a payment made in rupees in India?
Ans: One cannot refuse a payment made in rupees in India because it is authorized by
the government of India. It is accepted as a medium of exchange all over the country.
35. Compare formal sector loans with informal sector loans regarding interest only.
Ans: In formal sector, the rate of interest is low. It is fixed by the Reserve Bank of India,
who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loan. In informal sector, the rate of
interest is very high as there is no organisation to supervise the functioning of informal
sources of loan.
36. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans
necessary?
Ans: The banks have to maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they
receive. They should also provide loans to small cultivators, mall scale industries etc.
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37. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in
rural India.
Ans: There is no organisation to supervise credit activities of the informal sector. It
could lead to increasing debt among the borrowers. The rate of interest is very high in
informal sector.
38. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?
Ans: They do not have the collateral to keep with the banks,
39. How does money eliminate the need for double coincidence of wants?
Ans: Money solves the problem of double coincidence of wants by acting as a medium of
exchange.
40. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?
Ans: Double coincidence of wants means owner of good X, say shoes, to find someone
else with good Y, say wheat, and both being in need of each other’s good.
41. How does money act as a medium of exchange?
Ans: Money acts as an intermediary in the process of exchange, thus it is called a
medium of exchange.
42. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
Ans: Reserve Bank of India
43. What are the 2 forms of modern currency?
Ans: Paper notes and Coins
44. What is collateral?
Ans: Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns such as land, building, vehicle,
livestock, deposits with the banks and uses these as a guarantee to the lender until the
loan is repaid.
45. Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural households?
Ans: Banks and Cooperatives
46. Viswa has taken a loan of Rs. 50 lakhs from the bank to purchase a farm. The annual
interest rate on the loan is 12% and the loan is to be repaid in 5 years in monthly
installments. The bank retained the documents of the farm as collateral, which will be
returned to Viswa only when he repays the entire loan with interest.

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 Analyse the loan information given above, considering one of the following
correct option.
I. Mode of repayment II. Interest on loan III. Interest criteria IV. Terms of credit
Ans: IV. Terms of credit
47. Central Bank of India is also called-------.
Ans: Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
48. Who is the present RBI Governor?
Ans: Shaktikanta Das
49. Which bank is called banker’s bank in India?
Ans: Reserve Bank of India
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its
own? Find out the reason.
Ans: It is authorised by the government of India. It is issued by the apex bank on behalf
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of the government. No other individual is allowed to issue currency. The law of the
country legalises its use as a medium of payment and setting transactions. No one in a
country can refuse payment made in the currency of that country.
2. “Money has made transactions easy.” Justify.
Ans: It can be easily exchanged with any commodity or service. It solves the problem of
double coincidence of wants. It is the perfect store of value. It makes economic activities
quite independent from each other.
3. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation.”
Examine the statement.
Ans: They provide safe and secure deposits to a person’s money. They provide excellent
saving and investment options and also help in the growth of the nation. They provide
interests on the deposited money to the depositors. Money can be easily withdrawn from
the banks as and when required by the depositors. They provide easy loans on nominal
rates that make it possible for the common man to build their own assets.
4. Do you know how money transferred from one bank account to another bank account?
Explain with an example.
Ans: For payment through cheque, the payer who has an account in the bank, draws out
a cheque for a specific amount. The cheque is a statement asking the bank to pay a
specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has
been issued. For example, Aman has to pay a specific amount of money to Shruti, say
60,000. Aman will write a cheque in the name of Shurti. It means Aman instructs his
bank to pay the money to Shurti. Shurti will deposit the cheque in her bank. After two
or three days, the money will be transferred from Aman’s account to Shurti’s account.
5. “Poor households still depend on informal sources of credit.” Support the statement
with examples.
Ans: Bank loans require proper documentation and collateral which is rarely available
with poor households. Informal sources of credit such as moneylenders know the
borrowers personally and are often willing to give a loan without a collateral.
Sometimes, if the borrowers are unable to return the loan, they can get additional loans
from moneylenders.

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 6. Why do people deposit their money in bank?
Ans: At a point of time, people need only some currency for their day to day needs. For
instance, workers who receive their salaries at the end of each month have extra cash at
beginning of the month, so they deposit it with banks by opening a bank account in
their name. Banks accept deposits and also pay an amount as interests on the deposits.
In this may people’s money is safe with the banks and it earns an amount as interest.
7. Raghav is a government employee and belongs to a rich household whereas Raju is a
construction worker and comes from a poor rural household. Both are in need and
wish to take loan. Create a list of arguments explaining who between the two would
successfully be able to arrange money from a formal source. Why?
Ans: Raghav will be able to get loan from a formal source. Arguments:
i. Banks are not present everywhere in rural India. Even when they are present, getting
a loan from a hank is much more difficult than taking a loan from informal sources. ii.
Bank loans require proper documents and collateral. Absence of collateral is one of the
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major reasons which prevents the poor from getting bank loans. iii. Informal lenders
such as moneylenders, on the other hand, know the borrowers personally and hence are
often willing to give a loan without collateral.
8. “Self-help Groups support has brought about a revolutionary change in the rural
sector”. Support the statement with argument.
Ans: Yes, i. The idea is to organize rural poor, in particular women, into small Self
Help Groups (SHGs) and pool their savings. Members can take small loans from the
group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is
still less than what the moneylender charges. ii. If the group is regular in savings, it
becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. Loan is sanctioned in the name of the
group and is meant to create self – employment opportunities for the members. The
SHG is responsible for repayment of the loan, hence, banks get ready to give loans
without collateral. iii. Self - help, self – reliance and creating a support system and
platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as health nutrition
domestic violence etc.
9. “It is very essential to expand formal sources of credit in India”. Evaluate the
statement with reasons.
Ans: i. The cost of informal loans is much higher and often leads to a debt trap. Also,
people who might wish to start a new enterprise by borrowing may not do so because of
the high cost of borrowing in such a case. ii. Most loans from informal lenders carry a
very high interest rate and do little to increase the income of the borrowers. Thus, it is n
necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending particularly in the rural
areas, so that the dependence of the poor on informal sources of credit reduces. iii. It is
important that the formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can benefit
from the cheaper loans.
10. How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need
money?
Ans: People deposits money in the bank and in return banks pay an interest on the
deposits. The major portions of this deposited money in the banks are used to extend
loans Since there is a huge demand of loans, banks make use of the deposits to meet the

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 loan requirements of the people. In this way,banks mediate between the depositors.
those who have surplus. and the borrowers who are in need of these funds.
11. Describe the bad effects of informal sources of credit on borrowers.
Ans: (i) Higher interest rates on loan are charged. (ii) No organisation is there to
supervise its lending activities. (iii) Since, informal lenders charge higher interest rates
for borrowing, mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the
borrower. (iv)The borrowers tend to find themselves in a debttrap.
12. How is the concept of Self-Help Groups important for poor people? Give your view
point.
Ans: (i) SHG’s are a new source of providing loans to the rural poor particularly
women. They provide loans to its members according to necessity. (ii) The rate of
interest charged by SHG’s is lesser than that charged by money lender. The SHG helps
the borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral. (iii) Small loans are provided
to members for instance meeting working capital needs such as buying seeds, raw
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materials, fertilizers or cloth.

13. What are the functions of money?
Ans: (i) Money acts as a medium of exchange in goods and services and in payment of
debts. (ii) Money is used as a measure of value. (iii) It is a Standard of Demand
Payments.
14. Dhananjay is a government employee and belongs to a rich household, whereas Raju is
a construction worker and comes from a poor rural household. Both are in need and
wish to take loan. Create a list of arguments explaining who between the two would
successfully be able to arrange money from a formal source. Why?
Ans: (i) Dhananjay, being a government employee, has a regular income. But Raju does
not have a regular income. (ii) Dhananjay, being rich, is more credit worthy. (iii)
Dhananjay has assets against which he can easily get a loan.
15. How is money used in everyday life? Explain with examples.
Ans: It is used as a medium of exchange and facilitates the buying and selling of goods
like car, house, food, clothes etc. It is used as deposits with the banks or to keep it at
home like fixed deposits, bonds etc. It is used for borrowing and lending like loan.
16. Explain with examples, how people are involved with the banks.
Ans: People are involved with the banks in the following ways: 1. Depositors and 2.
Borrowers. The people with excess money deposit it in the banks for safety. In turn they
earn interest on the amount deposited. At the same time, there are people who need
money for various activities. They approach the banks for credit. The bank charges
interest from the borrowers.
17. Why do lenders ask for a collateral while lending? Give any three reasons.
Ans: It is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to the lender –
until the loan is repaid. Collateral with the lender acts as a proof that the borrower will
return the money. By keeping a collateral with the lender, the borrower is bound to be
regular in paying the interest because the borrower does not want to lose the collateral.
18. What is a collateral? Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Explai
Ans: A collateral is an asset such as land, building, livestock, vehicle or deposits with
the banks that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to the lender until the

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 loan is repaid. It is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to the
lender – until the loan is repaid. Collateral with the lender acts as a proof that the
borrower will return the money. By keeping a collateral with the lender, the borrower
is bound to be regular in paying the interest because the borrower does not want to
lose the collateral.
19. ‘Cheap and affordable credit is essential for poor households both in rural and urban
areas.’ In the light of the above statement, explain the social and economic values
attached to it.
Ans: The social value attached to cheap and affordable credit is that it helps in
reducing the dependence of poor on informal sources of credit. The economic value
attached to cheap and affordable credit is that it helps the poor in rural and urban
households to start self-employment ventures. This helps in increasing their income
earning capacity and standard of living.
20. What are demand deposits? How is money safe in the banks? Explain.
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Ans: Deposits in the bank account which are payable on demand are called demand
deposits. Banks accept deposits from number of people. Some part of that money is
given out as loan and the other part is kept with the banks for making payments. So, the
money is safe with the banks. The depositors can withdraw their money whenever they
want.
21. Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country’s development? Explain
any three reasons.
Ans: More lending would lead to higher incomes and encourage people to invest in
agriculture, engage in business and set up small industries. cheap credit will enable
more investment. This leads to acceleration of economic activity. Cheap credit would
also allow weaker sections of society to access formal sector of lending and get rid of
from informal moneylenders. Affordable credit would also end the cycle of debt trap.
Cheap and easy terms of credit would inspire better investment in technology and thus
increase competition.
22. “Most of the poor households still depend on the informal sector for loans, both in
rural and urban areas of India.” Support the statement with three examples.
Ans: Bank loans require proper documentation and collateral which is rarely available
with poor households. Informal sources of credit such as moneylenders know the
borrowers personally and are often willing to give a loan without a collateral.
Sometimes, if the borrowers are unable to return the loan, they can get additional loans
from moneylenders.
23. How do SHGs help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain
with an example.
Ans: It is the group that is responsible for the repayment of loan. Any case of non-
payment of loan by any member is followed up seriously by other members. The formal
sector is willing to lend to the members of SHGs because of their good track record of
managing the credit.
24. Why is there a great need to expand formal sector of credit in India? Explain any three
reasons.
Ans: There is no organisation to supervise the credit activities of lenders in informal

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 [Link] rate of interest charged by the informal sector is very high as compared to
formal sector. People who might wish to start a business by borrowing may not do so
because of high cost of borrowing in informal sector. The higher interest rate of
borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the
borrower in informal sector.
25. How does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks? Why is this
necessary?
Ans: a. It monitors the balance kept by banks for day-today Transactions. b. It checks
that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to
small borrowers. c. Periodically banks have to give details about lending, borrowing
and interest rate to RBI. It is necessary for securing public welfare. It prohibits the
bank from running the business with profit motive [Link] also keeps a check on interest
rate of credit facilities provided by bank. RBI makes sure that the loans from the banks
are affordable and cheap.
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26. Highlight the advantages of Self-Help Groups for the poor.

Ans: They help the poor to become self-reliant in terms of savings and generating
income as the decisions regarding savings are taken by the group members. They avail
the facilities of loans from formal sources like banks at low rate of interest. They create
self-employment opportunities by discussion within their group. They make it possible
for the poor to avail timely finance without any collateral.
27. Describe any four terms of credit with examples.
Ans: 1. Interest rate-The borrower has to pay a sum of money as interest along with the
principal amount. 2. Collateral-It is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this as a
guarantee – to the lender until the loan is repaid.3. Documentation-Proper documents
of borrowing with all the terms and conditions must be submitted. 4. Mode of
repayment-The mode through which the borrower will repay the loan must be clearly
mentioned. Long-term loans can be repaid in annual, half yearly or monthly \
instalments.
28. “The formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers”. Do you
agree? Suggest any five measures.
Ans: Yes, I agree. The process of providing loans should be made easier and accessible
to them. Large number of banks and cooperatives should be opened in the rural areas.
Banks and cooperatives should expand their facility of providing loans so as to decrease
dependence on informal sector. Special focus should be paid on poor and small farmers
along with small scale industries. Loan processing should be simple, faster and timely.
29. “Deposits with the banks beneficial for individual as well as for the nation”. Elaborate
the statement with examples.
Ans: They provide safe and secure deposits to a person’s money. They provide
excellent saving and investment options and also help in the growth of the nation. They
provide interests on the deposited money to the depositors. Money can be easily
withdrawn from the banks as and when required by the depositors. They provide easy
loans on nominal rates that make it possible for the common man to build their own
assets.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

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 1. “Whether credit will be useful or not, depends upon the situation.” Give two different
examples in support of this statement.
Ans: Chirag is a shoe manufacturer. During the festival season, he receives an order for
3,000 pair of shoes to be completed in a month. He employs two more workers for
pasting and stitching. He takes an advance payment from a large trader for 1,000 pair
of shoes. He asks the leather supplier to supply leather and payment would be made
later. Chirag completes the order in a month, makes a good profit and repay all the
money that he had borrowed. Sapna, a small farmer, grows groundnut in her three
acres of land. She took a loan from the money lender, hoping to repay the loan, once the
crop is harvested. Being hit by the pest, the crop fails. Expensive pesticides did not
make any difference. Sapna is unable to repay the moneylender and the other year, it
becomes a bigger amount. Next year again, she took a loan for cultivation. It is not a
bumber crop this year too. Sapna earns little, but it is not enough to repay the old loans
She had to sell a part of the land to repay the loan. She is caught in a debt. This
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situation is called debt-trap. Hence, we can say that it depends on situation whether
credit will be useful or not.
2. Why are the deposits in the banks called demand deposits? What are the merits of
deposits with the banks?
Ans: People deposit the surplus or extra money in the banks. The banks keep the money
safe and provide interest on it. The deposits can be drawn at any time on demand by the
depositors. That is why they are called demand deposits. The benefits of deposits with
the banks are: They can be encashed by issuing cheques in the name of the person
whom the payment is to be made. They make it possible to directly settle payments
without the use of cash. Since demand drafts/cheques are widely accepted as a means of
payment along with currency, they constitute money in the modern economy.
3. “The use of money make exchange of things easier”. Support the statement with
examples.
Ans: Money is used as a medium of exchange because it serves as a common medium
through which people can carry out buying and selling. Use of money makes economic
activities independent of each other. At the same time, it removes the inconvenience
caused by the barter system. For example, a person wants to sell sugar and buy wheat.
He has to look for a person who wants sugar and has wheat to sell. In contrast, if in an
economy, where money is used, the person who wants to sell sugar only has to look for a
buyer for his sugar. The money which he will get can be used to purchase the wheat or
any other commodity in the market. Since, money is used in the exchange process it is
called a medium of exchange. Let us take an example of a farmer who wants to sell
wheat and wants to buy goat in lieu of that. If he opts for barter system, he will have to
search a person who may be interested in giving off his goat and in taking wheat. But
finding such a person can be difficult and time consuming. On the other hand, if the
farmer sells wheat and takes money for that, he can easily go and
purchase goat with that money.
4. “Credit plays a vital and positive role”. Explain with suitable example.
Ans: It helps people from all walks of life in setting up their business, increase their
income and provide support to their family needs. It makes it possible for the people to

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 own or construct their own house and get relief from monthly rent. People often avail
themselves of credit to purchase luxury items like vehicles, [Link], etc., which further
raises their standard of living. It enables us to invest in human resource. People take
credit for education, training, etc. which allows enrichment of human resource. For
example, Salim availed credit facility to meet the working capital needs of production.
It helped him to meet the ongoing expenses of production, complete production on
time, thereby, increasing his income.
5. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?
Describe its functioning.
Ans: Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in
India. It issues currency notes on behalf of the central government. It issues guidelines
for fixing rate of interest on deposits and lending by banks. It ensures that banks
should maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. It ensures
that the banks should give loans not only to profit making businesses but also to
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poor people and small traders. Periodically, the banks have to submit a report to the
RBI on how much they are lending, to whom and at what interest rate.
6. What are the two categories of sources of credit? Mention four features of each.
Ans: The two categories of sources of credit are Formal sources of credit and Informal
sources of credit. They charge low rate of interest and the mode of repayment is easy.
They keep a collateral from the borrowers for granting loans. Reserve Bank of India
supervises the functioning of formal sources of credit. Urban households are largely
depend on formal sources of credit. They include banks and cooperatives. The features
of informal sources of credit are: They charge higher rate of interest and the mode of
repayment is very harsh. There is no need to keep a collateral in informal sources of
credit. There is no organisation to supervise the functioning of informal sources of
credit. Poor households are largely depend on informal sources of credit. They include
moneylenders, relatives, friends etc.
7. What are Self-Help Groups? How are they emerging as an important source of credit?
Explain.
Ans: Self-Help Groups are a group of 15 to 20 poor villagers, especially women, who
regularly pool money at regular intervals. When a member of the group is in need of
money, he/she can get the loan from the group at a low rate of interest. Self-Help
Groups are emerging as an important source of credit because: They charge less
interest on the loans than what the moneylenders charge. All decisions regarding
savings and loans are taken by the members of the group. The members can take loans
from the groups to meet their daily needs. If the group is regular in its savings, they can
also take loan from the bank. Loan is sanctioned in the name of the group. The group
is responsible for the repayment of loan. They help borrowers to overcome the problem
of collateral. They have freed borrowers from the clutches of the money lenders.
8. Why is it necessary for banks and cooperatives to extend their lending activities in
rural areas? Explain.
Ans: Rural poor and farmers have to borrow money from moneylenders at a very high
rate of interest. Therefore, the cost to the borrowing is very high. A large part of the
earnings of borrower is used to repay the loans. Hence, they have less income.

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 Sometimes, a higher rate of lending means that the amount to be repaid is more than
the earnings of the borrower. To save the people from the clutches and exploitation by
the moneylenders, it is necessary for the banks and co-operatives to extend their \
lending activies. It would lead to higher incomes and improve the condition of the rural
poor. People can also start a business or set up a small scale industry.
9. How do Self-Help Groups work? Explain.
Ans: Self-Help Groups are financial support groups that are formed at the village level
particularly by women. These consist of around 15-20 members who meet and save
their money regularly. These groups help in pooling the savings of the members,
especially who are poor women. All decisions regarding savings and loans are taken by
the members of the group. These groups provide timely loans for a variety of purposes
and at a reasonable rate of interest to its members. These groups help the borrowers to
overcome the problem of lack of collateral. These groups provide a platform to discuss a
variety of social issues of rural people. These groups are collectively responsible for the
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repayment of loan.
10. “Banks play an important role in the economy of India”. Support the statement with
arguments.
Ans: Banks keep money of the people in safe custody to be used by the depositors in
future. Banks also increase the savings of the depositors by paying interest on the
money deposited. Banks mediate between people who have surplus and those who need
money. This is done through granting loans. People avail themselves of these loan
facilities to increase production and income. Banks, being the formal source of credit,
give loans at a very low rate of interest at flexible terms and conditions. Special
provisions are made through banks for the upliftment of agriculture and industry like
waiving of loans of the farmers.
11. What is credit? How does credit play a vital and positive role? Explain with an
example.
Ans: Credit refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with
money, goods on services in return for the promise of future payment. Credit plays a
vital and positive role in the following ways: It helps people from all walks of life in
setting up their business, increase their income and provide support to their family
needs. It makes it possible for the people to own or construct their own house and get
relief from monthly rent. People often avail themselves of credit to purchase luxury
items like vehicles, [Link], etc., which further raises their standard of living. It enables us
to invest in human resource. People take credit for education, training, etc. which
allows enrichment of human [Link] example, Salim availed credit facility to meet
the working capital needs of production. It helped him to meet the ongoing expenses of
production, complete production on time, thereby, increasing his income.
12. Describe the vital and positive role of credit with examples.
Ans: It helps people from all walks of life in setting up their business, increase their
income and provide support to their family needs. It makes it possible for the people to
own or construct their own house and get relief from monthly rent. People often avail
themselves of credit to purchase luxury items like vehicles, [Link], etc., which further r
aises their standard of living. It enables us to invest in human resource. People take

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 credit for education, training, etc. which allows enrichment of human resource. For
example, Salim availed credit facility to meet the working capital needs of production.
It helped him to meet the ongoing expenses of production, complete production on
time, thereby, increasing his income.
13. Why is money transaction system better than barter system? Explain with examples.
Ans: i. Money transaction system is better than Barter system because double
coincidence of wants creates problem. ii. For example, shoe manufacturer wants to sell
shoes in the market and wants to buy wheat. For this he would look for a wheat growing
farmer who would exchange his wheat with the shoes. iii. In Barter system, goods are
exchanged without the use of money. iv. In contrast, in an economy where money is in
use, money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for double
coincidence of wants.
14. Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples?
Ans: Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by
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the government of India. In money transactions, money can be paid for any goods or
services one desires. For example: the producer of shoes may want wheat in exchange
for his shoes. But he may find it difficult to find a person who is also willing to exchange
his wheat for shoes. So simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants is the first and foremost
condition to buy and sell the commodity. In money transaction one can buy a
commodity whenever one wants it. One does not have to wait for another person to
agree to an exchange of goods.
15. “Banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money”.
Do you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.
Ans: i. People keep their surplus money in banks for safety and interest which is
provided by banks to them. ii. Banks again keep only a small proportion of their cash
with themselves. These day’s banks keep only 15% of the total deposits with them. Rest
of the money banks keep extending as loans. Banks charge interest on loans which is
higher than the interest on deposits. iii. This surplus interest becomes the source of
income for the banks. iv. The 15% of cash deposits which banks keep with them helps
to carry on with, day-to-day transactions. Like every day, depositors come to withdraw
some of their.
16. How do formal and informal sources of credit differ from each other?
Ans:
Formal Sources Informal Sources
Rate of interest charge is lower. Higher rate of interest is charged.
Collateral is must for getting They are ready to give loans without any
loan from a formal sector collateral too.
RBI supervises them There is no organization to supervise them.
Rich urban households depend Poor households depend on informal sector.
on formal sector
Organised banking sector is It is not so systematic and often indulges in
systematic in its functioning. malpractices to exploit the customers.

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 Organised financial Unorganised financial intermediaries do not
intermediaries maintain proper maintain proper books of accounts.
books of accounts
More documentation is It involves less documentation. It involves less
required. It involves many formalities.
formalities
Example: Banks and Example: Moneylender, traders, friends,
Cooperatives retailers, etc.
They keep their business affairs They won’t keep their business affairs
confidential. Their books of confidential. Their books of accounts are not
accounts are regularly audited. regularly audited.
17. How is money used as a medium of exchange? Explain with examples.
Ans: It serves as a common medium through which people can carry out buying and
selling. Use of money makes economic activities independent of each other. At the same
time, it removes the inconvenience caused by the barter system. For example, a person
wants to sell sugar and buy wheat. He has to look for a person who wants sugar and has
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wheat to sell. In contrast, if in an economy, where money is used, the person who wants
to sell sugar only has to look for a buyer for his sugar. The money which he will get can
be used to purchase the wheat or any other commodity in the market. Since, money is
used in the exchange process it is called a medium of exchange.
18. “Credit push the borrower into a debt-trap”. Support the statement with the help of
an example.
Ans: In situation with high risks, credit might create problems and pushes the borrower
into a debt-trap. He is much worse off than before. For example, crop production
involves high costs on inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides, water etc. Farmers generally
take loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest. But the
failure of the crop makes loan repayment impossible. They have to sell part of the land
to repay the loan or a fresh loan may be required to repay the previous loan, and the
borrower may find himself caught in a vicious circle and recovery from such a situation
is very painful.
19. How does money solves the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with an
example.
Ans: In barter system, where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money,
double coincidence of wants (i.e. a person desires to sell exactly what the other person
wishes to buy) is an essential feature. But it, indeed, is a very cumbersome process. By
serving as a medium of exchange, money removes the situation of double coincidence of
wants and the difficulties associated with the barter system. For example, it is no longer
necessary for a shoe manufacturer to look for a farmer who will buy his shoes and at
the same time sell him wheat. What he has to do is to find a buyer for his shoes, who will
exchange his money for shoes. Now, he can purchase wheat or any other good in the
market with the help of the money earned. Thus, the problem of double coincidence of
wants gets solved with the use of money.
20. What according to you can reduce the dependence of the poor households on informal
sources of credit? Suggest ways to avert this situation.

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 Ans: The poor households in rural India is bound to lead a very hard life. The reason is
that they don’t have their own land or any property with them. They work as landless
labourers in the field of big farmers. Whenever they need money, they seek the help of
moneylenders, who charge much higher interest on loans. Higher cost of borrowing
means a larger part of earning of the borrowers is used to repay the loan and they have
less income left for themselves. This dependence of theirs can be reduced only when the
following steps will be taken: i) Education should be spread in rural areas. (ii) The
government should assist them in improving their condition. (iii) Poor people belonging
to rural areas should be made self-sufficient so that they may have a decent life.
21. What do the banks do with the public deposits? Describe their working mechanism.
Ans: Banks accept deposits from the public and use the major portion of these deposits
to extend loans. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks
make use of these deposits to meet the loan requirement of the people and thereby earn
interest. This is, in fact, the main source of income of the banks. In this way, a bank acts
as a mediator between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are
in need of these funds (the borrowers). Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than
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what they offer on deposits.

22. How can money be easily exchange for goods or services? Give an example to explain.
Ans: Transactions are made in money because a person holding money can easily
exchange it for any commodity or a service. It solves the problem of double coincidence
of wants by acting as a medium of exchange. For example, a shoe manufacturer wants
to sell shoes in the market and wants to buy rice. Under barter system, both parties
selling shoes and rice have to agree to buy and sell each other’s commodities and this
creates a problem which is referred to as double coincidence of wants. This problem is
overcome by the introduction of money. Now, the shoe manufacturer will sell the shoes
for money and with that money he can buy rice.
23. “The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the
statement with arguments.
Ans: There is no organisation to supervise the credit activities of the lenders in
informal sector. The informal sector lends at a very high rate of interest and use unfair \
means to get the money back. Higher cost of borrowing means a large part of the
earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. Hence, the borrowers have less
income left for themselves. Sometimes, due to higher rate of interest, the amount to be
repaid becomes higher than the income of the borrower due to that there is always a
risk for borrowers to fall in debt trap.
CHAPTER 4
GLOBALISATION AND THE INDIAN ECONOMY
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. MNC stands for-----.
Ans: Multi National Corporations
2. Correct the following sentence and rewrite.
Ford Motors came to India in 1985 and spend Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near
Kolkata.
Ans: Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spend Rs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant

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 near Chennai.
3. Ford Motors collaborated with ----- a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.
Ans: Mahindra and Mahindra
4. ----- is a process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
Ans: Globalisation
5. Tax on imports is an example of -----.
Ans: Trade barrier
6. What do you mean by liberalization?
Ans: Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called
liberalization.
7. What is the full form of WTO?
Ans: World Trade Organisation
8. Nearly ----- countries of the world are currently members of the WTO as on June 2014.
Ans: 160
9. What do you mean by Special Economic Zones?
Ans: The central and state governments in India set up industrial areas with world
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class facilities-electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational

facilities- in order to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Such industrial areas
are called Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
10. Give 2 examples of Indian companies to emerge as multinational companies.
Ans: Tata Motors, Infosys, Asian Paints, Ranbaxy medicines. (Any 2)
11. What are MNCs?
Ans: Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are large companies that operate in several
countries at the same time.
12. What is the monopoly of trade?
Ans: Monopoly of trade is the practice in which a country develops a system of
management and control, eliminating competition, control costs and to ensure regular
supply of products.
13. .......... is basically trade between two different countries of the word.
Ans: Foreign Trade
14. What is foreign trade?
Ans: Trade (export and import) with other countries is called foreign trade.
15. For which purpose can government use trade barriers?
Ans: Government can use trade barriers to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade
and to decide what kinds of goods and how much of each, should come into the country.
16. Why are MNCs setting their customer care centres in India?
Ans: MNCs are setting up their customer care centres in India due to availability of
cheap skilled labour and good English speaking people.
17. Why are MNCs attracted to India?
Ans: India has high skilled engineers who can understand the technical aspects of
production. It also has educated English speaking youth who can provide customer
care services.
18. ...... results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
Ans: Foreign trade

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 19. A major benefit of joint production between local and a multi-national company is:
(a) MNC can bring latest technology in the production
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price
(c) MNC can buy the local company
(d) MNC can sell the products under their brand name
Ans: (a) MNC can bring latest technology in the production
20. The countries of east of the Mediterranean which majorly referred to Asia were called:
Ans: Orient
21. Government negotiate with _____ for fair rules in order to make globalisation fairer.
Ans: World Trade Organization
22. Which is the most common route for investment by MNCs in countries around the
world?
Ans: To buy up local companies and then to expand production.
23. Quotas and taxes on imports are:
(a) Trade barriers (b) Trade laws (c) Trade practices (d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Trade barriers
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24. Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment
after independence? State any one reason.
Ans: To protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
25. What is investment?
Ans: The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other
equipments is called investment.
[Link] is meant by trade barrier?
Ans: It refers to the various restrictions which are used by the government of a country
to increase or decrease foreign trade such as tax on imports.
27. Why did the Indian government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and
foreign investment?
Ans: The Indian government realised that its domestic industries had established
themselves and it was the proper time to face competition and improve the quality of
production. So, barriers on foreign trade and investment were removed.
28. Write any one difference between investment and foreign investment.
Ans: The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines etc. is called
investment whereas investment made by a MNC to buy such assets is called foreign
investment.
29. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap
labour and other resources?
Ans: They bring down the cost of production and ensure more profits for themselves.
30. Due to what reason are the latest models of different items available within our reach?
Ans: Globalisation
31. In which two different forms do we participate in the market?
Ans: We participate in the market as producers and consumers.
32. An ------- is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate
income in future.
Ans: Investment

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 SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. Explain how globalisation can be made fairer.
Ans: Policies should be made in such a way that they protect the interests of not only
the rich and prosperous producers but also the workers. The government can negotiate
with World Trade Organisation for fairer rules and can align with developing countries
to stand against the domination of developed countries. Equal space should be provided
to both developed and developing economies to explore the market and compete.
2. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement
with arguments.
Ans: (a) It provides an opportunity for both producers and consumers to reach beyond
the markets of their own country. (b) Producers now compete with markets located in
other countries. (c) There is an expansion of choice of goods beyond the domestic
market. For example, during the Diwali season, buyers in India have the option of
buying either Indian or Chinese decorative lights and bulbs. The Chinese
manufacturers get the opportunity to expand their business.
3. Explain any three steps taken by the Indian Government to attract foreign investment.
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Ans: i. The Government has set up industrial zones called special Economic Zones
(SEZs). SEZs provide world class facilities —electricity, water, roads, transport, storage
recreational and educational facilities. ii. Companies who set up production units in the
SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. iii. The government has
also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment. The companies
can now lower workers ‘flexibly’ for short period when there is intense pressure of
work. This is done to reduce the cost of labour for the companies.
4. “Technology has stimulated the globalisation process”. Support the statement with
examples.
Ans: i. Rapid improvement in technology has been one of the major factors that has
stimulated the globalization process. ii. There are several improvements in
transportation technology which has made much fastest delivery of goods across long
distances possible at lower costs. iii. There have been remarkable developments in
information and communication technology. iv. In recent times, technology in the areas
of telecommunications, computers, and internet has been changing rapidly.
5. Describe any five factors that promote the Multinational Corporations (MNCs) to set
up their production units in a particular place.
Ans: Factors that promotes MNCs: (i) Close proximity to the market.(ii) Availability of
skilled and unskilled labour at low cost. (iii) Assured production. (iv) Government’s
liberalised policies. (v) Developed infrastructure. (vi) Safety measures.
6. ‘The effect of globalisation has not been uniform’. Do you agree? Give reasons to
support your answer.
Ans: Yes. I agree. Globalisation has shown mixed impacts Merits: (i) Advantage to
consumers-greater choice. (ii) Employment opportunities. (iii) Local companies
benefitted. (iv) Indian companies have turned into MNCs. Demerits: (i) Rising
competition. (ii) Some small producers had to close the industries. (iii) Uncertain
employment and insecurity among worker.
7. Why did MNCs increase their investment in India?

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 Ans: (i) It has been beneficial for them. (ii) Interested to invest in industries such as
cellphones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food or services such as banking
in urban areas, as these products have a large number of well-of buyers. (iii) They earn
profits by selling their profits and services.
8. How can the government ensure that globalisation is fair and its benefits are shared in
a better way by all?
Ans: (a) Government’s policies must protect the interests, not only of the rich and the
powerful, but all the people in the country. It should ensure that the labour laws are
properly implemented and the workers get their rights.(b) It can support small
producers to improve their performance till the time they become strong enough to
compete. If necessary, the government can use trade and investment barriers.(c) It can
negotiate at the WTO for ‘fairer rules’. It can also align with other developing
countries with similar interests to fight against the domination of developed countries
in the WTO.
9. ‘Barriers on foreign and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India
since 1991.’ Justify the statement.
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Ans: Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent.
Now, goods could be imported and exported easily and also foreign companies could set
up factories and offices here. In 1991, the government decided that the time had come
for Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe. It felt that
competition would improve the performance of producers within the country. Since
they would have to improve their quality. With libralisations of trade, businesses are
allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
10. How has information and communication technology stimulated globalisation process?
Explain with examples.
Ans: In recent years, technology in the areas of computers, telecommunication and
internet has been changed rapidly. Telecommunication facilitates including telegraph,
telephone, mobile phone, fax are used to contact one another around the world and to
get information instantly and to communicate from remote areas. All this has been
facilitated by satellite communication devices. Computers and internet have enabled
people to obtain and share information on any subject.
11. Why had Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after
independence? Explain.
Ans: It was considered necessary to protect the producers within the country from
foreign competition. In 1950s and 1960s, the industries were in nascent stage and
competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to
develop. Therefore, India allowed the imports of only essential items like machinery,
fertilizers, petroleum etc.
12. Why have the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment been removed to a large
extent by the Indian government? Explain.
Ans: In 1991, the Indian government decided that the time has come for Indian
producers to compete with producers around the world. It felt that foreign competition
would improve the quality of goods produced by Indian producers within the country.
Thus, barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent.

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 It meant goods could be imported or exported easily and foreign companies could set
up factories and offices in India.
13. How did ‘Cargill Foods’ become the largest producer of edible oils in India? Explain.
Ans: Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, bought Parakh foods, which had a
large marketing network in many parts of India. It was a well reputed company. It had
four oil refineries, whose control passed to Cargill Foods. Cargill Foods is, now, the
largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity of making 5 million pouches daily.
14. Why did Ford Motors want to develop Ford India as a component
supplying base for its other plants across the globe? Explain.
Ans: Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian market and 24,000 cars were
exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. India was making components
and know how to produce them, so they could be easily manufactured and sent across
the globe. Sending components from India to other plants will reduce the time in
manufacturing the components and the orders could be placed immediately. Same
plants would not need to be set up at all locations.
15. “The impact of globalisation has not been visualised uniformly among producers and
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16. workers.” Support the statement with facts.

Ans: Everyone has not benefitted from globalisation. While people with education, skill
and wealth have made the best use of the opportunities offered by globalisation, the
others have not shared the benefits. While producers have become MNCs, the workers
are facing many problems. Globalisation and competition among producers have
changed the life of the workers. Most employers want to employ workers flexibly which
means: jobs are no longer secure. Earlier workers were employed permanently. Now,
they employ the workers temporarily, when there is pressure of work, otherwise they
are dismissed.
17. How do multinational companies manage to keep the cost of production of their goods
low? Explain with examples.
Ans: They set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries.
For example, Ford Motors spent 21700 crores to set up a large plant near Chennai in
collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra. In India, labour and transportation cost is
very low which cuts down the cost of production. They buy up local companies and
expand production. For example, Cargill Foods, a large American MNC bought Parakh
Foods. The company got ready made infrastructure. As production increases, cost
comes down. They place orders for production with small producers. They purchase
garments, footwear, sports goods and sell them under their brand name.
18. How are local companies benefited by collaborating with multinational companies?
Explain with examples.
Ans: They provide money to the local companies for additional investments like buying
new machines to replace the old ones. They bring the latest technology for production.
They may build new stores and office buildings, thus providing employees with modern
surroundings.
19. Explain any three ways in which multinational companies are spreading the
production.
Ans: By buying local companies and, then expanding production. For example, Cargill

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 Foods, a very large American MNC, purchased small Indian company, Parakh foods.
Cargill Foods is, now, the largest producer of edible oil in India with a capacity making
5 million pouches daily. By placing orders for production with small producers.
Garments, footwears, sports items are examples where production is carried out by
small producers for large MNCs around the world. By producing jointly with some of
the local companies. It benefits the local company in two ways. 1. A MNC can provide
money for additional investments. 2. A MNC can bring latest technology for production.
For example, Ford Motors set up a large plant near Chennai, in collaboration with
Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.
20. What is globalisation? How does globalisation help in interconnection among different
countries? Explain with examples.
Ans: Globalisation means: integrating the economy of a country with the economies of
other countries under conditions of free flow of trade, capital and movement of persons
across borders. Globalisation interconnect different countries by: Foreign trade. It
leads to integration of markets across countries due to which the latest models of goods
like digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions etc. are available in one country.
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Foreign investment. MNCs invest capital in different countries by jointly producing

with local companies. buying the local companies. Placing orders for production like
garments footwear, sports goods etc. with small producers of other countries.
21. What would happen if Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys?
Explain any three points.
Ans: If Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys, Then: (a) the
Chinese toys will become expensive and may be people will not buy them and, thus, the
Chinese toys will loose their market in India. (b) people in India, will buy local made
goods (toys) and the local industries will get a boost and their sale will also go up. (c) as
there would be greater demand of Indian goods, the Indian, manufacturers, then, will
earn more profits and workers will get more employment.
22. How has globalisation been advantageous to both the producers as well as the
consumers in India? Explain.
Ans: Consumers: They have greater choice. Better quality of products are available for
consumption due to competition. It has reduced the cost of goods and services
considerably. Producers: They now have access to international markets for their
products. They have easier access to foreign investment to enhance their production,
Collaboration with MNCs have added up their performance and profits.
23. Explain any three conditions that determine MNCs setting up production in other
countries.
Ans: Where it is close to the markets. Where the skilled and unskilled labour at low
costs is available. Where the favourable government policies looking after their interest
are, present. Where the other factors of production such as raw materials, water,
electricity and transport are available. Where there are standard safety measures for
assured production.
24. Explain the role of government in- making globalisation fair.
Ans: Policies should be made in such a way that they protect the interests of not only
the rich and prosperous producers but also the workers. Labour laws should be

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 properly implemented favouring the workers so that their basic rights like sustainable
wages, better working conditions, health etc. are not hampered. Efforts should be made
to protect the small producers from international competition and prepare a stage for
their survival.
25. What is the meaning of SEZ? Mention any two features of SEZ.
Ans: SEZ means: Special Economic Zones. These are designated areas in a region set
up by the government to attract foreign companies to invest in their countries. The
features of Special Economic Zones are: The companies who set up production units in
these areas are exempted from paying taxes for an initial period of five years. These
areas are provided with best infrastructural facilities like roads, water, transportation,
communication, markets etc.
26. Give the meaning of WTO. Mention any two shortcomings of WTO.
Ans: WTO stands for World Trade Organisation which was started at the initiative of
developed countries to liberalise international trade. The shortcomings of WTO are: It
is dominated by the developed countries who manipulate its policies to favour their
interest, thus ignoring the developing countries. It was supposed to allow free trade,
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but the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers whereas it forced the
developing countries to remove the trade barriers.
27. Explain any three advantages of globalisation.
Ans: (1) Resources of different countries are used for producing goods and services
more efficiently. (2) Consumers get much wider variety of goods to choose from. (3)
Consumers get the goods they want at most competitive prices. (4) Companies get access
to much wider markets. (any three)
28. What is a trade barrier? Why did the Indian government put trade barriers after
independence? Explain.
Ans: Trade barriers are the restrictions that are imposed by the government on free
import and export activities so as to protect its producers and entrepreneurs. The Indian
government put barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment after independence
because: It was considered necessary to protect the producers within the country from
foreign competition. In 1950s and 1960s, the industries were in nascent stage and
competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to
develop. Therefore, India allowed the imports of only essential items like machinery,
fertilizers, petroleum etc.
29. Explain with three examples how top Indian companies have benefitted from
globalization.
Ans: They have been able to survive in the international [Link] have
invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production
standards. They also have gained from successful collaborations with foreign
companies. Many of them have emerged as multinationals themselves such as Tata
Motors and Asian Paints. It has provided them new opportunities for expansion and
value addition of their services. (any three)
30. What are the harmful effects of MNCs to a host country? Give three examples.
Ans: They can hamper the growth of local industries by giving them tough competition.

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 They generally use capital intensive techniques which may not be suitable for a
developing country like India, where unemployment is a big problem. They may misuse
the environment of the host country by over exploiting its natural resources.
31. What are the benefits of foreign trade to producers and consumers?
Ans: (1) It created an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic
markets, i.e., markets of their own countries.(2) It gave consumers a wider choice of
good quality goods. (3) It helps every country to make optimum utilisation of its natural
resources. (4) It integrates markets and allows international exchange of ideas. (5) It
brings in new technology and expertise. Producers use it for production and are able to
compete in the international market. (any three)
32. Explain the role of information technology in globalisation.
Ans: In recent years, technology in the areas of computers, telecommunication and
internet has been changed [Link] facilitates including telegraph,
telephone, mobile phone, fax are used to contact one another around the world and to
get information instantly and to communicate from remote areas. All this has been
facilitated by satellite communication devices. Computers and internet have enabled
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people to obtain and share information on any subject.

33. How has transportation technology stimulated the globalisation process? Explain with
suitable examples.
Ans: Faster trains connecting every nook and corner of a country and faster planes that
cover the distance within a few hours have enabled the faster delivery of goods.
Improvements done in transportation technology in the past fifty years have also helped
in the quick movement of goods. For example, containers carrying goods have led to
huge reduction in port handling costs and an increased speed, with which exports can
reach markets. Reduced cost of air transport has enabled much greater volumes of
goods being transported by airlines.
34. Explain any four ways by which MNCs exercise control on production.
Ans: i. By setting up their factories or production units close to markets where they can
get desired type of skilled or unskilled labour at low cost along with other factors of
production. ii. By collaborating with existing local companies of a country. iii. By
buying the local companies and then expand or control its production with the help of
modern technology and capital. iv. By placing orders to small producers and selling
these products under their own brand name to the customers worldwide.
35. Explain four ways in which globalisation and pressure of competition has changed the
lives of workers substantially.
Ans: Casual workers are hired oh contract when demand is high and laid off when
demand declines. There is no job security among workers. They have long working
hours and work in the night shifts on a regular basis during peak seasons. They are not
given any benefits of pension, overtime, medical leaves etc.
36. Explain the role of Multinational Corporations (MNCs) in the globalisation process.
Ans: They not only bring their products to a country but also the new business policies
and cultures. They also help in increasing competitiveness among the Indian
companies. At present, most of us are able to use the latest models of cars and this
could be possible only because of globalisation. The setting up of large number of

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 MNCs develops broad outlook among the people of a country. MNCs have increased
the choices of consumers at a very substantial price. This has further increase their
standard of living.
37. Where do MNCs set up their production units? Explain.
Ans: (i) MNCs setup production units at such a place where they can produce their
goods at a minimum cost. (ii) The place where markets are closer. (iii) The place where
skilled and unskilled labour is available at low cost. (iv) Other factors of production are
assured. (v) Government policies are favourable.
38. How are Multinational Corporations (MNCs) controlling their productions across the
world? Explain.
Ans: By directly setting up factories and offices for production. By setting up production
jointly with some of the local companies of other countries. By buying up local
companies and then expand production. By placing orders for production with small
producers of the countries such as garments, footwear. By buying mass produced goods
of domestic industries and, then sell it under their own brand name at much higher rates
in foreign countries.
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39. ‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in
India since 1991.’ Justify the statement.
Ans: In 1991, the Indian government decided that the time has come for Indian
producers to compete with producers around the world. It felt that foreign competition
would improve the quality of goods produced by Indian producers within the country.
Thus, barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent.
It meant goods could be imported or exported easily and foreign companies could set up
factories and offices in India.
40. “A wide ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” Support the
statement with examples in context of globalisation.
Ans: The Indian market has been transformed in recent years. The consumers have a
wide variety of goods and services to choose from, which were not available earlier. For
example: The latest models of mobile phones, television, digital cameras of leading
manufacturers and other well known brands of the world are easily available in the
markets. New models of cars and automobiles are launched every season. The top
companies in the world have introduced their popular brands in India for various
products like shirts, fruit juices, cosmetics, toys, furniture, stationery etc. All this has
been possible only due to globalisation.
41. Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment
after independence? Analyse the reasons.
Ans: (a) It was considered necessary to protect the producers within the country from
foreign competition. (b) In 1950s and 1960s, the industries were in nascent stage and
competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to
develop. (c) Therefore, India allowed the imports of only essential items like machinery,
fertilizers, petroleum etc.
42. Explain by giving examples how Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading
their products in different ways.
Ans: By buying local companies and, then expanding production. For example, Cargill

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 Foods, a very large American MNC, purchased small Indian company, Parakh foods.
Cargill Foods is, now, the largest producer of edible oil in India with a capacity making
5 million pouches daily. By placing orders for production with small producers.
Garments, footwears, sports items are examples where production is carried out by
small producers for large MNCs around the world. MNC producing jointly with some
of the local companies. Ford Motors set up a large plant near Chennai, in collaboration
with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks.
43. Describe the major problems created by the globalisation for a large number of small
producers and workers.
Ans: The small producers or workers either have to compete or perish. Small scale
industries like batteries, capacitors, plastic toys etc. have been hit hard due to global
products and have suffered great losses in their businesses. Several small factory units
are forced to shut down. Millions of workers have gone jobless and jobs are no longer
secure. It has increased income inequalities among various countries. Unorganised
sector has expanded. (any five)
44. What is trade? Explain the importance of international trade.
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Ans: The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as
[Link] international trade is important because: It helps in exchange of surplus
goods with those of deficit countries through foreign trade. It helps in improving the
quality of domestic goods. It contributes to the economic growth of the country by
raising income level of the people and increasing foreign exchange reserves. It enables a
country to import advanced technology of other countries to improve its own
production.
LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Explain the role of technology in stimulating globalisation process.
Ans: There has been many improvements in transport technology in the recent years
that have enabled faster delivery of goods across the world. Development of information
technology in the areas of telecommunication like internet has revolutionised the world.
Use of elegraph, mobiles, fax have enabled faster and easier access to information
anywhere at any point of time. All these developments have further decreased the cost of
their operations favouring the consumers around the world. It has opened up horizons
for further advancement, research and development of existing means.
2. How is foreign trade inter-connecting the markets in different countries? Explain with
examples.
Ans: It creates opportunities for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets or
the markets of their own countries such as Tata Motors and Ranbaxy of India have
emerged as multinational corporations. Import of goods from various countries
provides choice of goods for consumers beyond the goods that are produced
domestically. Availability of foreign goods like television, mobiles etc. has increased the
choice of the consumers. Producers of different countries compete with each other
although they are thousands of miles away. It results in bringing down the prices of
commodities which further leads to increase in production and supply. Thus, people
have access to cheap products which were costlier earlier.

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 3. “Information and communication technology has played a major role in spreading out
products and services across countries.” Support the statement.
Ans: Information and communication technology has played a major role in spreading
out products and services across countries. In recent years, technology in the areas of
telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phone) are used to
contact one another around the world. For example, a news magazine published for
London readers is to be designed and printed in India. The text is sent through the
internet to Delhi office. Design of the magazine is also sent to Delhi from London office
using telecommunication facilities. The design is done on a computer. After printing,
the magazines are sent to London by air. The payment for the services from London to
Delhi is done instantly through the internet (e-banking).
4. How have our markets been transformed in recent years? Explain with examples.
Ans: The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalization have opened the
market to the world players. It has given rise to wide choice of goods and services to the
consumer. MNCs have played a vital role in the world market. Foreign trade and
investment in’the country has increased. It has also resulted in exchange of technology
between countries. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications,
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computers and internet has been changing rapidly. Globalisation has also created new
opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving in IT.
Better job opportunities for people have given rise to migration. Globalisation has also
enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals For example, Tata
Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy have expanded their operations around the world.
5. How has improvement in technology stimulated the globalisation process? Explain.
Ans: There has been many improvements in trAns: port technology in the recent years
that have enabled faster delivery of goods across the world. Development of information
technology in the areas of telecommunication like internet has revolutionised the world.
Use of telegraph, mobiles, fax have enabled faster and easier access to information
anywhere at any point of time. All these developments have further decreased the cost
of their operations favouring the consumers around the world. It has opened up
horizons for further advancement, research and development of existing means.
6. How has globalisation benefited India? Explain with five examples.
Ans: It has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs such as Tata
Motors, Infosys. It has also created new opportunities for companies providing services
like information technology. Greater competition among producers has been of special
advantage particularly to the well-off sections of consumers in the urban areas. They
have greater choice and enjoy improved quality and lower prices for various products.
Thus, they are enjoying a higher standard of living. In these industries and services,
new jobs have been created and also the companies supplying raw materials to these
industries have prospered. Several of the top Indian companies have been able to
benefit from the increased competition. They have invested in new technology and
production methods and raised the standard of their products. Some of them have
gained from successful collaboration with foreign companies.
7. How is the Government of India trying to attract more foreign investment? Explain
with examples.

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 Ans: Government has adopted the policy of liberalisation and lifted the trade barriers
to allow foreign investment. In recent years, industrial zones called Special Economic
Zones are being set up. These areas have world class facilities such as electricity, water,
transport, education and recreational. The companies setting up production units in
Special Economic Zones are exempted from various taxes and duties. The government
also allowed flexibility in labour laws. The workers in the organized sector are
protected by the government laws. The companies in Special Economic Zones instead
could ignore many of the laws and engage workers flexibly for shorter periods, when
there is a pressure of work.
8. How do the large companies manipulate the market? Explain with examples.
Ans: Sometimes false information is passed on through media and other sources to
attract consumers. For example, a company selling powder milk for babies as the most
scientific product claiming it to be better than mother’s milk which although was a
false claim. Some food items were consumed in India for many years although it is
very harmful for the health of people. But through attractive and convincing
advertisements in media, it was able to control the market such as Maggie noddles
manufactured by Nestle was found harmful after testing in India in May 2015. They
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may also hide the essential information about the product like expiry date, contents,
terms and conditions etc. to keep the consumers in dark. Sometimes, the expired
products are packed in a new packing and again released in the market. It has also been
evident that artificial scarcity is created by the producers and the product is hoarded for
sale in future at a high price.
9. “Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all and also ensure that benefits of
globalisation are shared better.” Support the statement.
Ans: The labour laws should be implemented properly and they should get their due
rights. The small producers should be supported to improve their performance. It
should use trade and investment barriers efficiently. It should negotiate at the WTO for
fairer rules. It can also align with other developing countries with similar interests to
fight against the domination of developed countries in the WTO.
10. Why is tax on imports known as trade barrier? Why did the Indian government
impose barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after independence? Give
three reasons.
Ans: Trade barrier means restrictions imposed on import and export of goods. It is
called so because some restrictions have been set up. The trade barriers provide
protection to domestic goods from foreign competition. The government can use
barriers to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kind of
goods and services and how much of each should come into the country. Reasons for
putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian Government
were: i. To protect the domestic users within the country from foreign competition.
ii. The competition from importers would have crippled the new-horn industries of
India. In such a situation, imports of only such commodities were allowed which were
quite necessary such as machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. iii. During 1950s and
1960s, competition from imports was giving a death blow to growing industries in
India. Hence, India allowed imports of only essential goods.

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 11. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
Ans: Integrating the national economy with the economy of other countries of the world
is called globalisation. It has made cross-border flow of money; technology and people
very easy. Positive Impact of Globalisation on Indian Agriculture i. Indian farmers will
have access to internal market They can sell their produce at international prices. ii.
Capital investment from foreign countries will develop the Indian agriculture. iii.
Globalisation will bring competitiveness among farmers which will lead to
commercialisation of Indian agriculture. iv. Indian farmers can also use modern
technology and machineries which are now used only in foreign countries. v.
Globalisation will also help in biotechnology and genetic engineering in India.
Negative Impact of Globalisation on Indian Agriculture: i. Multinational Companies (
MNCs) of developed countries will exploit our farmers as Indian farmers are poor and
illiterate. ii. Small farmers of India cannot compete with farmers of developed nations.
iii. Quality of our crops is not as per the international standards. Due to globalisation,
Indian farmers will try to grow more cash crops and there will be shortage of food in
our country.
12. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow: 1+2+2=5
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The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The
market is the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is
called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local
trade is carried in cities, towns and villages, state level trade is carried between two or
more states. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic
prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country. As the
resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export
and import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the
difference between its export and import. When the value of export exceeds the value of
imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of
imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade. India
has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the
world. The commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and
jewellery, chemicals and related products, agriculture and allied products, etc. The
commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and
jewellery, chemicals and related products, base metals, and allied products.
(i) What do you mean by international trade?
(ii) What is meant by favourable and unfavourable balance of trade?
(iii) What are the commodities export and imported by India in international trade?
Ans: (i) The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as
trade. Trade between two countries is called international trade.
(ii) The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import.
When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance
of trade. If the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as
unfavourable balance of trade.
(iii) Among the commodities in export the share of agriculture and allied products has
been 8.64%, base metals 6.91%, gems and jewellery 17.02%, chemicals and related

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 products 12.06% in 2016-17. The commodities imported to India include petroleum
crude and products 22.4%, gems and jewellary 12.8%, chemicals and related products
9.76%, base metals 5.95%, electronic items 10.94%, machinery 8.9%,agriculture and
allied products 5.84% in 2016-17.
13. Explain the advantage of globlization to producers as well as consumers.
Ans: Globalisation has been advantageous to producers in the following ways:
(i) The producers now have access to the international markets. (ii) Globalisation has
also enabled free movement of capital, i.e., via electronic transfers, etc.
(iii) Globalisation has enabled access to foreign investment in capital and technology via
Foreign Direct Investment, etc. Globalisation has been advantageous to consumers in the
following ways:(i) It has led to employment generation, as a result, beneficial to the
consumers. (ii) Globalisation has also given rise to intense competition due to opening up
of markets to foreign companies. As a result, this has led to the increase in product
quality and decrease in the prices of the products. (iii) The consumers have benefited
from the arrival of MNCs as they have now larger choice in the goods that are available
to them in the market.
14. How can the government ensure that globalisation is fair and its benefits are shared in
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a better way by all?

Ans: (a) Government’s policies must protect the interests, not only of the rich and the
powerful, but all the people in the country. (b) It should ensure that the labour laws are
properly implemented and the workers get their rights.(c) It can support small
producers to improve their performance till the time they become strong enough to
compete.(d) If necessary, the government can use trade and investment barriers.(e) It
can negotiate at the WTO for ‘fairer rules’. It can also align with other developing
countries with similar interests to fight against the domination of developed countries in
the WTO.
15. “Culture a great agent of globalization” Explain the statement with example.
Ans: Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Religion was perhaps one of the
most important commodities carried along the Silk Route. Buddhism reached China
from India along the northern branch of the route. The Karakoram passes were used as
a means by the missionaries to explore the faiths and scriptures. Art, literature and
philosophical ideas were exchanged and in the process, it affected the cultures of
different countries to which the route branched out. Even Christian missionaries
travelled along the Silk Route to Asia, followed by Muslim preachers a few centuries
later. The long rule of British in India also left an indelible western influence in different
ways.
16. Explain any four ways in which multinational corporations have spread their
production.
Ans: The multinational corporations have spread their production and interaction with
local producers in the following ways: a. Setting up production jointly with local
companies. They provide money for additional investments like buying new machines
for faster production. b. The MNCs provide efficient managerial and advanced
technology for faster production and efficient use of resources. c. They have increased
their investments over the past 15 years. Large MNCs place orders for production with

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 small, local producers. The local companies supplying raw material to these industries
have prospered.d. Many MNCs buy up local companies and expand production. For
example, Cargill Foods, an American MNC, bought up Parakh Foods. Thus, we see that
MNCs are spreading production and interaction with local producers by Setting up
partnerships, Using local companies for supplies and Closely competing with local
companies or buying them up.
17. What has been the impact of globalisation on India? Explain.
Ans: It has created competition among producers, both local and foreign, which is
advantageous to the consumers, particularly the well off. Now, there is a greater choice
of goods before the consumers. It has enabled many Indian companies to become multi-
national companies such as Tate Motors, Infosys and Ranbaxy. It has created new
employment opportunities for companies providing services specially information
technology. A lot of services such as data entry, accounting, administrative tasks are
done cheaply in India and exported to other countries. New jobs are created in
industries such as electronics, cell phones, automobiles and fast food. It had a negative
impact on small manufacturers. Due to competition, some industries has been hit hard
such as batteries, capacitors, plastic toys, vegetable oil etc. A number of units have shut
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down and a lot of workers, have become jobless.

18. How do large companies often manipulate the markets? Explain with an example.
Ans: Sometimes false information is passed on through media and other sources to
attract consumers. For example, a company selling powder milk for babies as the most
scientific product claiming it to be better than mother’s milk which although was a false
claim. Some food items were consumed in India for many years although it is very
harmful for the health of people. But through attractive and convincing advertisements
in media, it was able to control the market such as Maggie noddles manufactured by
Nestle was found harmful after testing in India in May 2015. They may also hide the
essential information about the product like expiry date, contents, terms and conditions
etc. to keep the consumers in dark. Sometimes, the expired products are packed in a new
packing and again released in the market. It has also been evident that artificial scarcity
is created by the producers and the product is hoarded for sale in future at a high price.
19. What is the main aim of World Trade Organisation? Explain its functions.
Ans: The main aim of World Trade Organisation is to liberalise international trade. It
says that all barriers to foreign trade and investment are harmful. There should be no
barriers. The main functions of World Trade Organisation are: It establishes rules
regarding international trade and sees that they are obeyed. It provides a platform to
member countries to decide future strategies related to trade. It administers the rules
and processes related to dispute settlement. It ensures optimum utilisation of world
resources. It assists international organisations such as IMF and 1BPD for establishing
coherence in Universal Economic Policy determination.
20. “Technology has stimulated the globalisation process.” Support the statement with
examples.
Ans: Transportation technology has witnessed several improvements in past fifty years.
This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower
costs, such as use of containers have led to huge reduction in port handling costs and

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 increased the speed with which exports can reach markets. Also, the cost of air
transport has fallen. Ultimately, it has stimulated the globalisation process.
Telecommunication has also shown remarkable development. Computers, internet,
email, voice-mail, etc. are used intensively to contact one another around the world.
There has been a remarkable development in information and communication
technology. It has enabled to access information instantly and communicate even in the
remotest areas. Call centres use this to satisfy their customers abroad or provide
outsourcing services from anywhere.
21. How have markets been transformed is recent years? Explain with examples.
Ans: The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalization have opened the
market to the world players. It has given rise to wide choice of goods and services to the
consumer. MNCs have played a vital role in the world market. Foreign trade and
investment in’the country has increased. It has also resulted in exchange of technology
between countries. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications,
computers and internet has been changing rapidly. Globalisation has also created new
opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving in IT.
Better job opportunities for people have given rise to migration. Globalisation has
206

also enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals For example,
Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy have expanded their operations around the world.
22. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.
Ans: The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalization have opened the
market to the world players. It has given rise to wide choice goods and services to the
consumer. MNCs have played a vital role in the world market. Foreign trade and
investment in’the country has increased. It has also resulted in exchange of technology
between countries. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications,
computers and internet has been changing rapidly. Globalisation has also created new
opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving in IT.
Better job opportunities for people have given rise to migration. Globalisation has also
enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals For example, Tata
Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy have expanded their operations around the world.
23. “Industrialization and urbanisation go hand in hand.” Validate the statement.
Ans: After an industrial activity starts in a town, urbanisation follows. Industry
provides employment to the people of the area. Population migrates from rural
hinterlands to seek jobs. Housing and transport facilities are developed to
accommodate these people. Other infrastructural developments take place leading to
growth and development of the town into a city. Sometimes, industries are located in or
near the cities. Cities provide markets and services such as banking, insurance,
transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to the industry.
24. How are Multinational Corporations spreading their products? Explain with examples.
Ans: By buying local companies and, then expanding production. For example, Cargill
Foods, a very large American MNC, purchased small Indian company, Parakh foods.
Cargill Foods is, now, the largest producer of edible oil in India with a capacity making
5 million pouches daily. By placing orders for production with small producers.

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 Garments, footwears, sports items are examples where production is carried out by
small producers for large MNCs around the world. By producing jointly with some of
the local companies. It benefits the local company in two ways.1. A MNC can provide
money for additional investments. 2. A MNC can bring latest technology for
production. For example, Ford Motors set up a large plant near Chennai, in
collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and
trucks.
25. What is foreign trade? How does it integrate markets? Explain with examples.
Ans: Trade between two countries is called foreign trade. It may take plate through sea,
air or land. It creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond domestic
markets. Foreign trade integrates the markets of different countries as: It provides an
opportunity for both producers and consumers to reach beyond the markets of their
own country. Producers now compete with markets located in other countries. There is
an expansion of choice of goods beyond the domestic market. For example, during the
Diwali season, buyers in India have the option of buying either Indian or Chinese
decorative lights and bulbs. The Chinese manufacturers get the opportunity to expand
their business.
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26. How have our markets been transformed? Explain with examples.
Ans: The advent of globalisation and the policy of liberalization have opened the market
to the world players. It has given rise to wide choice of goods and services to the
consumer. MNCs have played a vital role in the world market. Foreign trade and
investment in’the country has increased. It has also resulted in exchange of technology
between countries. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications,
computers and internet has been changing rapidly. Globalisation has also created new
opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving in IT.
Better job opportunities for people have given rise to migration. Globalisation has also
enabled some large Indian companies to emerg as multinationals For example, Tata
Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy have expanded their operations around the world.
27. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.
Ans: It has created competition among producers, both local and foreign, which is
advantageous to the consumers, particularly the well off. Now, there is a greater choice
of goods before the consumers. It has enabled many Indian companies to become multi-
national companies such as Tate Motors, Infosys and Ranbaxy. It has created new
employment opportunities for companies providing services specially information
technology. A lot of services such as data entry, accounting, administrative tasks are
done cheaply in India and exported to other countries. New jobs are created in
industries such as electronics, cell phones, automobiles and fast food. It had a negative
impact on small manufacturers. Due to competition, some industries has been hit hard
such as batteries, capacitors, plastic toys, vegetable oil etc. A number of units have shut
down and a lot of workers, have become jobless.

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 Map Skill Based Question
Ques: 1. Locate and label the following in the given outline political map of India. (i) Jallianwala
Bagh massacre took place. (ii) The Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Amritsar in Punjab B. Chennai in Tamilnadu

b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
Symbols. (i) Forest and mountainous soil (ii) Alluvial soil (iii) Red and yellow soil (iv) Black
soil (v) Laterite soil (vi) Arid soil [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Jammu & Kashmir ii. U.P & Punjab iii. Manipur, Tripura… iv. Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh v. Coastal areas of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa vi. Rajastan

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Ques 2: (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct name on the line drawn near them. (A) The INC Session was held in
December 1920. (B)Gandhiji arganized satyagraha with cotton textil mill workers. [1x2=2]

Ans: [Link] B. Gujarat

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Namroop-Thermal power plant (ii) Narora-Atomic power plant (iii) Mumbai-
Cotton textile Industry center (iv) Durgapur-Iron and steel plant (v) Noida-Software
technology park (vi) Kandla-Major see port (1x4=4)
Ans: i. Assam ii. U.P iii. West Bengal iv. Maharashtra v. U.P vi. Gujarat

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Ques 3. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct name on the line drawn near them. (A) The satyagraha movement
of farmer took place. (B) Indian congress session was held in 1927. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Kheda B. Chennai

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbol. (i) Ramagundam-Thermal power plant (ii) Tarapur-Atomic power plant (iii) Indore-
Cotton textile Industry center (iv) Bhilai- Iron and steel plant (v) Hyderabad- Software
technology park (vi) Paradip- Major see port (1x4=4)
Ans: i. Telangana ii. Maharashtra iii. Madhya Pradesh [Link] v. Telangana vi. Odisha

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Ques 4. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct name on the line drawn near them. (A) A place marked by A
where Indian congress session was held in December 1920.(B) The place where 22 policemen
were burnt by violent mob and Gandiji withdrew the Non Cooperation Movement. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Nagpur B. Chauri Chaura

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbol (i) Singrauli-Thermal power plant (ii) Kakrapara-Atomic power plant (iii) Kanpur-
Cotton textile Industry center (iv) Bokaro- Iron and steel plant (v) Gandhinagar- Software
technology park (vi) Tuticorin- Major see port (1x4=4)
Ans: i. Madhya Pradesh ii. Gujarat iii. U.P iv. Jharkhand v. Gujarat vi. Tamil Nadu

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Ques 5. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (A) The place where Jallianwala
Bagh incident took place. (B) The place where the indigo planters movement took place. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Amritsar in Punjab B. Champaran in Bihar

(b) Identify and name any four the following oil fields in the same outline map of India.
(i) Mumbai high (ii) Ankaleshwar (iii) Kalol (iv) Naharkatia (v) Bassien (vi) Digboi
Ans: i. Arabian Sea ii. Gujarat iii. Gujarat iv. Nagaland v. Arabian Sea vi. Assam

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Ques 6. (A) Two places (a) and (b) are marked on the political outline map of India, identify
these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines
marked near them. (a) The place where Mahatma Gandhi organized satyagraha for cotton mill
workers. (b) The place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred. [1x2=2]
Ans: (a) Ahmedabad in Gujarat (b) Amritsar in Punjab
(B) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India. [1x4=4]
(i) Namrup Thermal Power Plant (ii) Meenambakkam International Airport (iii) Mayurbhanj
Iron ore mine (iv) Salal dam (v) Jharia coal mine (vi) Sardar Sarovar – Multi-purpose project
Ans: i. Assam ii. Tamil Nadu iii. Odisha iv. Jammu&Kashmir v. Jharkhand vi. Gujarat

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Ques 7: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them. A. A place where violence occurred due to which Mahatma Gandhi
suddenly called off the Non-Cooperation Movement. B. A place of peasants Satyagraha [1x2=2]

Ans: (a) A. Chauri-Chaura B. Kheda

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols on the same given outline political map of India. (i) Singrauli — Thermal Power Plant
(ii) Jamshedpur — Iron and Steel Plant (iii) Noida — Software Technology Park (iv) Kandla
-Seaport (v) Amritsar (Raja Sansi)-International Airport (vi) Kakrapara — Nuclear Plant
Ans: i. Madhya Pradesh ii. Jharkhand iii. Uttar Pradesh iv. Gujarat v. Punjab vi. Gujarth

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Ques 8. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India
Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them. A. The place related to the calling off Non- Cooperation Movement
B. The place where the peasants struggled against the Indigo Plantation. [1x2=2]

Ans: (a) A. Chauri-Chaura B. Champaran

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols on the outline political map. i. Salem - Iron and steel centre. ii. Kandla - Major Seaport
iii. Hyderabad - Software Technology Park iv. Mumbai - Chhatrapati Shivaji International
Airport. v. Kakrapara - Nuclear power plant. vi. Murshidabad - Silk Textile Industry [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Tamil Nadu ii. Gujarat iii. Telangana iv. Maharashtra v. Gujarat vi. West Bengal

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Ques 9. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. A. Jallianwala Bagh
incident occurred. B. Peasant where satyagraha was started. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Amritsar B. Kheda

(b) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India. (i) Pune — Software technology park. (ii) Tarapur — Nuclear
thermal power plant (iii) Kochi — Major seaport (iv) Salem — Iron and steel plant (v) Chennai
— Meenam Bakkam international airport (vi) Naraura — Nuclear power plant [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Maharashtra ii. Maharashtra iii. Kerala iv. Tamil Nadu v. Tamil Nadu vi. Uttar Pradesh

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10. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. A. Place where INC
Session demanded Purna Swraj B. Place where a militant guerrilla movement started [1x2=2]

A. -------------------------- B. ----------------------------
(b) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India. (i) Netaji Subash Chandra Bose Airport (ii) Largest producer of
cotton (iii) Iron ore mine in Bellary (iv) Ranigunj coal mine (v) Chennai software technology
park (vi) Vishakhapatnam port [1x4=4]
Ans: i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi.

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Ques 11: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. A. The place of Civil
Disobedience Movement B. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called-off. [1x2=2]

(a) A. Dandi B. Chauri-Chaura

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Surat - Cotton Textile Centre. (ii) Naraura - Nuclear Power Plant. (iii) New
Mangalore – Seaport (iv) Gandhinagar - Software Technology Park (v) Hyderabad - Rajiv
Gandhi International Airport. (vi) Srinagar - Software Technology Park [1x4=4]
Ans:i. Gujarat ii. Uttar Pradesh iii. Karnataka iv. Gujarat v. Telangana vi. Jammu & Kashmir

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Ques 12: (A) Two places (a) and (b) are marked on the political outline map of India, identify
them and write their correct names on the lines marked near them:(a) The Cotton mill workers
organized Satyagraha. (b) Gandhiji called-off Non- Cooperation Movement. [1x2=2]
Ans: (a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India. (i) Tungabhadra dam (ii) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
(iii) Tuticorin Port (iv) Kerala — a leading rubber producing state (v) Mohali software
technology Park (vi) Balaghat — Manganese [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Karnataka ii. Maharashtra iii. Tamil Nadu iv. Kerala v. Punjab vi. Madhya Prdesh

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Ques 13:(A)Two places(a)and(b)are marked on the political outline map of India, identify them
and write their correct names on the lines marked near them:(a) Indian National Congress
Session in April, 1929.(b)Gandhiji presided the Indian National Congress Session. [1x2=2]
Ans: (a) Lahore (b)Belgam
(B) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India (i) Tungabhadra dam (ii) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
(iii) Tuticorin Port (iv) Kerala — a leading rubber producing state (v) Mohali software
technology Park (vi) Koraput — Bauxite deposits. [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Karnataka ii. Maharashtra iii. Tamilnadu iv. Kerala v. Punjab vi. Odisha

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Ques 14: (A) Two places (a) and (b) are marked on the political outline map of India, identify
them and write their correct names on the lines marked near them:(a)Gandhji led the cotton
mill workers agitation. (b) The peasants struggled against the indigo plantation system. [1x2=2]
Ans: (a) Ahmedabad in Gujarat (b) Champaran in Bihar
(B) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given
outline political map of India. (i) Tamil Nadu –tea, coffee and sugarcane producing state
(ii) Hirakud dam (iii) Digboi oil field (iv) Bhadravati – Iron and Steel Plant (v) Raja Sansi
Airport (vi) Neyveli – Coal Mines [1x4=4]
Ans: [Link] Nadu ii. Odisha iii. Assam iv. Karnataka v. Punjab vi. Tamil Nadu

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Ques 15: (A) Two places (a) and (b) are marked on the political outline map of India, identify
them and write their correct names on the lines marked near them:(a) The ‘No tax campaign’
was started. (b) The 1927 session of Indian National Congress took place. [1x2=2]
Ans: (a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu
(B) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same giver
outline political map of India. (i) An area of forest and mountain soil (ii) Halida Port (iii) Sardar
Sarovar dam (iv) Rawat Bhata - Nuclear Power Plant (v) Vijayayanagar - Iron and Steel Plant
(vi) Ludhiana – Woolen Textile [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Jammu & Kashmir ii. West Bengal iii. Gujarat iv. Rajastan v. Karnataka vi. Punjab

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 Follow Up Activity: 2
Ques 16: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them. A. Place of no tax campaign started.B. Place of salt satyagraha. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. -------------------- B. -----------------------

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Indira Gandhi International airport (ii) Bokaro coal mines (iii) Durg iron ore mine
(iv) Largest producer of jute (v) Nagarjuna Sagar dam (vi) Ankaleswar oil field [1x4=4]
Ans: i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi.

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Ques 17: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [Link] peasants
struggled against the Indigo Plantation system. B. The INC Session held in Dec 1920. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Champaran B. Nagpur

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Kanpur - Cotton Industry. (ii) Bhiali - Iron and Steel Plant (iii) Hyderabad -
Software Technology Park. (iv) Kandla - Sea Port (v) Bengaluru - Software Technology Park.
(vi) Digboi - Oil field. [1x4=4]
Ans: i. Uttar Pradesh ii. Chhattisgarh iii. Telangana iv. Gujarat v. Karnataka vi. Assam

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Ques 18: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of Inclia.
Identify them and write their count names on the lines drawn near them. A. The session of
Indian national Congress held in 1920. B. The place of Civil Disobedience Movement. [2x1=2]

Ans: A. Nagpur B, Dandi

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Surat - Cotton textile centre. (ii) Naraura - Nuclear power plant (iii) New
Mangalore - Seaport. (iv) Thiruvananthapuram - Software technology park (v) Hyderabad -
Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (vi) Noida - Software technology park. [4x1=4]
Ans: i. Gujarat ii. Uttar Pradesh iii. Karnataka iv. Kerala v. Telangana vi. Uttar Pradesh

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Ques 19: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. A. The Indigo
Plantation [Link] Indian National Congress Session held in September 1920. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. Champaran B. Calcutta (Kolkata)

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols. (i) Mumbai — Cotton Textile Industry (ii) Singrauli — Thermal power plant
(iii) Tuticorin — Seaport (iv) Indore — Cotton textile industry (v) Namrup — Thermal power
plant (vi) Bhadravati — Iron and Steel plant [1x4=4]
Ans:[Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] Pradesh [Link] vi. Karnataka

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 Follow Up Activity: 3
Ques 20: (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [Link] nationalists
attacked police station.B. The Indian National Congress Session held in Sep.1920. [1x2=2]

Ans: A. --------------------------- B. --------------------------

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols on the same given outline political map of India. [1x4=4]
(i) Tehri Dam (ii) Largest producer of sugarcane (iii) Bailadila iron ore mine (iv) Talcher coal
mine (v) Kalpakkam nuclear power plant (vi) Mumbai software technology park
Ans: i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi.

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 PICTURE BASED QUESTIONS
Ques 1: In the following cartoon which challenge to democracy is shown

(a) The challenge of organise independent and justified election (b) The challenge of forming
the government from military and keeping it free from bias. (c) Challenge to giving women
equal rights in decision making rules (d) The challenge of bringing undue control and influence
on the democracy of the rich to a minimum level.
Ans: (b) The challenge of forming the governmentfrom military and keeping it free from bias.

Ques 2:The above figure is the symbol of:

(a) Power and authority (b) Power and Rule (c) Justice and Liability (d) Power and Liability
Ans: (a) Power and authority
Ques 3: The significance of the following image is. (a) Revenge and Vengeance (b) Heroism and
Justice (c) Liability and Justice (d) Justice and Revenge

Ans: (b) Heroism and Justice

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 Ques 4: In the below picture which thing is being offered to the people.

(a) goddess is offering cloths to the people (b) goddess is offering food to the people
(c) goddess is offering bless to the people (d) goddess is offering bless and food to the people
Ans: (a) goddess is offering cloths to the people
Ques 5: Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Midday meal program (b) Relationship between centre and states
(c) Relationship between people and state government (d) Demand of reservation

Ans: (b) Relationship between centre and states

Ques 6: Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Who among the following has painted the image of Germania?

A. Nathaniel Currier B. Philip Viet C. Edward Bailey D. Richard Saltonstall Greenough
Ans: (B) Philip Viet
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Ques 7: Which one of the following option portrayed Bharat Mata best?

A. An ascetic figure B. Calm and composed C. Divine and spiritual D. All of these
Ans: (D) All of these
Ques 8: Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

A. It requires high humidity B. It requires low humidity

C. It requires high temperature (above 25°C) D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Ans: (D) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Ques 9: Which one of the following option best signifies this newspaper clippings?
A. The three-tier system is often being misused as can be seen regarding Panchayat posts in
Tamil Nadu. B. There are still several difficulties in realising the objectives of decentralisation.
C. Women are becoming Tradhans and are being elected to Panchayats. D. All of these

Ans: (D) All of these

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Ques 10: Study the picture and answer the questions that follow:
Which of the following aspect best signifies the image of ‘Bharat Mata’?

[Link]’s Nationalism [Link] Mataram C. Heroism and Justice D. Folk and Cultural Tradition
Ans: (A) One’s Nationalism
Ques 11: Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of The courier of Rhineland’?
(a)Success of Napolean (b)Difficulties of Napolean (c)Loses of Napolean (d)Journey of Napolean

Ans: (c) Loses of Napolean

Ques 12: Which of the following aspect best signifies this picture?
A. Women suffrage B. Women participated in Quit India Movement C. Women participated in
Civil Disobedience Movement D. Women participated in Non-Cooperation Movement

Ans: (C) Women participated in Civil Disobedience Movement

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Ques 13: Which one of the following option best signifies following cartoon?
(a) A worker stitching quilty (b) Female workers in farm
(c) A women’s SHG (self help group) meeting (d) People on strike wanting loan from bank

Ans: (c) A women’s SHG (self help group) meeting

Ques 14: Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania?
A. It is the symbolic personification of Liberty and Reason. B. She became the symbol of the
German nation. C. She represents austerity and asceticism. D. Both A and B

Ans: (D) Both A and B

Ques 15: Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
[Link] between democracy and concentration of [Link] of US President to Russia.
[Link] the Head of State drive democracy by their [Link] rules to facilitate democracy.

Ans: (A) Relationship between democracy and concentration of power.

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Ques 16: Study the picture and answer the questions that follow:
A. Silence is the first commandment of this learned society. B. To avoid the eventality whereby a
member of this club may succumb to the temptation of speech, muzzles will be distributed to
members upon entering. C. Most of them imposed censorrhip laws to control what was said in
newspapers,books,plays,songs and reflected the ideas of liberty and [Link] A and B

Ans: (D) Both A and B

Ques 17: Which one of the following option best signifies the cartoon?
A. Lack of internal democracy B. Money and muscle power C. America controls all major
institutions D. Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures

Ans: (C) Corporate America controls all major institutions

Ques 18: Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?
A. 90 percent of income is distributed between the population B. 90 percent of the income is
stored with 10 percent of the population C. Equal distribution of income D. All of these

Ans: (D) All of these

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Ques 19: Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

A. A courier man loses all the letter. B. Napoleon is represented in this image on his back to
France. C. Each letter dropping out of Napoleon bag bears the names of the territories which
were lost by Napoleon. D. Both B and C
Ans: (D) Both B and C
Ques 20: Which sector does this following cartoon represents?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) None of these

Ans: (a) Primary

Ques 21: Look at the below picture and choose the correct sector from which it belongs.

(a) Automobile Industry (b) Banking Sector (c) Textile Sector (d) Agriculture Sector
Ans: (d) Agriculture Sector
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Ques 22: The idea of ...........can be depicted from the cartoon.
(a) Poverty (b) Healthcare (c) Development (d) CollateraL

Ans: (c) Development

Ques 23: Which one of the following sectors best signifies the cartoon?
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these

Ans: (b) Secondary sector

Ques 24: Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

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Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
(a)Symbol of Asoka’s Pillar (b)Simi’s rath in Mahabharat (c)The rising sun (d)Symbols of Unity
Ans: (d) Symbols of Unity
Ques 25: Which of the following option best signifies this cartoon?

A. Demand for separate state from democratic government.

B. Democratic government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states.
C. Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
D. Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state.
Ans: C. Democratic government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
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A: Party leaderstry to persuade people why their policies are better than others.

A: Activists of BJP Mahila Morcha demonstrate against hike in prices of onions and LPG in
Vishakhapatnam.
Party Symbols Name of the Party

A: Indian National Congress

A: Bahujan Samaj Party

A: Bharatiya Janata Party

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 A: Communist Party of India-Marxist

A: Communist Party of India

A: Nationalist Congress Party

A: Nominate the candidate who have or can raise lots of money.

A: A type of reforming political parties will be acceptable or not.

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A: Uneven distribution of gains of economic growth

A:Voice of the poor

A: World’s wealth owned by a few

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Ans: Dignity and freedom of the citizens denied. (Experience of Rosa Parks)

A: Garibaldi helping King Victor Emmanuel II to pull on the boot named ‘Italy’

A: Postage stamp of 1850 with the figure of Marianne

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A: The fallen Germania

A: Specific objects or symbols of ideals like Germania.

A: Germania guarding the Rhine

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A: A map celebrating the British Empire

A: Mass processions on the streets during the national movement

A: Indian workers in South Africa march through Volksrust, 6 Nov. 1913

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A: General Dyer’s ‘crowling orders’ being administered by British soldiers

A: The boycott of foreign cloths

A: A peaceful demonstration in a bazar turned into a violent clash with the police in Chauri
Chaura
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A: Meeting of Congress leaders at Allahabad in 1931

A: The Dandi march- Gandhiji was accompanied by 78 volunteers

A: Police cracked down on satyagrahis in 1930

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A: Women join nationalist processions

A: Gandhiji, Nehru and Maulana Azad at Sevagram Ashram, Wardha in 1935

A: Nehru holds the image of Bharat Mata and the map of India close to his heart-sacrifice for
the mother;offering their heads
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A: Bharat Mata-shown as dispensing learning, food and clothing (Evidence of one’s nationalism)

A: Image of a ship on a memorial stone indicating the significance of oceanic trade

A: Silk route trde depicted in a Chinese cave painting

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A: Merchants from Venice and the Orient exchanging goods

A: The Great Irish potato famine-Hungry children digging in a field in hope of some potatoes
leftovers

A: Slaves for sale- A prospective buyer carefully inspecting slaves lined up before the auction
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A: Emigrant ship leaving for the US

A:Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship

A: One of the oldest livestock markets in London where cattles traded at fairs and brought by
farmers for sale
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A: Meat being loaded on to the ship;export of meat was possible only after ships were
refrigerated

A: Sir Henry Morton Stanley and his retinue in Central Africa

A: Transport to the Transwal gold mines

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A: Stalingrad in Soviet Russia devasted by the world war

A: Mount Washington Hotel situated in Bretton Woods, US, where the famous conference was
held
GRADE 10 SOCIAL SCIENCE QUESTION PAPER FORMAT

Sections Questions Marks

Section A 1 to 20 1 Mark Each

Section B 21 to 28 3 Marks Each

Section C 29 to 34 5 Marks Each

Section D 35 (MAP) 6 Marks Each

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 All the questions in the paper were necessary.
1. The question paper consists of 35 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D.
2. Section A: Question number 1 to 20 were objective type questions carrying 1
mark each.
3. Section B: Question number 21 to 28 were short answer type questions carrying
3 marks each.
4. Section C: Question number 29 to 34 were long answer type questions carrying 5
marks each. Question number 35 in this section was based on map work. It
carried 6 marks
5. Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts – 35.a from
History (2 marks) and 35.b from Geography (4 marks).
6. There was no overall choice given in the paper. However, internal choices were
provided in 5 questions of Section A, 4 questions of Section B and 2 questions of
Section C.
CBSE BOARD PAPER MARCH 2020 (SET 1)
SECTION- A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1) Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: 1
(A) Otto Von Bismarck ─ 1. Germany
(B) Napoleon ─ 2. Spain
(C) Giuseppe Garibaldi ─ 3. France
(D) Bourbon Kings ─ 4. Italy
Answer - A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
2) Identify the appropriate reason from the following options. 1
For non-participation of industrial workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(A) Industrialists were close to the Congress (B) British offered them good salaries.
(C) They were reluctant towards the boycott of foreign goods. (D) Growth of Socialism.
Answer - (A) Industrialists were close to the Congress
3) Name the book published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
OR
Name the author of ‘Amar Jiban’. 1
Answer - Sambad Kaumudi
OR
Rashsundari Debi
4) Examine the significance of the Statue of Liberty in Frederic Sorrieu's paintings, "The Dream
of World wide Democratic and Social Republic'. 1
Answer -That has been used by the artist to symbolise fraternity among the nations of the
world.
5) Name the two main leaders of ‘Khilafat Committee’formed in the year 1919. 1
Answer - Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
6) Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following
options. 1
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 (A) To control the campaign against the British in cities.
(B) To look into the functioning of the British
(C) To initiate salt law in India.
(D) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
Answer - D) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
7) Who invented the Printing Press? 1
OR
Who brought the knowledge of woodblock printing technique to Italy during the 13th century?
Answer - Johann Gutenberg
OR
Marco Polo
8) Which one of the following is a private sector industry? 1
(A) BHEL (B) TISCO (C) OIL (D) SAIL
Answer - (B) TISCO
9) Give one example of the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil. 1
OR
Give one example of the Community Owned Resources.
Answer - Coffee is the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil.
OR
Burial Ground is Community Owned resource.(Village pond, public park, public library,
public well, play grounds)
10) Complete the following table with correct information for A and B: 1
Crop Annual rainfall Temperature
Sugar cane A----? B----?
Answer - A. 75 to 100 cm B. 21°C to 27°C
11) Suggest any one way to enhance pilgrimage tourism through Indian Railways. 1
Answer - Railway should run various tourist and pilgrimage special trains like Bharat
Darshan train, Pilgrim special touris train, and Buddhist special train.
12) Suggest any one measure to promote handspun Khadi in India. 1
Answer – 1. Khadi will bring employment opportunities if government launches various
schemes for promoting Khadi. 2. Government should provide handloom weavers an opportunity
to buy yarn to the village Industries. 3. Government should encourage manufacturing designs of
Khadi. 4. Adequate loan for poor weavers in Rural areas. (any one)
13) Correct the following statement and rewrite it:
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati. 1
Answer - Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
14) Give anyone example of economic development in dictatorial regimes. 1
Answer - China initiated economic reforms but retained political powers is example
of economic development in dictatorial regimes.
15) Fill in the blank: 1
Castes and Caste system in modern India have undergone a great change because __.
OR
The Indian Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess,
practice and propagate any religion because _________.
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 Answer - Castes and Caste system in modern India have undergone a great change
because of the efforts of Socio-political reformers.
OR
The Indian Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess,
practice and propagate any religion because India is a secular state.
16) What percentage of reservation is given to women in local administration in India? 1
OR
Which institution has been created in each State of India to conduct Panchayat and
Municipal elections?
Answer: One-third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities
– are now reserved for women.
OR
The State Election Commission
17. Fill in the blank: 1
Human Development Index (HDI) level in India can be improved through __________.
Answer - Human Development Index (HDI) level in India can be improved through
investing in the health and education of the people of the country.
18) Choose the correct statement about factors regarding globalization in India: 1
I. Improvement in transportation technology.
II. Liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment.
III. Favourable rules of WTO towards India in comparison to developed countries.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(A) Only I and II (B) Only I and III (C) Only II and III (D) Only III
Answer - A) Only I and II
Explanation: The factors enabled globalisation in India are as follows:
i. Improvement in transportation and communication
ii. The liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment
19) Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at fair price.
Reason (R): Public sector contributes to the economic development.
Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer - B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: The government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price to
ensure food security in the country and protect the interest of farmers. The public sector
provides transportation, maintain law and order, provides health services, education etc. which
contributes to the economic development.
20) Krishna is working in a neighbouring field with very less [Link] on sudden illnesses
or functions in the family are also met through [Link] landowner charges an interest rate of 5
per cent per month. At present, she owes the landowner 5,000. Analyse the credit arrangements
given above. 1

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 Answer - The given credit arrangement would leave Krishna worse off because his earning
is very low and she has taken loan from the informal sector. The landowner i.e. a source of credit
in the informal sector is charging a very high rate of interest.
SECTION B
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
21) How were the Ideas of national unity in early 19th century Europe were closely allied to the
ideology of Liberalism? Explain. 3
Answer - During the 19th century, was closely allied with the idea of nationalism. Liberalism, at
that time, meant individual freedom and equality for all. In the context of nation-states, it
emphasised on the need for a government that was chosen by consent. Since the French
Revolution, it also advocated for the abolition of autocracy and privileges enjoyed by the clergy,
a constitution and a representative government through parliament. It also stressed on the
inviolable right to private property.
22) Read the extract given below and answer the question that follow:
From the early 19th century, there were intense debates around the religious issues. Different
groups confronted the changes happening within colonial society in different ways and offered a
variety of new inter pretations of the beliefs of different religions. Some criticised existing
practices and campaigned for reforms, while others countered the argument of reformers. These
debates were carried out in public and print. Printed tracts and newspaper not only spread new
ideas, but they shaped the nature of the debate. A wider public could now participate in public
discussions and express their views. New ideas emerged through theses clashes of opinions. This
was a time of intense controversies between social and religious reformers and Hindu orthodoxy
over a matter like a widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood, and idolatry. In
Bengal, the debate developed tracts and newspapers proliferated circulating a variety of
arguments. To reach a wider audience, the ideas were printed in the everyday spoken language
of ordinary people.
(22.1) State any one issue of intense debate around religious issues. 1
(22.2) Examine the role of print media in these debates. 2
Answer - 22.1: In the 19th century India, various groups interpreted changes in colonial society,
in their own ways, offering wide-ranging interpretations of religion. Some called for ending
archaic practices and reforms, while others countered their arguments.
22.2: Through printed material, debates over religion and reform were circulated among and
read by the public masses. Printed tracts and newspapers helped in spreading ideas and the
shaping of debates, leading to the emergence of new ideas. Their publication in the ordinary
vernacular languages also facilitated their mass reading.
23) "Minerals are an indispensable part of our life support the statement with example. 3
OR
Minerals occur in various forms support this statement with example.
Ans: i. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a big ship, all are
made from minerals. ii. Cars, buses, trains, aeroplanes are manufactured from [Link]. Even
the food that we eat contains minerals.
OR
Minerals occur in the following forms: i. In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals occur in
the veins and the lodes. For example, tin, copper, and zinc. ii. In sedimentary rocks, minerals
occur in beds or layers. For example, gypsum, and potash salt.
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 iii. Some minerals occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and base of hills. For
example, gold, silver, tin and platinum. iv. Ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals.
Common salts, magnesium and bromine are derived from ocean waters.
24) Describe any three institutional reforms taken by the Indian government in the field of
agriculture. 3
Ans: [Link], consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari.
ii. Green Revolution and White Revolution. iii. Provision for crop insurance against drought,
flood, cyclone, etc., the establishment of Grameen banks, Cooperative societies and banks for
providing loans. iv. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio
and TV. v. Issuing of Kisan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, etc.
25) Describe the nature of the panchayat raj system in India. 3
Answer - Under the Panchayati Raj system, one or more villages have a Gram Panchayat, a
council comprising several ward members, (Panch), and a Sarpanch, who is its President. It is
directly elected by all adults of the village. It works under the Gram Sabha. All the village’s
voters are its members. It must meet at least twice or thrice annually to approve the Gram
Panchayat’s annual budget and to review its performance.
26) Describe the elements of Belgian model foR accommodating diversities. 3
OR
Describe the horizontal power-sharing arrangements.
Answer - The number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally. Many powers of the
central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the country. The
state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government. Brussels has a separate
government in which both the communities have equal representation. Apart from the Central
and the State Government, the third kind of government called the community government is
elected by people belonging to one language community.
OR
Horizontal power-sharing refers to the distribution of between different organs of government,
such as the legislature, executive and judiciary, which are placed at the same level to exercise
different [Link] separation of power ensures that none of the organs can
exercise unlimited power and each organ checks the others. It results in a balance of power
among various institutions. Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the
functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of
checks and balances.
27) How do demand deposits have the essential features of money? Explain. 3
OR
Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Explain.
Answer - The deposits with banks constitute the modern form of money. People also have the
provision to withdraw their money deposited in the bank as and when they require. Since the
deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand,these deposits are called demand
deposits. Demand deposits offer another interesting facility of payment through a cheque instead
of cash which lends it the essential characteristics of money. For payment through cheque, the
payer who has an account with the bank makes out a cheque for a specific amount.
OR
Collateral is a sort of security in the shape of land, building, vehicle, livestock which the
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borrower gives to the lender until the loan is paid. If a borrower fails to repay the loan amount,
the lender has the right to sell the collateral asset to obtain His money. Also, the fear of losing the
collateral or asset, makes the borrower more keen to repay the loan amount on time. The default
rate on the loans backed by the collateral security is comparatively less and on those which are
not backed by any collateral.
28) Suggest any three measures through which under employment in the agriculture sector can
be minimized. 3
Answer 1. Investment in Infrastructure – Government should invest in infrastructural projects
such as the construction of roads, canals, dams, etc. that brings employment opportunities for
local people of the area. 2. Increase the availability of credit facilities- By setting up of more
cooperative banks by the government in the rural areas farmers will be able to meet their
financial needs through self- employment in small scale village industries such as dairy farming,
pottery, etc. 3. The government should set up more schools and colleges - it would absorb a large
number of unemployed in the form of teaching and administrative staff. The government should
open hospitals, dispensaries, etc. which will create a large number of jobs in the form of nurses,
technicians, etc. 4. Encouragement to Tourism- Tourism as tourism can give additional
employment opportunities to people. For example, tourism is the base of Kashmir's economy
which has been employing Kashmiris. 5. MGNREGA 2005- This was launched on 2nd Feb 2006
in 200 districts of India. It has helped guarantee 100 days of employment in a year to one
member of every unemployed rural family.
SECTION C
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
29) Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in post-Second World War settlement. 5
OR
Explain the ways through which British manufacturers attempted to take over the Indian
market.
Answer - The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to
deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations. the World Bank was set up to
finance post war reconstruction. It was aimed at preserving economic stability and full
employment in the industrial world. The Bretton Woods system inaugurated an era of
unprecedented growth of trade and incomes for the Western industrial nations and Japan.
World trade grew annually at over 8 per cent between 1950 and 1970 and incomes at nearly 5
per cent. The growth was also mostly stable, without large fluctuations. For much of this period
the unemployment rate, for example, averaged less than 5 per cent in most industrial countries.
These decades also saw the worldwide spread of technology and enterprise. Developing countries
were in a hurry to catch up with the advanced industrial countries. Therefore, they invested vast
amounts of capital, importing industrial plant and equipment featuring modern technology. The
IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries.
They were not equipped to cope with the challenge of poverty and lack of development in the
former colonies. But as Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies, they grew less
dependent on the IMF and the World Bank. Thus from the late 1950s, the Bretton Woods
institutions began to shift their attention more towards developing countries.
OR
The East India Company could assert a monopoly right to trade. It proceeded to develop a
system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and ensure
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regular supplies of cotton and silk goods. This it did through a series of steps. First: the
Company tried to eliminate the existing traders and brokers connected with the cloth trade, and
establish more direct control over the weaver. It appointed a paid servant called the gomastha to
supervise weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth. Second: it prevented
Company weavers from dealing with other buyers. One way of doing this was through the
system of advances. Once an order was placed, the weavers were given loans to purchase the raw
material for their production. Those who took loans had to hand over the cloth they produced to
the gomastha. They could not take it to any other trader. These were some of the ways used by
the British to take over the Indian market.
30) Describe the physical and economic factors that influenced the distribution patterns of the
Indian Railways network. 5
OR
Describe the growing importance of road transport.
Answer - The physical and economic factors that influenced the distribution pattern of Indian
Railways: i. Northern Plains were the most favourable because of its level land, and high
population density. ii. In the peninsular region, railway tracks were made on low hills or
through gaps and tunnels because it was a hilly region. iii. Northern mountains are unfavourable
for railways because of the altitude, low population density and less economic activities. iv. The
sandy plains of Rajasthan, Gujarat swamps and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand are unfavourable for the construction of railways.
v. Konkan railway has made it convenient for the movement of goods and passengers in the most
important economic region of India.
OR
The growing importance of road transport is due to the following reasons: i. The construction
cost of roads is much lower than the other means of transport. ii. Roads can pass through
comparatively more dissected and undulating topography. iii. It provides door to door services
thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower. iv. Road transport is economical in the
transportation of a few persons and a relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
v. It is used as a feeder to other modes of transport.
31) Define the term ‘Political Party’. Explain with examples, the need of political parties in
India. 5
Answer i. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold
power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a
view to promote the collective good. Need of Political party in India. All democracies have
political parties. Democracy is meaningless if citizens do not have a choice between different
parties in elections. ii. Rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of
representative democracies. Large societies need representative democracies. iii. Large and
complex societies need some agency to gather different views on various issues and to formulate
policies. iv. People need some ways to bring various representatives together so that a
responsible government can be formed. v. A mechanism is needed to make policies, implement
them, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil this need of every representative democracy.
32) “Democracy promotes dignity and freedom of the people”. Examine the statement. 5
OR
“Democracy is best suited to produce better results”.Examine the statement.
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Answer - In the context of promoting individual dignity and freedom, democracy, as a system,
stands much superior to any other form of government. In all societies, each individual wishes to
get respect from other fellow beings. Often, conflicts break out among people, as some feel that
they are not given due respect. The basis of democracy lies in the love for respect and freedom
for all humans. All over the world, democracies recognise this, at least in theory. In many
democracies, this has been achieved in various degrees. In societies, which were based on the
basis of subordination and domination for centuries, it does not simply imply that all individuals
are equal, but that they all deserve respect on equal terms.
OR
Democracy as a form of government is a form of society and social order. It is the best suited to
produce better results than any other form of government because of the following reasons:
Democracy promotes equality among citizens; each citizen is given equal rights and freedom,
with no discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, colour, etc. Democracy aims at equitable
distribution of incomes and products among citizens. Democracy enhances dignity of individuals
and permits political equality for all its [Link] is absence of any domination and conflicts
and thus it ensures that every citizen enjoys dignity and freedom in democracy. Democracy
improves the quality of decision-making, based on deliberation and negotiations;it also improves
the quality of decision-making. In a democracy, every citizen takes part in the decision-making
process, either directly or indirectly through the elected representatives. Democracy reduces the
possibility of social tensions becoming explosive or [Link] are best suited to resolve
conflicts among different groups and evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy
produces a government which is accountable to the citizens, responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens and is legitimate in its functioning.
33)“Money cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well.” Explain the
statement. 5
Ans: Money cannot buy all the things on whichour life depends or which we may need to live
well. To live a quality life, human needs both material and non material things. With help of
money, we can buy material things like good quality food, clothing,shelter, things like books, or
even can afford to go on a foreign tour but we cannot buy nonmaterial things like healthy
environment, security, freedom, etc. For instance, women need a safe and secure environment to
take up a variety of jobs or run a business. In the absence of such an environment, women may
not be willing to do a job or run a business. Similarly, just think of the role of your friends in
your life. You may desire their friendship, but money cannot buy friendship. A job may give you
less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Another job,
however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no time for your family. This will
reduce your sense of security and [Link], for the overall development of human beings,
and to live well, several things are needed and money cannot buy all of them.
34) Read the sources given below and answer the questions related to them: 1+2+2=5
Source A
Globalization and the Indian economy
As consumers in today's world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services before us.
The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the leading
manufactures of the world are written our reach. Every season, new models of automobiles can
be seen on Indian roads.
Source B
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 Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets,
i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located
within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding
the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produces.
Sources C
The struggle for fair globalization
In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations have
influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO. This has
demonstrated that people also can play vital role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
(34.1) Source A – How is the impact of globalization visible on consumers?
(34.2) Source B – How does foreign trade integrate the markets? Explain.
(34.3) Source C – How do people play an important role in the struggle for fair globalization?
Explain.
Ans: 34.1: As a result of globalization, a wide choice of goods and services are available at
competitive prices before the consumer.
Latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and laptops manufactured by the multinational
companies are available in all the markets are of the same quality and almost of the same price.
34.2: With the opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. It creates an
opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic market. Producer can sell their
products not only within the country but also in the markets of other countries. If the imported
product is better than the local product, the local producers will try to
improve the quality of the product. The price will adjust and finally become equal or near equal
or competitive in the two markets. This
phenomenon is known as the integration of the market.
34.3: People can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalization via massive
campaigns and representation by people’s organisations. This can influence important decisions
relating to trade and investment at the WTO.
SECTION D
MAP QUESTIONS
35) (a)Two places 'A' and 'B' are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines
marked near them:
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Movement session was held in 1927. 1
Ans: Chennai
(B) The place where the Non-Cooperation Movement ended abruptly due to violence.
Ans: Chauri chaura in U.P
(b) Locate and label any 4 of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given political
outline map of India: 4
(i) Haldia -Sea-port Ans: West Bengal (ii) Pune-Software Technology Park Ans: Maharashtra
(iii) Bhilai -Iron and Steel Plant Ans: Chhattisgarh (iv) Kakrapara -Nuclear Power Plant Ans:
Gujarat (v) Hirakund-Dam Ans: Odisha (vi) Indira Gandhi-International Airport Ans: Delhi
[look map questions]

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 CBSE BOARD PAPER MARCH 2020 (SET 2)
SECTION A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. How is GDP calculated? 1
Ans : GDP is the money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a
particular year. A central government ministry in India with the help of various government
departments collects information relating to the total volume of goods and services and their
Prices and then estimates the GDP.
OR
How is Public sector different from Private sector?
Ans: Public Sector is controlled and managed by the government eg: BSNL. Railways. Private
Sector is controlled and managed by an I individual or a group of individuals. eg: Airtel,
Reliance
2. Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922? 1
Ans: In chauri chaura, 22 policemen were burnt alive during the protests, then Gandhiji
thought that satyagrahis needed to be trained properly for such a mass movement, then he had
withdrawn Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922.
[Link] was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878? 1
Ans: the Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and
prevent the expression of criticism. toward British policies. It provided the government with
extensive rights to censor reports and editorials.
OR
Why was ‘Gulamgiri’ book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871?
Ans: In ‘Gulamgiri’, Jyotiba Phule wrote about the injustices of the caste system in India
4. Study the table and answer the question given below. 1
Some comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar

Infant Mortality Rate

Net Attendance Ratio
State Literacy Rate

Haryana 33 82 61

Bihar 38 62 43

Kerala 10 94 83

Question: In comparison to Kerala which state has the highest infant mortality rate ?
Ans: Bihar
5. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B. 1

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 Column B-Developmental
Column A- Category of person goals/Aspirations

(i) More days of work and better

(a) Landless rural labourers wages

(ii) Availability of other sources of

(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab irrigation

(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for (iii) Assured a higher support prices
growing crops. for their crops

(iv)Regular job and high wages to

(d) A rural woman from a land owning family increase her income

Ans: Option (b)

6. Why was reading of manuscript not easy in India?
Choose the appropriate reason from the following options: 1
A. Manuscripts were highly cheap. B. Manuscripts were widely spread out. C. Manuscripts were
written in English and Hindi. D. Manuscripts were fragile.
Ans: Option (d)
[Link] among the following published ‘Punjab Kesari’? 1
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Bhagat Singh D. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: Option (A)
8. Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression. 1
Ans. (i) Empowering them by providing education.
(ii) Educate women about of laws to protect them like, Domestic Violence Act, Inheritance Laws
etc. OR
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various communities of India.
Ans: State intervention in the religious matters only in the larger public interests
9. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on
the horizontal power sharing arrangement. 1
a. Central government, state government, local bodies. b. Legislature, executive, judiciary.
c. Among different social groups. d. Among different pressure groups.
Ans: Option (b)
10. In which one of the following States is Rawatbhata Nuclear Energy Plant located? 1
a. Gujarat b. Kerala c. Punjab d. Rajasthan
Ans: Option (d)
11. State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and

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cultural diversities. 1
Ans: Constitution of Belgium prescribes equal no. Of French and Dutch speaking people in
central govt. so single community cannot make decisions.
12. Fill in the blank: 1
_________ is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an
exporter after Bangladesh.
Ans: India
13. Define the term ‘Veto’ and ‘Carding’. 1
Ans: A veto is a constitutional right to reject a decision or proposal made by a lawmaking body.
Carding is a mechanical process that disentangles, cleans and intermixes fibers such as cotton or
wool to produce a continuous web or sliver suitable for subsequent processing like spinning.
14. Fill in the blank: Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand printing technology
into ----- around A.D. 768-770.
Ans: Japan
OR
By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system of [Link] first book he printed was the _______
Ans: Bible
15. Fill in the blanks: 1

Types of Resources Examples

Biotic and Abiotic A----?

Renewable and non-renewable B----?

Ans: A. On the basis of origin B. On the basis of exhaustibility

16. Which is the oldest artificial sea port of India? 1
Ans: Chennai OR
Which is the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India?
Ans: Visakhapatnam
17. Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka? 1
a. Christian and Tamil b. Buddhist and Hindu c. Sinhali and Tamil d. Sinhali and Christian
Ans: Option (C) Sinhali and Tamil
18. Fill in the blank : 1
______________industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils and wires.
Ans: Aluminium
19. Suggest any one way to create employment in rural areas. 1
Ans: By setting up small scale and agro-based industries.
20. Choose the correct option: 1

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 A B

(i) Odisha (a) Chandrapur thermal power plant

(ii) Amarkantak (b) Mayurbhanj iron ore mines

(iii) Gujarat c) Kalol oil fields

(iv) Jharkhand (d) Bauxite mines

Ans: Option (iii)

SECTION B
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
21. Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
Evaluate the statement. 3
Ans. (1) Tertiary sector activities, by themselves, do not produce any good but they are an aid or
support for the primary and secondary sectors production process. For example the transport,
trade, storage, etc helps the Primary Sector Industries like Agriculture.
(2) Tertiary sector comprises several essential services such as hospitals, educational institutions,
post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, defence, transports, banks, etc. All these are
required as basic services that helps the primary and secondary sectors.
(3) Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those based on information and
communication technology have become important and essential.

OR
” Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of
development.” Evaluate the statement
Ans. (1) the history of developed countries indicates that the initial stage of development, the
primary sector was the most important sector of economic activities. As the methods of fanning
changed and agriculture sector began to prosper, it produced much more food than before and
most people were also employed in this sector. (2) Over more than a hundred years, when new
methods of manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. In this
way, the secondary sector gradually became the most important in total production and
employment. (3) In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary and
tertiary sectors in developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in
terms of total production. This is the general pattern observed in developed countries.
22. Mention any three features of ‘secularism’described in the Indian Constitution. 3
Ans: (i) The Constitution of India does not give special recognition to any religion and there is
no State religion in India, unlike, Christianity in America, Buddhism in Sri Lanka etc.
(ii) All individuals and communities have been given freedom to practice, profess and propagate
any religion.
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(iii) The Constitution of India puts ban on the discrimination on grounds of religion.
(iv) According to constitution state cannot intervene in the matters of religion in order to
promote religious equality.

OR
Mention the problem of ‘Casteism’ in Indian politics.
When parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in mind the caste composition of the
electorate and nominate candidates from different castes so as to get necessary support to win
[Link] parties and candidates in elections make appeal to caste sentiment to muster
support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their
[Link] adult franchise and the principle of one vote compelled political
leaders to gear upto the task of mobilising and securing political support
23. Describe any three features of ‘federal government.’ 3
Ans. (i)Dual Objectives – The objectives of the federal government include accommodation of
regional diversity along with the need to safeguard and promote unity of the country at the same
time.(ii) Clear specification of Sources of Revenue – Sources of revenue for each levels of
government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. (iii) Supremacy of the
Constitution – The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally
guaranteed as the Jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of the government are specified in
the constitution.

OR
Describe any three features of “unitary government”
Ans. The jurisdictions of government or its sub-units are not specified in the constitution, centre
can delegate power to introduce any change. The central government can pass orders to the
provincial or the local government. Either there is only one level of government or the sub-units
which are subordinate to the central government. Example: China, United Kingdom, Japan etc.
24. “Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of the country.”
Support the statement. 3
Ans. (i) Initially the Raw material can reach factories faster. (ii) The movement of the finished
goods from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport. (iii)
Mobility of labour force also increases.
25. Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the late eighteenth
century. 3
Ans. (i) Due to pressure from industrialists, government was forced to remove Corn Laws. Food
is now imported in Britain. (ii) Demand of food grains increased as urban centres expanded.
(iii) Due to pressure from landed groups government restricted import of Corn by enacting
Corn laws.

OR
Why did the export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of the nineteenth century? Explain.
Indian weaver could not compete with cheap British goods. Manchester made goods started
flooding Indian market. Import duties on Indian cotton textile was imposed in England.
26. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: 3

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 Source: The Movement in the Towns
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave
up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras,
where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way
of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access [Link] effects of non-
cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops
picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921
and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crores to Rs. 57 crores. In many places merchants and
traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread,
and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian
textile mills and handlooms wentup.

26.1Explain the role of ‘Justice Party’ in boycotting of council elections.

26.2 How was the effects of ‘non-cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic.
26.3 Explain the effect of ‘Boycott’ movement on ‘foreign textile trade’.
Ans. 26.1 Justice Party, wanted to contest the elections to the council as it was one of the
way of gaining some power.
26.2 The effects of non-cooperation movement were dramatic on Economic front as
foreign goods were boycotted.
26.3 Effect of Boycott movement on ‘Foreign textile trade’led to a great change where
people began discarding imported clothes and started wearing Indian clothes only.
27. Suggest any three ways to improve health and nutritional status of people in India. 3
Ans:Public Distribution System (PDS) shops, such as ration shop must be regulated
properly so that the problems of the people get rectified. Public Distribution System (PDS)
must function properly. By providing adequate provision of basic health and educational
facilities
28. Describe the importance of judicious use of Resources. 3
Ans. Indiscriminate use of resources leads to environmental socio and economic problems.
Most of the resources are non-renewable, if exhausted, then they may not be able to
recreated. Resources are available only in limited quantity which are essential for any
developmental activity.
OR
Describe the different steps of resource planning.
Ans: (i) Surveying, mapping, qualitative & quantitative estimation and measurement of
resources leads to Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country
(ii) Resource development plans are implemented by evolving a planning structure endowed
with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up. (iii) Resource development plans
are matched with overall national development plans
SECTION C
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
29. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow: 5
Source A – Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries.
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 What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished
products. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported
finished [Link] was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before
large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic
markets i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in
markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other
countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another
country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Source C – Impact of globalisation in India
Globalisation and greater competition among producers – both local and foreign producers
– has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas.
There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower
prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of
living than was possible earlier.
29.1 How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries?

Ans. MNCs act as a major force in connecting the countries of the world by interacting with
local producers in various countries and spreading their production resulting in connecting
widely dispersed location or countries.
29.2 How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?
Ans. Foreign trade has been the main channel connecting countries. In the past, silk route
connected different countries of the world and trade was restricted to sale of finished goods. But
now in modern days the producers export the goods to other countries and the buyers can
import goods leading to connecting different countries.
29.3 How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
Ans. Lower prices for several good quality goods. It provides greater choice before the
consumers. More accessible through e-business and door to door delivery. Product should
available at anytime, anywhere all over the world.
30. Explain any five features of plantation farming. 5
Ans. Plantation farming is a type of farming where single type of crop is grown in a large area
using modern agricultural techniques for commercial purpose. Examples of Plantation farming
are Tea, Coffee, Rubber etc. Some of the features of plantation farming are:Large capital
investment, Cheap labour, Scientific methods of cultivation, Large estates or plantations,
Managerial and technical support, Single crop specialization, A good system of transportation.
31. Describe the role of political parties in modern democracy. 5
Ans: Political parties contest election. Parties put forward different policies and programmes
that benefit the people and the voters choose from them. Parties play a decisive role in making
laws for a country. Parties form and run governments. Those parties that lose in the elections
play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different views and criticizing
government for its failures. Parties shape public opinion by raising and highlighting issues.
Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by
governments.

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32. “Democracy plays an important role to accommodate social diversity.” Support the
statement with examples. 5
Ans. Democracy reduces the possibility of social tension becoming explosive. In Belgium every
community recognized the existence of all. Democracy develop procedure to conduct
competition between various social groups. Democracy ensures that every citizen has a chance of
being in majority at some point of time. In democracy majority need to work with minority.
Democracy provides special rights to minority. In democracy majority need to work with
minority. Democracy provides special rights to minority.
33. How did ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of
liberalism?
Ans: Creation of railway further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interest to national
unification. Liberals emphasised the concept of government by consent. Liberals supported
creation of unified economic [Link] supported the demand of middle class about
freedom of markets and end of state imposed restrictions on movement of goods and [Link]
the new middle class liberalism stands for individual freedom and equality of all before law. A
common custom union, sovereign, at the initiative of Prussia was formed. Liberalism stood for
end of autocracy and special privileges.

OR
How did Greek war of independence mobilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite
across Europe? Explain.
Ans. Greek war of independence mobilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite across
Europe in the following ways: Nationalism in Greece got support from other Greeks living in
exile. Many west Europeans had sympathies for ancient Greek culture. The growth of
revolutionary nationalism in Europe let to struggle for independence among the Greeks from
ottoman Empire. English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight Greek war.
Poets and artists lauded Greece as cradle of European civilization and mobilized public opinion
to support its struggle against Muslim empire.
34. “Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.” Support the
statement. 5
Ans. Bank provides loan in rural area for crop production ultimately resulting in the
development of many places. Bank provides loan to create fixed assets that will create
employment opportunities. It acts as a link between savers and investors. Banks accepts the
deposit and pay an amount as interest on the deposit which mobilizes savings. Bank uses major
portion of these deposits to extend loan for various profitable events.

OR
“Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.”
Support the statement with examples.
Ans. It is true that credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is
very painful. It happens in cases like: In case of rural area if crop fails due to natural factors it
will be difficult to repay. In case of failure of a business it will be difficult to repay the credit. In
case of informal sector, rate of interest is very high. If due to crop failure previous loan is not
repaid interest rate further mounts. In case of high risk activities failure without some support
can push borrower in painful situation. In many cases people has to sell their land and fixed
assets to repay loan.

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SECTION D

MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION

35. (a) Two features ‘A’ and ‘B’ are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines marked near them. (A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
Ans: Kolkata (Sep. 1920) (B) The place where the movement of Indigo planters was started.
Ans: Champaran in Bihar
(b) Locate and label any four of the following.

(i) Sardar Sarovar Dam

(ii) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant

(iii) Pune Software Technology Park

(iv) Kochi Major Sea Port

(v) Indore Cotton Textile Industry

(vi) Naraura Nuclear Power Plant

Ans: i. Gujarat ii. Chattisgarh iii. Maharashtra iv. Kerala v. Madhyapradesh
vi. Uttar Pradesh [look map questions]

CBSE BOARD PAPER MARCH 2020 (SET 3)

SECTION A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Study the table and answer the questions given below.
Infant mortality Literacy rate Net attendance
State rate ratio
Haryana 33 82 61
Kerala 10 94 83
Bihar 38 62 43
In comparison to Kerala which state has the highest infant mortality rate? 1
Ans: Bihar
2. Why did Indians oppose the Simon Commission? 1
Ans: The first and the foremost reason for the boycott of this commission: Lack
of Indian members in the commission. Secondly, the Indians felt that they would again dominate
India. They also felt that the commission was arrogant.

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3. Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878? 1

OR
Why was Gulamgiri book written by Jyotiba Phule?
Ans: In British India, the Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted to curtail the freedom of the
Indian press and prevent the expression criticism toward British policies—notably, the
opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
OR
The Gulamgiri' is a great articulation of Phule in which he also critically evaluated the Indian
society with a logical argument. He wrote this book in 1873 for the downtrodden section to make
them aware of the oppression in Indian caste system.
4. Which of the following revolution is called as the first expression of nationalism? 1
A. French B. Russion C. Glorious D. Revolution of liberals
Ans: A French
[Link] is GDP calculated? 1
OR
How is public sector different from private sector?
Ans: GDP is the money value of all final goods and service produced within a country during a
particular year. A centre government ministry in India with the help of various government
departments collects information relating to the total volume of goods and services and their
Prices and then estimates the GDP.
OR
Public Sector is controlled and managed by the government eg: BSNL. Railways. Private Sector
is controlled and managed by an individual or a group of individuals. eg: Airtel, Reliance
6. Which one of the following was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
A. Sambad Kaumudi B. Samsul Akhbar C. Punjab Kesari D. Chandrika
Ans: A. Sambad Kaumudi
7. Who were called chapmen? 1
A. Book seller B. Paper selle C. Workers of printing pres D. Seller of penny chap book
Ans: D. Seller of penny chap book
8. Choose the incorrect option from columns A and B. 1
Column A Column B
Category of person Developmental goals
[Link] rural labourers More days of work and better wages.
2. Prosperous farmers from Punjab Availability of other sources of irrigation
3. Farmers who depend only on rain for Assured a higher support prices for their
growing crops crops
4. A rural women from a land owning family Regular job and high wages to increase her
income

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Ans: 2. Prosperous farmers from Punjab – Availability of other sources of irrigation

9. Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression. 1
OR
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various communities in India.
Ans: (i) Empowering them by providing education. (ii) Educate women about of laws to protect
them like, Domestic Violence Act, Inheritance Laws etc.
OR
State intervention in the religious matters only in the larger public interest
10. In which one of the following states is Kaiga nuclear power plant located? 1
A. Gujarat B. Karnataka C. Punjab D. Kerala
Ans: B. Karnataka
11. Modern democracies maintains checks and balance system. Identify the correct option based
on the horizontal power sharing arrangement. 1
A. Central, State and Local Governments B. Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
C. Among different social groups D. Among different pressure group
Ans: B. Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
12. Fill in the blank: 1
----------- industry is the basic industry since all the other industries heavy, medium and light
depend on it for machinery.
Ans: Iron and steel industry
13. Define the term “Veto”. 1
OR
Define the term “Carding”.
Ans: A veto is a constitutional right to reject a decision or proposal made by a lawmaking body.
OR
Carding is a mechanical process that disentangles, cleans and intermixes fibers such as cotton
or wool to produce a continuous web or sliver suitable for subsequent processing like spinning.
14. Fill in the blank. 1
Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand printing technology into ---- around A.D
768-770
Ans: Japan
15. State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and
cultural diversities. 1
Ans: Buddhist missionary from China introduced hand-printed technology into japan around
Ad 768-770. The oldest printed book was diamond sutra with woodcut illustration. pictures were
printed on textiles,playing cards and paper money.
16. Which one of the following is a major caste group of Srilanka? 1
[Link] and Tamil [Link] and Hindu C,Sinhali and Tamil [Link] and Christian.
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 Ans: C. Sinhali and Tamil
17. Fill in the blank:
-------industry is used for manufacturing aircrafts, utensils and wires.
Ans: Aluminium
18. Choose the correct option from columns A and B 1
A B
Chandrapur termal power plant Odisha
Mayurbhanj iron ore mines Amarkhantak
Kalol oil fields Gujarat
Bauxite mines Jharkhand
Ans: Kalol oil fields – Gujarat
19. Suggest any one way to create employment in urban areas. 1
Ans : By setting up large scale and construction mineral based industries.
20. Which is the oldest artificial seaport of India? 1
OR
Which is the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India?
Ans: Chennai
OR
Visakhapatnam
SECTION B
SHORT ANSWER QIESTIONS
21. Describe any 3 features of federal government. 3
OR
Describe any 3 features of unitary government.
Ans: (i)Dual Objectives – The objectives of the federal government include accommodation of
regional diversity along with the need to safeguard and promote unity of the country at the same
time. (ii) Clear specification of Sources of Revenue – Sources of revenue for each levels of
government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. (iii) Supremacy of the
Constitution – The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally
guaranteed as the Jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of the government are specified in
the constitution. OR
The jurisdictions of government or its sub-units are not specified in the constitution, centre can
delegate power to introduce any change. The central government can pass orders to the
provincial or the local government. Either there is only one level of government or the sub-units
which are subordinate to the central government. Example: China, United Kingdom, Japan etc.
22. Tertiary sector activities helps in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
Evaluate the statement. 3
OR
Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of
development. Evaluate the statement.
Ans: (1) Tertiary sector activities, by themselves, do not produce any good but they are an aid or
support for the primary and secondary sectors production process. For example the transport,
trade, storage, etc helps the Primary Sector Industries like Agriculture. (2) Tertiary sector

280

K64
comprises several essential services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and
telegraph services, police stations, courts, defence, transports, banks, etc. All these are required
as basic services that helps the primary and secondary sectors. (3) Over the past decade or so,
certain new services such as those based on information and communication technology have
become important and essential. OR

(2) The history of developed countries indicates that the initial stage of development, the
primary sector was the most important sector of economic activities. As the methods of fanning
changed and agriculture sector began to prosper, it produced much more food than before and
most people were also employed in this sector. Over more than a hundred years, when new
methods of manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. In this
way, the secondary sector gradually became the most important in total production and
employment. In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary and tertiary
sectors in developed countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms of
total production. This is the general pattern observed in developed countries.
23. Mention any 3 features of secularism described in the Indian Constitution. 3

OR
Mention the problem of casteism in Indian politics.
Ans: (i) The Constitution of India does not give special recognition to any religion and there is
no State religion in India, unlike, Christianity in America, Buddhism in Sri Lanka etc.
(ii) All individuals and communities have been given freedom to practice, profess and propagate
any religion. (iii) The Constitution of India puts ban on the discrimination on grounds of
religion. (iv) According to constitution state cannot intervene in the matters of religion in order
to promote religious equality. OR
[Link] parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in mind. The caste composition of the
electorate and nominate candidates from different castes so as to get necessary support to win
elections. (ii) Political parties and candidates in elections make appeal to caste sentiment to
muster support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their
representatives. (iii) Universal adult franchise and the principle of one vote compelled political
leaders to gear upto the task of mobilising and securing political support
24. Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of the country. Support
the statement with examples. 3
Ans: (i) Initially the Raw material can reach factories faster.
(ii) The movement of the finished goods from their supply locations to demand locations
necessitates the need for transport.
(iii) Mobility of labour force also increases.
[Link] the importance of judicious use of resources.

OR
Describe the different steps of resource planning. 3
Ans: Indiscriminate use of resources leads to environmental socio and economic problems. Most
of the resources are non-renewable, if exhausted, then they may not be able to recreated.
Resources are available only in limited quantity which are essential for any developmental

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Activity OR
(i) Surveying, mapping, qualitative & quantitative estimation and measurement of resources
leads to identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. (ii) Resource
development plans are implemented by evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate
technology, skill and institutional set-up. (iii) Resource development plans are matched with
overall national development plans.
26. Explain any 3 effects of population growth in England in the late 18th century. 3

OR
Why did the export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of the 19 thcentury. Explain any 3
reasons.
Ans: (i) Due to pressure from industrialists, government was forced to remove Corn Laws. Food
is now imported in Britain (ii) Demand of food grains increased as urban centres expanded.
(iii) Due to pressure from landed groups government restricted import of Corn by enacting
Corn laws.
OR
1. Indian weaver could not compete with cheap British goods. 2. Manchester made goods started
flooding Indian market. 3. Import duties on Indian cotton textile was imposed in England.
27. Suggest any 3 ways to improve public facilities in India. 3
Ans: 1. The availability of basic services such as education, healthcare, clean and safe drinking
water, sanitation etc. by the government and its institutions must be ensured by eliminating the
middlemen from the system. The initiative such as DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer), Clean India
Mission, taken by the present incumbent government are praiseworthy in this regard.2. The
most filthiest enemy in provisioning of public services is corruption. It inhibits economic
growth and affects society at large. The recent move of demonetisation by the government of
India is a giant step towards combating corruption and its various forms. [Link] services must
reach the poor and the backward sections of the society in the remotest areas which certifies its
implementation by the government in improving the living conditions of the people at large.
28. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows.
The movement started with middle class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
from the government controlled schools and colleges headmasters and teachers resigned and
lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces
except Madras, where the justice party, the party of the non- Brahmins felt that entering the
council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmins had access to.
The effect of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were
boycotted, liquor shops picketed and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign
cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from rs.102 crore to 57 crore. In many
places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the
boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only
Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
28.1 Explain the role of justice party in boycotting of council elections. 1
28.2 How was the effect of non-cooperation in the economic front dramatic? 1
28.3 Explain the effect of boycott movement on foreign Trade. 1
Ans: 28.1 Justice Party, wanted to contest the elections to the council as it was one of the way of
gaining some power.
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28.2 The effects of non-cooperation movement were dramatic on Economic front as foreign
goods were boycotted.
28.3 Effect of Boycott movement on ‘Foreign textile trade’led to a great change where people
began discarding imported clothes and started wearing Indian clothes only.

SECTION C

LONG ANSWER QIESTIONS

29. Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country. Support the
statement with examples. 5
OR
Credit sometimes push up the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful.
Support the statement with examples.
Ans: Bank provides loan in rural area for crop production ultimately resulting in the
development of many places. Bank provides loan to create fixed assets that will create
employment opportunities. It acts as a link between savers and investors. Banks accepts the
deposit and pay an amount as interest on the deposit which mobilizes savings. Bank uses major
portion of these deposits to extend loan for various profitable events.
OR
It is true that credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very
painful. It happens in cases like: In case of rural area if crop fails due to natural factors it will be
difficult to repay In case of failure of a business it will be difficult to repay the [Link] case of
informal sector, rate of interest is very high. If due to crop failure previous loan is not repaid
interest rate further mounts. In case of high risk activities failure without some support can
push borrower in painful situation. In many cases people has to sell their land and fixed assets to
repay loan.
30. Describe the features of primitive subsistence farming. 5
Ans: 1. It is practiced on small patches of land. [Link] used in this kind of farming are
traditional tools such as hoe, dao, and digging stick. [Link] type of agriculture is completely
dependent on monsoon. [Link] soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift to another plot of land.
[Link] is a slash and burn agriculture-farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other
food crops to sustain their family. [Link] productivity in this type of farming is low as the
farmer doesnot use fertilisers or other modern inputs.
31. Describe the role of opposition party in democracy. 5
Ans: 1. The Success of the democracy depends to a great extend on the constructive role of the
opposition parties. 2. The leader of the opposition party enjoys some privileges equivalent to that of a
cabinet minister. 3. The opposition party also functions in an effective manner, and their work is no
less important than that of the ruling parties. 4. To check the government from becoming
authoritarian and to restrict its powers, the opposition parties keep a watch over them. 5. The main
duty of the opposition party is to criticize the policies of the government. 6. Outside the legislature the
opposition parties attract the attention of the press and report their criticism of the government
policy in the news papers. 7. The opposition parties have the right to check the expenditure of the
government also. 8. During the question hour, the opposition parties criticism the government
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 generally take into consider for making alteration in decisions.
33. Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens. Support the statement
with examples. 5
Ans: No society has a permanent solution for the differences that can come up between
various groups in it. But democracy provides the opportunity to negotiate the differences
and decide on what is better for everyone. Non-democratic regimes usually just ignore
the internal problems or suppress it. Democracy ensures inclusion of every group
including minorities and its interests in the decision making. Democracy reduces the
chances of differences or conflicts becoming violent. Every individual wants to receive
respect from fellow beings. The passion for respect and freedom are basis of democracy.
Long struggles by women have got them respect and equal treatment. In many
democracies women were deprived of their right to vote for a long time which they have
achieved now. In India, l/3rd of seats have been reserved for women in local bodies.
Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes
for equal status and equal opportunity.
33. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows.
34. Source A Production across countries
Until the middle of the 20th century, production was largely organized within countries.
What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw materials, finished products
and food stuff. Colonies such as India exported raw materials, food stuff and imported
finished products. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was
before large companies called Multi National Corporations emerged on the scene.
Source B Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity to the producers reach beyond the domestic market. ie,
market for their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only the market located
within the country but also compete in markets located in other countries of the world.
Similarly, for the buyers, import of products produced in another country is one way of
expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Source C Impact of globalization in India
Globalisation and greater competition among producers- both local and foreign producers-has
been of advantage to consumers particularly to well-off sections in the urban areas. There is
greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for
several products. As a result these people today enjoy much higher standards of living then was
possible earlier.
Source A
33.1. How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries in the world? 1
Ans. MNCs act as a major force in connecting the countries of the world by interacting with
local producers in various countries and spreading their production resulting in connecting
widely dispersed location or countries.
Source B
33.2 How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries in the world? 2

284

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Ans. Foreign trade has been the main channel connecting countries. In the past, silk route
connected different countries of the world and trade was restricted to sale of finished goods. But
now in modern days the producers export the goods to other countries and the buyers can
import goods leading to connecting different countries.
Source C
33.3 How is globalisation beneficial for consumers? 2
Ans. Lower prices for several good quality goods. It provides greater choice before the
consumers. More accessible through e-business and door to door delivery. Product should
available at anytime, anywhere all over the world.
34. How did ideas of national unity in early 19th century Europe allied to the ideology of
liberalism. Explain.
OR
How did Greek war of independence mobilise nationalist feelings among the educated elite
across Europe? Explain. 5
Ans. Creation of railway further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interest to national
[Link] emphasised the concept of government by consent. Liberals supported
creation of unified economic territory. Liberals supported the demand of middle class about
freedom of markets and end of state imposed restrictions on movement of goods and capital. For
the new middle class liberalism stands for individual freedom and equality of all before law. A
common custom union, sovereign, at the initiative of Prussia was formed. Liberalism stood for
end of autocracy and special privileges. OR
Nationalism in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile. Many west Europeans had
sympathies for ancient Greek culture. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe let to
struggle for independence among the Greeks from Ottoman Empire. Lord Byron organised
funds and later went to fight Greek war. Poets and artists lauded Greece as cradle of European
civilization and mobilized public opinion to support its struggle against Muslim empire.

SECTION D
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTIONS
35. (a)Two features ‘A’ and ‘B’ are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the
lines marked near them. 2
A.A place where the Indian National Congress session was held. Ans: Kolkata (Sep.1920)
[Link] place where the movement of indigo planters was started. Ans: Champaran in Bihar
(b) Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same political
outline map of India. 4
Sardar Sarovar Dam
Bhilai Iron and steel plant
Pune Software technology park
Kochi Major sea port
Indore Cotton textile industry
Naraura Nuclear power plant
Ans: i. Gujarat ii. Chattisgarh iii. Maharashtra iv. Kerala v. Madhya Pradesh vi. U.P
[look map questions]

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 285

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)

CLASS X – SESSION 2019-20
BOARD SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i. The question paper has 35 questions in all.
ii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii. Questions from serial number 1 to 20 are objective typequestions. Each question carries one
mark. Answer them as instructed.
iv. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions
should not exceed 80 words each.
v. Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions
should not exceed 120 words each.
vi. Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts - 35 a. from History
(2marks) and 35 b. from Geography (4 marks).
SECTION – A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct
answer from the options given below: 1
COLUMN A COLUMN B
A. Rashsundari Debi 1. Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
B. Sudarshan Chakr 2. Kesari
C. Kashibaba 3. Gulamgiri
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4. Sacchi Kavitayen
Ans: A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
2. Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given
below: 1
A. Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics B. Wanted members of
Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians C. Wanted members of Congress to ask
Dominion State for India D. Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
Ans: A Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows, Which of the following aspect best
signifies this image of ‘Germania’? 1
A. Heroism and Justice B. Folk and Cultural Tradition C. Austerity and Asceticism
D. Revenge and Vengeance Ans: A. Heroism and Justice
4. Who was called as the architect of Germany’s unification? 1
Ans: Ottovon Bismarck
OR
Who was proclaimed as king of united Italy in 1861?
Ans: Victor Emmanual II
5. Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland? 1
A. Gross cropped Area B. Uncultivable Land C. Barren Wasteland D. Current fallow Land

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 Ans: B Uncultivable Land
286
6. Which of the following book was written by Mahatma Gandhi? 1
A. Kesari B. Swaraj C. Discovery of India D. Hind Swaraj
Ans: D Hind Swaraj
7. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rice: 1
Crop Annual rain fall cropping season temperature
Rice 100 cm A---? B---?
Ans: A. Kharif B. 16°C – 27°C
8 Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Suggest any
one way to popularize its maximum use. 1
Ans: Aware people about renewable energy resources/use of rooftop solar panels/solar street
lighting system/any other relevant point
OR
A concerted effort has to be made for sustainable development. Suggest any one step in
conserving our mineral resources for the future.
Ans: Improved technologies/ Recycling of metals/ Using scrap metals and other substitutes / Any
other relevant point
9. Correct the following statement and rewrite: 1
In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognise Tamil as the only official language,
disregarding Sinhala.
Ans: In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognise Sinhala as the only official language,
disregarding Tamil.
OR
Correct the following statement and rewrite:
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Italy, Germany and
Luxembourg.
Ans: Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, The Netherlands,
Germany and Luxembourg.
10. Which one of the following option best signifies this cartoon? 1
A. Demand for separate state from Democratic Governmen B. Democrati Government is facing
territorial issues with the bordering states C. Democratic Government is coping with multiple
pressures through accommodation D. Democratic Government accepts demands based on
separate state [look picture based questions]
Ans:C Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation
11. The representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European
countries because--------. 1
Ans: Lack of legally imposed quotas or reservation policy at central level/ Any relevant point.
OR
The Constitution of India provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess,
practice and propagate any religion because ____.
Ans: India is a secular country/ any other relevant answer
12. Who presides over the meeting of the Municipal Corporation? 1
Ans: The Mayor/Municipal Commissioner/Alderman
OR
Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India?

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Ans: Union Government

287
13. Mention the formula to calculate the BMI (Body Mass Index). 1
Ans: Weight (in c.m/Height 2 (in meter)
14. Which of the statement below defines Sustainable Development? 1
A. Sustainable use of natural resources for the need of the future generation. B. Present
generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well. C. It
means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and future generation. D. To meets
the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go unmet.
Ans: B Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation
as well.
15. One of the best ways to reduce over usage of ground water is----- 1
Ans: Implementation of stringent policies to control misuse of water (Or Any other valid point)
16. Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of economy?
A. Fisherman B. Farmer C. Factory worker D. Teacher
Ans: D Teacher
17. The number of deaths of children less than one year of age per 1000 live births is referred: 1
Ans: Infant mortality rate
OR
The total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of
total number of children in the same age group is referred as -----
Ans: Gross enrollment ratio
18. Find the Incorrect option. 1
A. Demand deposit share the essential features of money B. With demand deposit payments can
be made without cash C. Demand deposits are safe way of money transformation D. Demand
deposit facility is like cheque
Ans: D Demand deposit facility is like cheque
OR
Arrange the following in the correct sequence –
i. Transporting cloth to the workshops ii. Sale in shops and showrooms iii. Spinning the yarn
iv. Weaving of the fabric
Options – A. i--iv--iii—ii B. iii –iv—i—ii C. iv—i--ii—iii D. iii—iv--ii--i
Ans: B iii – iv— i--ii
19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods. 1
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are true but R
is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is correct but R is wrong. d. A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans: a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
20 Rita has taken a loan of 7 lakhs from the bank to buy a car. The annual interest rate on the
loan is 14.5% and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments. The bank retained
the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the

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entire loan with interest. Analyse the loan information given above, considering one of the
following correct option. 1

288
a. Mode of re-payment b. Terms of credit c. Interest on loan d. Deposit criteria
Ans: b. Terms of Credit
SECTION – B
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
21 Describe the incidence of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. 3
OR
Describe the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in Andhra Pradesh during 1920s.
Ans i. On 13 April, Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place. ii. On that day a crowd of
villagers who had come to Amritsar to attend a fair gathered in the enclosed ground of
Jallianwalla Bagh. iii. Being from outside the city, they were unaware of the martial
law that had been imposed. iv. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and
opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.
OR
i. Alluri Sitaram Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers like making
astrological predictions, healing people and surviving bullet shots ii. The rebels
proclaimed him as an incarnation of God. iii. Raju was inspired by Gandhiji’s Non-
Cooperation Movement iv. Persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
v. But at the same time he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of
force, not non-violence. vi. Used guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.
22 Why did Europeans flee to America in 19th century? Explain. 3
OR
Why did merchants moved to the countryside Europe during the seventeenth and eighteenth
centuries? Explain.
Ans: Poverty and hunger were common in Europe. Cities were crowded and deadly diseases
were widespread. Religious conflicts were common and religious dissenters were persecuted.
Plantations were worked on by slaves.
OR
Expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies. Powerful urban craft and trade guilds
did not allow expansion of production in towns. Producers regulated production, competition,
prices. Rulers also granted different guilds the monopoly right to produce and trade in specific
products. It was therefore difficult for new merchants to set up business in towns. So they turned
to the countryside.
23 Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows.
Source A-Religious Debates and the Fear of Print
Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, and introduced a new world of debate and
discussion. Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate
their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people to think differently, and move
them to action. This had significance in different spheres of life.
Source B-The Reading Mania
The ideas of scientists and philosophers now became more accessible to the common people.
Ancient and medieval scientific texts were compiled and published, and maps and scientific
diagrams were widely printed. When scientists like Isaac Newton began to publish their discoveries,

K64
they could influence a much wider circle of scientifically minded readers. The writings of thinkers
such as Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean Jacques Rousseau were also widely printed and read.
Thus their ideas about science, reason and rationality found their way into popular literature.
289
Source C --- Print Culture and the French Revolution
Print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a
critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason
rather than custom, and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and
rationality. They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state,
thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and
Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes
that were questioning, critical and rational.
Source A-Religious Debates and the Fear of Print
23.1 Evaluate the effectiveness of Print in the transmission of ideas and cultures. 1
Source B-The Reading Mania
23.2 To what extent do you agree that scientific ideas were circulated through Print.? Give only
one aspect. 1
Source C --Print Culture and the French Revolution
23.3To what extent did print culture create conditions for French Revolution? Cite any one
evidence to support your answer. 1
Ans: 23.1 Print introduced a new world of debate and discussion which led to the
beginning of the Protestant Reformation with the contribution of Martin Luther.
23.2 Newspapers, journals, chapbooks and other medium popularised the scientific
ideas of scientist and philosophers like Isaac Newton, Thomas Paine, Voltaire and
Jean Jacques Rousseau.
23.3 i. Print popularised the ideas of the enlightenment thinkers ii. All values, norms
and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed iii. It led to the growth of hostile
sentiments against the French monarchy (Any other relevant point)
24 “Energy saved is energy produced”. Support the statement with suitable examples. 3
OR
“India has fairly rich and varied mineral resources across different regions”. Support the
statement with examples.
Ans: i. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy
sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. ii. India is presently one of the least
energy efficient countries in the world. iii. We have to adopt a cautious approach for
the judicious use of our limited energy resources. iv. Using public transport systems
instead of individual vehicles. v. Switching off electricity when not in use, vi. Using
power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy.
OR
i. Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other
non-metallic minerals. ii. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula,
in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits. iii. Rajasthan with the rock systems
of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The vast alluvial plains of North
India are almost devoid of economic minerals. Any three points to be explained.
25 Describe any 3 features of Indian Federalism. 3

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Ans: i. Indian federalism is a threefold distribution based on three lists: I Union List on which
centre make laws such as defence, currency, etc. II State List on which state make laws such as
police, trade, agriculture, etc. III Concurrent List on which both Centre and State Legislates
such as education, marriage, etc. ii. Centre legislate on ‘residuary’ subjects. iii. High Courts
290
and the Supreme Court sorts out the dispute between centre and state.
26 Describe the role of Political Parties in India. 3
Ans: i. Parties contest election. ii. Parties put forward different policies and programmes
iii. Parties form and run the govt. iv. Parties that lose in the election play the role of opposition
27 Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India? Explain. 3
OR
Why do banks and cooperative societies need to lend more? Explain.
Ans: i. To save people from the exploitation of Informal sector ii. Formal charge a low interest
on loans. iii. To save from debt trap. iv. It provides cheap and affordable credit. v. RBI also
supervises the formal sector credit through various rules and regulations which ensures that
banks give loans to small cultivators, small borrowers, etc. and not just to profit making
business and traders.
OR
i. This would lead to higher incomes ii. People could borrow cheaply for a variety of needs.
iii. They could grow crops and set up small-scale industries etc. iv. Cheap and affordable credit
is crucial for the country’s development v. To save and reduce the dependence on informal
sources of credit vi. It is important that the formal credit is distributed more equally so that the
poor can benefit from the cheaper loans.
28 Underemployment continues to be rampant in the rural areas. Suggest any three ways
through which employment for rural people can be generated. 3
Ans: i. People can be employed in projects like construction of dam/canal/ roads in the village.
ii. Government invests and employ people in providing transportation and storage services.
iii. People can be employed in services like banking, trade, etc.
iv. Government can identify, promote industries and services in semi-rural areas to enhance
employment. v. Government can open centres to give them training and financial assistance to
help them become self – employed
SECTION – C
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
29 Highlight the reasons for the growth of nationalist tensions in the Balkan region before the
First World War. 5
OR
Why was the period of 1848 considered as phase of the revolution of the Liberals in Europe?
Explain.
OR
Events of February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch and a
republic based on universal male suffrage had been proclaimed. Germany, Italy, Poland, the
Austro-Hungarian Empire – men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their
demands for constitutionalism with national unification. They took advantage of the growing
popular unrest to push their demands for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary
principles – a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association. In the German
regions a large number of political associations whose members were middle-class

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professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans came together in the city of Frankfurt
and decided to vote for an all-German National Assembly. The middle classes who resisted
the demands of workers and artisans and consequently lost their support. In the end troops
were called in and the assembly was forced to disband. The issue of extending political rights
291
to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of
women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political
associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstration.
30 Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:
Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving
transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed
communication system. Therefore, transport,communication and trade are complementary to each
other. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and
linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television,
cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio economic progress inmany ways. The
trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched
our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. It is
thus, evident that a dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite
for local, national and global trade of today.
30.1-Why is there a need to interlink with the world? 1
30.2-Infer the importance of means of transportation and communication for socio- economic
progress? 2
30.3- How does trade strengthen the economy of a country? 2
Ans: 30.1 For development, advancement and globalization
30.2. i. They are the very basis of industries and trade of country. ii. Create job employment
opportunities iii. Help to grow economy iv. Transport maintains the movement of persons and
products from one region to another region of the country. v. in sending and receiving messages
vi. Interlinking world vii. Increases awareness among the people at national level. viii. Help in
defending the independence and the national unity of a country. (Any 4 relevant point)
30.3. i. Trade between nation and countries are the index to its economic prosperity ii. It
generates employment iii. It Helps in earning foreign exchange
31 ‘The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.’
Substantiate the statement with examples. 5
Ans: i. On one hand Industries lead to extensive industrial growth and expansion, other hand
these are also the cause of environmental degeneration which prompt to the different type of air,
water pollution. ii. There is an increasing requirement to use a further sustainable model.
iii. Industries must produce eco-friendly products and dump wastes responsibly. iv. Use of
latest technology can help industries to control pollution and lead towards sustainable mode of
operation. v. Industries use- Reuse-Recycle-Refuse approach. vi. If necessary, dump waste in
specified places, away from the land and water sources, for example- before dumping treat well
and make useful for other than drinking purpose, stop using thermal plants in some of the
locations.
32 Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony. 5
Ans: i. The Path of accommodation adopted in Belgium. ii. Dutch and French speaking
ministers got equal in the central govt. iii. Many Powers of the central government have been
given to state government iv. The state Government was not subordinate to the Central Govt.

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v. Brussels has a separate Govt. in which both the communities have equal representation.
vi. There is a third kind of Govt. called community Govt. elected by the people belonging to
Dutch, French and German no matter where they live.

292
33 ‘Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation’. Examine the statement. 5
OR
‘Respect and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic society’.
Examine the statement.
Ans: i. Democracy gives importance to deliberation and public opinion. ii. The democratic
government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision. iii. Its
decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective. iv. Democracy ensures
that decision making will be based on norms and procedures. v. Transparency as Persons have
the right and the means to examine the process of decision making.
OR
i. Economic independence or access to an inherited or self-generated income is considered to be
the major means of empowering women. ii. Equal political and civil rights as men iii. Ways
of autonomy and freedom. iv. Distributive justice to reduce inequalities in resources and
power. v. Love, universal brotherhood, sincerity, honesty and integrity of character, firm
attitude of rendering help vi. Removing social evils including violence, torture, humiliation etc.
34 Describe the role of technology in promoting globalisation process. 5
Ans: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication
technology. Technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, Internet has been
changing rapidly. Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones,
fax) are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to
communicate from remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices

SECTION-D
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION
35 (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A) The place where Indian National Congress Session was held in December 1920
Ans: Nagpur in Maharashtra
B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: Dandi in Gujarat

b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
symbols.
i. Paradwip- Major Sea Port
ii. Noida- Software Technology Park
iii. Salem- Iron & Steel industry
iv. Kalpakkam- Nuclear Power Plant
v. Bhakra Nangal– Dam
vi. Chattrapati Shivaji International Airport

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Ans: 1. Odisha 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Tamil Nadu
4. Tamil Nadu 5. Punjab 6. Maharashtra
[look map questions]
293
NCERT SOLUTIONS-HISTORY
Chapter 1 – Rise of Nationalism in Europe
1. Write a note on: a. Guiseppe Mazzini b. Count Camillo de Cavour c. The Greek war of
independence d. Frankfurt parliament e. The role of women in nationalist struggles
Answer: a. During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent
programme for the unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called ‘Young
Italy’ for the dissemination of his goals. Answer: b. He led the movement to unify Italy. He was
neither a revolutionary nor a democrat. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance engineered by
Cavour, Sardini-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859.
Answer: c. Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth
of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the
Greeks, which began in [Link] and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European
civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.
Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West
Europeans, who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture. Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople
of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation. Answer: d. It was an all-German National
assembly formed by Middle-Class professionals, businessmen and prosperous Artisans
belonging to different German regions. It was convened on 18 May 1848. It was disbanded on 31
May 1849 as it lost [Link]: e. Women of the liberal middle classes combined their
demands for constitutionalism with national unification. They took advantage of the growing
popular unrest to push their demands for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary
principles – a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association. Women had formed
their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and
demonstrations.
2. What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity among
the French people?
Answer: The ideas of ‘La Patrie’ (the fatherland) and ‘Le Citoyen’ (the citizen) emphasised the
notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the
tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. New hymns were composed, oaths
taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative
system was put in place, and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
Internal customs duties and dues were abolished, and a uniform system of weights and measures
was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in
Paris, became the common language of the nation. The revolutionaries further declared that it
was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from
despotism. In other words, to help other peoples of Europe to become nations.
3. Who were Marianne and Germania? What was the importance of the way in which they were
portrayed?
Answer: Female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the
nation. Marianne, a popular Christian name – underlined the idea of a people’s nation. Her
characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the tricolour,

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the cockade. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the public of the
national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it. The image of Marianne was
marked on coins and stamps. Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual
294
representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.
4. Briefly trace the process of German unification.
Answer: Nationalist sentiments were often mobilised by conservatives for promoting state power
and achieving political domination over Europe. This can be observed in the process by which
Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states. Middle-class Germans tried to unite the
different regions of German Confederation, but their plans were not materialised due to actions
of large landowners called Junkers of Prussia. Three wars over seven years with Austria,
Denmark and France ended in a Prussian victory. In Jan 1871, Prussian King William I was
proclaimed German emperor. Importance was given to modernising the currency, banking,
legal and judicial systems in Germany.’
5. What changes did Napoleon introduce to make the administrative system more efficient in the
territories ruled by him?
Answer: The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all the
privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property.
This Code was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic, in
Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified the administrative divisions, abolished
the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In the towns too, guild
restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved. Peasants,
artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed new-found freedom. Businessmen and small-
scale producers of goods, in particular, began to realise that uniform law, standardised weights
and measures, and a common national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of
goods and capital from one region to another.
Discuss: 1. Explain what is meant by the 1848 revolution of the liberals. What were the political,
social and economic ideas supported by the liberals?
Answer: In the year 1948, parallel to the revolts of the poor, another revolution was happening
underway. Led by the educated middle classes, the unemployed, the starving peasants and
workers in many European countries experienced this revolution of the liberals. Events of
February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch and a republic based
on universal male suffrage had been proclaimed. In other parts of Europe where independent
nation-states did not yet exist – such as Germany, Italy, Poland, the Austro-Hungarian Empire –
men and women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with
national unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands
for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of the
press and freedom of association. The issue of extending political rights to women was a
controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had
participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations,founded
newspapers and had taken part in political meetings and demonstrations.
2. Choose three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in
Europe.
Answer: Language: Language played a very important role. After the Russian occupation, the
Polish language was forced out of schools, and the Russian language was imposed everywhere.

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The Clergy in Poland began using language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish was used
for Church gatherings and all religious instructions. The use of Polish came to be seen as a
symbol of struggle against Russian dominance. Romanticism: It was a cultural movement which
sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets
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generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focussed instead on emotions,
intuition and mystic feelings. They tried to portray a common cultural past as the basis of a
nation. Folk poetry, folk dance, folk songs: The true spirit of the nation was popularised through
the above means. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was an essential part of
nation-building.
3. Through a focus on any two countries, explain how nations developed over the 19th century.
Answer: Focus countries – Germany and Italy. Germany: Nationalist sentiments were often
mobilised by conservatives for promoting state power and achieving political domination over
Europe. This can be observed in the process by which Germany and Italy came to be unified as
nation-states. Middle-class Germans tried to unite the different regions of German
Confederation, but their plans were not materialised due to actions of large landowners called
the ‘Junkers of Prussia’. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, and France ended
in a Prussian victory. In Jan 1871, the Prussian King William I was proclaimed German
emperor. Importance was given to modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems
in Germany. Italy: During the 1830s, Mazzini sought to unify Italy. He had formed a secret
society called ‘Young Italy’, and It had failed. Hence, the responsibility fell on Sardinia-
Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II, to unify Italian states through [Link]
forces were defeated in 1859. Apart from Sardinia-Piedmont, a large number of volunteers had
joined the cause under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi. In 1860, they marched to South
Italy and managed to defeat Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed as the
king of Italy.
4. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?
Answer: Formation of the nation-state was not due to sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the
result of a long-drawn-out process. The primary identities of people who inhabited the British
Isles were ethnic ones such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. The Act of Union between England
and Scotland resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. Scottish people
were forbidden from speaking their Gaelic language and from wearing their national dress.
Many were driven out of their homeland. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the UK in 1801.
This was achieved by the English helping the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance
over the Catholics. The symbols of the new Britain – the British flag (Union Jack), the national
anthem (God save our Noble King) and the English language were actively promoted, and the
older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.
5. Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans?
Answer: It was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania,
Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and
Montenegro who were broadly known as Slavs. A large part was under the control of the
Ottoman Empire. Gradually independence was declared from them. The spread of the ideas of
romantic nationalism in the Balkans, together with disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made
this region very explosive.

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 Chapter 2 – Nationalism in India
1. Explain: a. Why the growth of nationalism in the colonies is linked to an anti-colonial
movement.
Answer: People began discovering their unity in the process of their struggle with colonialism.
The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied many different
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groups together. But each class and group felt the effects of colonialism differently. Their
experiences were varied and their notions of freedom were not always the same. The Congress
under Mahatma Gandhi tried to forge these groups together within one movement. But the unity
did not emerge without conflict.
b. How the First World War helped in the growth of the National Movement in India.
Answer: War created a new political and economic situation. Led to a huge increase in defence
expenditure which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes: custom duties were
increased and income tax introduced. Forced recruitment in villages caused widespread anger.
Crops failed; this resulted in an acute shortage of food. 12 to 13 million people died due to
famines and epidemics.
c. Why Indians were outraged by the Rowlatt Act.
Answer: Rowlatt Act was introduced in 1919. This act was hurriedly passed through the
Imperial Legislative Council, although it was completely opposed by Indian members. It had
given the Government enormous powers to repress political activities. It allowed detention of
political prisoners without trial for two years.
d. Why Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer: In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation
Movement. He felt the movement was turning violent in many places, and satyagrahis needed to
be properly trained before they would be ready for mass struggles.
2. What is meant by the idea of satyagraha?
Answer: The idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then the physical
force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a
satyagrahi could win the battle through nonviolence. This could be done by appealing to the
conscience of the oppressor. People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the
truth, instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of violence. By this struggle, the
truth was bound to triumph ultimately. Mahatma Gandhi believed that this dharma of non-
violence could unite all Indians.
3. Write a newspaper report on a) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Answer: On 13 April, the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place. On that day a large
crowd was gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to protest against
the government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair.
Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had been
imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing
hundreds. His objective, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, in the minds of
Satyagrahis. A feeling of terror and awe.
b) The Simon Commission
Answer: When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan
‘Go back, Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in

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the demonstrations. In an effort to win them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in
October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round
Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the Congress leaders.
4. Compare the images of Bharat Mata in this chapter with the image of Germania in Chapter 1.
Answer: Germania: Symbol of Germany. The image was painted by Philip Veit in 1848.
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Carrying a sword in one hand and flag in another hand Germania is wearing a crown of oak
leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism. Bharat Mata: Symbol of India. Painted by
Rabindranath Tagore in 1905. Bharat is standing with a Trishul, standing beside a lion and
elephant, symbols of power and authority.
Discuss
1. List all the different social groups which joined the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921. Then
choose any three and write about their hopes and struggles to show why they joined the
movement.
Answer: Below is the list of different social groups who joined the Non-Cooperation Movement
and their struggles. Middle-Class participation in cities:- Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers
gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except
Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council
was one way of gaining some power – something that usually only Brahmans had access to. The
effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were
boycotted, liquor shops were picketed, and foreign cloth was burnt in huge bonfires. The import
of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57
crore. In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance
foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread and people began discarding imported clothes
and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. But
this movement in the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of reasons. Khadi cloth was
often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it.
Similarly, the boycott of British institutions posed a problem. For the movement to be successful,
alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British
ones. These were slow to come up. So students and teachers began trickling back to government
schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.
Peasants and Tribals:- In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra – a sanyasi who had
earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer. The movement here was against talukdars and
landlords who demanded exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses from peasants.
Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without any payment. As tenants, they
had no security of tenure, being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the
leased land. The peasant movement demanded reduction of revenue, the abolition of begar and
social boycott of oppressive landlords. In many places ‘nai-dhobi bandhs’ were organised by
panchayats to deprive landlords of the services of barbers and [Link] peasants
interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of swaraj in yet another way. In the
Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, for instance, a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early
1920s – not a form of struggle that the Congress could approve. In other forest regions, the
colonial government had closed large forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to
graze their cattle or to collect fuelwood and fruits. This enraged the hill people. Not only were

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their livelihoods affected, but they felt that their traditional rights were being denied. When the
government began forcing them to contribute begar for road building, the hill people revolted.
Workers in the Plantations:- Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi
and the notion of swaraj. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move
freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link
with the village from which they had come. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation
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workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact, they were
rarely given such permission. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of
workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home. They believed that Gandhi
Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own villages. They, however, never
reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were
caught by the police and brutally beaten up.
2. Discuss the Salt March to make clear why it was an effective symbol of resistance against
colonialism.
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31
January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of
general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to
peasants. The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging so that all classes within Indian
society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign.
The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by
the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the essential items of food. The tax on salt and the
government monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most
oppressive face of British rule. Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by
78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in
Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10
miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them
what he meant by Swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached
Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling [Link] in
different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of
government salt factories. As the movement spread, the foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor
shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chowkidar taxes, village officials
resigned, and in many places, forest people violated forest laws – going into Reserved Forests to
collect wood and graze cattle.
3. Imagine you are a woman participating in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Explain what
the experience meant to your life.
Answer: Students are advised to put themselves in the shoes of women and share the experience.
4. Why did political leaders differ sharply over the question of separate electorates?
Answer: Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in
1930, clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the second Round Table Conference by demanding
separate electorates for Dalits. When the British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand,
Gandhiji began a fast unto death. He believed that separate electorates for Dalits would slow
down the process of their integration into society. Ambedkar ultimately accepted Gandhiji’s
position, and the result was the Poona Pact of September 1932. Muhammad Ali Jinnah was
willing to give up the demand for separate electorates if Muslims were assured reserved seats in

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the Central Assembly and representation in proportion to population in the Muslim-dominated
provinces (Bengal and Punjab). Negotiations over the question of representation continued, but
all hope of resolving the issue at the All Parties Conference in 1928 disappeared when M.R.
Jayakar of the Hindu Mahasabha strongly opposed efforts at compromise.
Chapter 3 – The Making of a Global World
1. Give two examples of different types of global exchanges which took place in the seventeenth
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century, choosing one example from Asia and one from the Americas.
Solution: The following are examples of cross-cultural exchanges from Asia and the Americas:
a. The Silk Route (Asia): The silk routes are a good example of cross-cultural trade and
connectivity between distant parts of the world. The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance
of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Trade and cultural exchange always went
hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did
early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. b. Food from the Americas: The food that is part
of our staple diet today like potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes
etc. were not known to our ancestors until the accidental discovery of the Americas by
Christopher Columbus. These foods only made it to Europe and the rest of the world after this
monumental discovery of the new continent.
2. Explain how the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonisation
of the Americas.
Solutions: The global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonization of
the Americas. The reason was that the native Americans were not immune to the diseases that
the European settlers brought with them. The Europeans were to a certain extent immune to the
effects of diseases like smallpox due to centuries of exposure, but the native Americans had no
such defence against this disease, as they were isolated from diseases native to the old world. At
times, settlers deliberately practised biological warfare on the natives by giving items laced with
smallpox germs as ‘gifts of friendship’. The disease was far more effective in wiping out entire
tribes and communities without having to resort to firearms.
3. Write a note to explain the effect of the following: a. The British government’s decision to
abolish the corn laws. b. The coming of rinderpest to Africa. c. The death of men of working-age
in Europe because of the World War. d. The Great Depression on the Indian Economy. e. The
decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries
Solution: a. The British government’s decision to abolish the Corn Laws was due to pressure
from the landed groups, who were unhappy with the high price of food and the cheap inflow of
agricultural products from Australia and America. As a result, many English farmers left their
profession and migrated to towns and cities. Some went overseas. This indirectly led to global
agriculture and rapid urbanization, a prerequisite of industrial growth. b. Rinderpest (a fast-
spreading disease of cattle plague) arrived in Africa in the late 1880s. It had a terrifying impact
on people’s livelihoods and the local economy. It started in East Africa and soon spread to the
other parts of the continent. Within five years, it reached the Cape of Good Hope (Africa’s
Southernmost tip) by which it had killed 90 % of the cattle population in that part of Africa. It
spread through infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading
Eritrea in East Africa. Using this situation to their advantage, colonizing nations conquered and
subdued Africa by monopolizing scarce cattle resources to force Africans into the labour
market. The Africans were forced to work for a wage due to the loss of their livelihood due to

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the effect of Rinderpest. c. The First World War was the first modern industrial war. It saw the
use of machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons etc. on a massive scale. To fight such a
war millions of soldiers had to be recruited from around the world and moved to the frontlines
on large ships and trains. The scale of death and destruction was unlike any other conflict in the
modern era. Most of the killed and maimed were men of working age; the deaths and injuries of
these men drastically reduced the able-bodied workforce in Europe. Within fewer members
within the family, household incomes declined after the war. Thus women stepped in to do the
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jobs that were earlier done by men. It increased the role of women led to a demand for equal
status in society. It made the feminist movement even stronger. d. In the nineteenth century,
colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and importer of manufactures. The
impact of the Great Depression in India was felt, especially in the agricultural sector. It was
evident that the Indian economy was closely becoming integrated into the global economy. India
was a British colony and exported agricultural goods and imported manufactured goods. As
international prices crashed so did the prices in India. The wheat prices in India fell by 50 %
between 1928 and 1934. e. Wages were relatively low in Asian countries like China. Thus, they
became lucrative destinations for investment by foreign MNCs competing to dominate world
markets. The relocation of industry to low-wage countries stimulated world trade and capital
flow. Impact of MNC’s decision to relocate production in Asian Countries was as follows: a. It
provided a cheap source of labour for MNCs b. It stimulated world trade and increased capital
inflow in the Asian Countries c. The local population now had a greater choice of goods and
services along with prospects of greater employment opportunities for them.
4. Give two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability.
Solution: Improved transportation systems: Improved transportation systems helped the foods
get delivered on time to the markets without any harm. Faster railways, lighter wagons and
larger ships helped move food cheaply and quickly from faraway farms to final markets.
Refrigerated ships: The development of refrigerated ships enabled the transport of perishable
foods over long distances. Animals were slaughtered for food at the starting point -in America,
Australia or New Zealand – and then transported to Europe as frozen meat. This reduced
shipping costs and lowered meat prices in Europe. The poor in Europe could now add meat to
their diet, which was monotonous with only bread and potatoes.
5. What is meant by the Bretton Woods Agreement?
Solution: In order to preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world,
the post-war international economic system was established. To execute the same, the United
Nations Monetary and Financial Conference was held in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New
Hampshire, USA. The Bretton Woods Conference established the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) to deal with external surpluses and shortages of its member-nations. The International
Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as the World Bank) was set up to
financial post-war reconstruction, and they started the financial operations in 1947. Under the
agreement, currencies were pegged to the price of gold, and the US dollar was seen as a reserve
currency linked to the price of gold. Decision-making authority was given to the Western
industrial powers. The US was given the right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions.
The Bretton Woods system was based on fixed exchange rates. The Bretton Woods system
Opened an era of unique growth of trade and incomes for the Western industrial nations and
Japan.

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6. Imagine that you are an indentured Indian labour in the Carribean. Drawing from the details
in the chapter, write a letter to your family describing your life and feelings
Solution: Dear Ma and Pa, My work as an indentured labourer Jamaica is far from a walk in
the park. Through this letter, I want to tell you about my life here. When the contractor hired
me, he was quite economical with the truth about the living and working conditions. To say
nothing of the kind of work and place of work. We have very few rights, with the contractor
living up to the behaviour standards expected of them in the Carribean -extremely harsh. He
treats us like animals since we are a minority and thus easy targets for his wrath. Accidents are
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common in the sugar plantations in Jamaica. One time I saw a worker burnt alive when the
liquid sugar we were boiling accidentally spilt on him. Since he cannot work with his third-
degree burns, the contractor saw it fit to throw him out without any due wages paid. We don’t
have any rights to speak or to express our dissatisfaction about the working conditions. And if
we do, we will face the overseer’s whips. Whenever I do not attend my work, I am liable to be to
jail. There is a lot of work at the plantations with a heavy workload and less time to finish it all.
In case of unsatisfactory work, my wages are cut. If there is hell on earth, it certainly is this. I
know my writing will cause you anguish but rest assured there is the talk of new laws underway
to protect labourers like us. Thus, this situation will pass soon.
7. Explain the three types of movements or flows within the international economic exchange.
Find 1 example of each type of flow which involved India and Indians,write a short account of it.
Solution: The three types of movements or flows within the international economic exchange are
trade flows, human capital flows and capital flows or investments. These can be explained as—
the trade in agricultural products, migration of labour, and financial loans to and from other
nations. The flow of trade (trade in goods, e.g. cloth or wheat): India was a hub of trade in the
pre-modern world, and it exported textiles and spices in return for gold and silver from Europe.
Fine cotton was produced in India and was exported to Europe. With industrialization, British
cotton manufacture began to expand, and industrialists pressurized the government to restrict
cotton imports and protect local industries. As a result of the tariffs that were imposed on cloth
imports, the inflow of fine Indian Cotton began to decline. The flow of labour (the migration of
people in search of employment): In the field of labour, indentured labour was provided for
mines, plantations and factories abroad, in huge numbers, in the nineteenth century. This was
an instrument of colonial domination by the British. Indentured labourers were hired under
contacts which promised return travel to India after they had worked five years on their
employer’s plantation. The living conditions were harsh, and the labourers had little protection
of the law or from it as they had little rights. The movement of capital (investments): Lastly,
Britain took generous loans from the USA to finance the World War. Since India was an English
colony, the impact of these loan debts was felt in India too. Food and other crops for the world
market required capital. Large plantations could borrow it from banks and markets.
8. Explain the causes of the Great Depression.
Solution: The Great Depression was a result of many factors: Agriculture overproduction was a
major problem. As a result, agricultural prices fell. As prices fell, so did agricultural incomes.
This increased the volume of goods in the market. The situation got worsened in the market.
Prices fell down further. Farm produce began to rot due to the lack of buyers. Prosperity in the
USA during the 1920s created a cycle of higher employment and incomes. It led to a rise in
consumption and demands. More investment and more employment created tendencies of

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speculations which led to the Great Depression of 1929 up to the mid-1930s. The stock market
crashed in 1929. It created panic among investors and depositors who stopped investing and
depositing. As a result, it created a cycle of depreciation. The withdrawal of US loans affected
the rest of the world in many different ways. In Europe, it led to the failure of the major banks
and the collapse of major currencies such as the British pound sterling. Some of the banks closed
down when people withdrew all their assets, leaving them unable to invest. Some banks called
back loans taken from them at the same dollar rate, in spite of the falling value of the dollar.
9. Explain what is referred to as the G-77 countries. In what ways can G-77 be seen as a reaction
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to the activities of the Bretton Woods twins?
Solution: After the Second World War, many parts of the world were still under European
colonial rule, and it took over two decades for the colonies in Asia and Africa to become free
independent nations. When they became free, they faced many other problems such as poverty,
lack of resources, etc. Economies and societies were handicapped for being under colonial rule
for long periods. As colonies, many of the less developed regions of the world had been part of
Western empires. The policy of the Bretton Woods twins tilted more in favour of the developed
nations of the Western world. Now, ironically, as newly independent countries facing urgent
pressures to lift their populations out of poverty, they came under the guidance of international
agencies dominated by former colonial [Link] these colonies organized themselves as
a group – the Group of 77 (or G-77) – to demand a new international economic order (NIEO).
By the NIEO they meant a system that would give them real control over their natural
resources, more development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for
their manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.
NCERT SOLUTIONS- GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1 – Resources and Development
1. Multiple choice questions: (i) Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Non-renewable Answer: Non-renewable
(ii) Under which of the following type of resource tidal energy cannot be put?
(a) Replenishable (b) Human-made (c) Abiotic (d) Non-recyclable Answer: Replenishable
(iii) Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Mining (b) Deforestation (c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing Answer: Over irrigation
(iv) In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab (b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Uttarakhand Answer: Uttarakhand
(v) In which of the following states black soil is predominantly found?
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand Answer: Maharashtra
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Name three states having black soil and the crop which is mainly grown in it.
Answer: 3 states are: Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh The crop grown is cotton.
(ii) What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of
his type of soil.
Answer: The type of soil found in river deltas is Alluvial Soil. Very fertile, and therefore good
for the cultivation of crops. Consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. It has a good
quantity of potash, lime and phosphoric acid, which is good for the growth of paddy and
sugarcane.
(iii) What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?

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Answer: The main techniques that can be used are given below: Contour ploughing, Terrace
farming, Strips of grass are allowed to grow between the crops. This method is known as strip
cropping.
(iv) What are the biotic and abiotic resources? Give some examples.
Answer: Biotic resource: These are resources that are obtained from the biosphere. These
resources have life. Examples are plants, animals, fish, human beings, livestock etc. Abiotic
resource: These resources are composed of non-living things. Examples are water, minerals,
metals, wind, solar energy etc.
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3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words. (i) Explain the land use pattern in India
and why has the land under forest not increased much since 1960-61?
Answer: The use of land is determined both by physical factors such as topography, climate, soil
types as well as human factors such as population density, technological capability and culture
and traditions etc. The pattern of the net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is
over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal
Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Forest area in the country is far
lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area, as it was outlined in the National Forest
Policy (1952). It was considered essential for the maintenance of the ecological balance. A part of
the land is termed as wasteland and land put to other non-agricultural uses. Wasteland includes
rocky, arid and desert areas and land put to other non-agricultural uses includes settlements,
roads, railways, industry etc. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking
appropriate measures to conserve and manage has resulted in land degradation.
(ii) How has technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?
Answer: There are various reasons for this. Large scale production led to over utilisation of
resources. Technological advancement led to greater exploitation of resources. Improved
medical and health resources led to huge consumption of resource
Chapter 2 – Agriculture
1. Multiple choice questions. (i) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture
where a single crop is grown on a large area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture (b) Plantation Agriculture (c) Horticulture (d) Intensive Agriculture
Answer: Plantation agriculture
(ii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop? (a) Rice (b) Millets (c) Gram (d) Cotton
Answer: (c)Gram
(iii) Which is a leguminous crop? (a) Pulses (c) Millets (b) Jawar (d) Sesamum Answer: Pulses
2. Answer the following questions in 30 words. (i) Name one important beverage crop and
specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.
Answer:One important beverage crop is tea. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-
tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic
matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent
showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a
labour-intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed
within the tea garden to restore its freshness.
(ii) Name one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.
Answer: Rice is a major staple crop of India. It is grown in the following regions. Plains of
North, North East India, Coastal Areas and Deltaic Regions

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(iii) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the
interest of farmers.
Answer: Various institutional reform programmes introduced by the Government are MSP
(Minimum Support Price), Subsidy on Fertiliser, Crop insurance and Establishment of
Grameen banks to provide low-interest loans
(iv) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
Answer: Shortage of food, The rise in prices of food, Imports increase will put stress on the
economy and Rise in Unemployment
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3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words. (i) Suggest the initiative taken by the
government to ensure the increase in agricultural production.
Answer: The Government of India embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms to improve
Indian agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s. The Green Revolution based on the use of package
technology and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to
improve a lot of Indian agriculture. But, this too led to the concentration of development in a few
selected areas. Therefore, in the 1980s and 1990s,a comprehensive land development programme
was initiated, which included both institutional and technical reforms. Provision for crop
insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease, the establishment of Grameen banks,
cooperative societies and banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of
interest were some important steps in this direction. Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal
Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by the Government of
India for the benefit of the farmers. Moreover, special weather bulletins and agricultural
programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television. The government also
announces minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops
to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
(ii) Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
Answer: Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the
nineteenth century, when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were
exported to different countries of the world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow
these crops. Till today, it is one of the important items of export from India. Under globalisation,
particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to new challenges. Despite being
an important producer of rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices, our agricultural
products are not able to compete with the developed countries because of the highly subsidised
agriculture in those countries. Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at the crossroads. To make
agriculture successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the
condition of marginal and small farmers.
Chapter 3 – Manufacturing Industries
1. Multiple choice questions. (i) Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw
material. a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c ) Sugar (d) Jute Solution: (b) Cement
(ii) Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
a) HAIL (b) SAIL (c ) TATA Steel (d) MNCC Solution: (b) SAIL
(iii) Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c ) Jute (d) Steel Solution: (a) Aluminium
(iv) Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc.
a) Steel (b) Electronic (c ) Aluminium (d) Information Technology Solution: (b) Electronic

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2. Answer the following briefly in not more than 30 words. (i) What is manufacturing?
Solution:Manufacturing is the production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw
materials to more valuable products. For e.g.,- paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from
sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium from bauxite.
(ii) Name any three physical factors for the location of the industry.
Solution: Three physical factors for the location of the industry are: Availability of raw
materials, Closeness to market and Availability of power For e.g., – Jute textile industry is
concentrated in West Bengal as the jute producing areas lie in the Hugli basin and there is cheap
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water transport for transportation and for processing of jute.
(iii) Name any three human factors for the location of an industry
Solution: Three human factors for the location of an industry are: Labour, Capital and
Closeness to cities For e.g., Jute textile industry in West Bengal gets cheap labour from the
adjoining states, and Kolkata is a large urban centre for banking, insurance and port facilities.
(iv) What are the basic industries? Give an example.
Solution: Basic or key industries are the industries which supply their product or raw materials
to manufacture other goods. Example – Iron and steel industries provide iron and steel to other
industries as the raw material.
(v) Name the important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement?
Solution: Important raw materials used in the manufacture of cement are: Limestone, Silica,
Alumina and Gypsum
3. Write the answers to the following questions in 120 words. (i) How are integrated steel plants
different from mini steel plants? What problems does the industry face? What recent
developments have led to a rise in the production capacity?
Solution: Integrated steel plants are large and handle everything in one complex – from putting
together raw material to steel making, rolling and shaping. Mini steel plants are smaller, have
electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as
well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications. The challenges faced by the steel
industry are: High cost and limited availability of coking coal, Lower productivity of labour,
Irregular supply of energy and Poor infrastructure Recent developments such as liberalisation
and foreign direct investment (FDI) have given a boost to the industry with the efforts of private
entrepreneurs.
(ii) How do industries pollute the environment?
Solution: Industries are responsible for four types of pollution: Air, Water,Land and Noise. Air
pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur
dioxide and carbon monoxide and airborne particulate matter. Water pollution is caused by
organic and inorganic industrial wastes, and effluents discharged into water bodies. Paper,
refineries and tanneries are the main culprits. Soil and water pollution are closely related.
Dumping of waste makes the soil useless for agricultural activities. The pollutants then reach the
groundwater through the soil and contaminate it. Noise pollution is caused by industrial
machinery and construction activities.
(iii) Discuss the steps to be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industry?
Solution: The steps that can be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industries are:
Adopting the latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment to improve energy efficiency,
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance, Particulate matter in the air can be

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reduced by fitting smokestacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters,
scrubbers and inertial separators, Using silencers for noise generating equipment, Minimising
water usage by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages, Harvesting of
rainwater to meet water requirements, Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in
rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases: Primary
treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and
sedimentation, Secondary treatment by biological process and Tertiary treatment by biological,
chemical and physical processes. This involves the recycling of wastewater
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Chapter 4 – Lifelines of National Economy

1. Multiple choice questions.
[Link] two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?
[Link] and Goa [Link] and Purbandar [Link] and Kolkata [Link] and Siligudi
Solution: (b) Silcher and Purbander
B. Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays?
a. Railways b. Roadways c. Pipelines d. Waterways Solution: (c ) Pipelines
C. Which one of the following states is not connected with the H.V.J. pipeline?
[Link] Pradesh [Link] [Link] [Link] Pradesh Solution:(b)Maharashtra
D. Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the
east coast? [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] Solution:(d)Vishakhapatnam
E. Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India?
A. a. Pipeline b. Railways c. Roadways d. Airways Solution: (b) Railways
F. Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
[Link] trade [Link] trade [Link] trade d. Tarrif Solution:(b)International Trade
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words. [Link] any three merits of roadways.
Solution: Three merits of roadways are: 1. The construction cost of roads is much lower than
that of railway lines. 2. Road transport is economical in the transportation of few persons and
relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances. 3. Roads can traverse comparatively
more dissected and undulating topography.
b. Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transportation?
Solution: Rail transport is the most convenient means of transportation in the northern plains as
there are level stretches of land with high population density and rich agricultural resources.
c. What is the significance of the border roads?
Solution: Border roads are of strategic importance and these roads in the bordering areas of the
country have improved accessibility in areas of difficult terrain and have helped in the economic
development of these areas.
d. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?
Solution: The exchange of goods among people, states and countries are referred to as trade.
Trade between countries is called international trade. Local trade is carried out within cities,
towns and villages of a country.
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words. a. Why are the means of transportation
and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Solution: The means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines of a nation and
its economy because they are the pre-requisites for fast development. Today, India is well-linked
with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural

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plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, cinema, television and internet etc.
have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. Along with trade, these
different means of transport and communication have enriched our life and added substantially
to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
[Link] a note on the changing nature of international trade in the last fifteen years.
Solution: Trade between countries is known as international trade. International trade has
undergone a vast change in the last fifteen years. Exchange of goods and commodities have been
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superseded by the exchange of information and knowledge. For e.g., – India has emerged as a
software giant at the international level, and it is earning large foreign exchange through the
export of information technology. International trade also depends on the relationship between
the countries and other external factors like duties and tariffs on the transportation of goods. In
the last fifteen years, different trade blocks have emerged which have changed how international
trade was conducted previously.
NCERT SOLUTIONS- CIVICS
Chapter 1 – Power-sharing
1. What are the different forms of power-sharing in modern democracies? Give an example of
each of these.
Answer. There are different forms of power-sharing in modern democracies. These are given
below: A. Horizontal distribution of power – Power is shared among different organs of
government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Example – India. B. The federal
division of power – Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general
government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Example
– India (Union Government & State Government) C. Community government – Power may also
be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. Example –
Belgium.D. Power-sharing between political parties, pressure groups and movements – Such
competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In thlong run, power is shared
among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
2. State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power-sharing with an example from
the Indian context.
Answer. While prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes. In
India, the power is shared horizontally among various organs of government. The Legislature,
Executive and Judiciary are responsible for administering India. Reservation is applicable in
India, where various sections are given benefits over others to avoid conflicts. Moral reasons
emphasise the very act of power-sharing as valuable. In India, citizens are conferred with
fundamental rights and directive principles of state policies are implied on the government.
3. After reading this chapter, three students drew different conclusions. Which of these do you
agree with and why? Give your reasons in about 50 words. Thomman – Power sharing is
necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. Mathayi – Power
sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. Ouseph – Every society
needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
Answer. Ouseph’s conclusion is the right one. Every state should have some or the other form of
power-sharing. Power-sharing ensures an optimum balance between different sections in the
society. The chances of conflict lessen, and so does the injustice. Hence, power-sharing becomes

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the value of democracy. Power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order
4. The Mayor of Merchtem, a town near Brussels in Belgium, has defended a ban on speaking
French in the town’s schools. He said that the ban would help all non-Dutch speakers integrate
into this Flemish town. Do you think that this measure is in keeping with the spirit of Belgium’s
power-sharing arrangements? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
[Link] measure of Mayor of Merchtem to ban on French-speaking in the town’s schools
near Brussels is unfair. It does not keep with Belgium’s power-sharing arrangement. Power-
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sharing helps maintain a balance between different sections of society, and in Belgium, there is a
need to maintain the power-sharing between Dutch and French to avoid civil unrest. Banning
French will promote the tendency of civil unrest. To promote peace among different
communities, the Mayor should promote bilingual education system in the town’s schools.
5. Read the following passage and pick out any one of the prudential reasons for power sharing
offered in this. “We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the dream of Mahatma
Gandhi and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution. Panchayati Raj establishes true
democracy. It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy – in the
hands of the people. Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase
administrative efficiency. When people participate in the planning and implementation of
developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise greater control over these schemes. This
would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus, Panchayati Raj will strengthen the foundations
of our democracy.”
Answer. The prudential reason in the given passage is – “Giving power to Panchayats is also a
way to reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency.”
6. Consider the following two statements on power-sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below: A). Power-sharing is good for democracy. B). It helps to reduce the
possibility of conflict between social groups. Which of these statements are true and false?
(a)A is true but B is false (b)Both A&B are true (c)Both A&B are false (d)A is false but B is true
Answer. (b) Both A and B are true
7. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power-sharing. Identify
those which are in favour of power-sharing and select the answer using the codes given below?
Power-sharing:a. reduces conflict among different communities b. decreases the possibility of
arbitrariness c. delays the decision-making process d. accommodates diversities e. increases
instability and divisiveness f. promotes people’s participation in government g. undermines the
unity of a country.(a) A B D F (b) A C E F (c) A B D G (d) B C D G Answer.(a) A B D F
8. Consider the following statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri
Lanka. A. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on
the minority French-speaking community. B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government
sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority. C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka
demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to protect their culture, language and
equality of opportunity in education and jobs. D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary
government to a federal one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B and D (c) C and D (d) B, C and D Answer. (d) B, C and D
9. Match List I (forms of power-sharing) with List-II (forms of government) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

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 List I List II
Power shared among different organs of government A. Community government
Power shared among governments at different levels B. Separation of powers
Power shared by different social groups C. Coalition government
Power shared by two or more political parties D. Federal government
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List I List II
Power shared among different organs of government Separation of powers
Power shared among governments at different levels Federal government
Power shared by different social groups Community government
Power shared by two or more political parties Coalition government

Chapter 2 – Federalism
[Link] the following States on a political map of India:Manipur,Sikkim,Chhattisgarh & Goa.

Answer: Green – Sikkim Blue – Manipur Orange – Chattisgarh Red – Goa

2. Identify and shade three federal countries (other than India) on a blank outline political map
of the world.

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Answer: 1. South Africa 2. Pakistan 3. Australia
3. Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to and one feature
that is different from that of Belgium.
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Answer. Feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to that of Belgium – There
is power-sharing between the union government and state government. Feature in the practice
of federalism in India that is different from that of Belgium – India has no community
government in practice, while Belgium has one.
4. What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain
with an example.

Federal Form Unitary Form

There is a sharing of power between The power is centralised with the union government,
union and state government. and there is no role of state governments.

Example: India (India is a federal Example – Sri Lanka (The national government has
country with union government at all the powers.)
the centre and state governments at
the state level and Panchayati Raj
at the local level.)
5. State any two differences between the local government before and after the Constitutional
amendment in 1992.
Answer.

Local Government Pre-1992 Local Government Post Constitutional Amendment 1992

Elections to these local governments Now, it is constitutionally mandated to hold regular

were not held regularly elections to local government bodies

Local governments did not have any The State governments are required to share some
powers or resources of their own. powers and revenue with local government bodies. The
nature of sharing varies from State to State.

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6. Fill in the blanks: Since the United States is a ----type of federation, all the constituent States
have equal powers and States are----vis-à-vis the federal government. But India is a ------ type of
federation and some States have more power than others. In India, the ---- government has more
powers.
Answer: Since the United States is a coming together type of the federation, all the constituent
States have equal powers and States are strong vis-à-vis the federal government. But India is
a holding together type of federation and some States have more power than others. In India,
the central government has more powers.
7. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Give an argument and an
example to support any of these positions. Sangeeta: The policy of accommodation has
strengthened national unity. Arman: the Language-based States have divided us by making
everyone conscious of their language. Harish: This policy has only helped to consolidate the
dominance of English over all other languages.
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Answer. The policy of accommodation mentioned by Sangeeta is a correct reaction to the
language policy followed in India. Due to this policy, India stands in unity with states having
different languages. Had India not followed the policy of accommodation, several states could
have proposed separation from the country.
8. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is: (a) The national government gives some
powers to the provincial governments. (b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive
and judiciary. (c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government. (d) Governmental
power is divided between different levels of government
Answer. d. Governmental power is divided between different levels of government
9. A few subjects in various Lists of the Indian Constitution are given here. Group them under
the Union, State and Concurrent Lists as provided in the table below.
Defence, Police, Agriculture, Education, Banking, Forests, Communications, Trade & Marriages

Union List Defence Communications Banking

State List Police Agriculture Trade

Concurrent List Education Forests Marriages

10. Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the powers of the
government at that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned against each. Which of the
following pairs is not correctly matched?
State government State List
Central government Union List
Central and State governments Concurrent List
Local governments Residuary powers
Ans: Local governments - Residuary powers
[Link] List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

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 List-I List-II

Union of India Prime Minister

State Sarpanch

Municipal Corporation Governor

Gram Panchayat Mayor

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List-I List-II

Union of India Prime Minister

State Governor

Municipal Corporation Mayor

Gram Panchayat Sarpanch

12. Consider the following two statements.

A. In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly
demarcated.
B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are
specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective
subjects.
C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the States have been devolved to
the local government bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. A, B and C b. A, C and D c. A and B only d. B and C only Answer. (c) A and B only

Chapter 3 – Political Parties

1. State the various functions political parties perform in a democracy
Answer. The functions performed by the political parties are: They contest elections. They
introduce various policies and programmes for the people. They play an important role in
decision-making to legislate and execute. These parties, when successful in elections, form and
run the government. These parties, if they lose, become the opposition parties and play the role
of criticizing the government. The parties mould the public’s opinion on various issues. They can

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help them form an opinion and can also influence them to alter their opinion. These parties help
the citizenry to access the government’s policies and acts.
2. What are the various challenges faced by political parties?
Answer. There are some challenges that political parties have to face: The lack of internal
democracy – If there is a concentration of power in the hands of one or only a few ministers in
the party, it gives space to internal conflicts. The dynastic succession – This has been in the
political parties from time immemorial. The leader of the party sets a lineage and one after
another, a dynastic succession keeps taking place, which affects the chances of other ministers in
the party to gauge an effective position in the party. Money and muscle power – The
participation of smaller regional parties is lesser due to growing prominence of muscle and
money power. These powers can mostly be seen during the election period where parties’ rich
candidates can gain more votes using both of these.
3. Suggest some reforms to strengthen parties so that they perform their functions well?
313
Answer. The various reforms that a political party can take are: A provision within a political
party to tackle internal conflicts. The 1/3rd representation in the party should be given to
women candidates. The parties should not promote candidates having criminal records. State
funding during elections should be promoted so that candidates coming from a poor background
stand an equal chance to win.
4. What is a political party?
Answer. A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold
power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society, with a
view to promoting the collective good.
5. What are the characteristics of a political party?
Answer. The political party has the following characteristics. They have members who share the
same interests in policies and programmes. They seek to introduce policies which are for the
welfare of the citizens. There are three components – leader, active members and followers.
6. A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is
called a _____________________.
Answer. A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the
government is called a political party.
7. Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?
A. Kanshi Ram B. Sahu Maharaj C. B.R. Ambedkar D. Jotiba Phule Answer. A. Kanshi Ram
7. Match List-I (organisations and struggles) with List-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
Congress Party A. National Democratic Alliance
Bharatiya Janata Party B. State party
Communist Party of India (Marxist) C. United Progressive Alliance
Telugu Desam Party D. Left Front
(a) C A B D (b) C D A B (c) C A D B (d) D C A B
Answer. (c) C A D B

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9. What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?
A. Bahujan Samaj B. Revolutionary democracy C. Integral humanism D. Modernity
Answer. D. Modernity
10. Consider the following statements on parties. A. Political parties do not enjoy much trust
among the people. B. Parties are often rocked by scandals involving top party leaders.
C. Parties are not necessary to run governments. Which of the statements given above are
correct? a. A, B, and C b. A and B c. B and C d. A and C Answer. (b) A and
Chapter 4 - Outcomes of Democracy
Question 1. How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate
government?
Answer: To produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government is the most basic
outcome of democracy. Democracy provides equal right to all the citizens to elect their
314
representatives. These representatives are answerable to the people. Democracy ensures that
decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. It provides transparency, i.e., the right
and means to all the citizens to examine the process of decision-making. This signifies that
democracy produces an accountable [Link] is a responsive government. It
promotes the formation of public opinion and remains attentive to the needs and demands of the
people. Democracy is also a legitimate government. It is the government of the people. It sets up
regular and free elections in which people vote by secret ballot paper, or electronic voting
machine, free from force.
Question 2. What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?
Answer: Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces
the possibility of social tensions becoming explosive or violent. In order to accommodate social
diversities, a democracy must fulfil the following conditions: (a) It is necessary to understand
that democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with
the minority so that governments function to represent the general view. Majority and minority
opinions are not permanent. (b) It is also necessary that rule by majority does not become rule
by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group, etc. Rule by majority
means that in case of every election, different persons and groups may and can form a majority.
Question 3. Give arguments to support or oppose the of persons following assertions
:Industrialised countries can afford democracy but the poor need dictatorship to become rich.
Democracy can’t reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens. Government in poor
countries should spend less on poverty redaction, health, education and spend more on
industries and infrastructure. In democracy all citizens have one vote, which means that there is
absence of any domination and conflict.
Answer: We do not agree with this statement that the poor need dictatorship to become . rich.
We accept that in a democracy a lot of money is spent but fair elections make democracy a
popular form of government. African countries are a suitable example for this where military
dictatorship has been established but the poor stil are poor. If we talk about the people of our
neighbouring countries, Pakistan and Bangladesh, their condition is far from satisfactory. This
statement is quite correct that democracy can not reduce inequality of incomes between different
citizens. Most of the democracies of the world have failed on this issue. Democracy provides only
political equality. We can take an example of India to support us where even after more than 50
years of democratic government more than 26 per cent of the population still lives below poverty

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line. Industries and infrastructure lead to economic development whereas health, education, etc.,
are most important components of human development. Thus, it is wrong to state that
government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education and
spend more on industries end infrastructure. Yes, it is true. Every adult citizen has right tovote
because there is universal adult franchise. Hence, there is no chance of political domination.
Question 4. Identify the challenges to democracy in the following descriptions. Also suggest
policy/ institutional mechanism to deepen democracy in the given situation: Following a High
Court directive a temple in Orissa that had separate entry doors for dalits and non-dalits
allowed entry for all from the same door. A large number of farmers are committting suicide in
different states of India. Following allegation of killing of three civilians in Gandwara in a fake
encounter by Jammu and Kashmir police, an enquiry has been ordered.
Answer: This challenge relates to social inequality and untouchability. Democracy demands
social and political equality. To deepen democracy there should be law banning discrimination
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on account of caste, religion or other factors. There is a challenge of poverty in this description
due to lack of rain and irrigation [Link] government should set up an organisation to give
financial help or loan at nominal rate of interest. The challenge of corruption and
criminalisation is being identified in this description. Suggestion (a) Promotion of Human Rights
Commission (b) Transparency in police
Question 5. In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct. Democracies
have successfully eliminated (a) conflicts among people (b) economic inequalities among people
(c) differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated (d) the idea of
political inequality Answer:(d) the idea of political inequality
Question 6. In the context of assessing democracy, which among the following is odd one out?
Democracies need to ensure (a) free and fair elections (b) dignity of the individual (c) majority
rule (d) equal treatment before law Answer: (b) dignity of the individual
Question 7. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that
(a) democracy and development go together (b) inequalities exist in democracies
(c) inequalities do not exist under dictatorship (d) dictatorship is better than democracy
Answer: (b) inequalities exist in democracies
Question 8. Read the passage below: Nannu is a daily wage [Link] lives in Welcome Mazdoor
Colony, a slum habitation in East Delhi. He lost his ration card and applied for a duplicate one
in January 2004. He made several rounds to the local Food & Civil Supplies office for the next
three months. But the clerks and officials would not even look at him, leave alone do his job or
bother to tell him the status of his application. Ultimately, he filed an application under the
Right to Information Act asking for the daily progress made on his application, names of the
officials, who were supposed to act on his application and what action would be taken against
these officials for their inaction. Within a week of filing application under the Right to
Information Act, he was visited by an inspector from the Food Department, who informed him
that the card had been made and he could collect it from the office. When Nannu went to collect
his card next day, he was given a very warm treatment by the Food & Supply Officer (FSO),
who is the head of a Circle. The FSO offered him tea and requested him to withdraw his
application under the’Right to Information, since his work had already been done.
What does Nannu’s example show? What impact did Nannu’s action have on officials? Ask your
parents their experiences when they approach government officials to attend to their problems.

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Answer: (a) Nannu’s example shows that slum dwellers as well as other people should be aware
about their rights. (b) Nannu who had made several rounds to the local Food and Civil Supplies
office, filed an application under the Right to Information Act. His action had a significant effect
on the officials. They gave him proper respect and requested to withdraw his application. (c) To
be attempted by the students themselves
NCERT SOLUTIONS – ECONOMICS
Chapter 1 – Development
1. Development of a country can generally be determined by
A. Per capita income B. its average literacy level C. health status of its people D. all the above
Answer: d. all the above
2. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India? [Link] [Link] Lanka [Link] d. Pakistan Answer: b. Sri Lanka
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3. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is
Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000 and Rs 3000 respectively, what is the
income of the fourth family?
a. Rs 7500 b. Rs 3000 c. Rs 2000 d. Rs 6000 Answer: d. Rs 6000
(4000+7000+3000+x) ÷ 4 = 5000 14000+x = 5000 × 4 x = 20000-14000 x = 6000
4. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? What
are the limitations of this criterion, if any?
Answer: World Bank uses the per capita income to classify different countries. The per capita
income is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by the population of the country.
For the year 2017, the countries with per capita income of US $12,056 per annum were declared
rich countries and the countries with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income
countries. The limitations of the criterion are: Other important factors, including literacy rate,
infant mortality rate, healthcare, are ignored while classifying the countries. Information about
the unequal distribution of income is not mentioned by The World Bank The economy of the
country cannot determine the development of the country.
5. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different from
the one used by the World Bank?
Answer: The criterion used by UNDP is different from the one used by the World Bank because
UNDP compares countries based on the educational level of the people, their health status and
per capita income. This is in contrast with the method used by the World Bank because the
World Bank only calculates the per capita income for measuring development.
6. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own
examples related to development.
Answer: Different countries have a different population, so calculating the average helps in
getting an estimated answer which can be used to compare different things at different levels.
There are limitations of calculating averages because we cannot know the difference in the
income of the people and the unfair distribution of income in a country or state. For example, if
we calculate the per capita income of two countries A and B with 5 people each, the salary of five
people in country A is Rs.23,000, Rs.22,000, Rs.23,500, Rs.28,000 and Rs.25,000 and the income
of people living in country B are Rs.1,50,000, Rs. 22,000, Rs.50,000, Rs.4000, Rs.2500. The
average income of country A will be Rs.24,300, and that of country B will be Rs.45,700. This

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proves that the average of country B is higher than that of country A, and yet there is a disparity
in the income distribution of country B and the income is evenly distributed in country A.
7. Kerala, with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than Haryana.
Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to compare states.
Do you agree? Discuss.
Answer: Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than
Haryana. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to
compare states. This is true because the literacy rate, infant mortality rate, healthcare facilities,
etc. are better in Kerala in comparison to Haryana. The per capita income is only calculated by
calculating the average income of the state, irrespective of any other factor.
8. Find out the present sources of energy that are used by the people in India. What could be the
other possibilities fifty years from now?
Answer: The present sources of energy used by people in India include firewood, coal,
petroleum, crude oil and natural gas. The other possibilities fifty years from now can be using
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solar energy and wind energy as a source for various energy forms. This is because the current
usage of sources of energy may result in the loss of these resources for future generations.
9. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development?
Answer: Sustainable development refers to using natural resources in a manner so that they can
be used by the present and future generations. The issue of sustainability is important for
development because if the natural resources are not used carefully, they may not be available
for future generations. The depleting resources of a country may ultimately result in a lack of
development of the country.
10. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed
of even one person”. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development?
Answer: Development not just depends on the economic factors of a country, but is also
dependent on resources that are available for the people of a country to use. The statement:
“The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of
even one person” is completely relevant in terms of the development of a country because
natural resources are non-renewable resources. It is the responsibility of the people to use them
only to meet their needs and not to satisfy their greed. If natural resources are not used wisely
now, the future generations may not be able to use them for their needs, which will result in the
downfall of development of a country.
11. List a few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around you.
Answer: A few examples of environmental degradation that we can observe around us are:
Pollution caused by vehicles and the excess use of fuels in vehicles. Industrial waste collected in
residential areas and discarded into water bodies, Deforestation, Mining and Soil [Link]
increased pollution in the environment has resulted in global warming and depletion of glaciers
and the atmospheric conditions.
12. As per the items in Table 1.6, find out which country is at the top and which is at the bottom.
Answer: As per table 1.6, Sri Lanka tops in all the four categories. It has the highest Gross
National Income, Life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling of people aged 25 and above
and HDI rank in the world. Nepal has the lowest Gross National Income among the given
countries. Pakistan has the least Life Expectancy at birth and ranks the lowest HDI rank in the
world among the given countries. Mean years of schooling of people aged 25 and above is the

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lowest for Myanmar and Nepal.
13. The following table shows the proportion of adults (aged 15-49 years) whose BMI is below
normal (BMI <18.5 kg/m2) in India. It is based on a survey of various states for the year 2015-16.
Look at the table and answer the following questions.

State Male Female

Kerala 8.5 10
Karnataka 17 21
Madhya Pradesh 28 28

All States 20 23

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Compare the nutritional level of people in Kerala and Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: The nutritional level of people in Kerala is higher than the nutritional level of people in
Madhya Pradesh.
Can you guess why around one-fifth of people in the country are undernourished even though it
is argued that there is enough food in the country? Describe in your own words.
Answer: One-fifth of the population in the country are undernourished even though it is argued
that there is enough food in the country because of the following reasons: The disparity in the
distribution of food grains by Public Distribution System (PDS). Nutritious food cannot be
afforded by the poor population in the country. Educational backwardness of people results in
unemployment because of which people cannot afford the basic necessity of food. There is no
proper distribution of ration at the fixed price stores.

Chapter 2 – Sectors of the Indian Economy

1. Fill in the blanks using the correct option given in the bracket:
Employment in the service sector __a__ increased to the same extent as production. (has / has
not) Workers in the ____b_____ sector do not produce goods. (tertiary / agricultural) Most of
the workers in the ____c_____ sector enjoy job security. (organised / unorganised) A
____d_____ proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector. (large /
small) Cotton is a ____e_____ product and cloth is a _____f____ product. [natural
/manufactured] The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are____g_____
[independent / interdependent] Answer: a: has not b: tertiary c: organized d: large
e: natural and manufactured f: interdependent
2. Choose the most appropriate answer. a. The sectors are classified into public and private
sector on the basis of: 1. Employment conditions 2. The nature of economic activity 3.
Ownership of enterprises 4. number of workers employed in the enterprise
Answer: 3. ownership of enterprises
b. Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in _________
sector. [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] technology
Answer: a. Primary c. GDP is the total value of _________ produced during a particular year.

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1. all goods and services 2. all final goods and services 3. all intermediate goods and services
4. all intermediate and final goods and services Answer: 2. all final goods and services
d. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2013-14 is between _________ per cent.
A. 20 to 30 B. 30 to 40 C. 50 to 60 D. 60 to 70 Answer: C. 50 to 60
3. Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is
useful? Explain how.
Answer: The classification of economic activities into primary, secondary and tertiary is useful,
as it helps to classify the different occupations that are taken up by the people in the country and
how much each sector contributes to the growth of the country. It is also important because it
helps in asserting that which sector contributes the most in the GDP and which sector has the
scope to employ more people and increase the National Income.
4. Find the odd one out and say why.
(i) Tourist guide, dhobi, tailor, potter Answer: Tourist Guide is the odd one out because
he or she is appointed by the Government Department but others are private work.
(ii) Teacher, doctor, vegetable vendor, lawyer Answer: The Vegetable vendor is the odd one

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out because he works in the primary sector, while other jobs are come under the tertiary sector.
(iii) Postman, cobbler, soldier, police constable Answer: Cobbler is the odd one out
because he works in the private sector while the postman, soldier and police constable work for
the public sector or the organised sector.
(iv) MTNL, Indian Railways, Air India, Jet Airways, All India Radio Answer: Jet Airways is
the odd one out because it is owned by a private company and MTNL, Indian Railways, Air
India and All India Radio are owned by the Government of India
5. Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are these?
Answer: Highly Skilled labour, which includes teachers, bankers, IT officials, etc. These people
are permanently employed. Less Skilled Labour, which includes vendors, electricians, plumber,
etc. These people are not permanently employed.
6. Match the following:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures

1. Unirrigated land (a) Setting up agro-based mills

2. Low prices for crops (b) Cooperative marketing societies

3. Debt burden (c) Procurement of food grains by government

4. No job in the off season (d) Construction of canals by the government

5. Compelled to sell their grains to (e) Banks to provide credit with low interest
the local traders soon after harvest
Answer: 1-(d) 2-(c) 3-(e) 4-(a) 5-(b)

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7. A research scholar looked at the working people in the city of Surat and found the following.

Place of Work Nature of Percentage of

Employment working People

In offices and factories registered with the Organised 15

government

Own shops, office, clinics in a--? 15

marketplaces with formal license

People working on the street, b--? 20

construction workers, domestic workers

Working in small workshops c--? d--?

usually not registered with the government
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Complete the table. What is the percentage of workers in the unorganised sector in this city?
Answer: a. Organised b. Unorganised c. Unorganised d. 50
The percentage of workers in the unorganised sector are 70% (50+20)
7. For each of the sectors that we came across in this chapter why should one focus on
employment and GDP? Could there be other issues which should be examined? Discuss.
Answer: Employment and GDP are two of the most important factors in the development of a
country. Employment and GDP are used to calculate the overall productivity and National
income of a country. If a country has a high employment rate, its GDP, National Income and per
capita income will automatically increase. Hence, these are the two things which have been given
major emphasis in this chapter. Other issues which should be examined are as follows: Health
care facilities, Education, Poverty, Food Production and Nourishment
8. Make a long list of all kinds of work that you find adults around you doing for a living. In
what way can you classify them? Explain your choice.
Answer: The activities performed by human beings for a living are classified into three sectors:
primary, secondary and tertiary. When we see people around us, we can classify their
employment sector in either of the three classifications. Activities like cleaning, agriculture,
selling vegetables are examples of the primary sector. Manufacturing is an example of the
secondary [Link],mining,banking,transportation are all examples of the service sector.
9. How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer: The are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors
are called tertiary activities. These activities are different from the primary and secondary
sector activities. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or
support for the production process. Goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector
would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.
These transportation facilities and shopkeepers come under the tertiary sector. They do not
produce goods but play a very important role in selling and bringing those goods to the market.
10. What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain with an example each from
the urban and rural areas.

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Answer: The situation of underemployment, where people are apparently working but all of
them are made to work less than their potential is called disguised unemployment. In this case,
the person considers himself employed but is actually not [Link] rural areas, where
agriculture is the main source of income, this kind of unemployment can be seen often. If a piece
of land requires only three people to work on it and instead five people are working on it, then
the two extra people are said to be in a situation of disguised unemployment. In urban areas,
disguised unemployment is seen when painters, plumbers, electricians are unable to find work
on a daily basis and work way less than their potential.
11. Distinguish between open unemployment and disguised unemployment.
Answer: Open unemployment is when a person is willing to work, is educated but is unable to
get a job and work. This kind of unemployment is visible. On the other hand, disguised
unemployment is when a person is apparently working but is made to work less than his or her
potential. This kind of employment is quite evident in villages where people working in farms
consider themselves employed but are actually working less than their potential.
12.“Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.”
Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer: No, this is not correct. The tertiary sector is playing a significant role in the
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development of the Indian Economy. In the year 2003, the tertiary sector replaced the primary
sector as the most producing sector in the country. A few reasons to support this are given
below: The primary and secondary sectors can only flourish if the tertiary sector is there to
support them. The tertiary sector adds up a lot to the National income of the country. Education,
which is the basis of everything, comes under the tertiary sector. A person working as a teacher
comes under the tertiary sector. This sector provides the maximum employment opportunities to
the people in the country.
14. Workers are exploited in the unorganised sector. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons
in support of your answer.
Answer: The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units, which are largely
outside the control of the government. There are rules and regulations but these are not
followed. Jobs here are low paid and not regular. Hence, it is correct to say that workers are
exploited in the unorganised sector because more work is taken from them in comparison to
what they are paid. They have no provisions or extra pay for overtime and no medical benefits.
The biggest problem in working in this sector is that there is no job security.
15. How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer: On the basis of the employment conditions, the economy can be classified into two
sectors: Organised Sector: Enterprises registered under the Government of India, who have an
employee-friendly environment and are provided with various facilities including high wages.
Unorganised Sector: Small and scattered units which are temporary. The employees in this
sector are paid less.
16. Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors.
Answer: In the organised sector, the employees are given higher wages, medical facilities, a
healthy working environment and their jobs are permanent. They are not liable to look for a
new source of income each day. In the unorganised sector, the wages are low, the employees are
exploited, no extra income for extra time is given, no medical facilities are provided and the
work environment is unhealthy.

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17. Explain the objective of implementing the NREGA 2005.
Answer: The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 was introduced with an aim to
ensure guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year to all those who are in need of work. It also
states that in the case of employment not being provided under this act, employment wages will
be given to those left unemployed. Additional employment opportunities need to be created for
people in villages and smaller towns.
18. Using examples from your area compare and contrast that activities and functions of private
and public sectors.
Answer: In the private sector, the assets and industries are owned by individuals and in the
public sectors industries and enterprises are owned by the Government. Private sector works to
earn profits and the public sector works to provide facilities to the public and to earn profits.
The common examples of the public sector that we can see around us are Government Banks,
Post Offices, municipal hospital and Indian railways. The common examples of the private
sector that we can see around us are IT companies, malls and multiplexes, etc.
19. Discuss and fill the following table giving one example each from your area.

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Well Managed Organisation Badly Managed Organisation
Public Sector
Private Sector
Answer: Students must answer this question based on their own observations.
20. Write examples of public sector activities and explain why the Govt. has taken them up.
Answer: The public sector activities are set for the betterment of the public itself. The reason the
government has taken up the public sector is so that proper facilities can be provided to the
people of the country. Banks, transport, irrigation, electricity, water and all the basic things that
are necessary for people, come under the public sector. Providing these facilities to its citizens is
the responsibility of the Government.
21. Explain how the public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation.
Answer: The public sector is the sector that comes under the government of India. The reason
for the government to take responsibility for this sector is because the basic necessities of people
including water, electricity, irrigation, all fall under this category. If these departments are left
unattended, it will result in the downfall of the economy of a country because the growth of the
country would stop. The economic development of a country depends upon the development of
the people and if people are deprived of the basic necessities, the country’s economic
development would be affected. Government encourages small and large industries to flourish
and provides employment under this section.
22. The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues : wages, safety
and health. Explain with examples.
Answer: The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units, which are largely
outside the control of the [Link] are rules and regulations but these are not followed.
The workers in the unorganised sector need protection:Wages: The income of workers in the
unorganised sector is not fixed and they are barely able to meet the needs to lead a decent

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livelihood. Hence proper and fixed wages should be given to these workers so that they can grow
and contribute to the growth of the country. For example – a painter only gets paid the wages
for the days he works and on the other days, he is jobless and is able to earn nothing. Safety: No
safety is provided to the workers working in the unorganised sector. There is no job security and
anyone can be fired and removed from their work as per the requirement of the labourers. For
example – A labour working in the construction of a building is left with no work once the
construction is complete and has no guarantee of getting work again. Health: Health is a very
important factor for the growth and development of the country. The unorganised sector is
given no medical security and if any accident occurs while they are working, the employer is not
responsible for their health. For ex: there is no sick leave for labourers working on daily wages.
24. The following table gives the GDP in Rupees (Crores) by the three sectors:

Year Primary Secondary Tertiary

2000 52,000 48,500 1,33,500

2013 8,00,500 10,74,000 38,68,000

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Calculate the share of the three sectors in GDP for 2000 and 2013.
Answer: In 1950, the share of primary sector in GDP was 57.97%, the secondary section was
13.77% and the tertiary sector was 28.26%. In the year 2000, the share of the Primary sector in
GDP was 27.33%, the secondary section was 24.37% and the tertiary sector was 48.30%
24. A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in
the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was Rs 60,000
million. Out of this Rs 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector. Present this data as
a table. What kind of ways should be thought of for generating more employment in the city?
Answer:

Total Workers in Total Income of Income Income generated

Workers Unorganised City (1997-1998) generated by by unorganised
Sector organised sector sector

15,00,000 11,00,000 60,000 million 32,000 million 28,000 million

The table clearly shows that the income generated in unorganised sector is close to 50% of the
total income of Ahmedabad. In order to increase employment opportunities for the people more
industries should be set up, proper education must be provided to all and proper facilities under
the public sector must be provided to all.
Chapter 3 – Money and Credit
1. In situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. Explain.
Answer: In situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower.
Credit involves a certain amount of loan that is taken by a borrower from a lender at a high-

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interest rate. In case there is a failure, and the borrower faces loss, then he further falls in the
trap of credit. This is known as a debt trap. The borrower has to repay the credit along with
interest applied by the lender, and he further falls into the trap of credit, increasing the
problems for the borrower. Borrower also has to sell a part of his or her land to repay the loan.
2. How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with an example
of your own.
Answer: ‘Double coincidence of wants’ is when whatever a person desires to sell is exactly what
the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use
of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature. Money solved the problem of
double coincidence of wants because after the introduction of money, people could use money as
an intermediate to buy or sell things and no specific buyer or seller was required for
interchanging of products. For example, a trader wishes to sell 10 sacks full of rice and expects
to get it in exchange for five sacks of cereal. To find a suitable buyer to sell the sacks of rice in
exchange for cereals would be very tough. However, the money will solve this problem, and the
trader can sell the sacks of rice to someone who needs it and in return, buy cereals from the
money he gets from the buyer of rice.
3. How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
Answer: Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who
are in need of funds (the borrowers) by lending money to people who are in need. People can
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open accounts in banks and banks make use of that money to fulfil the loan requirements of the
people. A higher interest rate is charged for the borrower and that profit is given to the
depositor as interest for offering deposits.
4. Look at a 10 rupee note. What is written on top? Can you explain this statement?
Answer: “Reserve Bank of India” and “Guaranteed by the Central Government” is written on
the top of a 10 rupee note. Currency in India is issued by the central bank of the country, in the
case of India, the Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of the country. This currency is
issued on behalf of the central government, and these two are the only authorities which are
responsible for issuing notes and currency in India.
5. Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India?
Answer: Formal sources of credit are the Government authorised organisations that are eligible
to lend money to people. It is important to expand formal sources
of credit in India because the informal sources are not registered and lend money to people at
very high-interest rates which is unfair and must not be practised. If formal sources of credit are
increased, people will be able to borrow money at lesser interest rates and will not be liable to do
any extra work for the borrower. Especially in India, if formal sources of credit are increased,
people will be able to take loans and use them for the development of the country.
6. What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.
Answer: The Self Help Groups (SHGs) have been set in India with an aim to help the rural poor,
especially women. A typical Self Help Group comprises 15-20 people from the same
neighbourhood who save some money from their daily wages and collect them together. People
can borrow money from these groups during an emergency or when they are in need. They
charge a minimum rate of interest from the borrowers. Once the SHG has managed to save a
defined amount of money, they are also eligible to take loans from banks. The main purpose of
introducing these Self Help Groups was to increase small scale employment opportunities for the

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rural people so that they could start a small business to earn a livelihood.
7. What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?
Answer: The reasons why banks might not be willing to lend money to certain borrowers are
given below: Some people fail to provide the required set of documents to get a loan. Irregular
wages and no fixed job is also one reason because it increases the chances of non-repayment of
loans. Certain borrowers are added to the list of [Link] is high risk in approving loans to
entrepreneurs
8. In what ways does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks? Why is this
necessary?
Answer: The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India, and all the other public sector
banks work under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India. It manages the functioning of
the banks in the following ways: It monitors the bank in maintaining the cash balance.
Loans are not just given to profit-making organisations but also to small cultivators and small
scale industries. RBI maintains a periodic report of other banks regarding the amount loaned to
people. It also keeps a regular check on the interest rates set for loans in public sector banks.
9. Analyse the role of credit for development.
Answer: Credit is one of the most major aspects of the development of a country. Affordable
credit plays a very important role in the country’s development. People need loans for different
reasons and to meet this requirement credit is very important. In India, a major part of the
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population is engaged in agricultural activities; credit plays a very crucial role in agricultural
activities. People can borrow money and use modern farming methods to grow crops which are
more reliable than the traditional methods of growing crops. Apart from this, there are small
scale industries, business and various other sectors where credit can help people and ultimately
result in the development of the country.
10. Manav needs a loan to set up a small business. On what basis will Manav decide whether to
borrow from the bank or the moneylender? Discuss.
Answer: Manav wants to set up a small business. He needs to keep the below-mentioned things
in mind while deciding whether to borrow money from a bank or money lender: He needs to
compare the interest rate charged by both the bank and the moneylender. Whoever charges less
should be his option. He needs to analyse whether he has all the eligible documents required by
the banks to get his loan approved. How he wishes to repay the lender.
11. In India, about 80 per cent of farmers are small farmers, who need credit for cultivation.
a. Why might banks be unwilling to lend to small farmers?
Answer: Banks might be unwilling to lend money to small farmers because there are high risks.
If the harvest gets ruined, there is a possibility that they might not be able to receive the
instalments on time. Also, proper documentation is required for getting a loan from the bank,
which might not be available with the small scale farmers. b. What are the other sources from
which the small farmers can borrow?
Answer: Small farmers can move to informal sources of credit if they re not borrowing money
from a bank. These informal sources of credit include moneylenders, agricultural traders, etc.
c. Explain with an example of how the terms of credit can be unfavourable for the small farmer.
Answer: When a small scale farmer borrows money from a bank, he has to repay the amount at
a fixed rate of interest. For example, if a farmer borrows money from the bank and during the
harvest season his crops are ruined, then he shall not be able to repay the amount loaned him by

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the bank and will further fall into the debt trap. d. Suggest some ways by which small farmers
can get cheap credit.
Answer: Small farmers can get cheap credit by the formal sources of credit like banks.
12. Fill in the blanks: Majority of the credit needs of the _a_households are met from informal
sources. _b_costs of borrowing increase the debt-burden._c_issues currency notes on behalf of
the Central Government. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on
_d_. _e_is an asset that the borrower uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.
Answer a: poor b: high c: Reserve Bank of India d: deposits e: collateral
13. Choose the most appropriate answer. 1. In an SHG, most of the decisions regarding savings
and loan activities are taken by A. Bank. [Link]. C. Non-government organisation.
Answer:B. Members
2. Formal sources of credit do not include A. Banks. B. Cooperatives. C. Employers.
Answer: c. Employers
Chapter 4 – Globalisation And The Indian Economy
1. What do you understand by globalisation? Explain in your own words.
Answer: Globalisation is defined as the integration between countries through foreign trade and
foreign investments by multinational corporations (MNCs). Increase in foreign trade, migration
of people from one country to another, the flow of capital finance from one country to another
and private and public investments from foreign countries all together contribute to
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globalisation.
2. What was the reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the
Indian government? Why did it wish to remove these barriers?
Answer: The main reason for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the
Indian government was to protect the interest earned by producers and small industrialists of
our country from foreign [Link] later it was accepted by the government that foreign
competition would encourage Indian industrialists to improve the quality of their products and
removing these barriers would increase trade and quality of products produced in the country.
3. How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?
Answer: Flexibility in labour law helps companies because it helps to attract foreign
investments. Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers flexibly for
short periods when there is intense pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost of labour
for the company. However, still not satisfied, foreign companies are demanding more flexibility
in labour laws. The competition in the market is increasing each day, and if the Government
does not allow flexibility with these laws, the foreign companies will not be able to reach their
desired profit levels.
4. What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries?
Answer: MNCs set up and control production by investing a huge amount of money in a
country’s economy. It sets up production units close to the market so that they get cheaper
labour. To increase production, MNCs collaborate with some local companies as the production
rate would rapidly increase. In most of the cases, the MNCs buy local companies and expand
their production. The other way in which they control production is by placing the orders for
production with small and local producers. They help production using technology and heavy
machinery, which makes the work more efficient and productive.
5. Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and

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investment? What do you think should the developing countries demand in return?
Answer: Developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment
because MNCs can set up industries in small and developing nations, which are less expensive
and can earn them more profit. The labour cost decreases the manufacturing cost, and these
decreases in cost results in an increase in profit. Also setting up factories and industries in
developed countries increases competition. The developing countries should, in turn, ask for a
fair removal of trade barriers in order to protect their own industries.
6. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.
Answer: The impact of globalisation has not been uniform because only the developed countries
have gained profits due to globalisation. The developing countries are only a source of setting
industries and getting cheaper labour, and the entire profits are earned by the developed
countries. The small industries and companies in developing countries have constantly been
facing challenges in terms of earning profits and brings their goods in the market.
7. How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?
Answer: The liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process
because it has helped in the removal of trade barriers. It has made foreign trade and investment
easier. The choices of the buyers have also expanded, as now they get to choose products
manufactured by not only domestic companies but also by the foreign companies. Competition
among traders has resulted in the cheaper price of products. Liberalisation has spread
globalisation as the decision making power of export and import now lies with the businessmen
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themselves.
8. How does foreign trade lead to integration of markets across countries? Explain with an
example other than those given here.
Answer: Foreign trade has led to the integration of markets across the countries. Because of
foreign trade, the producers are now able to compete and export their goods to the markets of
other countries. Opportunities are provided not just for the seller but also for the buyer to get
goods outside their own country. Their choices have expanded as now they get to choose
products manufactured by not only domestic companies but also by the foreign companies. The
price of these goods has decreased because of the competition in the market. Producers from
different countries are now able to compete not just with the competitors in their own country,
but with across the world. The Indian market today is not flooded with goods made in India but
goods from all across the world at an affordable price.
9. Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like
twenty years from now? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: Globalisation will continue in the future as well. Twenty years from now, the
production of goods will be more efficient, competition in the market will increase, advancement
in every field will be evident and the quality and quantity of goods produced will also increase.
Small industries and entrepreneurs will increase as more opportunities will be provided to them.
10. Supposing you find two people arguing: One is saying globalisation has hurt our country’s
development. The other is telling, globalisation is helping India develop. How would you respond
to these arguments?
Answer: Globalisation has its pros and cons, and there are various advantages and
disadvantages of the increasing globalisation in the country. The advantages of increased
globalisation include improved trade opportunities and the increase in the number of employed

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because of small scale industries. The profit market has increased, and the increase in imports
and exports has increased the economy of the nation. People can buy goods that are made across
the world at cheaper [Link] disadvantages of globalisation include that globalisation has
increased the income of the rich and has decreased the income of the poor because the small
scale local industrialists are unable to earn much profit. Thereby increasing income inequality.
11. Fill in the blanks. Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades
back. This is closely associated with the process of _a_. Markets in India are selling goods
produced in many other countries. This means there is increasing _b_with other countries.
Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs
in India. MNCs are investing in India because _c_. While consumers have more choices in the
market, the effect of rising _d_and _e_has meant greater _f_among the producers.
Answer: Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is
closely associated with the process of globalization. Markets in India are selling goods produced
in many other countries. This means there is increasing trade with other countries. Moreover,
the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India.
MNCs are investing in India because of the cheaper production costs. While consumers have
more choices in the market, the effect of rising demand and purchasing power has meant greater
competition among the producers.

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12. Match the following:
(i) MNCs buy at cheap rates from small (a) Automobiles producers
(ii) Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate (b) Garments, footwear, sports
trade items
(iii) Indian companies who have invested abroad (c) Call centres
(iv) IT has helped in spreading of production of (d) Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
services
(v) Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories (e) Trade barriers
in India for production
Answer:(i)-(b) (ii)-(e) (iii)-(d) (iv)-(c) (v)-(a)
13. Choose the most appropriate option. 1. The past two decades of globalisation has
seen rapid movements in A. goods, services and people between countries. B. goods, services
and investments between countries. C. goods, investments and people between countries.
Answer: C. goods, services and investments between countries
2. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
A. set up new factories. B. buy existing local companies. C. form partnerships with local
companies. Answer: c. buy existing local companies
3. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions
A. of all the people B. of people in the developed countries C. of workers in the developing
countries D. none of the above Answer: D. none of the above

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