Scorebuilders OA Wrong Questions 7/21 Questions

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The ascending colon, located on the right side of the abdomen, is the beginning portion of the large
intestine. The ascending colon extends upward to a bend in the colon called the hepatic flexure. An
ascending colostomy results in only a very short portion of the colon remaining active and as a result the
output is primarily liquid containing many digestive enzymes. - answer-: A physical therapist notes that
the output from a colostomy appears to be almost exclusively liquid. Which type of colostomy would
MOST likely produce this type of output?

[Link] colostomy

[Link] colostomy

[Link] colostomy

[Link] colostomy

[Link] burns that present with thickened blisters that heal in less than three weeks

A superficial partial-thickness burn involves the epidermis and the majority of the dermis. The burn is
characterized by blister formation and the presence of pain. Healing typically occurs in 5 to 14 days,
however, can take up to 21 days to heal. - answer-: A physical therapist treats a 29-year-old male who
sustained a superficial partial-thickness burn to the anterior portion of his left forearm and wrist. Based
on the classification of the burn, what is the MOST likely outcome?

[Link] scarring of the burned areas unless compression garments are used for six to twelve
months

[Link] burns that present with thickened blisters that heal in less than three weeks

[Link] sensation of pain and temperature, potential scar hypertrophy, and healing within six weeks

[Link] and grafting of the wounds to expedite healing and avoid contractures
[Link]

Egophony is demonstrated when the patient says the long "E" sound, but the long "A" sound is heard
during auscultation. The stronger the sound, the greater the indication for consolidation of the
underlying lung tissue. - answer-: While auscultating over the posterior basal lung segments, a physical
therapist asks the patient to verbalize the long "E" sound. The sound the physical therapist hears in the
stethoscope, however, is a nasal long "A" sound. Which medical diagnosis would MOST likely benefit
from the described intervention?

[Link] breath sounds

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

Responsiveness is the ability of the instrument to detect change over time. This is an essential attribute
when the goal is to assess changes in quality of life before and after participating in cardiac
rehabilitation. If the questionnaire is being used to assess the effectiveness of an intervention, the score
should change as the patient's status changes and stay the same if the patient is unchanged. - answer-:
A physical therapist searches the literature for a reliable and valid questionnaire to measure quality of
life in patients with heart disease. The therapist plans to use the questionnaire to assess changes in
quality of life before and after participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program. Which questionnaire
property is MOST critical to achieve the therapist's objective?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

2.20-95 degrees

20-95 degrees expresses that the patient lacks 20 degrees of knee extension and can flex the knee to 95
degrees. Since the patient cannot fully extend the knee, it is not necessary to use "0". - answer-: A
physical therapist measures the knee range of motion of a patient status post anterior cruciate ligament
reconstruction repair. After completing the measurement the therapist concludes that the patient lacks
20 degrees of knee extension and can flex the knee to 95 degrees. Which of the following knee flexion
range of motion measurements is MOST consistent with this scenario?

1.0-75 degrees

2.20-95 degrees

3.20-0-95 degrees

4.-20-0-95 degrees

4.A relative increase in the systolic pressure of the lower extremity

The systolic blood pressure of the lower extremity acts as the numerator when calculating ABI,
therefore, a relative increase in its value would lead to an increase in the ABI value. - answer-: A physical
therapist examines the medical record of a patient diagnosed with arterial insufficiency. The therapist
identifies that the patient's ankle-brachial index (ABI) was recorded as 0.8. The therapist is somewhat
surprised by this since one week earlier the patient's ABI was recorded as 0.6. Which objective finding
would be MOST likely to produce the stated increase?

1.A relative increase in the diastolic pressure of the upper extremity

2.A relative increase in the diastolic pressure of the lower extremity

3.A relative increase in the systolic pressure of the upper extremity

4.A relative increase in the systolic pressure of the lower extremity

[Link] granulation tissue

A wound that has pink granulation tissue would be classified as "Red" using the Red-Yellow-Black
system. A wound with pink granulation tissue needs no further treatment other than protection and
maintenance of a moist wound environment. - answer-: A physical therapist discusses the need to
protect a patient's wound and maintain a moist environment with the supervising nurse. Which type of
tissue would be the MOST appropriate for the stated goal?

[Link] yellow slough

[Link] attached eschar

[Link] necrotic tissue

[Link] granulation tissue

[Link] lateral sclerosis

ALS is an idiopathic neurological condition which typically presents with a gradual onset of symptoms.
The progression of weakness is typically distal to proximal with both upper and lower motor neuron
symptoms presenting as the condition progresses. - answer-: A 48-year-old patient referred to physical
therapy after experiencing six months of progressive hand weakness reports that their right foot has
recently begun to "slap" the ground when walking. The patient's neurologist indicates that infectious
and autoimmune etiologies have been ruled out. Which medical condition is MOST likely based on the
patient's clinical presentation?

[Link] disease

[Link]-Barre syndrome

[Link] gravis

[Link] lateral sclerosis

[Link] endurance during activities of daily living

Patients with post-polio syndrome commonly experience excessive fatigue with activity and diminished
endurance. Increasing endurance during activities of daily living would likely be an integral part of the
plan of care.

Post-polio syndrome refers to new neuromuscular symptoms that occur decades after recovery from an
acute paralytic episode of polio. Symptoms vary, but in general, muscle strength declines in muscles that
had previously been affected by polio. Other symptoms include myalgia, joint pain, muscle atrophy,
excessive fatigue with activity, and diminished endurance. - answer-: A physical therapist treats a 47-
year-old male diagnosed with post-polio syndrome. Which therapeutic outcome would be the MOST
desirable based on the patient's medical diagnosis?

[Link] endurance during activities of daily living

[Link] influence of associated reactions

[Link] lower extremity spasticity

[Link] proximal joint stability

[Link] I
A stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin and erythema which does not blanch when
pressure is applied. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital inspects an ulcer
on the lower leg of a 59-year-old male. The therapist notes that erythema is present, however, the skin
appears to be intact. Additional inspection reveals that the erythema does not blanch with direct
pressure. What is the MOST appropriate staging of the ulcer?

[Link] I

[Link] II

[Link] III

[Link] IV

[Link]

A kilogram is a base unit of mass that is equivalent to approximately 2.2 pounds. Grip strength
measurements are typically measured in kilograms of force.

Average combined right and left hand grip strength for males between 20-29 years of age would be 106-
112 kilograms and for females between 20-29 years of age would be 61-64 kilograms. - answer-: A
physical therapist covering for a colleague on vacation reviews a physical therapist's note in the medical
record of a 27-year-old male patient. The note indicates that the patient achieved a maximum grip
strength force output of 55 using a hand held dynamometer. What would be the MOST likely units
utilized during this type of testing?

[Link] pounds

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]'s neuroma

Morton's neuroma is a benign neuroma most commonly affecting the third interdigital nerve between
the third and fourth metatarsal heads. The condition is often characterized by burning or cramping pain,
tingling, and numbness. Symptoms are sometimes relieved by removing footwear. - answer-: A patient
describes a burning sensation on the sole of their foot in an area consistent with the red marking. Which
medical condition would MOST likely be associated with this finding?

[Link]'s neuroma
[Link]'s disease

[Link] cyst

[Link] tunnel syndrome

[Link] laterally at the 5th intercostal space directly on the skin

Auscultation laterally between the 4th and 6th intercostal spaces is recommended for assessment of the
right middle lobe. Lateral assessment at this level is typically preferred especially with female patients as
breast tissue may interfere with auscultation. Auscultation should be performed with the diaphragm
placed directly over the skin. - answer-: A female patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted to an intensive
care unit after being diagnosed with right middle lobe pneumonia. Which lung auscultation method is
MOST appropriate for assessment of the affected lobe?

[Link] laterally at the 5th intercostal space directly on the skin

[Link] laterally at the 5th intercostal space over a hospital gown

[Link] anteriorly at the 3rd intercostal space directly on the skin

[Link] anteriorly at the 3rd intercostal space over a hospital gown

[Link] extensors

Weakness in the hip extensors will typically result in an exaggerated lumbar lordosis. This adaptation
functions to shift the center of gravity posterior to the fulcrum of the hip and anterior to the fulcrum of
the knee maximizing the stability of the joints during stance and gait. - answer-: A five-year-old child
diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy demonstrates an exaggerated lumbar lordosis in
standing. Which muscle group is often found to be weak in the presence of this postural deformity?

[Link] extensors

[Link] plantar flexors

[Link] extensors

[Link] flexors

[Link] pronation, wrist flexion

The nerve damage associated with Erb's palsy will typically cause a flaccid upper extremity deformity
including forearm pronation and wrist flexion. Damage to the C6 nerve root causes flaccidity in the
supinator and wrist extensors leaving the muscles of pronation and wrist flexion largely unopposed. -
answer-: A physical therapist examines an infant diagnosed with Erb's palsy. Which of the following
BEST describes the likely position of the affected distal upper extremity?

[Link] pronation, wrist flexion

[Link] pronation, wrist extension

[Link] supination, wrist flexion

[Link] supination, wrist extension

[Link]'s disease

Huntington's disease is a neurological disorder of the central nervous system characterized by

degeneration and atrophy of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex within the brain. Because
Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant trait, any individual who inherits the affected gene will
develop the condition. - answer-: A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with a progressive genetic disease
characterized by premature cell death within the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex. What is the patient's
MOST likely diagnosis?

[Link] lateral sclerosis

[Link]'s disease

[Link] sclerosis

[Link]'s disease

[Link] of symptoms along with the knowledge that the patient has instability at the L4-L5
segment

Joint instability is a contraindication to the use of traction. Peripheralization of symptoms in response to

traction is also a contraindication to the use of traction. Both of these findings would be appropriate
reasons to discontinue the use of traction. Other contraindications include acute injury or uncontrolled
hypertension. - answer-: A physical therapist decides to use a trial of mechanical lumbar traction on a
patient with low back pain and sciatica. After evaluating the patient's response to the first treatment,
the therapist concludes that the traction should be discontinued. Which finding would BEST support the
therapist's decision?

[Link] of symptoms along with the knowledge that the patient has instability at the L4-L5
segment
[Link] of symptoms and evidence from the examination that supports hypomobility in the
lower lumbar segments

[Link] change in the symptoms after the first treatment of traction

[Link] patient had increased pain when traction was applied at a force equal to the patient's body weight

[Link] pain due to probable irritation of the L3 nerve root

A patient with an irritation of the L3 nerve root would have pain in the back, upper buttock, anterior
thigh and knee, and medial lower leg. Weakness would be found in the psoas and quadriceps muscles. -
answer-: A 21-year-old male is referred to physical therapy due to low back pain. The patient reports
that he experienced sudden pain in his low back after lifting a heavy crate at work one week ago. Shortly
after the injury the patient noticed a persistent sharp pain in his right leg, however, recently the patient
has experienced a deep burning pain in his right anterior thigh and knee. Lower extremity strength
testing reveals weakness during knee extension on the right, but not on the left. Which of the following
would the therapist MOST likely use to describe the patient's symptoms?

[Link] pain due to probable irritation of the T12 nerve root

[Link] pain due to probable irritation of the L1 nerve root

[Link] pain due to probable irritation of the L3 nerve root

[Link] pain due to probable irritation of the L5 nerve root

[Link] proportion of cellular waste in the affected extremity

The lymphatic system is responsible for the removal of excess cellular waste and foreign materials from
the interstitium. When this process is impaired, the interstitium becomes an environment where
infectious microbes are able to thrive increasing the risk of local infection. - answer-: A physical
therapist provides education regarding skin care and the signs and symptoms of cellulitis for a patient
with lymphedema. Why would the patient be at increased risk for developing cellulitis?

[Link] skin fragility on the affected extremity

[Link] blood flow to the affected extremity

[Link] systemic immunity

[Link] proportion of cellular waste in the affected extremity

[Link] infection
Infection prevention is a primary goal of early surgical intervention. The lesion provides direct access to
the spinal column and brain, significantly increasing the risk of a serious infection. Complications can be
significant including death, brain damage, and greater sensory-motor impairments. - answer-: A physical
therapist working in a neonatal intensive care unit examines a one-week-old infant born with L4
myelomeningocele which was surgically repaired at birth. What would be the PRIMARY goal of
immediate surgical intervention?

[Link] motor function

[Link] sensory function

[Link] infection

[Link] hydrocephalus

[Link] bladder contraction

A spontaneous contraction of the bladder muscle (detrusor) is typically associated with urge urinary
incontinence (UUI). This form of incontinence is commonly referred to as "overactive bladder" and is
often associated with neurological conditions such as spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis, and
Parkinson's disease. - answer-: A 28-year-old female marathon runner is referred to physical therapy
after complaining of stress urinary incontinence during high impact training activities. Which of the
following is LEAST likely to contribute to the patient's difficulty?

[Link] floor muscle fatigue

[Link] floor muscle weakness

[Link] bladder contraction

[Link] floor incoordination

2.C1, C2

Opening the mouth allows an anteroposterior x-ray to reveal the atlas and axis (C1, C2) without the
superimposition of other structures. An open mouth x-ray is often used in acute medical management
since it allows the examiner to assess the integrity of the odontoid process. - answer-: A physical
therapist conducts an interview with a patient rehabilitating from injuries sustained in a motor vehicle
accident. During the interview the patient indicates that they had an x-ray taken that required them to
keep their mouth open. What does this imaging technique examine?

1.C1
2.C1, C2

3.C1, C2, C3

4.C1, C2, C3, C4

[Link] of the intervertebral foramen

By separating the vertebral bodies, traction leads to a widening of the intervertebral foramen. This can
relieve the compression on an impinged nerve root and decrease symptoms of radiculopathy. - answer-:
A patient diagnosed with cervical radiculopathy reports an immediate decrease in pain following manual
traction. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the patient's decrease in pain?

[Link] of the vertebral bodies

[Link] of the intervertebral foramen

[Link] sitting posture

[Link] of the spinal musculature

[Link]

Crackles, also known as rales, are discrete, high-pitched, discontinuous sounds (like the sound of hairs
being rubbed together between the thumb and forefinger) that result from the opening and closing of
alveoli and small airways. Patients with atelectasis, which is the collapse of alveoli, have crackles over
the collapsed area. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in an acute care setting performs
auscultation on a patient diagnosed with atelectasis. Based on the patient's current medical status,
which classification of breath sounds would the therapist expect to identify during inhalation?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] test, meniscus tear

The Thessaly test for a meniscal tear occurs in single leg stance by having a patient rotate the femur on
the tibia medially and laterally three times. A positive test is indicated by joint line discomfort, catching
or locking in the knee.

Meniscal injuries are usually associated with fixed foot rotation while weight bearing on a flexed knee.
This action produces compression and rotational forces on the meniscus. Meniscal tears can also occur
secondary to a hyperflexion injury. In older patients, meniscal tears are more likely to be caused by
degeneration as opposed to acute trauma. When the meniscus has degenerated, a simple pivoting or
squatting movement may be enough to cause a meniscus tear. - answer-: A physical therapist
administers a special test in standing to a 61-year-old male that injured their left knee while squatting to
reach for an object on the ground. Which special test and associated injury is MOST consistent with this
scenario?

[Link]'s sign, patellofemoral dysfunction

[Link] test, anterior cruciate ligament sprain

[Link] test, meniscus tear

[Link] compression test, iliotibial band syndrome

[Link] the skin

Electrical currents, especially direct current used with iontophoresis, can cause burns. It is important for
the therapist to check the patient's skin to determine if the patient had an adverse reaction to the
treatment. This will help the therapist determine if iontophoresis should be continued or discontinued.

Iontophoresis refers to the use of low amplitude, direct electrical current to deliver medications
transdermally. Iontophoresis is commonly used to treat inflammation, calcium deposits, ulcers, and
pain. Although this modality has few adverse effects, skin irritation and burns may occur in the area of
the electrode. - answer-: A patient diagnosed with patellar tendonitis returns to physical therapy for his
second session. During the first session the therapist administered iontophoresis. What is the MOST
appropriate therapist action prior to initiating treatment?

[Link] sensation to sharp/dull

[Link] a visual analog pain scale

[Link] circumferential measurements

[Link] the skin

[Link] tightness

Some degree of hamstrings tightness is typically associated with all grades of spondylolisthesis. This
tightness may contribute to nerve root irritation, limit straight leg raising and forward bending abilities,
and functionally alter gait and posture. Hamstrings tightness often causes an individual to walk with
short strides with the knees slightly bent. A waddling gait can also be observed since an individual
rotates the pelvis more to compensate for decreased hamstrings length.

Spondylolisthesis refers to an anterior slippage of a vertebral segment in relation to the segment below
it. Although many patients may be asymptomatic, those with symptoms typically report a dull, aching
pain in the lower back and buttocks that is exacerbated by activities such as trunk extension and
prolonged standing. - answer-: A 63-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with complaints of
low back pain and lower extremity paresthesia due to degenerative L5 spondylolisthesis. Which of the
following examination findings is MOST likely to be associated with the patient's diagnosis?

[Link] lumbar lordosis

[Link] hyperextension

[Link] tightness

[Link] Achilles reflex

[Link] factor assay

Rheumatoid factors (RF) are antibodies which may be quantified by a specific blood test referred to as a
rheumatoid factor assay. High levels of RF are typically associated with autoimmune diseases such as
rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and systemic lupus erythematosus. - answer-: A physical therapist
reviews recent laboratory results for a patient referred to physical therapy with rheumatoid arthritis. An
elevated finding of which blood test is MOST commonly associated with the presence of an autoimmune
disease?

[Link] sedimentation rate

2.C-reactive protein

[Link] factor assay

[Link] blood count

[Link] amount of caregiver assistance required

The WeeFIM provides assessment through observation and subsequent rating in established motor and
cognitive categories. The higher the score, the greater the independence of the patient.

The Functional Independence Measure for Children, better known as the WeeFIM, is a measurement
tool that is administered to determine the level of caregiver assistance needed to perform functional
activities. - answer-: A physical therapist reports the results obtained using the WeeFIM on a four-year-
old child at an interdisciplinary team meeting. What is this tool used to determine?

[Link] optimal length of stay in an acute care facility

[Link] amount of caregiver assistance required

[Link] extent of gross motor delays present

[Link] recommended programming to minimize disability

[Link] femoral condyles roll backward and glide forward on the tibia

During closed chain knee flexion the femoral condyles roll backward and glide forward on the tibia. -
answer-: A physical therapist observes a patient completing a closed chain activity emphasizing knee
flexion. Which description is MOST consistent with the described therapeutic activity?

[Link] femoral condyles roll backward and glide forward on the tibia

[Link] femoral condyles roll forward and glide backward on the tibia

[Link] tibia rolls and glides posteriorly on the femoral condyles

[Link] tibia rolls and glides anteriorly on the femoral condyles

[Link] pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis

The abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are in the first dorsal compartment and are the
muscles involved with de Quervain's syndrome. A positive Finkelstein test is indicated by pain over the
abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons at the wrist.

De Quervain's syndrome refers to an inflammation of the tendons in the first dorsal compartment. The
inflammation causes the compartment around the tendons to swell resulting in painful wrist movement.
The Finkelstein test is a commonly performed special test administered to patients with suspected de
Quervain's syndrome. - answer-: A patient is referred to physical therapy after being diagnosed with de
Quervain's syndrome. Which muscles are MOST commonly associated with this medical condition?
[Link] pollicis longus and extensor pollicis longus

[Link] pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis brevis

[Link] pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis

[Link] pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus

[Link] minus

A grade of fair minus is characterized by the patient being unable to complete the full available range of
motion against gravity, however, can complete more than half of the range. If placed in the test
position, the patient will have insufficient strength to maintain the position. - answer-: A physical
therapist prepares to complete a selected manual muscle test on a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis
by placing the upper extremity in the recommended test position. The therapist determines that the
patient is unable to maintain the test position and slowly allows the arm to sag. Which of the following
muscle grades is MOST consistent with this scenario?

[Link] minus

[Link]

[Link] minus

[Link]

[Link] cortical sensations

Combined cortical sensations include stereognosis, tactile localization, two-point discrimination, double
simultaneous stimulation, graphesthesia, texture recognition, and barognosis. - answer-: A patient is
evaluated in physical therapy after sustaining brain damage secondary to closed head trauma. When
performing a sensory examination, the therapist notes that the patient has impaired stereognosis, two-
point discrimination, and barognosis. Which type of sensations are MOST representative of the patient's
impairments?

[Link] sensations

[Link] sensations

[Link] cortical sensations

[Link] sensations

[Link] crackles
Patients in left ventricular failure often have cardiogenic pulmonary edema due to an increase in
hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries. Fluid initially accumulates in the airways, progresses
to the alveolar interstitium, and ultimately to the alveolar space. Crackles or wet rales along with
decreased breath sounds are common auscultation findings.

The physical therapist should recognize that progressive shortness of breath, leg edema, increased
jugular venous pressure, and an S3 heart sound are signs consistent with congestive heart failure. -
answer-: A 65-year-old man attends physical therapy complaining of progressive shortness of breath
and lower leg swelling. During the examination the physical therapist identifies signs of increased jugular
venous pressure, an S3 gallop, and moderate lower extremity edema. On auscultation of the patient's
lungs, which of the following sounds would the therapist MOST expect to hear?

[Link] crackles

[Link] rub

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

The axis is the second cervical vertebra located below the atlas. The axis has a bony protrusion called
the odontoid process, or dens, which projects upward and into the atlas. The odontoid process is held in
place by the transverse ligament of the atlas which prevents horizontal displacement. During the alar
ligament test the therapist stabilizes the axis by using a pinch grip around the spinous process and
lamina. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in an outpatient clinic receives a referral for a 29-year-
old male involved in a motor vehicle accident four days ago. The patient's referral indicates a medical
diagnosis of cervical strain. During the examination, the therapist performs the lateral flexion alar
ligament stress test. When performing the test with the patient in a supine position, what should the
therapist stabilize?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] deltoid
The posterior deltoid acts to extend and laterally rotate the shoulder. The ability of the muscle to extend
the shoulder allows the muscle to substitute for weakness in the latissimus dorsi. The muscle is
innervated by the axillary nerve. - answer-: A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test for the
latissimus dorsi. Assuming the patient has an injury affecting the thoracodorsal nerve, which muscle
would substitute for weakness of the latissimus dorsi during the testing procedure?

[Link] deltoid

[Link]

[Link] minor

[Link]

[Link] pericarditis

Pericarditis refers to an inflammation of the pericardium of the heart. This condition may be acute or
chronic, both of which can disrupt the heart's normal rhythm. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include
chest pain, shortness of breath, dry cough, anxiety, fatigue, and fever. Peripheral pulses would not be
affected in acute pericarditis, although in severe cases of chronic pericarditis, peripheral pulses could be
affected by edema and low blood pressure. - answer-: While completing an examination, a physical
therapist identifies the presence of diminished pulses in the foot and ankle. Which medical condition
would be LEAST likely to produce this type of objective finding?

[Link] pericarditis

[Link] pulmonale

[Link] mellitus

[Link] vascular disease

[Link] triceps reflex

An impaired triceps reflex (C6-C7) is most commonly associated with C7 nerve root involvement. Other
signs of C7 involvement include weakness in the triceps, wrist flexors and sensory abnormalities in the
dorsal forearm, long and ring fingers. The described clinical scenario and an impaired triceps reflex are
both characteristic of C7 involvement.

Cervical radiculopathy is characterized by nerve compression from herniated disk material or arthritic
bone spurs. Involvement of a specific nerve root often results in predictable impairments including
diminished sensation, muscle weakness, impaired reflexes, and paresthesias. The examination findings
are associated with C7 nerve root involvement. - answer-: A physical therapist conducts an examination
on a patient diagnosed with cervical radiculopathy. The therapist identifies weakness in the patient's
wrist flexors and sensory abnormalities in the dorsal forearm as well as in the long and ring fingers.
Which additional finding would be MOST likely?

[Link] triceps reflex

[Link] of the wrist extensor muscles

[Link] brachioradialis reflex

[Link] of the biceps muscle

[Link] the tilt table

The patient's drop in systolic blood pressure was less than the drop associated with orthostatic
hypotension (i.e., greater or equal to 20 mm Hg), however, in combination with the other presented
symptoms (i.e., nausea and severe dizziness) would warrant lowering the tilt table.

A tilt table is often used with patients who need to physiologically accommodate to an upright position,
most commonly as a result of prolonged recumbence. A patient's vital signs (i.e., blood pressure and
pulse rate) should be monitored with each progression of the tilt table angle. The therapist should also
consider other signs and symptoms, including consciousness, perspiration, lower extremity edema, loss
of pedal pulses, nausea, numbness, pale skin, and vertigo. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in
an acute care hospital works on vertical positioning with a patient who experienced complications from
surgery and has been on bed rest for 10 days. Shortly after raising the tilt table 30 degrees the patient
complains of nausea and severe dizziness. The therapist checks the patient's systolic blood pressure and
determines that it is 15 mm Hg less than the value recorded at the beginning of the treatment session.
What is the MOST immediate therapist action?

[Link] the patient that the response is not unusual

[Link] the incident in the patient's chart

[Link] the tilt table

[Link] the patient's physician to discuss the findings

[Link] myocardial ischemia during exercise

ST segment depression is the most common manifestation of exercise-induced myocardial ischemia.

Exercise induced changes in the electrocardiogram may be indicative of underlying cardiac pathology.
The ST segment of the ECG represents the repolarization of the ventricles and begins when ventricular
contraction ends. Normally, the ST segment is isoelectric and is between the end of the QRS complex
and the beginning of the T wave. - answer-: A physical therapist reviews a summary report for a patient
that recently completed a graded exercise test. The report indicates that the patient had greater than
2.0 mm of horizontal ST segment depression. Which scenario is MOST consistent with the reported
findings?

[Link] ventricular arrhythmia during exercise

[Link] myocardial ischemia during exercise

[Link] adequate myocardial perfusion during exercise

[Link] a normal electrocardiographic response to exercise

2.A weak pulse

Patients in ventricular tachycardia often exhibit a weak, thready pulse due to the rapid ventricular rate.

Ventricular tachycardia is a series of three or more consecutive premature ventricular contractions due
to a rapid firing of one or more ectopic foci in the ventricles. The ventricular rate of ventricular
tachycardia is greater than 150 beats per minute, greatly reducing cardiac output. - answer-: After
reviewing electrocardiogram output from a patient exercising on a treadmill, the physical therapist
determines that the output is consistent with ventricular tachycardia. Until this rhythm is reversed, what
will the patient likely exhibit?

1.A positive Homan's sign

2.A weak pulse

3.A productive cough

[Link] pulmonale

[Link] ultrasound unit with a high beam nonuniformity ratio

A high beam nonuniformity ratio produces a less uniform beam and therefore places the patient at
greater risk for undesirable side effects such as periosteal pain or hot spots.
Beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR) is the ratio between the spatial peak intensity and spatial average
intensity. The higher the quality of the crystal, the lower the BNR. The BNR is derived from the intrinsic
factors and quality of the piezoelectric crystal. - answer-: A patient reports significant discomfort in the
lower leg during ultrasound treatment. The therapist believes the discomfort is caused by periosteal
pain from the ultrasound. Which scenario is MOST likely associated with the patient's subjective report
of discomfort?

[Link] ultrasound unit with a high beam nonuniformity ratio

[Link] ultrasound unit with a low beam nonuniformity ratio

3.A transducer with a large effective radiating area

4.A transducer with a small effective radiating area

[Link]

Severe burns cause protein loss from burned tissues and increased cell membrane permeability. Both
factors contribute to alterations in tissue microcirculation resulting in significant edema formation in the
interstitial spaces.

Severe edema that occurs secondary to significant burns is a common occurrence and may involve
damaged and adjacent undamaged tissues. The area and depth of the burn primarily influence the
development of edema with larger burns typically causing edema in non-damaged tissues. Although the
amount of edema in these adjacent tissues may be significant, the degree of edema formation and
resolution time are typically much less than that of burn damaged areas. - answer-: A physical therapist
works with a patient in an acute care hospital who has sustained significant facial burns following a
workplace explosion. Which finding would MOST likely be associated with burn-related alterations in cell
permeability and microcirculation?

[Link] scarring

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] scarring

[Link]
Cystocele is typically associated with a weakening of the bladder's support structures. Depending on the
degree of weakness and how far the bladder has descended, there may be protrusion of the bladder
through the anterior vaginal wall.

Cystocele refers to a forward and downward displacement of the bladder within the pelvic cavity.
Cystocele can result from delivery-related muscle weakness or injury to the bladder's supporting
structures. - answer-: A physical therapist reviewing a patient's past medical history reads that the
patient was diagnosed with a grade 3 cystocele due to childbirth complications. This diagnosis
specifically relates to the displacement of what organ?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] bowel

[Link] lateralis

The vastus lateralis, which is part of the quadriceps complex, is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2, L3,
L4) and therefore would likely be affected by the nerve block. - answer-: A physical therapist examines a
patient following total knee arthroplasty. During surgery, the patient had a femoral nerve block. Which
muscle would MOST likely be affected by the nerve block?

[Link] anterior

[Link] femoris

[Link] lateralis

[Link] medius

[Link] righting reflex

The optical righting reflex acts to keep the eyes in a horizontal plane through alterations in cervical spine
positioning. This reflex activates the muscles of the posterior neck to prevent the head from falling
forward as the shoulders become more rounded.

A woman who is pregnant undergoes many postural changes due to alterations in weight distribution
during pregnancy. An increase in cervical lordosis allows the patient to maintain the eyes on the horizon
despite the described postural changes. - answer-: A physical therapist examines the posture of a
woman with neck pain who is eight months pregnant. The patient presents with increased cervical
lordosis, rounded shoulders, and an increased lumbar lordosis. Which reflex acts to keep the eyes in the
horizontal plane despite the patient's altered posture?

[Link] righting reflex

[Link] reflex

[Link] reflex

[Link] tonic neck reflex

[Link] tension in the ventricular wall at the end of diastole

Preload reflects the venous filling pressure that fills the left ventricle during diastole. It is often
described in terms of the end-diastolic volume and end-diastolic pressure. - answer-: A physical
therapist attends an inservice that discusses the influence of preload, afterload, and contractility on
stroke volume. Which description is MOST reflective of the term preload?

[Link] tension in the ventricular wall at the end of diastole

[Link] force that impedes the flow of blood out of the heart

[Link] contraction of the right and left atria pushing blood into the ventricles

[Link] period between atrial contractions when the atria are repolarizing

[Link] in activities

Adaptive equipment should be used to assist children with cerebral palsy to participate in activities.
Although adaptive equipment does not normalize tone, strengthen or improve postural control, it is an
effective compensatory strategy to assist children to participate in activities. - answer-: An infant with
cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy for an adaptive equipment evaluation. What is the
PRIMARY purpose for the use of adaptive equipment with this child?

[Link] of tone

[Link] of strength

[Link] of postural control

[Link] in activities
Inform the director of rehabilitation about the billing irregularities

The physical therapist is obligated to discuss the situation with the director of rehabilitation. If there was
sufficient evidence to indicate that the director of rehabilitation was aware of the billing irregularities
and did not take action, it may be appropriate to take more formal action. - answer-: A physical
therapist employed in a large acute care hospital notices that several of his colleagues are billing using
individual current procedural terminology (CPT) codes, despite the fact that patients are participating in
group activities. The therapist is troubled by this since insurance companies and many patients are likely
to incur unjustified fees. What is the MOST appropriate therapist action?

[Link] the involved therapists and remind them of the need to follow established billing procedures

[Link] the director of rehabilitation about the billing irregularities

[Link] the involved insurance providers and patients about the noted events

[Link] the information to the state licensing agency

[Link] the rating of perceived exertion as a means of monitoring the intensity of exercise while the
patient is in atrial fibrillation

Rating of perceived exertion can be used as an alternate means of monitoring the intensity of exercise
when heart rate is not appropriate. - answer-: A physical therapist monitors the electrocardiogram of a
43-year-old female exercising on a treadmill as part of a cardiac rehabilitation program. During the
session the therapist identifies atrial fibrillation. What is the MOST appropriate therapist action?

[Link] the patient's pulse rate as a means of monitoring the intensity of exercise while the patient is in
atrial fibrillation

[Link] the rating of perceived exertion as a means of monitoring the intensity of exercise while the
patient is in atrial fibrillation

[Link] the exercise immediately and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation

[Link] the emergency medical response system

[Link] edema

Pitting edema is defined as fluid accumulation that can be compressed and demonstrates an indentation
with applied pressure. This edema occurs in Stage 1 lymphedema and is reversible. It may increase with
activity or heat and diminish with elevation or rest. - answer-: A physical therapist reads in a patient's
medical record that the patient's lymphedema is classified as Stage 1. Which sign or symptom should
the therapist expect to observe when reviewing the patient's examination?

[Link] edema

[Link] Stemmer's sign

[Link] fibrosis

[Link]-pitting edema

[Link] patient demonstrates significantly less than average time in stance phase

Fifteen percent less than the normal amount of time spent in stance phase (i.e., 60 percent) is
considered a significant deviation from normal gait biomechanics. - answer-: A physical therapist
reviews the results of a gait analysis summary for a patient with a lower extremity injury. The summary
reveals that the patient's stance phase represents 45 percent of the patient's gait cycle. How does this
compare to the values typically expected with normal gait?

[Link] patient demonstrates slightly less than average time in stance phase

[Link] patient demonstrates significantly less than average time in stance phase

[Link] patient demonstrates an average amount of time in stance phase

[Link] patient demonstrates slightly more than average time in stance phase

[Link] the rating of perceived exertion scale as an intensity guide for exercise

RPE can be used to monitor exercise intensity in patients referred to cardiac rehabilitation for whom no
exercise or pharmacologic tests are available. The recommended range is 11-14 on the 6-20 RPE scale.
The patient's signs and symptoms should also be monitored. - answer-: When a patient enters an
exercise-based cardiac rehabilitation program without a preliminary exercise test, or when the patient's
beta blocker dose is changed during the course of rehabilitation, what should the physical therapist do?

[Link] sure the patient warms up sufficiently before the exercise session

[Link] the optimum exercise target heart rate zone from the heart rate reserve

[Link] the patient to their primary care physician before undertaking an exercise program

[Link] the rating of perceived exertion scale as an intensity guide for exercise

[Link] backwards
The DGI does not involve an assessment of ambulating backwards. However, this is an item included on
the more challenging Functional Gait Assessment. - answer-: A physical therapist plans to administer the
Dynamic Gait Index to a patient with a traumatic brain injury to assess postural control during
ambulation. Which of the following activities would the patient NOT have to perform?

[Link] and pivoting

[Link] over obstacles

[Link] stairs

[Link] backwards

[Link] and splinting

Stretching to achieve full range of motion at a contracted joint followed by splinting to maintain the
acquired range of motion are the primary intervention strategies for children with arthrogryposis. -
answer-: A physical therapist treats a child with arthrogryposis. Which intervention(s) would MOST likely
be the initial focus of physical therapy?

[Link] range of motion and strengthening

[Link] and splinting

[Link] range of motion

[Link] mobility training

2.C5 tetraplegia

A patient with C5 tetraplegia would have functional use of elbow flexion and with the help of a
specialized assistive device (e.g., wrist or hand orthotic), would be able to use a hand-controlled joystick.
- answer-: A patient with a spinal cord injury controls a power wheelchair using a hand-controlled
joystick. Which level of spinal cord injury would be MOST likely to utilize this type of wheelchair
adaptation?

1.C4 tetraplegia

2.C5 tetraplegia

3.C6 tetraplegia

4.T1 paraplegia
[Link] puncture

A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure that requires insertion of a needle below the L1-L2 level to
obtain a cerebrospinal fluid sample. A spinal puncture primarily rules out hemorrhage, inflammation,
infection, meningitis, and tumor. - answer-: A patient observed in the emergency room of an acute care
hospital exhibits fever, vomiting, a stiff and painful neck, and a positive Brudzinski's sign. Based on the
patient's clinical presentation, the health care team believes the patient may have meningitis. What is
the MOST valid method to test for this suspected diagnosis?

[Link]

[Link] angiography

[Link] conduction velocity

[Link] puncture

[Link] inotropic agents

Positive inotropic agents increase the force and velocity of myocardial contraction, slow the heart rate,
decrease conduction velocity through the AV node, and decrease the degree of activation of the
sympathetic nervous system. This type of pharmacological agent is most often used to treat heart failure
and atrial fibrillation. - answer-: A physical therapist reads in the medical record that a patient is
experiencing side effects including significant dizziness from a recently prescribed antihypertensive
agent. Which pharmacological agent is LEAST likely to be associated with this scenario?

[Link] adrenergic antagonist agents

[Link] II receptor antagonist agents

[Link] channel blocker agents

[Link] inotropic agents

[Link] carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum, extensor carpi ulnaris

The extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum, and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles are part of the
common extensor tendon that attaches to the lateral epicondyle. - answer-: A 45-year-old male who
works as a carpenter is referred to physical therapy after being diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis.
During the examination the therapist palpates the muscles attaching to the lateral epicondyle. Which of
the following groups of muscles BEST meet this criteria?
[Link] carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum, extensor carpi ulnaris

[Link], extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis

[Link] carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris

[Link] carpi radialis brevis, supinator, extensor pollicis longus

[Link] biofeedback and progressive ambulation

Biofeedback has no contraindications other than possible skin irritation from the coupling gel or
adhesives. Progressive ambulation would be an appropriate intervention for a patient trying to improve
their functional ambulation. - answer-: A patient referred to physical therapy presents with obvious
disuse atrophy after having a lower extremity cast removed. The primary goals of physical therapy
include increasing muscle strength and returning to functional ambulation on level and unlevel surfaces.
The patient has cancer in several sites including the involved extremity. What are the MOST appropriate
interventions for the patient?

[Link] biofeedback and progressive ambulation

[Link] voltage pulsed current and walking on a treadmill

[Link] electrical stimulation and progressive resistive exercises

[Link] whirlpool and multiple angle isometrics

[Link] arm and right arm

Limb lead I is formed by electrodes on the left arm (+), right arm (-), and right leg (ground) - answer-:
Each black dot in the figure represents a single electrocardiogram electrode on a patient's chest. Which
electrodes would a physical therapist attach to the electrocardiogram wires to monitor lead I of the
standard 12-lead electrocardiogram?

[Link] arm and right arm

[Link] arm and left leg

[Link] arm and left leg

[Link] chest

[Link]
Therapeutic ultrasound typically has a frequency between 0.75 and 3 MHz. The most common
frequency settings are 1 MHz and 3 MHz. A frequency setting of 1 MHz is used for heating of deeper
tissues up to five centimeters. A setting of 3 MHz has a depth of penetration of less than two
centimeters and is used for heating superficial tissues. - answer-: A physical therapist elects to use
ultrasound to heat tissues at a depth of approximately four centimeters. What would the therapist have
to correctly determine in order to MOST effectively treat the tissue at the specified depth?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] size

[Link] nonuniformity ratio

[Link]

Sniffing enlists the diaphragm and is useful as a training technique to promote diaphragmatic breathing.
- answer-: A physical therapist is teaching diaphragmatic breathing to a patient. What should the
therapist have the patient do in order to facilitate the patient's awareness of using the diaphragm?

[Link] at the waist while standing

[Link] a sit-up

[Link]

[Link]

4.A doorway that is 28 inches wide

A doorway with a width of 28 inches would not be wide enough for a patient to safely propel a
wheelchair through the doorway. The minimum width required for a doorway is 32 inches. - answer-: A
male patient with T10 paraplegia accompanies a physical therapist and occupational therapist on a
home visit prior to discharge from a rehabilitation hospital. The patient has been in the hospital for 12
weeks and has experienced an unremarkable recovery. As part of the home visit the therapists examine
accessibility. Which item would be MOST problematic for the patient?

[Link] outdoor ramp that is 36 inches wide

[Link] outdoor ramp with an 8.3% grade

3.A bathroom sink with 29 inches of clearance under the sink

4.A doorway that is 28 inches wide

[Link] cancer

Bone cancer is a malignant tumor of the bone that results from primary bone cancer or, more
commonly, from metastatic cancer that spreads from other areas of the body. Bone scans are used to
identify the location and extent of bone cancer by identifying areas of the skeletal system that show a
high level of radiopharmaceutical uptake, which indicates an increase in the metabolic activity of the
bone. - answer-: While taking a patient's medical history, a physical therapist is told that the patient
recently had a radionuclide bone scan. This type of diagnostic imaging would be MOST beneficial for the
management of which condition?

[Link]

[Link] cancer

[Link] fracture

[Link]

[Link] joint dysfunction

The Faber test can be used to identify sacroiliac joint dysfunction. The report of posterior hip pain is
considered to be a positive test often indicative of sacroiliac dysfunction. - answer-: A physical therapist
completes a provocative test on a patient positioned in supine. The therapist passively moves the
patient into a figure-four position with the right ankle positioned on the patient's left thigh proximal to
the knee joint. The therapist then exerts a downward force on the patient's right knee while stabilizing
the left anterior superior iliac spine. Assuming the patient reports posterior hip pain during the test,
what is the MOST likely hypothesis?

[Link] bursitis

[Link] syndrome

[Link] joint dysfunction

[Link] of the hip

[Link] deviation with slight extension

A power grip is characterized by finger flexion with the wrist in ulnar deviation and slight extension.
A power grip is used when strength of force is the primary consideration. Types of power grips include
the hook grasp, cylinder grasp, fist grasp, and spherical grasp. Having the wrist in flexion would lead to
active insufficiency of the long finger flexors, resulting in a weaker grasp. - answer-: A physical therapist
has a patient complete a resistive exercise test using a hand held dynamometer. During the testing
procedure the therapist notes that the patient employs the power grip in order to maximize his force
output. Which position of the wrist is utilized with this type of grip?

[Link] deviation with slight extension

[Link] deviation with slight extension

[Link] deviation with slight flexion

[Link] deviation with slight flexion

3.0-30 degrees

Normal wrist ulnar deviation is 0-30 degrees. The end-feel is typically classified as firm due to tension in
the radial collateral ligament and the radial portion of the joint capsule. - answer-: A physical therapist
indicates that a patient's wrist ulnar deviation is within normal limits after measuring the available range
of motion with a goniometer. What would be the MOST likely recorded value?

1.0-10 degrees

2.0-20 degrees

3.0-30 degrees

4.0-40 degrees

[Link] a figure-eight pattern when wrapping, avoiding circumferential wraps

A figure-eight pattern should be used when wrapping the residual limb. Use of a circumferential pattern
can result in an undesired tourniquet effect. - answer-: A physical therapist teaches a patient with a
recent transtibial amputation to wrap his residual limb to promote shrinking and shaping. What should
the therapist instruct the patient to do?

[Link] the limb wrapped only during the day time; leave it exposed to air at night

[Link] two six-inch ace wraps when wrapping the limb

[Link] a figure-eight pattern when wrapping, avoiding circumferential wraps

[Link] more pressure proximally and less distally

[Link] hip extensors

A patient with a transfemoral amputation creates knee extension through closed chain hip extension.
When the patient performs heel strike at the beginning of the stance phase, strong hip extension will
allow them to extend their prosthetic knee. - answer-: A physical therapist inspects the prosthesis of a
68-year-old male with a right transfemoral amputation. The therapist identifies that the patient's
prosthetic knee often buckles at heel strike and concludes that this issue should be addressed with a
strengthening program. What is the PRIMARY muscle group to target?

[Link] hip flexors

[Link] hip extensors

[Link] hip flexors

[Link] hip extensors

[Link] error

Sources of measurement error can be attributed to three parts of the measurement system: 1) the
tester or rater making the measurement, 2) the instrument used, 3) variability in the attribute being
measured. In this particular case, the source of measurement error was the physical therapist. - answer-
: While measuring a patient's resting heart rate, the physical therapist palpates the patient's radial pulse
and counts the pulse for 15 seconds. After 15 seconds the physical therapist records the patient's resting
heart rate in the hospital chart as 73 beats per minute. Which statement BEST describes the patient's
recorded resting heart rate?

[Link] measurement

[Link] measurement

[Link] error

[Link] on the interval scale

[Link] correlation coefficient between HW distance and TM distance is between 0 and 1.0.

In the scatter plot, shorter treadmill distances are associated with shorter hallway distances and longer
treadmill distances are associated with longer hallway distances. This reflects a positive or direct linear
relationship between the two variables (X increases and Y increases; X decreases and Y decreases). If the
correlation coefficient was 0, the points would be randomly scattered throughout the plot. If the
correlation coefficient was 1.0, a perfect linear correlation, all the points would fall on a straight line.
The scatter plot shows a relationship between 0 and 1.0. - answer-: The scatter plot depicts the
association between the distances 21 subjects walked during the Six-Minute Walk Test performed in a
hallway (HW) and on a treadmill (TM) on the same day. What should a therapist conclude from the plot?

[Link] correlation coefficient between HW distance and TM distance is statistically significant, p < 0.05.

[Link] correlation coefficient between HW distance and TM distance is between 0 and 1.0.

[Link] is a curvilinear relationship between HW distance and TM distance.

[Link] mean of the difference between HW distance and TM distance is not statistically significant.

[Link] of the adrenal gland

Hyperfunction of the adrenal gland is characteristic of Cushing's disease (excess amount of cortisol).
Symptoms evolve over years and can include persistent hyperglycemia, growth failure, truncal obesity,
"moon-shaped face," and "buffalo hump" posteriorly at the base of the neck. - answer-: A physical
therapist receives a referral for a patient diagnosed with Cushing's disease. Which of the following BEST
characterizes this condition?

[Link] of the adrenal gland

[Link] of the adrenal gland

[Link] of the thyroid gland

[Link] of the thyroid gland

[Link] thyroxine and decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone

Graves' disease is typically diagnosed through blood analysis of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4)
hormone levels as well as thyroid-stimulating hormone released by the pituitary gland. An increased
thyroxine level in combination with a decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone is considered indicative of
Graves' disease. - answer-: A physical therapist treats a recently referred patient with Graves' disease. In
reviewing the patient's laboratory results, which change in normative values are MOST representative of
the patient's diagnosis?

[Link] thyroxine and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone

[Link] thyroxine and decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone

[Link] thyroxine and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone

[Link] thyroxine and decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone

[Link] blood glucose greater than 130 mg/dL

American Diabetes Association guidelines suggest that repeated fasting blood glucose levels greater
than 125 mg/dL are considered indicative of diabetes mellitus. - answer-: A physical therapist employed
in an acute care hospital reviews a patient's medical record prior to initiating treatment. The physician's
note states that recent laboratory values indicate the onset of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which repeated
laboratory finding BEST supports this diagnosis?

[Link] blood glucose greater than 130 mg/dL

[Link] blood glucose greater than 180 mg/dL

[Link] blood glucose greater than 90 mg/dL

[Link] blood glucose greater than 130 mg/dL

[Link] out border appearance, minimal drainage, ABI 0.7

An ABI of 0.7 is indicative of a moderate arterial blockage. Minimal wound drainage and a punch out
appearance of wound borders are also consistent with the presentation of an arterial insufficiency ulcer.
- answer-: A physical therapist treats a patient referred for wound care. The therapist suspects that the
patient's lower extremity ulcer has developed due to arterial insufficiency. Which characteristics BEST
represent a typical presentation of this type of ulcer?

[Link] callused borders, located on plantar surface of the foot, ABI 0.8

[Link] staining, located proximal to the medial malleolus, ABI 1.2

[Link] out border appearance, minimal drainage, ABI 0.7

[Link] borders, moderate drainage, ABI 1.0

2.160 mm Hg

For a patient with a known systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg, the cuff should be inflated to 155-165
mm Hg. 160 mm Hg would fall within this range. - answer-: A physical therapist prepares to measure a
patient's blood pressure prior to beginning a treatment session. The therapist has taken the patient's
blood pressure prior to the start of the last three sessions and on each occasion the patient's blood
pressure was within a few mm Hg of 140/85 mm Hg. Which inflation pressure would be MOST
appropriate when conducting the measurement?

1.150 mm Hg
2.160 mm Hg

3.180 mm Hg

4.190 mm Hg

[Link] pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips

With a sling seat, the hips move into a position of adduction and medial rotation and the pelvis tends to
posteriorly tilt. - answer-: A physical therapist works with a 52-year-old female with T8 paraplegia
resulting from a motor vehicle accident one month ago. After examining the patient's wheelchair the
physical therapist determines that the standard sling seat does not provide enough support to ensure
the patient's comfort and function. Which position would this type of seating option tend to promote?

[Link] pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips

[Link] pelvic tilt with adduction and medial rotation of the hips

[Link] pelvic tilt with abduction and lateral rotation of the hips

[Link] pelvic tilt with abduction and lateral rotation of the hips

[Link] tilt table provides low grade therapeutic stress to the cardiovascular system

The primary use of a tilt table is to provide low grade stress to a patient's circulatory system to force it
to adapt to upright positioning. Initially, the body will have difficulty maintaining blood flow to the brain
as the patient attains a vertical position. This will result in symptoms such as dizziness, perspiration,
lower extremity edema, and nausea. With training, the circulatory system will improve its ability to
continue supplying blood to the brain in an upright position. - answer-: A physical therapist explains the
primary purpose of incorporating a tilt table into a patient's established plan of care with a physical
therapist assistant. What is the MOST appropriate explanation?

[Link] tilt table increases blood flow to the cranium and extremities

[Link] tilt table provides low grade therapeutic stress to the cardiovascular system

[Link] tilt table causes blood to pool in the viscera causing increased cardiac output

[Link] tilt table strengthens bones because it increases bone mineral density

[Link] using the device since it exhibits poor reliability

The reliability coefficient can range from 0.00 to 1.00, with 0.00 indicating no reliability and 1.00
indicating perfect reliability. Reliability coefficients below 0.50 indicate poor reliability, coefficients from
0.50 to 0.75 indicate moderate reliability, and coefficients above 0.75 indicate good reliability. - answer-
: A physical therapist reviews a recently published study that concludes the reliability coefficient of a
newly marketed electronic device to measure percent body fat was 0.37. Which statement represents
the BEST advice to a therapist who is contemplating using the device?

[Link] the device since the instrument is likely to produce reliable measurements that are free from
error

[Link] the device since the instrument is likely to produce reliable and valid measurements that are
free from error

[Link] utilizing the device in combination with other tests and measures

[Link] using the device since it exhibits poor reliability

[Link] tenosynovitis

Peroneal tenosynovitis refers to inflammation of the tendon and its sheath. This condition is often
precipitated by stress due an acute ankle sprain or repetitive ankle motion combined with
weightbearing (e.g., running, jumping). This condition prevents the tendon from gliding smoothly within
the sheath and may cause pain. The location of the peroneal tendons, along the lateral lower leg and
posterior to the lateral mallelolus, make it difficult to maintain consistent surface contact with the
ultrasound transducer. As a result, it is often beneficial to administer ultrasound using cushion contact
when treating this condition. - answer-: A physical therapist elects to use cushion contact instead of
traditional direct contact when administering ultrasound. Which medical condition would provide the
MOST support for this method of ultrasound administration?

[Link] tenosynovitis

[Link] strain

[Link] tunnel syndrome

[Link] cuff tendonitis

2.50% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

Most patients are considered to have the physical capacity to return to work if the average demand of
their job is less than or equal to 50% of the peak METs achieved on an exercise test.
The decision to return to work after a cardiac event is a complex one that depends on many medical and
nonmedical variables. A symptom limited exercise test can be valuable in assessing the patient's ability
to return to work. Most contemporary jobs require only very light to light aerobic requirements (i.e., less
than 5 METs). - answer-: Although both medical and nonmedical factors contribute to the decision to
return to work after a cardiac event, the patient's performance on a graded exercise test can help assess
their prognosis. Which of the following average job demands would be the largest allowable to safely
return to work?

1.25% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

2.50% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

3.75% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

4.100% of the peak METs achieved on the exercise test

[Link] initiation

Rhythmic initiation is a PNF exercise utilized to address the mobility level of motor control with focus on
initiating movement in the presence of hypertonia. Movements progress from passive to active assistive
to slightly resistive in nature. - answer-: A physical therapist treating a patient diagnosed with spastic
cerebral palsy performs an intervention designed to facilitate active movement. Which of the following
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation interventions would be BEST utilized for this purpose?

[Link] stabilization

[Link] reversal

[Link] initiation

[Link]-relax active movement

[Link] etiology is often associated with some degree of birth trauma

Although often considered idiopathic, research suggests that in utero restrictions and perinatal trauma
are the most likely causes of congenital torticollis. There is a significant prevalence of congenital
torticollis among infants who were delivered breech or with the assistance of forceps. - answer-: A
physical therapist reviews a new referral for a patient diagnosed with congenital torticollis. Which of the
following is the MOST accurate regarding the diagnosis in a newborn?

[Link] are typically observable immediately after delivery

[Link] edema typically presents over the mastoid process

[Link] etiology is often associated with some degree of birth trauma

[Link] condition typically presents with bilateral symptoms

[Link] and hyperkalemia

Hypervolemia refers to an abnormal gain of bodily fluid and can occur from acute renal failure,
congestive heart failure, and blood transfusion. Hyperkalemia refers to an abnormally elevated level of
potassium in the blood and can occur from acute renal failure, Addison's disease, burns, and excessive
potassium intake.

Renal failure refers to the loss of the ability to remove waste and toxins from the blood. As a result,
electrolyte imbalances are a common side effect. Changes in the normal concentration of selected
electrolytes can have serious side effects and in some cases can be life-threatening. - answer-: A
physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital treats a patient recently diagnosed with renal
failure. Which type of imbalance would the patient be MOST susceptible to given their current medical
status?

[Link] and hypokalemia

[Link] and hyperkalemia

[Link] and hyperkalemia

[Link] and hypokalemia

[Link] intention

Healing by secondary intention is most commonly associated with wounds which have significant tissue
loss, necrosis or borders which cannot be reapproximated (e.g., full-thickness wound, pressure ulcer).
These wounds are left open and typically require specialized dressings and ongoing wound care to
facilitate healing. - answer-: A physical therapist is asked to recommend a specialized dressing for a
long-term care resident who has developed a stage III sacral pressure ulcer. The wound is found to have
clean, viable borders with minimal drainage. Which form of healing would this wound typically require?

[Link] intention

[Link] primary intention

[Link] intention

[Link] intention
[Link] forces to less affected areas of the musculature during activity

A forearm strap is typically recommended to assist in distributing forces over more of the muscle fibers.
This facilitates healing by transferring forces to less affected areas allowing the damaged areas to rest
and heal.

A forearm strap may also be referred to as a counterforce brace. It is typically applied to the forearm
just distal to the origin of the common extensor tendon at the lateral epicondyle. Depending on the
severity of symptoms, wearing recommendations may vary from use during all waking hours to only
during specific activities. - answer-: A physical therapist recommends that a patient diagnosed with
lateral epicondylitis use a forearm strap while performing activities that exacerbate symptoms. What is
the PRIMARY purpose of this type of supportive device?

[Link] recruitment of damaged muscle fibers during activity

[Link] pressure to reduce the perception of pain during activity

[Link] the amount of muscle force generated during activity

[Link] forces to less affected areas of the musculature during activity

[Link] the parameters of the stimulation to make it more comfortable

A physical therapist assistant can modify the parameters of an existing intervention within the
established plan of care. Modifying electrical stimulation parameters to improve patient comfort does
not change the patient's plan of care. The physical therapist assistant can make such adjustments
without consulting the supervising physical therapist. - answer-: A physical therapist assistant uses
neuromuscular electrical stimulation to treat a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The
physical therapist assistant utilizes the exact parameters used by the supervising physical therapist on
the patient's previous visit. However, after increasing the intensity of the current the patient complains
of sharp pain under one of the electrodes. What is the MOST appropriate physical therapist assistant
action?

[Link] the parameters of the stimulation to make it more comfortable

[Link] electrical stimulation as an intervention

[Link] with the supervising physical therapist

[Link] the referring physician

[Link] digitorum superficialis

Innervation to the flexor digitorum superficialis would be present with a C7 spinal cord injury. The
patient in the scenario would not have use of this muscle. - answer-: A physical therapist completes a
series of manual muscle tests on a patient diagnosed with C6 quadriplegia. Based on the patient's level
of injury, which muscle would NOT typically be innervated?

[Link] major

[Link] digitorum superficialis

[Link] anterior

[Link] carpi radialis

[Link] placed on the balls of the feet in standing

The positive support reflex is characterized by rigid extension of the lower extremities. The reflex begins
at birth and is integrated at two months of age. - answer-: A physical therapist completes a
developmental assessment on a two-month-old infant. As part of the assessment the therapist plans to
assess the positive support reflex. What is the MOST appropriate stimulus for the reflex?

[Link] placed on the balls of the feet in standing

[Link] placed on the heels of the feet in standing

[Link] placed on the balls of the feet in supine

[Link] placed on the heels of the feet in supine

[Link] the treatment session

While exercise can be beneficial to increase general endurance and overall conditioning in this
population, it is more important that the therapist not work the patient to the point of overexertion. If
the patient is reporting extreme fatigue, the treatment session should be discontinued.

Fatigue is one of the most common symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Several studies have reported that
75-95% of patients with multiple sclerosis report experiencing fatigue, with 50-60% reporting it as their
worst symptom. - answer-: A physical therapist employed by a home health agency treats a 42-year-old
female diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. During the session the patient suddenly reports feeling
extremely tired and asks the therapist if she can avoid completing the remaining exercises. The therapist
promptly takes the patient's vital signs and concludes they are within normal limits. What is the MOST
appropriate therapist action?
[Link] the treatment session

[Link] the intensity of the remaining exercises

[Link] a formal reassessment of the patient

[Link] the referring physician to discuss the patient's condition

4.D2 flexion

The D2 flexion pattern is characterized by shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation, forearm
supination, and wrist and finger extension. - answer-: A physical therapist provides a patient with a
handout that includes several upper extremity strengthening exercises to be performed as part of a
home exercise program. Which upper extremity proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation exercise is
MOST consistent with the presented illustration?

1.D1 extension

2.D1 flexion

3.D2 extension

4.D2 flexion

4.A resting hand splint and a shoulder sling for the patient's left upper extremity

The patient's left extremity should be immobilized since they have right-sided weakness. A hand splint
and shoulder sling would be more effective at completely immobilizing the extremity than would a hand
splint alone. - answer-: A physical therapist attempts to improve a patient's upper limb function using
constraint-induced movement. The patient sustained a cerebrovascular accident with left hemisphere
involvement approximately one year ago. When using this type of treatment strategy, what would the
therapist MOST likely utilize?

1.A resting hand splint for the patient's left hand

2.A resting hand splint and a shoulder sling for the patient's right upper extremity

3.A resting hand splint for the patient's right hand

4.A resting hand splint and a shoulder sling for the patient's left upper extremity

[Link]
Pressure ulcers are not considered to be dysvascular ulcers. Although pressure ulcers are caused by a
lack of blood flow, the main impairment is caused by pressure and not from inadequacy of the vascular
structures. Pressure ulcers are more commonly assessed using the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory
Panel's pressure ulcer staging system. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital
contemplates using Wagner's Ulcer Grade Classification Scale as a standardized measure to grade ulcers.
Which type of ulcer would be the LEAST appropriate when using the specified measurement scale?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] reliability

Intertester reliability is the extent to which two or more individuals obtain the same measurement for a
given variable, which is applicable in this case. - answer-: A physical therapist and physical therapist
assistant independently measure a patient's elbow flexion range of motion using a goniometer. After
completing the measurement, both therapists determine the patient has 120 degrees of elbow flexion.
Which measurement concept is BEST illustrated in the presented scenario?

[Link] forms reliability

[Link] consistency

[Link] reliability

[Link] reliability

[Link] the patient to indicate if he feels one or two points

Since both a one-point and a two-point stimulus are being provided, the patient needs to indicate
whether they feel one or two points.

Two-point discrimination is a combined cortical sensation which is assessed by determining a patient's

ability to perceive two points applied to the skin simultaneously. The therapist measures the smallest
distance between two stimuli that can still be perceived as two distinct stimuli. To increase the validity
of the test, it is appropriate to randomly alternate the application of two stimuli with the application of
only a single stimulus. - answer-: A physical therapist completes a sensory assessment on a male patient
rehabilitating from a peripheral nerve injury. As part of the assessment the therapist attempts to
quantify the patient's two-point discrimination at different locations on his right arm. During the testing,
what is the MOST appropriate instruction for the patient?

[Link] the patient to indicate the specific location where he identifies a stimulus

[Link] the patient to indicate when he feels two points

[Link] the patient to indicate when he first identifies a stimulus

[Link] the patient to indicate if he feels one or two points

[Link] with the current plan of care

Two physical therapy visits within a week is not a large enough number of visits to conclude that the
established plan of care is not adequate. In addition, the question does not offer any additional evidence
(i.e., objective measures) to assist the therapist in determining the effectiveness of the current
interventions. - answer-: A physical therapist treats a 16-year-old patient rehabilitating from patellar
tendonitis. After two physical therapy sessions within a week, the patient denies any improvement in
their condition. What is the MOST appropriate physical therapist action?

[Link] with the current plan of care

[Link] the patient and develop a new plan of care

[Link] with the referring physician

[Link] the patient from physical therapy

[Link] the risk of developing a pressure ulcer

The Braden Scale is utilized to assess a patient's current skin integrity and determine the relative risk of
developing a pressure ulcer. A patient's risk is categorized as very high risk (≤ 9), high risk (10 to 12),
moderate risk (13 to 14) or at risk (15 to 18) with specific preventative recommendations detailed for
each category. - answer-: Following a transtibial amputation, a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is
admitted to a skilled nursing unit where the Braden Scale is utilized as a standard part of the admission
process. What is the PRIMARY use of this scale?

[Link] the stage of an existing pressure ulcer

[Link] the risk of developing a pressure ulcer

[Link] the stage of an existing neuropathic ulcer

[Link] the risk of developing a neuropathic ulcer

[Link] convexity with left posterior rib hump

A left thoracic c-curve is named based on the left sided convexity of the curve. The associated posterior
rib hump would appear on the same side as the convexity. - answer-: A 13-year-old patient diagnosed
with mild left c-curve thoracic scoliosis is referred to physical therapy. During the initial examination the
patient is asked to bend forward allowing the arms to hang freely. Which of the following observations
would be anticipated?

[Link] convexity with left posterior rib hump

[Link] convexity with left posterior rib hump

[Link] convexity with right posterior rib hump

[Link] convexity with right posterior rib hump

[Link]

The motor fibers of the pudendal nerve supply a number of pelvic floor muscles including the levator
ani, transverse perineal muscles, external anal sphincter, and urethral sphincter. Because of its
anatomical location, it is most likely to sustain damage from stretching during childbirth.

Damage to the pudendal nerve often occurs during a vaginal delivery or a Caesarean section that is
performed after an extensive duration of labor. Recovery typically occurs within two months, however,
with subsequent births, the patient is less likely to regain full nerve function. - answer-: Three weeks
after delivering a 10 pound infant, a 28-year-old female reports that she is experiencing stress urinary
incontinence. A medical note from the patient's gynecologist indicates that neural tension produced
during the lengthy labor resulted in temporary nerve damage. Which nerve would MOST likely be
affected?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] splanchnic

[Link]-traumatic
Post-traumatic amnesia is typically associated with TBI. It is characterized by the patient's inability to
recall the specific details associated with the event that caused a TBI, and those occurring soon after the
injury. - answer-: A 23-year-old male is admitted to an acute care hospital after sustaining a grade 3
concussion and internal injuries during a motor vehicle accident. The patient is initially unable to recall
any details of the accident, however, slowly begins to remember the event in the days following. Which
type of amnesia is MOST consistent with the patient's clinical presentation?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]-traumatic

[Link]

[Link]

The tubing is a non-sterile object that would not require the use of protective clothing. The physical
therapist can reposition the I.V. line through direct hand contact. - answer-: A physical therapist
observes an intravenous line that is tangled around a patient's bed rail. What type of medical asepsis is
indicated prior to coming in contact with the intravenous line?

[Link]

[Link], gown

[Link], gown, mask

[Link]

[Link] the intervention with a new set of larger electrodes

Current density is inversely proportional to the size of the electrodes. Therefore, larger electrodes will
have decreased current density and be more comfortable for the patient. - answer-: A physical therapist
administers a high intensity neuromuscular electrical stimulation treatment to enhance quadriceps
recovery in a patient that is three weeks status post medial meniscectomy. The patient complains of
severe pain directly under the 2" x 2" electrodes that the therapist affixed to the quadriceps. Which of
the following actions would be the MOST appropriate?

[Link] the intervention with a new set of 2 inch x 2 inch electrodes

[Link] the intervention with a new set of larger electrodes

[Link] the intervention with neuromuscular electrical stimulation and use interferential current
[Link] the intervention

[Link] maximus weakness

Gluteus maximus weakness results in a gluteus maximus gait. This gait is characterized by a posterior
lean of the trunk at initial contact. Weakness of the gluteus maximus results in an inability to counteract
the flexion moment at the hip during early stance. The backward lean prevents the trunk from falling
forward when this muscle is weak. - answer-: A physical therapist examines the gait of a male patient
recently referred to a rehabilitation facility. While observing the patient the therapist notes that at heel
strike the patient excessively leans backward. Which impairment is MOST consistent with the described
gait pattern?

[Link] medius weakness

[Link] maximus weakness

[Link] weakness

[Link] of the gastrocnemius

[Link] (total contact) ankle-foot orthoses

Dynamic (total contact) ankle-foot orthoses are designed with a long footplate with built-up areas to
provide stability and reduce abnormal tone. A plantar flexion stop and straps to reduce dorsiflexion
improve motion of the trunk, pelvis, and lower extremities. - answer-: The parents of a child diagnosed
with cerebral palsy express concern about their child's increased tone and request information on
available treatment options to decrease the spasticity and improve gait. Which of the following would
be considered the MOST appropriate non-invasive intervention used to decrease tone and improve
functional mobility?

[Link] toxin (Botox) injections into spastic muscles

[Link] electrical stimulation

[Link] (total contact) ankle-foot orthoses

[Link] use of a reverse posture control walker

[Link]
Conduction is the transfer of heat from one object to another that requires direct contact between the
two objects. Conduction is the method of heat loss used between the patient's hands and the wall when
the patient performs a wall stretch. - answer-: A patient is stretching the calf muscles using a wall
stretch after running three miles on a treadmill. In this scenario, how is heat dissipated between the
patient's hands and the wall?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

2.4.17 gauge monofilament

A 4.17 gauge monofilament would be the most difficult to detect since it bends with the smallest
amount of force. As the value of the monofilament increases, the testing instrument becomes
progressively stiffer and more difficult to bend. - answer-: A physical therapist performs a sensory
assessment on the sole of a patient's foot with a series of monofilaments. Which monofilament would
be the LEAST likely to be detected in a patient with a suspected sensory impairment?

1.5.07 gauge monofilament

2.4.17 gauge monofilament

3.6.10 gauge monofilament

4.10.0 gauge monofilament

[Link]

The peroneal nerve is derived from the sciatic nerve providing sensory and motor innervation to the
lower leg. Injury to the peroneal nerve typically manifests as weakness in the ankle dorsiflexors (e.g.,
foot drop) and sensory deficits radiating from the fibular head to the dorsum of the foot. - answer-: A
physical therapist initiates gait training with a patient who is two days status post total knee
arthroplasty. During the activity, the therapist observes that the patient is experiencing foot drop on her
surgical limb. Damage to which of the following nerves is MOST likely associated with with this finding?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]
[Link]

[Link] 2

Breakdown in an area of the metatarsal heads occurs due to the thinning of fat pads resulting in the
bone and skin absorbing additional shock. The third metatarsal head followed by the first metatarsal
head are most commonly affected. - answer-: A physical therapist inspects the sole of a patient's foot
with a neuropathic ulcer. Which region of the sole would MOST likely be affected?

[Link] 2

[Link] 1

[Link] 3

[Link] 4

[Link] of the wrist extensors and finger extensors

Weakness of the wrist extensors and finger extensors would be anticipated with entrapment of the
posterior interosseous nerve. Muscles innervated by the nerve contributing to the described weakness
would include extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, and extensor digitorum communis.

The posterior interosseous nerve is commonly entrapped in the proximal forearm in the area of the
supinator muscle. - answer-: A patient is referred to physical therapy after being diagnosed with
entrapment of the posterior interosseous nerve. Which finding would be MOST anticipated based on the
patient's diagnosis?

[Link] of the wrist extensors and finger extensors

[Link] of the wrist flexors and finger flexors

[Link] of the wrist flexors and ulnar deviators

[Link] of the finger abductors and thumb adductors

[Link] avulsion of the semitendinosus muscle

An avulsion of the hamstrings muscle is an acute injury that occurs with a rapid contraction or violent
stretch of the muscle, which could occur during sprinting. Passive straight leg raising (i.e., stretching the
hamstrings) and testing of the knee flexors (i.e., active contraction of the hamstrings) would result in
pain. Ecchymosis, swelling, and tenderness are common. - answer-: A 20-year-old track athlete is
referred to physical therapy with complaints of left posterior thigh pain. The patient states that he felt a
sudden onset of pain after competing in a sprinting event. The patient presents with swelling,
ecchymosis, and severe tenderness to palpation over the posterior thigh. Passive supine straight leg
raising and muscle testing of the knee flexors generate severe pain. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

[Link] rupture of the plantaris muscle

[Link]'s cyst

[Link] avulsion of the semitendinosus muscle

[Link] lumbar disk protrusion

1.PaO2 less than 80 mm Hg

Oxygenation of the arterial blood is assessed by determining the extent to which the patient's measured
PaO2 is above or below the normal range of 80 to 100 mm Hg.

PaO2 less than 80 mm Hg indicates hypoxemia. - answer-: A patient's medical record reveals arterial
blood gas values consistent with hypoxemia. A chest radiograph taken yesterday demonstrated
cardiomegaly and bilateral pulmonary edema. Which of the following arterial blood gas values would be
MOST anticipated?

1.PaO2 less than 80 mm Hg

2.PaO2 more than 80 mm Hg

3.PaCO2 less than 40 mm Hg

[Link] less than 7.4

[Link]-equilibrium coordination tests

Non-equilibrium coordination tests consider both static and dynamic components of movement when
the patient is sitting. These tests incorporate both gross and fine motor activities and are typically used
to screen for pathology within the cerebellum. Other examples of non-equilibrium coordination testing
may include drawing a circle in the air or tapping of the foot on the ground. - answer-: During an
examination, a physical therapist asks a patient to perform finger-to-nose testing as well as sliding the
heel back and forth on the opposite shin. What classification of testing is MOST consistent with the
described tests?
[Link] coordination tests

[Link]-equilibrium coordination tests

[Link] tests

[Link] tests

[Link] debridement

Autolytic debridement is a selective form of debridement that can be performed by therapists of any
skill level. Autolytic debridement uses the body's own mechanisms to remove nonviable tissue. With the
application of a moisture-retentive dressing, fluids collect at the wound site, which promotes
rehydration of dead tissue and allows enzymes to break down necrotic tissue. - answer-: A physical
therapist treats a patient whose wound has a significant amount of necrotic tissue adhered to the
wound bed. The therapist has little experience with wound care and is trying to determine the most
effective and safest method of debridement. The therapist is also concerned about the potential to
disrupt nearby skin due to the presence of fragile skin surrounding the wound. Which form of wound
debridement would be the MOST appropriate?

[Link]-to-dry dressing

[Link] debridement

[Link]

[Link] debridement

[Link] orthosis

The Jewett orthosis is a flexion control TLSO which consists of lateral uprights with a sternal plate, a
dorsolumbar plate, and a suprapubic plate. The positioning of the plates restricts trunk flexion and
encourages a posture of hyperextension. This orthosis would be used for a patient with compression
fractures of the spine. - answer-: A physician prescribes a hyperextension orthosis for a 16-year-old male
with a T10 compression fracture. The patient was injured when he fell from a ladder while painting a
house. The patient has no significant past medical history and currently lives with his father and two
brothers. Which of the following orthoses was MOST likely prescribed?

[Link]

[Link] orthosis

[Link] orthosis

[Link] lumbosacral orthosis

[Link]

Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize faces in person or in photos. The person may be identified by
the patient, however, by voice or other mannerisms. - answer-: A patient three weeks status post
cerebrovascular accident is working with a physical therapist in the gym. The patient presents with
cognitive and perceptual deficits. Each day, the patient's husband meets the patient in physical therapy,
however, the patient does not recognize him. The patient only realizes that it is her husband once he
speaks to her. What term BEST describes the patient's current difficulty?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] mobility

The goal of school-based physical therapy is to maximize the student's functional independence in the
school setting. The student has full innervation of the upper extremities and therefore it is realistic for
them to become independent with wheelchair mobility.

This student would have innervation of the neck, upper limb, shoulder girdle, and some trunk
musculature, but no volitional lower limb movement. The student would possess limited trunk control
and decreased respiratory function. A manual wheelchair would serve as the student's primary mode of
mobility. - answer-: A physical therapist employed in a school setting works with a 13-year-old girl with
spina bifida. The patient presents as a complete spinal cord injury at the T6 level. What is the MOST
appropriate activity for the student to work on during physical therapy sessions?

[Link] pivot transfer training

[Link] training with axillary crutches

[Link] training with use of a walker

[Link] mobility

[Link] fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation is an abnormal cardiac rhythm characterized by rapid, unsynchronized
contractions of the ventricles and little or no cardiac output. It is a medical emergency and sudden
cardiac death will follow in minutes unless cardiopulmonary resuscitation is started, followed by an
electrical shock with a defibrillator to restore a normal heart rhythm. - answer-: A patient two days
status post coronary bypass graft surgery is having electrocardiograph monitoring by telemetry in the
hospital's step down unit. While assisting the patient to transfer from a bed to a chair, the therapist
observes a heart rhythm on the electrocardiograph monitor that causes the therapist to activate the
emergency medical response system. Which heart rhythm did the therapist MOST likely observe?

[Link] fibrillation

[Link] rhythm

[Link] arrhythmia

[Link] fibrillation

[Link] shaped or bony areas

Indirect coupling is often employed when the treatment area is irregularly shaped, bony, excessively
small or unable to tolerate direct pressure from the transducer. - answer-: A physical therapist
administers ultrasound to a patient using cushion contact. Which scenario would MOST warrant the use
of this method of ultrasound application?

[Link] or callused skin

[Link] shaped or bony areas

[Link] with relatively high fat content

[Link] of absent or diminished sensation

[Link] area rugs smaller than 5 feet by 7 feet

The use of area rugs is not recommended for improving home safety secondary to the rug's ability to
bunch up and become a tripping hazard. - answer-: A home visit is conducted for a patient status post
total hip arthroplasty. The patient is scheduled to be discharged to a two-story home using a walker.
Which of the following recommendations would be the LEAST appropriate?

[Link] area rugs smaller than 5 feet by 7 feet

[Link] non-skid rubber cups under bed posts

[Link] a tub bench and handheld shower

[Link] frequently used items on the kitchen counter top

[Link] size of the area to be treated

The size of the area to be treated is the most important factor to consider when selecting an
appropriate soundhead size. Larger areas require the therapist to use larger soundheads. Soundheads
vary in size, but most often range from 5-10 cm2. A soundhead should not be used to treat an area
larger than four times the ERA of the soundhead.

Effective radiating area (ERA) refers to the area of the soundhead that transmits ultrasound energy. The
ERA is always slightly smaller than the total size of the transducer's soundhead. - answer-: A physical
therapist prepares to administer ultrasound to a patient rehabilitating from a shoulder injury sustained
in a gymnastics competition. When selecting the effective radiating area of the soundhead, what is the
MOST important factor for the therapist to consider?

[Link] beam nonuniformity ratio

[Link] size of the area to be treated

[Link] desired depth of penetration

[Link] condition of the patient's skin

[Link] muscular dystrophy

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive neuromuscular degenerative disorder that manifests

symptoms once fat and connective tissue begin to replace muscle that has been destroyed by the
disease process. The mutation of the dystrophin gene causes the symptoms associated with the
condition. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a lower motor neuron disease. - answer-: A physical
therapist concludes that a patient exhibits exaggerated reflex responses during reflex testing. Which
pathology would be LEAST likely to be associated with the identified finding?

[Link] accident

[Link] muscular dystrophy

[Link] palsy

[Link] sclerosis

[Link]
The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) is a sensory-motor nerve. Neuralgia symptoms resulting from
nerve irritation include episodic pain complaints primarily in the face which may also be accompanied by
a spasm or tic. Activities such as chewing, shaving, oral care, and make-up application are common
symptom triggers.

The described symptoms are consistent with trigeminal neuralgia. Oral surgery is a common etiology for
this condition which may involve any or all of the nerve's three major branches. Episodic symptoms are
typically sensory and may or may not include a motor component. Touch or sound may trigger
symptoms which may be chronic or acute. Trigeminal neuralgia is most commonly diagnosed in women
and patients over 50 years old. - answer-: A 55-year-old woman who has recently undergone multiple
oral surgery procedures is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of temporomandibular joint
dysfunction. During the examination, the patient states that her current pain is mild compared to the
stabbing facial pains and spasms she previously experienced with daily activities such as oral care and
make-up application. Which nerve is MOST likely affected based on the clinical presentation?

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link] external rotation

Hip external rotation would typically be decreased in patients with excessive anteversion. Nineteen
degrees of anteversion exceeds the normal range in adults of 8-15 degrees. - answer-: A physical
therapist determines that a patient exhibits approximately 19 degrees of anteversion at the hip after
administering Craig's test. Which motion of the hip may tend to be MOST limited based on the results of
the testing?

[Link] flexion

[Link] extension

[Link] internal rotation

[Link] external rotation

[Link] volume
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration. RV is
approximately 25% of total lung volume. - answer-: A physical therapist reviews the results of a
spirogram. Which lung volume or capacity would BEST approximate 25% of the total lung volume?

[Link] reserve volume

[Link] reserve volume

[Link] residual capacity

[Link] volume

[Link] fibrosis

Pulmonary fibrosis is a restrictive disorder and therefore TLC would be decreased. - answer-: A physical
therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews a patient's pulmonary function test values. The
therapist notes that the patient has a significantly decreased total lung capacity. Which diagnosis is
consistent with this value?

[Link]

[Link] fibrosis

[Link] bronchitis

[Link]

[Link] the device in her mouth, inhale through the nose and exhale through the device

Exhaling through the Flutter Valve causes the ball bearing in the pipe to be repeatedly raised and
dropped creating an oscillation or vibration that is transmitted to the airway to aid in mucus clearance. -
answer-: A physical therapist is teaching a female patient with cystic fibrosis how to use a Flutter device
to promote airway clearance. What should the therapist instruct the patient to do?

[Link] the device in her mouth, inhale through the nose and exhale through the device

[Link] the device in her mouth and inhale through the device

[Link] the orifice of the device to increase the resistance to inhalation

[Link] 10 to 20 cm H2O pressure during exhalation

[Link] colostomy