Set A

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26

(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
ENGLISH
Time: 2½ hrs
STD: X Maximum Score: 80

Instructions:
1. The cool-off time of the first 15 minutes is to be used for reading the question paper.
2. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
3. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-5: Read the excerpt from Trills and Thrills: Birdwatching in India and
answer the questions that follow. (5×1=5)
We reached Parambikulam just as it was getting dark. In the verandah of the forest
bungalow, I found a large group of Kadar adivasis, and in their midst, a bare-footed
‘topless’ European male in crumpled khaki shorts.
We soon introduced ourselves. He was an Austrian anthropologist, Baron Omar Rolf.
He claimed ornithology to be his second love and expressed great keenness on
accompanying me the next morning. Led by a forest guard, we were stalking along a
narrow animal trail through dense tall grassland above five feet high – the right kind of
habitat for the Broad-tailed Grass Warbler.
Upon turning a bend in the path, the forest guard suddenly ducked, excitedly pointing
in front. I just glimpsed the head of a tusker striding down the same path from the
opposite direction, and turned to flee as fast as I could, motioning to Omar, who was
ten yards behind me, to do likewise.
1. Who did Dr. Salim Ali meet in the forest bungalow?
2. What did the narrator do when he saw the tusker?
3. What does the narrator’s and Omar’s reaction to the tusker suggest about the wild?
A. The beauty of untouched wild
B. The unpredictability and danger of the wild
C. The need for exploration in the wild
D. The bond between humans and animals in the wild
4. What does the description “a bare-footed ‘topless’ European male in crumpled
khaki shorts” reveal about Baron Omar Rolf?
5. What does the word ‘anthropologist’ mean in this passage?
A. A person who studies plants and trees
B. A person who studies human societies and cultures
C. A person who protects wildlife
D. A photographer who travels to different countries

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Questions 6-9: Read the lines from the dramatic speech Friends, Romans,
Countrymen... and answer the questions that follow. (4×1=4)
He was my friend, faithful and just to me:
But Brutus says he was ambitious;
And Brutus is an honourable man.
He hath brought many captives home to Rome,
Whose ransoms did the general coffers fill:
Did this in Caesar seem ambitious?
When that the poor have cried, Caesar hath wept:
Ambition should be made of sterner stuff:
Yet Brutus says he was ambitious;
And Brutus is an honourable man.

6. What claim does Brutus make about Caesar in the extract?

7. Which of the following best describes Mark Antony’s tone in the line “And Brutus
is an honourable man”?
A. Genuine praise
B. Bitter sarcasm
C. Indifference
D. Fearful obedience
8. Which of the following arguments are used by Antony to question the claim that
Caesar was ambitious?
A. Caesar brought captives home to Rome.
B. Caesar rejected the crown offered by the Senate.
C. Caesar wept when the poor cried.
D. Caesar filled the public treasury with ransom money.
Choose the correct option from the following:
i) A, B, C, and D
ii) A, C, and D
iii) A and D only
iv) B, C, and D
9. Identify the literary device used in the repeated line “And Brutus is an honourable
man.”
10. [A] Read the lines given below from the poem The Mirror and prepare an
appreciation focusing on its theme and poetic techniques. (1×5=5)
Now I am a lake. A woman bends over me,
Searching my reaches for what she really is.
Then she turns to those liars, the candles or the moon.
I see her back, and reflect it faithfully.

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 She rewards me with tears and an agitation of hands.
I am important to her. She comes and goes.
Each morning it is her face that replaces the darkness.
In me she has drowned a young girl, and in me an old woman
Rises toward her day after day, like a terrible fish.
OR
10. [B] Given below are the lines from the songs Another Day in Paradise by Phil
Collins and Heal the World by Michael Jackson. Read the lines and write a
paragraph comparing the themes of both the songs.

Another day in Paradise Heal the World

You can tell from the lines on her face Heal the world
You can see that she's been there Make it a better place
Probably been moved on from every place For you and for me
'Cos she didn't fit in there And the entire human race
Oh think twice, cause it's another day for There are people dying
You and me in paradise If you care enough for the living
Make a better place
For you and for me

Questions 11-14: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that
follow. (4×1=4)
Robotics is the branch of science and technology that deals with the design,
construction, and operation of robots. A robot is a machine that can perform tasks
automatically, often with the help of computer programming. Robots are designed to
make human life easier, safer, and more efficient.
The field of robotics combines knowledge from mechanics, electronics, computer
science, and artificial intelligence. Some robots are controlled by humans and they act
according to the instructions given, while others are autonomous, meaning they can
make decisions on their own using sensors and software. Robots are utilised in various
aspects of our daily lives. In factories, industrial robots assemble cars and electronic
devices with great precision. In medicine, robotic arms assist doctors in performing
delicate surgeries. Robots are also used in space exploration, underwater research, and
disaster management.
In recent years, humanoid robots, machines that resemble and behave like humans, have
gained popularity. Educational robots are used to teach programming and problem-
solving skills to students. Robotics continues to grow rapidly, shaping the future of work
and learning. As technology advances, robots will become even more intelligent and
helpful.

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11. What are the main fields combined in robotics?
12. How do humanoid robots differ from human-controlled robots?
13. Which of the following statements best describes a robot?
a) A non-living creature that imitates humans
b) A machine that can perform tasks automatically
c) A computer program that plays games
d) A tool used only in factories
14. Which of the following statements about robots are NOT TRUE?
A. All robots are controlled entirely by humans
B. Robots are used in industries, medicine, and space exploration
C. Humanoid robots are designed to look and act like humans
D. Educational robots help students learn programming skills
Choose the correct option from the following:
i. Only A
ii. Both A and D
iii. Both A and C
iv. A, C and D
Questions 15-18: Answer either A or B.
15. [A] The story The Old Man with Enormous Wings portrays how people often
respond to the miraculous with curiosity, greed, and cruelty instead of
compassion or understanding. Prepare a write-up on the topic ‘The Old Man’s
Wings: Burden or Blessing?’, using evidence from the story to discuss human
reactions such as fear, exploitation, mockery, and the mystery surrounding the
angel’s presence. (1×7=7)
(Hints:- confusion and fear – villagers’ curiosity and greed – Pelayo and
Elisenda’s exploitation – mockery and imprisonment – mystery of the old man
– reflection on human nature – suspicion and selfishness – lack of compassion
– human reaction to the miraculous – the angel’s eventual freedom)
OR
15. [B] In the story A Piece of String by Guy de Maupassant, the writer presents how
suspicion and public opinion can distort truth and destroy an individual’s
peace. Based on your reading of the story, prepare a short review focusing on
its themes, characterisation, and moral lesson.
(Hints:- Hauchecorne – honest but humiliated – Malandain – suspicious and
vengeful – villagers – quick to judge – false accusation and injustice – cruelty
of public opinion – misunderstanding and ruin – irony of village life)

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16. [A] Prepare a character sketch of the grieving mother (the lady) in Luigi
Pirandello’s short story War. Describe her appearance, emotions, and
behaviour throughout the journey. Explain how her final question to the
traveller reveals the depth of her sorrow and the true theme of the story.
(1×6=6)
OR
16. [B] Władysław Szpilman, the Holocaust survivor and renowned pianist writes a
heartfelt letter to a close friend, describing how music sustained his spirit and
resilience during the darkest moments of World War II. Prepare the likely
letter.
17. [A] Srikanth faced severe societal and institutional barriers that prevented him
from pursuing science despite his outstanding performance in the board
examinations. The issue was widely covered by major newspapers. Prepare a
news report highlighting the legal hurdles and challenges he overcame before
finally securing admission to study science. (1×6=6)
OR
17. [B] Heavy rains caused widespread devastation in Uttarakhand, leading to
significant flooding and damage to homes and infrastructure. Prepare a news
report detailing the impact of the floods, the affected areas, and the ongoing
rescue and relief efforts.
(Hints:- Uttarakhand - heavy monsoon rains –cloudbursts and flash floods –
widespread destruction – homes and cars swept away – severe property
damage – rivers overflowed – hundreds stranded – dozens killed– roads and
bridges damaged – IMD issues red alert – NDRF, SDRF, and fire brigade
deployed – landslides caused fatalities – government announces relief
packages – rescue continues amid challenges)
18. [A] Your school's film club is producing a short film highlighting the dangers and
impacts of rising drug and substance abuse among youth. Prepare two catchy,
rhythmic sentences that could serve as promotional tag lines for the film.
(1×4=4)
OR
18. [B] Write a paragraph on the theme of prejudice and discrimination in Préférence
Nationale. Explain how the author uses personal encounters to highlight
issues of racism, inequality, and human dignity.
Questions 19-21: Answer all the questions.
19. Using the clues given below, write a biographical sketch of Gabriel García
Márquez.
Early Life:
• Born on March 6, 1927, in Aracataca, Colombia
• Studied law at the National University of Colombia but chose journalism

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Major Events:
• Worked as a journalist and short story writer
• Published One Hundred Years of Solitude in 1967 — brought worldwide fame
• Active in political and social issues of Latin America
Accomplishments:
• Pioneer of magical realism
• Wrote celebrated novels: Love in the Time of Cholera, Chronicle of a Death
Foretold
• Won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1982
Interesting Facts:
• Known affectionately as “Gabo”
• His writings were inspired by his grandmother’s storytelling
• Died on 17 April, 2014, in Mexico City
20. With the support of the Young Innovators Programme, you have developed an
innovative device named ‘EcoClean Extractor’ to remove plastic waste from the
environment. You are planning a grand launch of the product and have invited
Srikanth Bolla as a special guest. Prepare an event invitation requesting nearby
educational institutions to attend the ceremony. Include details such as the date,
time, venue, and a brief note about the innovation. (1×4=4)
21. Read the passage given below and frame four appropriate wh-questions based on
it. (1×4=4)
And he felt it his duty to explain to his travelling companions that the poor woman
was to be pitied. The war was taking away from her their only son, a boy of twenty.
Both of them had devoted their entire life to him. They had even broken up their
home at Sulmona to follow him to Rome, where he had to go as a student. They
allowed him to volunteer for war with an assurance that for at least six months he
would not be sent to the war front. And now, all of a sudden, they received a wire
from him saying that he was due to leave in three days’ time. They were now going
to see him off.
Questions 22-26: Find below the blurbs of three world best sellers, read them
carefully and answer the questions that follow. (5×1=5)
1. The Alchemist
Some books are meant to be read, loved, and passed on. The Alchemist by Paulo
Coelho is one of those books. It tells the story of a shepherd boy from the Spanish
region of Andalusia who journeys to the exotic markets of North Africa and then
into the Egyptian desert, where a fateful encounter with the alchemist awaits him.

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 2. A Brief History of Time
Was there a beginning of time? Could time run backwards? Is the universe
infinite or does it have boundaries? These are just some of the questions explored
in an internationally acclaimed masterpiece by Stephen Hawking.

3. The God of Small Things

“Some lives are shaped by the smallest things.”
Arundhati Roy’s The God of Small Things tells the unforgettable story of
fraternal twins, Rahel and Estha, growing up in the town of Ayemenem in Kerala.
Their lives are forever altered by family secrets, forbidden love, and the strict
social rules of caste and tradition.

22. Which literary piece tells the story of a shepherd boy?

23. Who wrote the book that explores questions about time, the universe, and its
boundaries?
a) Arundhati Roy
b) Paulo Coelho
c) Stephen Hawking
d) Albert Einstein
24. Why are Rahel and Estha’s lives forever changed in The God of Small Things?
25. Where does the protagonist in The Alchemist travel to?
26. Which author’s work emphasizes that “some lives are shaped by the smallest
things”?
a) Stephen Hawking
b) Paulo Coelho
c) Albert Einstein
d) Arundhati Roy

27. Edit the passage. Errors are underlined. (6×½=3)

Parentel (a) love is not like bread that can be break (b) in pieces and split amongst
the children in equal shares. A father give (c) all his love to each one of their (d)
children without discrimination, weather (e) it be one or ten. If I am suffering now
for my two sons, I am not suffering half for each of they (f) but double...
28. Complete the paragraph using appropriate forms of the phrasal verbs given in
bracket. (5×1=5)
Hauchecome .............(a). ................ to the tavern one day, determined to clear his
name. He was ..............(b) .................... when a group of villagers still doubted him.
They ............(c)............... mocking and laughing at his attempts to prove his
innocence. He could not ..............(d) ............... their cruel remarks and humiliation.
But he refused to ............(e). ............ proving his honesty, no matter how hopeless
it seemed.
(go on, give up, taken aback, put up with, set out)

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29. Complete the following passage choosing the right words from the bracket.
(6×½=3)
Led ........(a)......... a forest guard, we were stalking .......(b). ........ a narrow animal
trail ..........(c)............ dense tall grassland ..........(d)............. five feet high – the right
kind .......(e)........habitat ........(f) .......... the Broad-tailed Grass Warbler.
(of, along, above, by, for, through, on)
30. Complete the conversation between Bablu and his wife Gowri. (5×1=5)
Bablu : Gowri, guess what! I have got something special for you today.
Gowri : Really? .......................................(a). ............................................... ?
Bablu : It’s a pack of sanitary napkins.
Gowri : Sanitary napkins? But, I have heard they are very expensive,
.......... (b). .......... ?
Bablu : Yes, forty rupees a pack. You had better ..................(c).....................
Gowri : I know they are healthier than rags. But, if Shalu and I start buying
these every month, ................... (d).................................
Bablu : That’s true, we may not have money to buy household goods.
Would you mind ..................................(e). .................................... ?
Gowri : No. That impossible! I cannot support you in making sanitary napkins
at home.

31. Report the following dialogue. (2×1=2)

Szpilman : Please don’t shoot! I’m Polish!
Polish lieutenant : What are you doing in the German coat?
a. ...............................................................................................................
b. ..............................................................................................................
32. Complete the passage choosing appropriate homonyms from the brackets.
(4×½=2)
(watch, ring, fair)

Ravi woke up early one morning to get ready for the village ............ (a) ............. He
looked at his ............ (b) .............. to check the time. It was seven o’clock. He had
to ............(c). ............. out for traffic and cycle as fast as he could to purchase the
tickets. He was happy to know that the cost of the tickets was ...........(d). ............ ,
so he could enjoy all the rides and games.

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 Set B
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26
(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
ENGLISH
Time: 2½ hrs
STD: X Maximum Score: 80
Instructions:
1. The cool-off time of the first 15 minutes is to be used for reading the question paper.
2. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
3. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-5: Read the excerpt from In the Attic and answer the questions that
follow. (5×1=5)
Not until the early hours of the next day was the silence broken by a loud and resonant
noise, the last sound I had expected. Radio loudspeakers set up somewhere nearby were
broadcasting announcements in Polish of the defeat of Germany and the liberation of
Warsaw.
The Germans had withdrawn without a fight. As soon as it began to get light, I prepared
feverishly for my first venture out. My officer had left me a German military overcoat
to keep me from freezing. I had already put it on when I suddenly heard the rhythmic
footsteps of guards out in the road again. Had the Soviet and Polish troops withdrawn,
then?
I sank on my mattress, utterly dejected, and lay there until something new came to my
ears: the voices of women and children. At all costs, I had to get information.
1. What was the announcement made by radio loud speakers set up nearby?

2. Why did the German officer give his military overcoat to the narrator?
A) The officer feared for his own safety.
B) The officer was forced to part with his overcoat.
C) The officer had great concern for the narrator's survival.
D) The officer wanted to put the narrator’s life in danger.
3. Why did the narrator sink on his mattress utterly dejected?
A) Because of the rhythmic footsteps of guards
B) Because of the German announcements over the radio
C) Because of the sounds of women and children
D) Because he had no information of the current situation at the war front
4. What did the narrator desperately need?
5. Identify the Noun Phrase in the subject position and the Verb Phrase from the
sentence given below.
The military overcoat of the German officer symbolises both protection and
uncertainty.

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Questions 6-9: Read the lines from Another Day in Paradise and answer the
questions that follow. (4×1=4)
She calls out to the man on the street
"Sir, can you help me?
It's cold and I've nowhere to sleep,
Is there somewhere you can tell me?"
He walks on, doesn't look back
He pretends he can't hear her
Starts to whistle as he crosses the street
Seems embarrassed to be there.
Oh, think twice, cause it's another day for
You and me in paradise.
Oh, think twice, cause it's another day for you,
You and me in paradise,
Think about it.
6. Why does the man start to whistle as he crosses the street?
7. What effect does the repetition of the line "Oh, think twice, 'cause it's another day
for you and me in paradise" create?
A) It creates the impression that the world is a heaven for everyone.
B) It emphasizes the comfort of the speaker.
C) It contrasts the suffering of others with our own privilege.
D) It uses humour to lighten the tone.
8. What message does the poet convey through the lines given above?
A) People should avoid helping strangers on the street.
B) Life in paradise is perfect and should be celebrated.
C) Society often turns a blind eye to the suffering of others and needs to be
more compassionate.
D) Everyone should donate to charity.
9. Which poetic device do you observe in the line: "He pretends he can't hear her"?
10. [A] Read these lines from the poem The Wild Swans and write an appreciation
focusing on the theme and the poetic techniques. (1×5=5)
The trees are in their autumn beauty,
The woodland paths are dry,
Under the October twilight the water
Mirrors a still sky;
Upon the brimming water among the stones
Are nine-and-fifty swans.
The nineteenth autumn has come upon me
Since I first made my count;
I saw, before I had well finished,
All suddenly mount
And scatter wheeling in great broken rings
Upon their clamorous wings

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 OR
10. [B] Here are two excerpts from the play Julius Caesar. They are the words of Brutus
and Mark Antony delivered on the occasion of Caesar’s funeral. Read them
carefully.

Mark Antony (Original) Brutus (Simplified)

"You all did see that on the Lupercal "I cared for Caesar deeply.........
I thrice presented him a kingly crown, But I loved Rome even more.
Which he did thrice refuse: was this Would you rather have Caesar alive, and all
ambition? of us be slaves
Yet Brutus says he was ambitious; or have Caesar dead so we can all be free?
And, sure, he is an honourable man." I cried for him because I loved him.
I was happy for his successes and admired his
bravery.
But because he was ambitious, I killed him."

Both Brutus and Mark Antony speak about Caesar’s ambition. Analyse their speeches
and then write a Paragraph on the points each speaker tries to highlight. Point out the
argument you find to be more convincing and explain your reasons.
Questions 11-14: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that
follow. (4×1=4)
Northeastern India is a rich and varied region where misty Himalayan peaks, ancient
monasteries, dense tropical forests and unique living traditions meet to create
unforgettable travel experiences. In Assam, Kaziranga National Park protects one of the
world’s largest populations of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros and offers riverine
grasslands and birdlife that earned it UNESCO World Heritage status. Meghalaya’s
hills around Shillong and Cherrapunji are famed for dramatic waterfalls, deep limestone
caves and the remarkable living root bridges—hand-grown by local communities from
rubber tree roots—that blend human skill with the natural world. In Arunachal Pradesh
the historic Tawang Monastery sits high in the mountains and serves as an important
center of Tibetan Buddhism, with prayer halls, murals and panoramic valley views.
Sikkim adds alpine lakes, Buddhist shrines and high mountain passes such as Nathu La,
while the wider North-East region contains other protected reserves, cultural festivals
and tribal societies whose languages, crafts and cuisine make the area both ecologically
significant and culturally vibrant.
11. What is Kaziranga National Park known for?
12. In what way do the living root bridges of Meghalaya reflect human interaction
with nature?
13. Which of the following best explains why the Northeastern region of India is
described as both ecologically significant and culturally vibrant in the passage?

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 A) It is rich in minerals and industries.
B) It combines diverse natural landscapes with traditional lifestyles and
festivals.
C) It has modern cities and advanced technology.
D) It receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.
14. Read the following statements about North Eastern India.
A. Kaziranga National Park in Assam is home to the Indian one-horned
rhinoceros.
B. Meghalaya is famous for its living root bridges and limestone caves.
C. Tawang Monastery in Sikkim is a major center of Tibetan Buddhism.
D. The region is known for its blend of ecological beauty and cultural
diversity.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Only A and B are correct
B) Only A, B, and D are correct
C) Only A and C are correct
D) All four statements (A, B, C, and D) are correct
Questions 15-18: Answer either A or B.
15. [A] The lives of Wilm Hosenfeld and Władysław Szpilman are good examples of
the generosity and resilience of the human spirit. After the war, Szpilman
rejoins the Polish Radio. He makes a radio podcast on his experiences at the
time of war. Prepare the possible script of podcast.
(1×7=7)
(Hints: - hides in the attic – German officer finds him – asks to play piano –
gives him food – six-year war ends – the officer bids farewell – gifts Szpilman
his coat – mistaken for a German – free after six years – remembers
Hosenfeld)
OR
15. [B] Prepare a short speech to be delivered on the topic “The Real Cost of War.”
Refer to the story ’War’ and show how war affects not only soldiers but also
the families and communities they leave behind.
(Hints: parents grieve – sons on the battlefield – take pride in sacrifice – silent
pain inside – father realises the pain of loss – war destroys families and
emotions – no glory; only suffering – message of peace and humanity)
16. [A] “In my mission, three elements are the most important ones: awareness,
availability, and affordability,” says Arunachalam Muruganantham. Craft
a paragraph highlighting how Gandhi’s views helped shape
Muruganantham’s focus emphasising his innovative approach to
breaking the taboos and promoting health and gender equity. (1×6=6)
OR

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16. [B] Prepare a short narrative describing the events of A Piece of String from
Hauchecome’s perspective. Focus on how a simple incident turns into a
trauma, suspicion and public humiliation. Conclude the narrative with his
feelings of relief when he is cleared of the charge.
17. [A] The suffering and the hardships the old man faces at Pelayo’s home, and the
public reactions, become the subject of a newspaper report in a leading daily.
Prepare the likely news report. (1×6=6)
OR
17. [B] Your innovative idea for a sustainable waste disposal mechanisms has been
selected for the Young Innovators Programme. Draft an email to Bollant
Industries enquiring about the potential for implementation of this idea,
requesting their support and assistance to advance the project.
18. [A] Prepare two engaging, rhythmic sentences suitable for catchy advertisement
jingles to promote the Eco Clean Extractor, a device to extract and remove
plastic waste from the environment. (1×4=4)
OR
18. [B] Prepare a diary entry in which Salim Ali recounts his experience on the
Himalayan trail when he almost slipped off the cliff as he watched a Yellow-
naped Yuhina.
Questions 19-21: Answer all the questions.
19. Using the clues given below, write a biographical sketch of Maxim Gorky. (1×6=6)
• Early life: Born 1868, Nizhny Novgorod, Russia; parents poor, father died early;
mother died when he was young; raised by grandmother; worked as a baker’s
apprentice,
• Major events: Began writing in early 1890s; adopted the pen name Maxim
Gorky; wrote The Mother, Childhood, My Universities; engaged in revolutionary
activities; lived in exile; returned to Russia after 1917 Revolution.
• Accomplishments: Pioneer of Socialist realism; influential short story writer,
novelist, playwright; voice for the oppressed; works translated widely;
recognised as a major figure in Russian literature.
• Facts: Founder of Russian proletarian literature; believed in the power of art to
change society; memoirs highly regarded; lived in poverty and exile; died 1936,
Gorky Park named in his honour.
20. You are the secretary of your school’s Nature Club. The club is organising a
Bird Exhibition inspired by Salim Ali. Prepare a formal event invitation
inviting students, teachers, and nature enthusiasts to attend the exhibition.
Include details of the date, venue, purpose of the event, and any special
attractions. (1×4=4)

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 21. Read the passage below and frame three appropriate WH-questions and one
yes/no question based on it. (1×4=4)
Internally, I let loose: You ought to be asking me why I even want your stinking job.
Goodbye, sir. You have impoverished our African soil by making us grow sugarcane
and peanuts for your people. You've plundered our resources to enrich your country
at our expense. And, to top it all off, you've used my people as cannon fodder in
your war. A war in which you made them kill in the name of a freedom you refuse
them in their own African soil. Still without work, three days later, I started looking
through the free paper again. A new ad caught my eye: Tutor required for French
lessons. Degree essential. Call after 7 p.m.
Questions 22-26: Carefully analyse the table given below and answer the questions that
follow. (5×1=5)
Location
Name of Dam Main Uses Notable Features
(State/River)
Himachal The highest gravity dam in India,
Bhakra Irrigation, Hydroelectric
Pradesh / Sutlej key to the Green Revolution in
Nangal Dam Power, Flood Control
River North India.
Hirakud Dam Odisha / Irrigation, Power The longest earthen dam in India
Mahanadi River Generation, Flood (about 25 km long with dykes).
Control
Provides water to four states; one
Sardar Gujarat / Irrigation, Drinking
of India’s largest multipurpose
Sarovar Dam Narmada River Water, Hydropower
river projects.
Uttarakhand / Hydroelectric Power, Tallest dam in India and one of
Tehri Dam
Bhagirathi River Irrigation, Water Supply the tallest in the world (260.5 m).
Largest masonry dam in India;
Nagarjuna Telangana / Irrigation, Hydroelectric
crucial for agriculture in
Sagar Dam Krishna River Power
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
22. Why is Nagarjuna Sagar Dam important for Telungana and Andhra Pradesh?
23. What similarities can you find in India’s highest gravity dam and the longest earthen
dam?
24. Which of the following is built across Mahanadi river?
a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
b) Hirakud Dam
c) Tehri Dam
d) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
25. In which state is India’s tallest dam situated?
26. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built across Narmada River
B. Tehri Dam is the tallest dam in the world
C. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a multi purpose river project
D. Hirakud Dam generates hydro electric power

6
Choose the correct option from the following:
i) A only
ii) A, C and D
iii) A and D
iv) B and C
27. Edit the passage. Errors are underlined. (6×½=3)
Dr. Salim Ali, know(a) as the ‘Birdman of India,’ dedicated his live(b) to studying
and conserve(c) the rich birdwealth of the country. His surveys of birds across India
provided valuable insights into there(d) habitat and behaviour. He wrote several
influential books, including The Book of Indian Birds, who(e) remains a classic
reference for orintholigists(f) and nature lovers.
28. Complete the paragraph using appropriate forms of the idioms/phrasal verbs given
in bracket. (4×1=4)
The student was ..............(a). ................. when he realized that the lady had created
an imaginary lover to escape from her extreme loneliness. Earlier, he had
always .............(b)............. upon her because of her shabby appearance. Now, he
struggled to ...........(c)............ the guilt of having ignored her pain, as he finally
understood how deeply she felt her isolation. Determined to ..........(d) ................... to
her, he resolved to treat her with genuine kindness and respect.
(get over, look down, come across, make it up, taken aback)

29. Complete the following passage choosing the right words from those given
in brackets. (6×½=3)
I recall one particularly hair-raising incident along ......(a). ......... Himalayan
trail .......(b)......... Almora to the Lipu Lekh Pass .....(c)....... my way to Lake
Manasarovar and Mount Kailas .......(d). ........ 1945. It was at a particularly narrow
part of the trail .......(e)......... a thousand feet .....(f) ....... vertical scarp on one side.
(with, of, in, the, for, from, on)
30. Complete the conversation between madame and the narrator. (4×1=4)
Narrator : Good evening, Madame.
Madame : Good evening. You are the one who rang me up yesterday to apply
for the tutoring job, .............(a). ..................... ?
Narrator : Yes, ma’am. ................................(b). ......................................... ?
Madam : My daughter needs help with French. But, I’m sorry.
If you were a European, ............................(c)................................
Narrator : Hire only Europeans! Does being European really matter?
Madame : Of course it does! I’d better not.........................(d).........................
Narrator : That’s unfair, Madame. I’m well qualified and have a degree in
French. How will I mess up your child’s education?
Madame : I’m sorry. You'd better leave.

7
31. Report the following dialogue. (2×1=2)

Parul : Why don’t you stop your experiments with blood and napkins?
Bablu : I’m just trying to do something good for the poor women in my
village.
a. ...............................................................................................................
b. ..............................................................................................................
32. Complete the passage choosing appropriate subordinating conjunctions from the
brackets. (4×½=2)
Meera wanted to finish her project before the school reopened. ............(a)...........
she had lots to read and research, she worked late into the night. She didn’t take any
breaks, ..........(b)............. she felt exhausted. Her mother helped her with the
drawings ..........(c)............ she was good at art. ............(d)................ her friends
were playing outside during the day, Meera stayed in her room to complete her
work.
(although, until, while, since, because)

33. Complete the table with appropriate words given in brackets. (4×½=2)

Column A Column B

a. ................................................. i. a doctor who studies skin diseases

b. ................................................. ii. a person who studies ancient human

cultures

c. ................................................. iii. a scientist who studies plants

d. ................................................. iv. a person who gives out and explains

medicines

(dermatologist, pharmacist, anthropologist, cardiologist, botanist)

8
 Set C
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26
(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
ENGLISH
Time: 2½ hrs
STD: X Maximum Score: 80

Instructions:
1. The cool-off time of the first 15 minutes is to be used for reading the question paper.
2. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
3. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-6: Read the excerpt from A Piece of String and answer the questions
that follow. (6×1=6)

Hauchecome had just arrived at Goderville, and he was walking towards the public
square. Then he saw a little piece of string on the ground. He thought that everything
useful ought to be picked up. He took the bit of thin cord from the ground and began to
roll it carefully. Then he noticed Malandain, on the threshold of his door, looking at
him. They were on bad terms with each other. Hauchecome was seized with shame to
be seen thus by his enemy. He concealed his find quickly in his trousers pocket. He
pretended to be looking on the ground for something else. Then, he went towards the
market.
He was soon lost in the noisy crowd. Soon, the square was deserted. At the tavern, the
great hall was full of people eating. An appetising odour of roast meat rose from the
hearth which made everybody's mouth water.

1. Where did Hauchcome find the little piece of string?

2. Why did he pick up the piece of string? Choose the most appropriate option.
a) He thought Malandain was planning to pick it up.
b) He was always fond of strings.
c) He believed that useful things should be picked up.
d) He wanted to give it to his wife.
3. Why did Hauchcome hide the string in his trousers pocket?
4. How did he try to divert Malandain’s attention?
5. What do we understand Hauchcome’s nature from the passage given above? Choose
the most suitable option.
a) curious and careful
b) ashamed and nervous
c) ashamed and cheerful
d) curious and compassionate

6. Identify the word in the passage which denotes a smell or aroma.

1
Questions 7-11: Read these stanzas from The Seedling and answer the questions
that follow. (5×1=5)

As a quiet little seedling

Lay within its darksome bed,
To itself it fell a-talking,
And this is what it said:
“I am not so very robust,
But I’ll do the best I can;”
And the seedling from that moment
Its work of life began.
So it pushed a little leaflet
Up into the light of day,
To examine the surroundings
And show the rest the way.

7. What did the seedling decide to do, despite not being very strong?
8. What does the expression 'I am not so very robust' tell us about the seedling's
character?
9. What does the expression 'show the rest the way' imply? Choose the best option.
a) The seedling has not discovered the way.
b) The seedling was a guide and source of inspiration.
c) The seedling wanted to find the way.
d) The seedling was competing with other plants.

10. What is the poetic device in the line 'To itself it fell a-talking'?
11. Which of these qualities does the seedling possess?
a) courage and callousness
b) nurturing and motivational nature
c) pride and prejudice
d) calm and lethargic spirit

Questions 12-15: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(4×1=4)
The Changing Faces of Generations
Each generation reflects the world in which it grows up. Generation X (roughly those
born between 1965 and 1980) are often described as self-reliant, practical, and
adaptable. They experienced the advent of personal computers and cable television,
which made them comfortable with technology while maintaining traditional work
ethics. Many grew up as ‘latchkey kids,’ returning to empty homes after school, which
made them independent and resourceful. However, Gen X face challenges such as
financial insecurity and balancing care for aging parents and children. Generation Z

2
(those born between 1997 and 2012) are true digital natives who have never known life
without smartphones or the internet. They value authenticity, inclusivity, and mental
health awareness. Gen Z tends to communicate through visuals, emojis, and short-form
videos, reflecting fast-paced thinking and creativity. Their flexible approach to learning
and work makes them open to change, though constant online exposure can lead to
anxiety and shorter attention spans. Generation Alpha (born from around 2010 to 2024)
is growing up in a world defined by artificial intelligence, social media, and interactive
learning. Their education and friendships often happen in digital spaces. These children
are expected to be highly tech-skilled but may struggle with face-to-face socialization
and screen dependency. Studies suggest that values like sustainability, diversity, and
innovation will strongly shape their world-view. Looking ahead, Generation Beta (those
born from 2025) is still a future generation. Experts predict that they will grow up with
even more advanced technology, including AI companions, global classrooms, and new
digital language. While it is too early to predict their character, they are expected to
continue the trend of technological immersion and global connectedness that began with
Gen Z and Alpha.

12. Which of the following best describes Generation X?

A) Tech-averse and traditional
B) Independent and adaptable
C) Highly dependent on parents
D) Born after 2010

13. Read the following statements about Generations X, Z, Alpha, and Beta.
A. Generation X grew up with personal computers and cable television and is
known for independence.
B. Generation Z prefers traditional classroom learning over flexible, digital
approaches.
C. Generation Alpha is expected to have strong skills in technology but may face
challenges in face-to-face socialization.
D. Generation Beta is already well-defined with clear characteristics and
limitations.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Only A and C are correct
B) Only A, B, and C are correct
C) Only A, C, and D are correct
D) All four statements are correct

14. To which generation would a person born in 2022 belong?

15. What do you infer about the learning style of Generation Z?
16. (A) Read the following lines from the song Another Day in Paradise and prepare
an appreciation focusing on the theme, the poetic devices and the

3
 contemporary relevance of the song. (1×5=5)

She calls out to the man on the street

"Sir, can you help me?
It's cold and I've nowhere to sleep,
Is there somewhere you can tell me?"
He walks on, doesn't look back
He pretends he can't hear her
Starts to whistle as he crosses the street
Seems embarrassed to be there.
Oh, think twice, cause it's another day for
You and me in paradise.
Oh, think twice, cause it's another day for you,
You and me in paradise,
Think about it.

OR
16. (B) Read these lines from the poem Mirror and from An Introduction by Kamala
Das and then write a paragraph comparing the themes of both poems.

Mirror
I am silver and exact. I have no preconceptions.
Whatever I see I swallow immediately
Just as it is, unmisted by love or dislike.
I am not cruel, only truthful‚
The eye of a little god, four-cornered.
Most of the time I meditate on the opposite wall.
It is pink, with speckles. I have looked at it so long
I think it is part of my heart. But it flickers.
Faces and darkness separate us over and over.

An Introduction
I am an Indian, very brown, born in Malabar,
I speak three languages, write in
Two, dream in one.
Don't write in English, they said, English is
Not your mother-tongue. Why not leave
Me alone, critics, friends, visiting cousins,
Every one of you? Why not let me speak in
Any language I like? The language I speak,
Becomes mine, its distortions, its queernesses
All mine, mine alone.

4
17. Edit the passage. The errors are given in bold type. (6×½=3)

Władysław Szpilman was a Polish pianist which(a) survived the horrors of World War
II. He hidden(b) in a ruined building in Warsaw, struggling to stay alive on very little
food and water. One day, a German officer discovered him but choose(c) to spare his
life after hearing them(d) play the piano. The officer(e) act of kindness restored
Szpilman’s hope in humanity. Later, Szpilman wrote his memoire(f) The Pianist, which
became a best seller.

18. Complete the paragraph using appropriate forms of the idioms/phrasal verbs
given in brackets. (4×1=4)

The narrator was desperately ...........(a)........... a job when she ...............(b). ................ an
advertisement in a free paper. It was the post of a salesgirl in a bakery and preferred
applicants who spoke the local dialect. Her friend tried to discourage her, but she refused
to ............(c)........... hope. The next morning, she went to the bakery, only to be
humiliated by the owner’s biased remarks. Yet, she decided to ..........(d) .............to better
opportunities.
(look forward, give up, come across, put across, give up, look for)

19. Complete the following passage choosing the right words from those given in
the brackets. (6×½=3)

The news spread ........(a).......... the neighbourhood. Hauchecome was .......(b) .......... a
spirit of triumph. He immediately began to recount his story ......(c) .......... its happy
climax. He talked .....(d)........ his adventure all day long. He told it ......(e). ........... the
highway to people who were passing by, and to persons coming out of church
.......(f). ........ following Sunday.
(with, in, the, on, for, through, of,)

20. Complete the following conversation between the Mayor and Hauchecome
suitably. (4×1=4)

Mayor : Mr. Hauchecome, you were seen picking up a pocketbook from

the market road this morning, ...............(a). .............. ?
Hauchecome : No, Your Honour!
Mayor : ..................................(b). ..................................................?
Hauchecome : I picked up only a small piece of string.
Mayor : Mr. Malandain says he saw you pick up the pocketbook.
Hauchecome : Me? I need to clear my name. Would you mind
…………………............ (c). .............................. ?

5
 Mayor : That’s fine. I’ll ask my officials to search you.
Hauchecome : Now see, nothing is found. I told you I am innocent.
Mayor : I still have my doubts as Malandain is a man of credence. I’d
rather you ......................(d)...........................
Hauchecome : Sir, how can I return something that I haven’t taken. Please trust
me.
Mayor : You may leave for now.

21. Report the following dialogue. (2×1=2)

KING : Is the hermit father there?

THE TWO HERMITS : No, he has left his daughter to welcome the guests,
and has just gone to Somatirtha.
a. ...............................................................................................................
b. ..............................................................................................................

22. Combine the following pairs of sentences choosing either.... or/ neither...nor.
(2×1=2)
a. Rani will present the report tomorrow.
Meera will present the report tomorrow.
b. The students were not present in the classroom.
The teacher was not present in the classroom.

23. Complete the narration with appropriate portmanteau words choosing from
those given in brackets. (4×½=2)

Yesterday we stopped at a small ...........(a). ............ on the outskirts of the city after
a long drive. As we had woken up late, we enjoyed a delicious ............(b)................
of pancakes and fruits before heading out. The city ahead was covered in thick
...........(c)..........., making the sky dull and hazy. To relax, we ordered a cool
............(d)................at a nearby café and chatted about our travel plans.
(brunch, mocktail, spork, motel, smog)

Questions 24-27: Answer either A or B.

24. [A] Write a review of Préférence Nationale, commenting on the theme of the story,
the portrayal of the main character and the depiction of prejudice, indignity, and
inequality in the French society of the time. (1×7=7)

(Hints: Racism – discrimination – préférence nationale – inequality – lack of dignity

for non-nationals- resilient – witty – observant – dignified – proud-society-prejudiced
– exclusionary – indifferent – blind to merit- lack of equality – respect for human dignity
– courage to challenge injustice)

6
 OR

24. [B] Prepare a news article for a local newspaper titled “Pianist Emerges Alive from
Ruins” based on the events of In the Attic. Include details of Szpilman’s
survival, the German officer’s unexpected kindness, and Szpilman’s eventual
freedom.
(Władysław Szpilman, the pianist – in Warsaw, in the attic/ruins - hides alone-
lives on scraps -endures harsh conditions- German officer shows kindness-
gives him food- spares him -eventually discovered and freed as the city is
liberated)

25. [A] Prepare a detailed narrative of the events that happen in Act I, The Hunt of
Shākuntalam focusing on the characters, their poetic style of speech, and the
attitude to the environment. (1×6=6)

OR

25. [B] In the light of your reading of the story The Phoenix Rises, prepare a speech on
the topic “Breaking Barriers through Determination” highlighting how Bablu
Kewat’s courage and persistence brings about social change.

26. [A] The old man A Very Old Man with Enormous Wings comes out as a weak and
vulnerable person, victimised by the society. Prepare a character sketch of the
old man. (1×6=6)
OR
26. [B] The student in the story Beloved Boles decides to write an email to a friend of
his, describing his experience with Teresa. He explains what Teresa had asked
him to do, how he felt about her request, and the lessons he learned. Draft the
likely email.

27. (A) The Debate Club of your school is to discuss the topic “Artificial Intelligence
is a threat to human employment.” Fill in the blanks with suitable ideas for
or against the motion, giving valid arguments to support your views. (1×4=4)

(Each blank carries equal marks.)

Arguments in favour of the topic (AI is a threat to human employment):
1. a
2. b

Arguments against the topic (AI is not a threat to human employment):

1. c
2. d

7
 OR

27. (B) Product: Eco Clean 360 – Smart Plastic Waste Remover
Write the product description highlighting its features, advantages, and
environmental benefits. You may use the hints below.

Hints:
• Type: Portable, solar-powered plastic waste remover
• Function: Collects water and separates plastics from water and soil
• Features: Smart sensors, rechargeable battery, self-cleaning filter
• Material: Lightweight, durable
• Coverage: Up to 2 km radius on a single charge
• Price: ₹5,999/-
• Target users: Environmental organizations, schools, local bodies, and
households.

Question 28-30: Answer all the questions.

28. Write a short profile of D. H. Lawrence, the famous English novelist, poet, and
essayist. You may use the hints below. (1×5=5)

Hints:
Full name : David Herbert Lawrence
Birth : 11 September 1885, Eastwood, Nottinghamshire, England
Parents : Father – Arthur John Lawrence (coal miner); Mother – Lydia
Beardsall (former schoolteacher)
Education : Nottingham High School; Nottingham University College
Major works : Sons and Lovers, The Rainbow, Women in Love
Themes : Human relationships, industrial society, emotional health, nature
Later life : Travelled widely (Italy, Australia, Mexico…) for health and
inspiration
Death : 2 March 1930, in Vence, France
Legacy : A bold modernist writer who explored human emotions and the
need for social change.

29. The Science Club of your school has decided to arrange a function to honour the
"Padman" of India Arunachalam Muruganandam, for his contributions to the
society. Prepare the likely notice. (1×3=3)

8
30. Draft a short conversation between Salim Ali and Baron Omar Rolf after their
encounter with the tusker. (1×4=4)

Questions 31-35: Read the following instructions displayed in four public places
and answer the questions that follow. (5×1=5)

1. In a Library 2. In a Zoo
Silence is Golden Do Not Feed the Animals
Set phones in silent mode. Stay on Designated Paths
Handle Books and Journals with Care Keep Your Voice Down
No Food or Drinks inside No Flash Photography
Your belongings is Your responsibility Plastic Free Zone
3. In a Hospital
Silence is Healing
Sanitize Your Hands
Do not visit patients if Unwell
Respect Patient Privacy
Visitor Hours (9 am – 12noon)

31. Which instruction in the library tells us to take care of our valuables?
32. In which institution do we have to follow strict visiting hours?
33. Why is the zoo a plastic-free zone?
34. Why should we stay on designated paths in a zoo? Choose the best option.
a) To avoid getting into danger
b) To see more animals
c) To take photos
d) To buy food
35. Read the following statements about hospital etiquette.
1. Visitors should avoid visiting patients in the hospital if they are unwell.
2. Speaking loudly inside the hospital helps patients stay alert and active.
3. Maintaining cleanliness and hygiene in the hospital premises reduces the risk of
contamination.
4. You may freely visit the hospital at any time, even beyond the visiting hours.
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) All the above

9
 Set- A
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - III 2025 – 26
Model Question Paper
Mathematics
Class – 10 Time : 2½ Hours
Score : 80

Instructions

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about the answer.
• There are 28 questions, split into five parts A, B, C, D, E.
• Answer all question: but in questions of the type A or B, you need to answer only one
of those.
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number.
• Trigonometric tables are given at the end and can be used wherever necessary.
• Answer must be explained, whenever necessary

Section – A

This section has 8 questions of 1 mark each. Select the correct answer from those given

1. Which of the numbers below is a term of the arithmetic sequence 2, 5, 8, …?

A. 22
B. 32
C. 42
D. 52
2. The scores of 8 students in an exam are given below:
30, 36, 41, 44, 28, 33, 44, 40
What is the median score?
A. 36
B. 44
C. 40
D. 38

3. Which of the points below is on the line through (2, 5), parallel to the x -axis?

A. (0, 5)
B. (2, 0)
C. (5, 0)
D. (5, 2)

1
4. The surface area of a sphere is 40 square centimetres. If it is cut into two equal hemispheres,
what would be the surface area of each in square centimetres?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
5. The algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is xn = 4n + 1. In this sequence, how much
more than the 10th term is the 15th term?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 41
D. 20
6. What are the x-coordinates of the points where the graph of the polynomial p(x) = x2 - 6x +8
cuts the x-axis?
A. 2, 4
B. 4, 6
C. -2, 8
D. -2, -4
7. The equation of a line is 2x–y = 0. Read the following statements given below

i) (1,2) is a point on this line

ii) (2,1) is a point on this line

iii) The point where this line cuts the x-axis is (1, 0)

iv) The y – coordinate of each point on this line is twice the x–coordinate

Now choose the correct answer from those given below

A. (i) and (iii) are true
B. (i) and (iv) are true
C. (ii) and (iii) are true

D. (ii) and (iv) are true

2
8. Read the two statements below
Statement 1 : In a triangle with angles 50o, 60o, 70o, the ratio of
the sides is sin 50o : sin 60o : sin 70o
Statement 2 : The length of each side of a triangle is the product of
the sine of the opposite angle and the diameter of the circumcircle.
Now choose the correct answer from those given below

A. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false

B. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
C. Both statements are true and statement 2 is the reason of statement 1
D. Both statements are true and statement 2 is not the reason of statement 1

Section – B

9. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. If a point is marked in this,

what is the probability that it falls inside the shaded part?
(2)

10. The fifth term of an arithmetic sequence is 70 and the ninth term is 50
(i) In this sequence by how much does each term decrease, when the position increases
by one? (1)
(ii) At what position does the term 0 occur in this sequence? (2)
11. A. Three-digit numbers are formed using cards with the numbers 2, 3, 5 written on them.
(i) How many such numbers can be made? (1)
(ii) What is the probability that such a number is even? (1)
(iii) What is the probability that such a number is a multiple of 5? (1)

OR

B. A box contains 6 black beads and 4 white beads, and another box contains 7 black and
8 white beads.

(i) In how many ways can a pair of beads be chosen, one from each box? (1)
(ii) What is the probability of both being black? (1)
(iii) What is the probability that at least one is white? (1)

3
12. A. The 2nd term of an arithmetic sequence is 5 and the sum of the first 6 terms is 60.

(i) What is the sum of the 2nd and the 5th terms? (1)
(ii) What is the 5th term? (1)
(iii) What is the sum of the first 15 terms? (2)

OR

B.

(i) Write the sequence of natural numbers that leave remainder 3 or 8 when divided
by 10 (1)
(ii) What is the remainder on dividing any term of this sequence by 5? (1)
(iii) Prove that this is an arithmetic sequence (2)

13. The table below gives 49 persons classified according to their weights:
Weight (kg) Number of persons

30-40 5
40-50 7
50-60 9
60-70 10
70-80 10
80-90 8
Total 49

They are lined up according to their weights

(i) The weight of the person at which position is taken as the median? (1)
(ii) According to the assumptions used to calculate the median, what is the weight of the
22nd person? (2)
(iii) Calculate the median weight (1)

Section – C

14. The centre of a circle is (2, 1) and (8, 9) is a point on it.

(i) Calculate the radius of the circle (2)
(ii) Write the equation of the circle (1)

4
15. In the picture, ABCD is a rectangle with sides parallel to the
axes
(i) Write the coordinates of the vertices B and D (2)
(ii) Calculate the length of AB (1)
(iii) Calculate the length of AC (1)

16. A. In the picture, ABCD is a parallelogram

(i) Calculate the coordinates of C (1)
(ii) Calculate the slope of the diagonal AC (1)
(iii) Write the equation of the line through A and C (2)
(iv) Does this line passes through the origin? Why? (1)

OR

B. In the picture P, Q, R are the midpoints of the sides of the

triangle ABC

(i) Calculate the coordinates of P and Q (2)

(ii) Calculate the coordinates of the point of intersection of PR
and AQ (1)
(iii) Calculate the coordinates of the centroid of the triangle
PQR (2)

Section – D

17. One of the perpendicular sides of a right triangle is 6 centimetres longer than the other and
the area of the triangle is 56 square centimetres.
(i) Write these information as a second degree equation (1)
(ii) Calculate the length of the shortest side (2)
18. Consider the arithmetic sequences given below:
Sequence 1 : 5, 8, 11, . . .
Sequence 2 : 4, 7, 10, . . .
(i) What is the remainder on dividing each term of the first sequence by 3? (1)
(ii) What is the remainder on dividing each term of the second sequence by 3? (1)
(iii) Prove that the square of each term of the first sequence is a term of the second
sequence (2)
5
19. A. The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic sequence is 2n²+3n
(i) What is the sum of the first five terms? (1)
(ii) How many terms of the sequence, starting from the first, must be added to get 324?
(3)

OR

B. (i) Prove that the sum of any number of consecutive terms of the sequence
4, 12, 20, . . . starting from the first term, is a perfect square. (3)
(ii) Write another Arithmetic sequence such that the sum of any number of consecutive
terms from the first term is always a perfect square (1)

Section – E

20. In the picture, AB is a chord through the point P inside the circle
centred at O. What is the radius of the circle?

(2)

21. A is the point of intersection of the circle with centred at the

B
origin and x- axis. Circle is passes through the point C(1, 1).
Calculate the area of the parallelogram OABC.

(3)

22. A, B, C, P are points on the circle in the picture, with AC = BC,

and BT is the tangent at B. Calculate the angles below
(i) ∠ACB (1)
(ii) ∠CBT (2)

6
23. A. A boy sees the top of a building at an angle of elevation 35o. Walking 10 metres towards
the building, he sees it at an angle of elevation 70o.
(i) Draw a rough sketch showing these details (1)
(ii) Calculate the height of the building (3)

OR

B. Two buildings stand 15 metre apart on a flat terrain. A person standing on top of the
less tall building sees the foot of the taller building at an angle of depression 30o and
the top at an elevation of 40o

(i) Draw a rough sketch showing these details (1)

(ii) Calculate the height of the tall building (3)
24. A. (I) The incircle of triangle ABC touches its sides at
P, Q, R.
(i) Denoting the length of AP by x, write the
expressions for the lengths of BQ and CR (1)
(ii) Calculate the length of AP (1)

(II) The incircle of triangle XYZ touches the side XY at T.

Prove that XY + XZ − YZ = 2XT (2)

OR

B. In the picture, AB and CD are parallel tangents to

the circle centered at O. The tangent from the point
P on AB meets CD at Q

(i) Prove that OP is the bisector of ∠APQ (1)

(ii) Prove that ∠POQ = 90o (3)

7
25. A. A square pyramid is made with a square of sides 12 centimetres and four isosceles
triangles of equal sides 10 centimetres. Calculate its volume (5)

OR

B. A sector of central angle 216o is cut off from a circle of radius 15 centimetres and bent
into a cone

(i) Calculate the slant height, base radius and height of this cone. (3)
(ii) Calculate the volume of this cone. (2)

1
26. Draw a triangle of circumradius 3.5 centimetres and two of the angles 32 o
and 40o. (3)
2

27. Draw a rectangle of area 15 square centimetres and a square of the same area. (4)
28. Draw a circle of radius 4 centimetres and mark a point 7 centimetres from the centre. Draw
the tangents to the circle from this point. (4)

8
 SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - III 2025 – 26
Model Question Paper Set - B

Mathematics
1
Class – 10 Time : 2 Hours
2
Score : 80
Instructions
• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about the answers.
• There are 27 questions, split into five parts A, B, C, D, E.
• Answer all questions; but in questions of the type A or B, you need to answer only one of
those.
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number.
• Trigonometric tables are given at the end and can be used wherever necessary.
• Answers must be explained whenever necessary.

Section – A
This section has 8 questions of 1 mark each. Select the correct answer from those
given
1. Which of the numbers below can be the difference of two terms of the arithmetic sequence
10, 16, 22, . . . ?
A. 40
B. 51
C. 48
D. 28
2. In the picture, the rectangle joining the midpoints of the sides of a right triangle is drawn. If
a point is marked arbitrarily within the triangle, what is the probability that it will be within
the rectangle?

A. 1
2
B. 1
3
C. 2
3
D. 1
4
3. The algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is xn = 4n − 3. What is the remainder on
dividing any term of this sequence by 4?
A. 3
B. -3
C. 4
D. 1
4. Which of the following triangles can be a lateral face of a square pyramid?

5. Which of the following are the coordinates of the points where the graph of the polynomial
x2 − 4x intersects the x-axis?
A. (0, 0), (4,0)
B. (0, 0), (0, 4)
C. (4, 0), (4,-4)
D. (0, 0), (-4, 0)
6. The median daily wage of 25 workers in a factory is 1000 rupees. Read the following
statements about their wages.
(i) The daily wage of every worker in this factory is more than 1000 rupees
(ii) 12 workers in this factory get 1000 rupees or more as daily wages
(iii) 12 workers in this factory get 1000 rupees or less as daily wages
(iv) 25000 rupees is needed to pay one day’s wages for the workers in this factory
Now choose the correct answer from those given below
A. (i) and (ii) are true
B.(ii) and (iii) are true
C. (i) and (iv) are true
D. (ii) and (iv) are true
7. Read the two statements below
Statement 1 : (2, 1), (5, 3), (11, 7) are points on a straight line
Statement 2 : In a line not parallel to either axis, if we draw lines parallel to the axes
through any pair of points, the right triangles thus formed are similar
 Now choose the correct answer from those given below
A. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
B. Statement 2 is true, Statement 1 is false
C. Both statements are true and Statement 2 is the reason of Statement 1
D. Both statements are true and Statement 2 is not the reason of Statement 1
8. Read the two statements below
Statement 1 : The tangents to a circle, from a point outside, are equal
Statement 2 : The tangent through a point on a circle is perpendicular to the diameter
through that point
Now choose the correct answer from those given below
A. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
B. Statement 2 is true, Statement 1 is false
C. Both statements are true and Statement 2 is the reason of Statement 1
D. Both statements are true and Statement 2 is not the reason of Statement 1
Section – B
9. In an arithmetic sequence of natural numbers, can a single term be an odd number? Why?
(3)
10. A. The 5th term of an arithmetic sequence is 10 and the 11th term is 30
(i) What is the 23rd term of this sequence? (1)
(ii) Calculate the sum of first 27 terms of this sequence? (2)
OR
B. The sum of 7th term and 15th term of an arithmetic sequence is 50
(i) What is the 11th term? (1)
(ii) If the common difference of such an arithmetic sequence is 3, what is the 13th term?
What is the sum of the first 25 terms? (2)
11. A. A person is asked to say a two-digit number which is a multiple of 3
(i) What is the probability that it is an odd number? (2)
(ii) What is the probability that it is a multiple of 6? (1)
(iii) What is the probability that it is a multiple of 9? (1)

OR
 B. Each of two boxes contains slips of paper with numbers 1 to 10 written on them. If one
slip is taken from each box,
(i) What is the probability that the product of the numbers is a prime number? (2)
(ii) What is the probability that the product of the numbers is a power of 2? (2)
12. The table below shows the daily wages of 75 workers in a factory

Daily wages Number of workers

500-600 10
600-700 22
700-800 20
800-900 15
900-1000 8

(i) If the workers are arranged according to their wages, what in the wage of the person
whose position is taken as the median? (1)
(ii) Which is the median class? (1)
(iii) Calculate the median daily wage (3)

Section – C

13. The line joining the points (1,−2) and (6, 3) intersects
the x-axis at P. Calculate the coordinates of P.

(2)

14. (i) Draw coordinate axes and mark the points with coordinates (1, 2), (2, 4), (5, 2) (3)
(ii) Draw a parallelogram taking these as three vertices. What are the coordinates of the
fourth vertex? (2)
15. A. In the picture, a line intersects the axes at A
and B with OA = 5 and OB = 3
(i) What are the coordinates of A and B?
(1)
(ii) Calculate the slope of the line and write
its equation (3)
(iii) Calculate the coordinates of the
circumcentre of triangle AOB (1)
 OR
[Link] the circle drawn with the line joining (−1, 2) and (7, 8) as diameter
(i) Calculate the coordinates of the centre of the circle and its radius (2)
(ii) Write the equation of the circle (1)
(iii) Is (0, 1) a point on the circle? (2)

Section – D
16. A. (i) Calculate 1 + 2 + 3 +....+ 20 (1)
(ii) Calculate 3 + 6 + 9 +....+ 60 (1)
(iii) Calculate the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence whose algebraic
form is xn = 3n + 2 (1)
OR
B. The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic sequence is 3n2 + n
(i) Find the first term of the sequence and the sum of the first two terms (1)
(ii) Write the algebraic form of the arithmetic sequence (2)

17. The perimeter of a rectangle is 80 centimetres and its area is 396 square centimetres. Write
the facts as a second degree equation. What are the lengths of its sides? (3)
18. (i) Write the algebraic form of the arithmetic sequence 7, 11, 15, . . . (1)
(ii) Prove that no perfect square is a term of this sequence (3)
19. (i) Write the polynomial x2 + x − 56 as the product of two first degree polynomials (2)
(ii) Calculate the coordinates of the points where the graph of the polynomial x2 + x− 56
intersects the x-axis (2)
Section – E

20. Calculate the inradius of the triangle with sides 8, 15, 17 centimetres (2)
21. In triangle ABC, we have AB = 11 centimetres, AC = 8 centimetres and A = 60o
(i) Calculate the height from AB to C (2)
(ii) Calculate the area of the triangle (1)
22. A. The quadrilateral ABCD in the picture is a square
and its half joined together
(i) Calculate C, D (1)
(ii) If the circle through the points A, B, C is drawn,
where would be the position of D relative to
the circle? Why? (2)
(iii)What about the position of A relative to the circle
through the points B, C, D? Why? (1)
 OR
B. The picture shows an isosceles trapezium ABCD and
its incircle centred at O
(i) What is the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides?
(1)
(ii) AOB = 100o. Calculate A and C of the
trapezium (3)

23. i) In the picture, chords AB and CD of the circle intersect

at P. Prove that PA × PB = PC × PD (3)

(ii) In a circle of radius 8 centimetres, a point P is marked

3 centimetres away from the centre. Calculate the length
of the chord through P which is perpendicular to the
diameter through P (2)

24. A. A man 1.6 metres tall, standing at the edge of a river bank, sees the top of a tree at the
edge of the other bank at an angle of elevation of 70o. Stepping back 20 metres, he sees it
at an angle of elevation of 35o
(i) Draw a rough sketch showing these details (1)
(ii) Calculate the width of the river and the height of the tree (4)

OR

B. The picture shows a triangle and its circumcircle

(i) What is the diameter of the circle? (2)
(ii) Calculate the lengths of the other two sides of
the triangle correct to a millimetre (3)

25. A. Calculate the volumes of the largest square pyramid, cone and sphere which can be
packed into a cubical box of sides 12 centimetres (5)
OR
 B. (i) A sector of central angle 120o is cut off from a circle of radius 18 centimetres and
bent into a cone. Calculate the radius, slant height and the area of the curved surface
cone (3)
(ii) Prove that for a cone made by bending a sector of central angle 120o cut off from any
circle, the area of the curved surface is three times the base area (2)

26. Draw a triangle with circumradius 3 centimetres and two of the angles 55o and 65o (3)
27. Draw a triangle of sides 7 centimetres, 8 centimetres, 9 centimetres and draw its incircle.
(4)
 Set- C
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - III 2025 – 26
Model Question Paper
Mathematics
Class – 10 Time : 2½ Hours
Score : 80

Instructions

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about the answer.
• There are 27 questions, split into five parts A, B, C, D, E.
• Answer all question; but in questions of type A or B, you need to answer only one of
those.
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number.
• Trigonometric tables are given at the end and can be used wherever necessary.
• Answer must be explained whenever necessary.

Section – A

This section has 8 questions of 1 mark each. Select the correct answer from those given

1. The 8th term of an arithmetic sequence is 25 and the 12th term is 30. What is the 16th term of
this sequence?
A. 55
B. 35
C. 20
D. 27.5

2. The marks a student got for 10 subjects are

72, 45, 76, 46, 51, 48, 80, 64, 58, 56
What is the median mark?

A. 57
B. 56
C. 58
D. 55

1
3. If x2 – 6x+8 = (x - a) (x - b) then what is a + b?
A. 6
B. -6
C. 8
D. -8

4. Four circles are shown below with a chord and tangents at its ends. In which picture is
1
𝑦𝑦 = 𝑥𝑥?
2

5. What are the coordinates of the point where the lines x = 3 and y = 4 intersect?
A. (3, 0)
B. (0, 4)
C. (3, 4)
D. (4, 3)

6. The algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is xn = 5 − 3n. Some statements about this
sequence are given below.

(i) All terms of this sequence are natural numbers

(ii) If we subtract 3 from the 10th term of this sequence, we get the 11th term

(iii) If we add 5 to the 10th term of this sequence, we get the 11th term

(iv) The largest number in this sequence is 2

Choose the correct answer from those given below
A. (i) and (ii) are true
B. (iii) and (iv) are true
C. (ii) and (iv) are true
D. (i) and (iv) are true

2
 7. Read the following statements about the picture on the
right

(i) C is inside the circle passing through A, B, D

(ii) A is outside the circle passing through B, C, D
(iii) B is on the circle passing through A, D, C
(iv) D is outside the circle passing through A, B, C
Now choose the correct answer from those given below
A. (i) and (ii) are true

B. (ii) and (iii) are true

C. (iii) and (iv) are true

D. (i) and (iv) are true

8. Consider the two statements given below:

Statement 1 : The length of the perpendicular from any point on a side of an angle of 40o is
sin 40 o times the distance of the point from the vertex of the angle

Statement 2 : The sides of two triangles with the same angles are scaled by the same factor
Which of the following are correct?

Now choose the correct answer from those given below

A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

B. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
C. Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the reason of Statement 1
D. Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is not the reason of Statement 1

Section – B

9. If two dice with numbers 1 to 6 marked on their faces are rolled together, what is the
probability that the sum of numbers turning up is 9? (2)

10. A. The sum of the 2nd and 18th terms of an arithmetic sequence is 40
(i) What is the sum of the 7th and 13th terms? (1)
(ii) What is the 10th term? (2)

OR

3
 B. The sum of the 4th, 5th and 6th terms of an arithmetic sequence is 90
(i) What is the 5th term? (1)
(ii) What is the sum of the first 9 terms? (1)
(iii) If the common difference of such an arithmetic sequence is 5, then what is its first
term? (1)

11. A. A box contains paper slips bearing numbers 1 to 10 and another box contains slips
bearing multiples of 3 below 25. One slip is to be taken from each box
(i) In how many ways can this be done? (1)
(ii) What is the probability that one number is a multiple of 3 and the other is
a multiple of 9? (2)
OR

B. In the picture, ABCD is a square and P is the mid - point of AB. A point is marked
arbitrarily within the square

(i) What is the probability that it would be within the shaded

part? (2)

(ii) What is the probability that it would be outside the shaded

part? (1)

12.

(i) Write the sequence of numbers which leave remainder 1 or 3 when divided by 4 (1)

(ii) Is it an arithmetic sequence? Why? (2)

13. The table below classifies some households according to their consumption of electricity

Electricity use
Number of houses
(Unit)
0-50 5
50-100 15
100-150 25
150-200 50
200-250 20
250-300 10
Total 125

4
 (i) The consumption of household at which position is considered the median? (1)
(ii) According to the assumptions used to compute the median, how much is the
consumption of the 46th household? (2)
(iii) Compute the median usage of electricity (2)

Section – C

14. Calculate the slope of the line joining (1, 0) and (0, 1). Write the coordinates of another
point on this line (2)

15.
(i) In the picture, ABC is an equilateral triangle
(a) What is the length of a side of the triangle?
(1)
(b) Calculate the coordinates of C (1)
(ii) Draw coordinate axes and draw the equilateral
triangle with (2, 1), (−2, 1) as two vertices
(3)

16. A. In the picture, the point P divides the line AB in the

ratio 1 : 2

(i) Calculate the lengths AC and BC (2)

(ii) Calculate the lengths AD and PD (2)
(iii) Calculate the coordinates of P (1)

OR

B. (1, 1) is a point on a circle centred at (4, 5)

(i) What is the radius of this circle? (2)

(ii) What is the equation of the circle? (1)
(iii) Calculate the coordinates of one of the points where this circle cuts the x-axis
(2)

5
 Section – D

17. The sum of two numbers is 20 and their product is 95

(i) Write these facts as a second degree equation (1)
(ii) Calculate the numbers (2)

18. (i) Calculate the sum of the first n terms of the arithmetic sequence with nth term 5n+1
(2)
(ii) How much more is the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence with nth
term 5n + 4 than the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence? (1)

1 2
19. Prove that the arithmetic sequence with first term 3 and common difference 3 contains all
odd numbers; prove also that this sequence contains no even number (4)

20. A. (i) Write x2– x – 56 as the product of two first degree polynomials (2)
(ii) What should be x to make 2x2– 2x – 112 = 0 (2)
OR

B. What are the coordinates of the points where the graph of 3x2 + 2x – 5 intersects the
x-axis? (4)

Section – E

21. A boy 1.5 metres tall, standing at the top of a building 20 metres high sees a car parked
on the road at an angle of depression 30o. How far away from the bottom of the building
is the car parked? (3)

22. A.(i) In the picture, A, B, C are points on the circle

centred at O. How much is ∠ACB? (1)

6
 1
(ii) When the corner of a bent wire is placed at the centre of a circle, 6 th of the circle was
included within it. If this corner is placed at some point on the circle, what fraction of
the circle would be included within it? (3)

OR

B.

(i) In the picture, the circle with diameter AB cuts

BC at D. How much is ∠ADB? (1)

(ii) Prove that the circles drawn with the equal sides
of an isosceles triangle as diameters pass through
the midpoint of the third side (3)

23. A. (i) A square pyramid is made with each lateral face

as in the figure. Calculate its slant height and
height (2)
(ii) Can a square pyramid be made with the lengths
of the sides of each lateral face 40 centimetres,
25 centimetres, 25 centimetres? (2)

OR

B. (i) The radius of a sphere is 6 centimetres. What is its volume? (1)

1
(ii) What is the ratio of the volume of a sphere and the volume of a sphere with 3 of its
radius? (2)
1
(iii) By melting a sphere of radius 5 centimetres and recasting, how many spheres of 3 rd
the radius can be made? (1)

7
24. (i) Calculate the area of a triangle with two sides 8 centimetres, 6 centimetres and the
angle between them 40o (3)

(ii) A triangle is to be drawn with one side 8 centimetres and the angle at one of its ends
40o. What is the minimum length of the side opposite to this angle? (2)

25. A.(i) The picture shows a regular pentagon and the tangent
to its circumcircle through one of the vertices. Calcu-
late the angles (marked in the picture) between the
tangent and the sides of the pentagon through the
point of contact (3)

(ii) Prove that in any regular polygon, the tangent to the circumcircle at a vertex makes
equal angles with the two sides through this vertex (2)
OR

B. (i) Calculate the inradius of an equilateral triangle of sides 4 centimetres (2)

(ii) Prove that in any equilateral triangle the inradius is half the circumradius (3)

26. Draw a rectangle of sides 6 centimetres and 3 centimetres. Draw a square of the same
area (4)
27. Draw a circle of radius 2 centimetres. Draw a triangle with all sides touching this circle
and with two angles 50o and 60o (4)

8
 SET A
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - III - 2025-26
SSLC Model Question Paper
Social Science
Std: X Time: 2½ Hours
Max Score: 80

Instructions
• There is a ‘Cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time. Use this time to get familiar
with question and to plan your answers
• Read the questions and instructions carefully before answering
• Answer the questions considering score and time.
• Some questions are given with choices. Answer any one question from the choices
• For answering the map question use the outline map of the world provided.

Answer all questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

1. Find the relation between the two parts of item ‘a’ and fill in the blank of item ‘b’ accordingly
a. Gattamelata : Donatello
b. Pieta : ……………
A. Leonardo da vinci
B. Raphael
C. Michelangelo
D. Titian
2. Identify the climatic region from the hints given below and match them accordingly.
Hints
i. The region where coniferous trees are found in abundance
ii. Plants grow only in summer
iii. Long and humid summer and short dry winter are experienced
iv. Dry summer and humid winter experienced
Climatic regions
a. Tundra region
b. Mediterranean climatic region
c. Taiga region
d. Monsoon climatic region
A. i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
B. i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
C. i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
D. i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a

1
3. Some Sustainable Development Goals are given below. Identify the economic goal from them.
A. Affordable and Clean Energy
B. No Poverty
C. Quality Education
D. Climate Action
4. Which of the following statements are true with respect to the Coriolis effect?
i. In the Northern Hemisphere the wind gets deflected towards its right.
ii. The trade winds blow as northeast winds in the Northern Hemisphere.
iii. The trade winds blow as southwest winds in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. i and ii are true iii is false
B. i and ii are false, iii is true
C. All are true
D. All are false
5. Find out the true and false statements.
i. Subas Chandra Bose presided over the Lahore Congress
ii. Swaraj Party was formed by CR Das and Motilal Nehru.
iii. During the Quit India movement, a government was formed under the leadership of
Chittu Pandey in Satara.
iv. The Royal Indian Navy mutiny began on February 18, 1946.
A. i and ii are true, iii and iv are false.
B. i and iv are true, ii and iii are false.
C. ii and iv are true, i and iii are false.
D. i and iii are true, ii and iv are false.

6. Under which law, separate judicial system was established for consumer protection in India?
A. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
B. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
C. Food Safety Standards Act 2006
D. National Food Security Act 2013

7. Find out the suitable items from column B for the items given in Column A.

A B
a) World Meteorological i. Disarmament
Organisation ii. Prepared agenda 21
b) Stockholm Conference iii. Environmental Conservation and development
c) Earth Summit iv. Organises World Climate Conferences

2
 A. a – ii, b – iii, c – iv
B. a – i, b – iii, c – ii
C. a – iii, b – i, c – ii
D. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii

8. Find out the statements related to Mandal Commission among the following.
i. appointed to study the social and educational backwardness of the OBC communities.
ii. also known as the second Backward Classes Commission,
iii. recommended 50% reservation for Backward classes.
iv. headed by B.P Mandal
A. i, ii, iv are related
B. i, ii, iii are related
C. All are related
D. Only i and ii are related
Answer the questions from 9 to 15 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score. (7 × 2 = 14)
9. Commonsense knowledge has several limitations in analysing personal and social problems.
Substantiate the statement.
10. Characteristics of a major fossil fuel are given below. Identify the fuel and elucidate its uses.
• Originates from plant remains
• High carbon content.
• Found either in black or brown colour.
11. Compare merchant capitalism with industrial capitalism.
12. What is Nirbhaya Movement? Mention the main demands put forward by this movement.
13. As a student, write down the suggestions you can give for the conservation of natural resources.
14. Elucidate the common features of the early struggles participated by Mahatma Gandhi in India.
15. What is meant by the focus of an earthquake? Name the point on the Earth’s surface that lies
closest to the focus.
Answer the questions from 16 to 23 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score
(8 × 3 = 24)
16. The bicycle that Rahul’s father bought him got damaged after a week and he could not use it.
When he approached the shopkeeper, the shop keeper was not willing to replace it or repair it.
As a customer, where should Rahul’s father lodge a complaint? What are the things to be
considered while lodging the complaint?

3
17. It was the proper utilisation of the wealth that made industrial revolution possible in
England. Substantiate the statement.

18. Some facts related to the equatorial climatic region are given below. Mention the reasons for
them.

• Winter is not generally experienced.

• Convectional rainfall occurs quite often in the afternoon.
• The flora thrives abundantly
19. A) Tribal societies in India organised numerous struggles against inequality and oppression and
fought for justice. Examine the relevance of this statement based on the main resistance
raised by them.
OR
B) Analyse the role of language in maintaining the social system of India.
20. Explain how deposits and lending loans influence the operations of commercial banks.
21. A) Which movement was formed against the Sardar Sarovar project on the Narmada river?
Elucidate its characteristics.
OR
B) Evaluate how the separatist movements became a challenge to the unity of the nation.
22. Subas Chandra Bose and Indian National Army (INA) were able to put the British
government into a crisis during the second world war. Substantiate.
23. Explain the role of Repo rates and Reverse Repo rates in controlling inflation.
Answer the questions from 24 to 29 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score.
(6 × 4 = 24)
24. A) How did the structure of the French parliament called Estates General lead to the Tennis
Court Oath? Elucidate.
OR
B) Why did the third estate in France opposed the rule of the Bourbon Kings while the first and
second estates supported them.
25. Identify the given geoinformation and mark them on the outline map of the world provided
a) The hot desert located in India.
b) The climatic region located between latitudes of 55° and 70° in the Northern Hemi-
sphere.
c) The tropical grasslands in Africa
d) The hot desert located in South America

4
26. A) Write the equation to find the Physical Quality Life Index. Explain what each of the indices
in the equation denote.
OR
B) Explain the inventions that led to various industrial revolutions and their characteristics?
27. How do the discussions within the families help in nurturing democratic values among
children and shaping their opinions on social issues?
28. Early governments in Independent India followed an economic policy of strengthening the
public sector. Substantiate the statement with examples.
29. A) Earthquakes are sudden movements, while plate movements are slow movements. Explain
how they are interrelated.
OR
B) Distinguish between endogenic movements and exogenic movements. Elucidate their
causative factors.
Answer the questions 30 and 31 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

30. A) Explain how the Quit India Movement become a mass movement even after the
imprisonment of the main leaders including Mahatma Gandhi.
OR
B) Whether Renaissance is the revival of the ancient period or the negation of the medieval
period? State your arguments by analysing the background of the Renaissance.
31. A) Which type of exogenic movement does Urulpottal belong to? Do you agree with the
statement that certain high-range areas of Kerala are prone to Urulpottal? If yes, why? What
measures can be adopted to mitigate the impact of Urulpottal?
OR
B) What is meant by the diurnal range of temperature? Calculate the diurnal range of
temperature and the mean daily temperature if the maximum temperature is 32°C and the
minimum temperature is 17°C recorded at a place. Which city experiences a lower diurnal
range of temperature: Thiruvananthapuram or Kanpur? Why?

5
 SET B
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III - 2025-26
SSLC Model Question Paper
Social Science
Std: X Time: 2½ Hours
Max Score: 80
Instructions
• There is a ‘Cool of time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time. Use this time to get
familiar with question and to plan your answers
• Read the questions and instructions carefully before answering
• Answer the questions considering score and time.
• Some questions are given with choices. Answer any one question from the choices
• For answering the map question use the outline map of the world provided.

Answer all questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

1. Given below are the groups of certain persons and works of Renaissance period.
Identity the group with respect to the similar field.
A. Copernicus, Martin Luther, Isaac Newton
B. Leonardo Davinci, Raphael, Petrarch
C. Utopia, Don Quixote, Divine Comedy
D. Mona Lisa, Last Judgment, Gattamelata
2. The table given below contains different climatic regions and the indigenous people
living there. Match them suitably.
a) Savanna Climatic Region i) Lappas
b) Equatorial Climatic Region ii) Maasai
c) Tundra Region iii) Bushmen
d) Hot desert iv) Pygmy
A. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d-i
B. a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d - iv
C. a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d - iii
D. a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d - ii
3. Find examples of economic goods from the following.
a. Sunlight
b. Clothes
c. Air
d. Vehicles
A. a and b
B. b and d
C. d and a
D. a and c

1
4. The precipitation experienced in the form of water drops is rain. Different types of rain
received in different regions are given below. Match them appropriately.
a) Convectional Rain
1. The monsoon rain received in Kerala
b) Orographic Rain
2. 4 ‘o’ clock rain received in Equatorial c) Frontal Rain
regions d) Cyclonic Rain
A. 1 - a, 2-b
B. 1 - b, 2-a
C. 1 - c, 2-d
D. 1 - a, 2-d
5. Find out the correct pair

i) V.P. Menon a) Agrarian Reforms Committee

ii) Justice Fazal Ali b) Panchasheel Principles
iii) J. C. Kumarappa c) Integration of Princely States
iv) Zhou Enlai d) State Reorganisation Commission

A. i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
B. i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
C. i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
D. i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv - d
6. Find the area that is not included for calculating Human Development Index
A. Long and healthy life
B. Defence
C. A descent standard of living
D. Knowledge
7. Choose the correct statement which is related to the Savanna Climatic region.
a) Grass lands found between 10o and 30o latitudes in both the hemispheres
b) Dry summer and humid winter experienced
c) Deciduous trees and tall grasses are the dominant types of vegetation
d) Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated
A. a and b are correct
B. a and c are correct
C. only d is correct
D. only c is correct
8. Which one of the following organisations initiated the movement for the Right to
Information (RTI)?

2
 A. Bharatiya Kisan Union
B. Shetkari Sanghatana
C. Raita Sangha
D. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
Answer the questions from 9 to 15 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score.
(7 × 2 = 14)
9. Anu is unable to get a better job despite having higher education. Evaluate Anu’s problem
through the sociological imagination approach and commonsense knowledge approach.
10. Define fuel. Write an example of renewable fuel.
11. List any two inventions in the field of science and technology that helped geographical
exploration.
12. Name the treaty which stated that the princely states of India should maintain their status
quo? What was the outcome of this treaty?
13. Examine the role of the conservation of resources in sustainable development.
14. Elucidate how the policies of Swaraj Party differ from Gandhian method of struggle.
15. The disintegration of rocks is called weathering. How does this process become useful to
humans.
Answer the questions from 16 to 23 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score
(8 × 3 = 24)
16. Explain the importance of consumer education. Suggest the ways to implement consumer
education in schools.
17. ‘Totalitarianism that emerged in the twentieth century was a challenge to human values’.
Substantiate the statement.
18. Compare the Equatorial Climatic region and the Tundra region based on the indicators
given below:
• Climate
• Natural Vegetation
• Agriculture
19. A) Evaluate the role of art and culture of the tribal communities in enriching Indian
culture.
OR
B) Elucidate the role of national integration in overcoming the challenges faced by
pluralism in Indian society.
20. Explain how the cyclical velocity of money affects economic growth.

3
21. A) While the Indian constitution upholds democratic values, what kind of impact does
communalism, as a societal evil, create in society.
OR
B) Analyse how environmental movements reflect the conflict between unscientific
development and environmental protection.
22. What are the initiatives implemented to attain food self sufficiency in Independent India?
Why are they called revolutions?
23. Explain the difference in fixing interest by commercial bank for various deposits.
Answer the questions from 24 to 29 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score.
(6 × 4 = 24)
24. A) It was the interests of the middle class that reflected in the reforms of Napoleon.
Substantiate the statement.
OR
B) Why did the first and the second estates existed in the french society support the
despotic regime in France? Explain.
25. Identify the given geoinformation and mark them on the outline map of the world
provided.
A. The largest hot desert in the world.
B. The climatic region found along the coast of the Mediterranean sea.
C. Temperate grass land in Asia.
D. The climatic region where the coniferous evergreen trees are found in abundance.
26. A) The objectives of the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog were adequate to meet
the needs of the respective periods. Evaluate this statement.
OR
B) Which Committee was established in Kerala for the growth of the knowledge
economy? Explain its functions.
27. Today, traps such as fake news, financial fraud and privacy violations exist in the digital
space. Evaluate the role of media literacy and digital literacy in making digital spaces
safe.
28. The Jallianwala Bagh incident was the result of the British effort to suppress the freedom
movement that was gathering momentum in India. Substantiate the statement.
29. A) Which types of weathering are caused by each of the following factors? Explain how.
• Temperature
• Roots of trees
OR
B) Though volcanoes are destructive, people live in volcanic regions. Why?
4
Answer the questions 30 and 31 in detail. Each carries 5 score.
(2 × 5 = 10)
30. A) Renaissance is the shift from the divine centred outlook to the human centred outlook.
Substantiate the statement by evaluating the renaissance painting.
OR
B) Analyse how the various sections of the people participated in the civil disobedience
movement.
31. A) It is essential to expand the use of renewable energy resources to solve the energy
crisis. Justify.
OR
B) Examine the fact given below and answer the questions that follow
In the atmospheric layer that lies closest to the Earth, the temperature decreases with
height.
a. Name the phenomenon
b. Name the layer of the atmosphere that the phenomenon happens
c. If the atmospheric temperature at sea level is 30O C, what would be the
temperature at the altitude of 2 km?
d. Why is low temperature experienced at Ooty and Munnar.

5
 Set C

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III - 2025-26

SSLC Model Question Paper
Social Science
Std: X Time: 2½ Hours
Max Score: 80

Instructions
• There is a ‘Cool of time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time. Use this time to get fa-
miliar with question and to plan your answers
• Read the questions and instructions carefully before answering
• Answer the questions considering score and time.
• Some questions are given with choices. Answer any one question from the choices
• For answering the map question use the outline map of the world provided.

Answer all questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 ×1 = 8)

1. Select the suitable items from column B for the given in column A.
A B
a) Llanos grasslands are found.
b) Receives an annual rainfall ranging
Hot deserts from 50 cm to 70 cm
c) Average annual temperature is 300C
d) Located mostly along the western
margins of the continents
A. a, c
B. a, d
C. c, d
D. a, d
2. Who is related to the Gandhian plan which was an important one in the history of Inida’s
planning.
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. S.N. Agarwal
C. M.N. Roy
D. Mahatma Gandhi

1
3. Match the item given in column A with appropriate items from column B.
A B
Renaissance painting i) Landscapes
ii) Portraits
iii) Unrealistic depiction of human
body
iv) The use of oil paint.
A. i, ii are right
B. i, ii iii are right
C. ii, iii and iv are right
D. i, ii and iv are right
4. Under which one of the following situations does place ‘B’ record a higher diurnal range
of temperature than place ‘A’?
A. Both A and B are located at a high altitude above mean sea level.
B. Both A and B are located far away from the sea.
C. Place A is located on the coast, and place B is located far away from the sea.
D. Place B is located on the coast, and place A is located far away from the sea.
5. Which of the following are not the characteristic features of the Chipko movement?
i. movement formed against the Sardar Sarovar project.
ii. opposed the felling of trees in large scale for industrial purposes in the Himalayan
regions of Uttarakand.
iii. Stood for the conservation of biodiversity in rain forests
iv. form of struggle involving embracing trees.
A. i, ii
B. ii, iv
C. i, iii
D. iii, iv
6. Assertion (A) : The Quit India Movement was the mass movement called by Gandhiji.
Reason (R) : It was the Chauri Chaura incident that forced Gandhiji to start this movement.
A. (A) is true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) is false, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is false, (R) is true.
D. Both (A) and (R) are false.

2
7. From the details of the development report prepared by the World Bank on the basis of
Per Capita Income, choose the percapita income of the lower, middle, income group
which includes India.
A. 4516 to 14005
B. 1146 to 4515
C. Below 1145
D. 1461 to 4155
8. Write whether the following statements are true or false.
Statement 1: Monsoon climatic region and Savanna climatic region belong to tropical
region.
Statement 2: Tundra and Taiga belong to frigid zone.
A. Only 1 is true.
B. Only 2 is true.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true.
D. Both 1 and 2 are false.
Answer the questions from 9 to 15 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score.
(7 × 2 = 14)
9. How did the trade progress of Italy lead to the Renaissance.
10. Sociological imagination becomes a powerful tool, skill and approach that enriches
social life. Analyse the statement.
11. Elucidate the importance of Hydrogen a non-conventional energy resource.
12. Elucidate actions that can be taken by the Governor, when the bills passed by the
legislative assembly are submitted for the Governor’s assent.
13. Do human activities cause weathering? Substantiate your answer. What are these types
of weathering called?
14. The struggle against Rowlatt act records to Mahatma Gandhi’s growth as a national
leader. Substantiate the statement.
15. Which type of resources does the primary health centre belong to? How do these
resources differ from personal resources?
Answer the questions from 16 to 23 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score
(8 x 3 = 24)
16. A) Compare the ideas of diversity and pluralism.
OR
B) Most of the villages and cities in the states of India are interdependent. Substantiate
the statement.
17. Identify the climatic region that lies north of the Arctic circle. What are the salient
features of this climatic region?

3
18. Analyse the role of Renaissance in making historiography scientific.
19. Money stimulates the economic activities of the production, distribution and consumption
and strengthens of the economy by making the transactions faster. Explain how this
works with an example.
20. A) How did the internal emergency of 1975 affect the Indian democracy? Analyse
OR
B) Explain the changes brought about by the dalit movements in the Indian Social
System.
21. What do you mean by Per Capita Income? How do Per Capita Income differ from
Personal Income. As an indicator of economic growth what are the shortcomings of Per
Capita Income?
22. Do you consider Lahore congress of 1929 a turning point in freedom movement in
India? Elucidate.
23. Technological advancement have helped increase the quality of bank transactions.
Evaluate the statement.
Answer the questions from 24 to 29 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score.
(6 x 4 = 24)
24. A) The extent to which the goals of consumer protection movements are adequate in
providing protection to the consumers. Critically evaluate.
OR
B) The Consumer Protection Act 2019 aims at empowering consumers and protecting
their rights? Evaluate the statement in the light of current situation.
25. Identify the given geoinformation and mark them on the outline map of the world
provided.
A. The climatic region with the highest producer of citrus fruits.
B. Largest hot desert in the Southern Hemisphere.
C. A climatic region in Asia where evergreen and tropical deciduous trees are more
common.
D. Temperate grassland in Africa.
26. United Kerala has been able to present its own model of development to the world.
Evaluate the statement.
27. A) Which exogenic movements are caused by the direct influence of gravity? How do
they differ from erosion?
OR
B) Name the giant destructive waves? How are they formed?
28. Compare the roles played by educational institutions and peer groups in the formation
of public opinion.

4
29. A) Do you agree with the statement that the French revolution had decisively influenced
the subsequent history of the world? Elucidate.
OR
B) Why did the Bourbon regime in France become an anti-people regime?
Answer the questions from 30 and 31 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)
30. A) Explain how the non-cooperation movement differ from the early struggles in which
Gandhiji intervened in India.
OR
B) Why is the first world war considered as an imperialist war. Explain.
31. A) Which climatic region includes grasslands known as steppes? Mention the salient
features of this climatic region. List the grasslands found in other part of the world.
OR
B) The following diagram represents the distribution of isobars at two different places.
Analyse the diagram and answer the following questions.

A B

a. Explain how wind is related to atmospheric pressure?

b. Which of these two places in diagram A and B has a low pressure gradient? Why?
c. At which of these places speed of the wind is high? Why?

5
 Summative Assessment – Term III - 2025-26 SET - A
Sample Question paper
Physics
Class : X Time : 1 ½ hour
Total Score : 40

Instructions
 The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions
and planning your answers.
 This question paper contains 18 questions.
 In sections A, B, C, and D. Choices have been provided for questions 5, 11, 12, 14,
and 18.
 For questions with a choice, you only need to answer one of them.

SECTION A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (4 x 1 = 4)

1. What happens when the frequency of a sound wave produced near an object is equal to
the natural frequency of the object? (1)

i) The object vibrates.

ii) The object reflects the sound wave.

iii) The object is in resonance.

iv) The object produces a different frequency.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) iv only, b) i and iii, c) ii and iii, d) iii and iv

2. Statement : Myopia (Short sightedness) can be corrected with concave lenses.

Reason : Concave lenses diverge light rays and focus on the retina.

Which of the following options is correct? (1)

a) Both Statements and reason are correct, and the reason explains the Statement.

b) Both Statements and reason are correct, but the reason does not explain the
Statement.
(1)
 c) The Statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.

d) The Statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.

3. The diagram shows a simple electric circuit with a resistor (R) connected to a cell.
How much heat is generated in the resistor in 10 s? (1)

a) 100 J

b) 200 J

c) 400 J

d) 800 J

4. Match column A with column B suitably. (1)

Column A Column B

1. AC Generator (i) Mutual Induction

2. DC Generator (ii) Motor Principle

3. Loud speaker (iii) Split ring

4. Transformer (iv) Slip rings

Select correct options given below:

a) 1 – iv, 2- i, 3 – ii, 4 – iii

b) 1 – iv, 2- iii, 3 – ii, 4-i

c) 1 – iii, 2- i, 3 – ii, 4 - iii

d) 1 – iv, 2- i, 3 – iii, 4 - ii

(2)
 SECTION B

Answer questions from 5 to 11. Questions 5 and 11 have a choice. Each question carries
2 scores. (7 x 2 = 14)

5 A. A movie projector displays 24 frames per second on the screen.

What is the peculiarity of the eye to see moving pictures like a cinema?
Explain how this peculiarity helps in the perception of moving pictures. (2)
OR

5 B. If two primary colours of light, red and green, overlap on a screen, what secondary
colour will be formed? Which is the complimentary colour of this secondary colour?
Give reason. (2)

6. A sonar device on a ship sends a sound wave to the sea floor and receives the echo
4 s later. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, what is the depth of the sea there?

(2)

7. The path of a ray of light passing through a concave lens parallel to its principal axis
drawn by a child is given below.

a) What is the mistake in the ray diagram? (1)

b) Redraw the correct diagram. (1)

8. In the figure, a conductor AB is arranged across parallel copper wires placed on an

acrylic sheet above a ring magnet. A 12V battery is connected to the parallel
conductors through a bell switch.

(3)
 a) Find the direction of motion of the conductor AB when the bell switch is
turned ON. Justify your finding. (1)

b) What change should be made to move the conductor AB in the opposite

direction? (1)

9. An electric device has a resistance of 30 Ω and is designed to operate at a power of

120 W. What voltage must be applied to get this power? (2)

10. Observe the given picture and answer the following questions

a) An electric current is not continuously produced through the secondary coil when
the switch is turned ON? Explain why? (1)

b) What change should be made in the primary circuit to ensure a continuous

electric current in the secondary coil? (1)

11 A. A wheel and axle system is used to lift a load of 500 kg. If the radius of the wheel is
0.8 m and the radius of the axle is 0.2 m, what is the force required to lift the load?
(2)
OR
11 B. A force of 100 N is required to push a load up an inclined plane of length 5 m and
height 3 m. Calculate the mechanical advantage of the inclined plane. (2)

(4)
 SECTION C

Answer questions 12 to 17, each question carries 3 scores. Questions 12 and 14 have
choices. (6 x 3 = 18)

12 A. The state of vibration of the particles of the wave at a particular instant is depicted.

a) What is amplitude of this wave? (1)

b) If it takes 3 s to travel from O to A, find frequency of the wave. (1)
c) Find period of this wave. (1)

OR

12 B. A wave travels from A to B in 1s is depicted below

a) Which type of waveform is indicated in the figure? (1)

b) How does speed of the wave be found by relating wavelength and frequency? (1)
c) What is the speed of this wave? (1)

13. In the image, AB is an object placed on the principal axis of lens L. The image
formed by the lens is erect and magnified.

a) Identify the lens indicated in the figure. Give reason. (1)

b) Draw the ray diagram for the image formation. (2)

(5)
14 A. An ideal transformer has a primary coil of 1000 turns and a secondary coil of 500
turns. If the primary voltage is 120 V,

a) what is the secondary voltage? (1)

b) what is the output power of the transformer when the input current is 5A? (2)

OR
14 B. An ideal transformer has input voltage of 220 V and output voltage of 110 V. If the
input current is 2 A.

a) calculate the output current. (1)

b) Find the ratio of number of turns in primary to secondary coils, (1)
c) If an electrical appliance with 110 V, 500 W power is connected to the
secondary of a transformer and operated, will the actual power be available?
Explain. (1)

15. A plant with green leaves and red flowers is kept in red light

a) What will be the observed colours of leaves and flowers? Give reason. (2)
b) If a yellow flower is kept in the same light. What will be the observed
colour? (1)

16. The following appliances are used daily in a house.

i. A 200 W television for 5 hours.
ii. Five 40 W LED bulbs for 4 hours each.
Calculate the total electricity bill for 30 days. If the cost of electricity is ₹ 5.00 per
unit (kWh). (3)
17. The image shows a nail being pulled out using a nail puller.

a) Which type of lever is a nail puller? Why? (1)

b) A force of 50 N had to be applied to pull out the nail. If the mechanical
advantage of the nail puller is 5, what was the force experienced by the nail?
(2)

(6)
 SECTION D

Answer any 1 question. Each carries 4 scores. (4 x 1 = 4)

18 A. A magnetic needle is arranged near the end B of a solenoid named AB.

a) Which pole of the magnetic needle is attracted to B when the switch is turned
ON? (1)
b) Explain how you arrived at this answer. (1)
c) Suggest 2 ways to increase the magnetic strength of a solenoid carrying an
electric current. (2)
OR
18 B. A current carrying circular loop is arranged near the end B of a solenoid AB. In
order to get a current through the solenoid a cell is to be connected between P
and Q.

a) Which terminal of a cell should be connected to the point P so that the

conductor loop is repelled from the end B? (1)
b) When the flux produced by the solenoid is increased, what change occurs to the
flux produced by the single loop? (1)
c) If the positive terminal of the cell is connected to the point P and the negative
terminal to the point Q, at which end of the solenoid will North pole be formed?
(1)
d) How does the magnetic field produced around a current carrying solenoid
differ from the magnetic field around a bar magnet? (1)

(7)
 Summative Assessment – Term III - 2025-26
SET - B
Sample Question paper

Physics
Class : X Time : 1 ½ hour
Total Score : 40
 The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the
questions and planning your answers.
 This question paper contains 18 questions.
 In sections A, B, C, and D. Choices have been provided for questions 6, 8, 12,
15 and 18.
 For questions with a choice, you only need to answer one of them.

SECTION A

Answer all questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score.

1. What is the voltage at which electricity is generated in power stations in our

country? (1)

(230 V, 230 kV, 11V, 11 kV)

2. What do you mean by the magnetic effect of electric current? (1)

3. A statement of Assertion (A) is given, followed by a corresponding statement of

Reason (R). (1)
Assertion (A) : Some people can see distant objects clearly, but they cannot see
near objects clearly.
Reason (R) : The eyeball of such persons is too long with respect to the power of
the eye lens.
Choose the correct option from the following :

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct.
(e) Both A and R are not correct.

(1)
4. Some statements associated with a longitudinal wave are given. Choose the
correct statements. (1)

i) compressions and rarefactions are formed alternately

ii) crests and troughs are formed alternately

iii) the direction of vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of

propagation of the wave.

iv) the direction of vibration of particles is perpendicular to the direction of

propagation of the wave

a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iv d) ii and iii

SECTION B

Answer all questions from 5 to 11. Each question carries 2 score.

5. Observe the sound waves depicted below.

a) Which wave has the highest frequency? Why? (1)

b) Which wave has the highest amplitude? Justify. (1)

6 A. Complete the ray diagram and show how the image is formed. Here IM is the
real image of an object. (2)

(2)
 OR

6 B. Complete the ray diagram and show how the image is formed. Here OB is an
object. (2)

7. The colour of a shirt seems to be blue in cyan light. It appears to be magenta

colour when illuminated by magenta light. What is its colour in day light? Give
reason. (2)

8A. The figure shows a copper rod held between two poles of a magnet and
connected to a DC circuit. In which direction will the rod AB move, when the
circuit is switched on? State the rule applied. (2)

OR
8 B. a) Which device is shown below? (1)

b) State the principle of its working. What is the energy change that takes
place when it works. (1)
9. The figure shows nichrome wires kept at the same temperature.

a) Which has higher resistance? Why? (1)

b) Of these, P has the highest resistivity. Write down your comments about
this statement. Describe the reason. (1)

(3)
10. Write down two differences between a step-up transformer and step-down
transformer. (2)

No Step-up transformer Step-down transformer

11. A metal rod 1 m long acts as a first order lever. An effort of 150 gwt acting at
one end balances a load of 350 gwt at the other end. Find the length of the effort
arm and the load arm. (2)

SECTION C

Answer all questions from 12 to 17. Each question carries 3 score.

12 A. A tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz is excited and its stem is placed on a table.
The table vibrated and produced a sound. When a tuning fork of frequency
288 Hz is excited and its stem is placed on the same table, the table gave a
sound of maximum loudness.

a) What is the frequency of vibration of the table in the first case? Give the
reason. (1)
b) What is the natural frequency of the table? Why do you think so? (1)
c) Why was the sound heard with maximum loudness in the second case? (1)
OR
12 B. A child A is in a room of length 10 m and another child B is in a room of
length 40 m. Both of them made a loud sound in their respective rooms. Who
will hear an echo? Why? (3)

13. An object of height 6 cm kept 60 cm away from a lens gave an image on a

screen kept 40 cm away from the lens. Calculate the height of the image
obtained if the object is 40 cm away from the same lens. (3)

(4)
14. White light passing through a prism is depicted.

Name the phenomenon. Explain how this happens. (3)

15 A. a) Which of the following has got the lower electrical resistance – An

electrical appliance having high power or an electrical appliance having
low power (both are operating at the same voltage). Justify your answer.
(1)

b) Calculate the power of a 400 V, 1600 W device when 200 V is applied

across it. (2)
OR

15 B. In a house 4 lamps of 60 W each are used for 3 hours a day and 6 lamps of
40 W each are used for 4 hours a day. Calculate the total energy consumed by
them in 30 days. (3)

16. a) Circuits having current carrying solenoids are depicted. Identify the
correct figure and justify. (1)

b) Write down two methods to increase the magnetic strength of the current
carrying solenoid. (2)

17. Explain how you can prove that a screw is similar to an inclined plane. (3)

(5)
 SECTION D

Answer question 18 A or 18 B. 4 scores.

18 A. The given graph is related to the current induced in the armature of a generator
during its working.

Current  Time 

a) Child A says that it is an AC generator, Child B says that it is a DC generator

and the Child C says it can be both. With whom do you agree? Justify your
answer. (2)

b) In an AC generator and in a DC generator, the armatures are kept stationary and

the magnet is rotated. What do you know about the nature of output from each
generator? Give reason. (2)
OR

18 B. Observe the figures. (4)

In all the figures, the solenoids and bulbs are identical and the soft iron cores, if
present, are also identical. Compare the brightness of each lamp. Give arguments to
support your answer.

(6)
 Summative Assessment – Term III - 2025-26 SET - C
Sample Question paper
Physics
Class : X Time : 1 ½ hour
Total Score : 40

Instructions
 The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions
and planning your answers.
 This question paper contains 18 questions.
 In sections A, B, C, and D. Choices have been provided for questions 6, 8, 14, 17
and 18
 For questions with a choice, you only need to answer one of them.

SECTION A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (4 x 1 = 4)

1. Statement 1 : When the number of turns of coils in a solenoid carrying a constant

current increases, the total flux in the solenoid increases.
Statement 2 : When the number of turns of coils in a solenoid carrying a constant
current increases, the flux through a single turn of coil does not increase. (1)
a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
b) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not correct.
c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct.
d) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct.

2. Which of the following is the correct relationship when the phenomena in columns
P and Q are appropriately paired? (1)

P Q
A) Dispersion i) The rainbow
B) Scattering ii) Path of light is visible
C) Tyndall effect iii) Blue colour of the sky
iv) Persistence of vision

1
 a) A-iii, B -ii, C-i
b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii

3. How many hours does an appliance of power 1000 W work to use 1 kilowatt-hour of
electrical energy? (1)
4. Choose the correct statement associated with the wheel and axle mechanism, from the
following? (1)
i) The mechanical advantage is greater than one.

ii) The work done by effort and the work done by load are equal.

iii) The effort arm is shorter than the load arm.

iv) The radius of the wheel is larger, and the radius of the axle is smaller.
a) i,ii and iii b) i, ii and iv c) ii, iii and iv d) i, iii and iv

SECTION B

Answer questions from 5 to 11. Questions 6 and 8 have a choice. Each question carries
2 score. (7 x 2 = 14)

5. Observe the picture.

A and B are two walls. The distance between them is 28 m. A person claps at a position
marked X. The distance from the wall A to X is 10.5 m.

a) Which wall produces the first echo that can be clearly heard by the person? (1)
b) How much time will it take to hear the first echo of the clap?
(Consider the speed of sound in air as 350 m/s). (1)

2
6A. Following lenses are given to you.

- Convex lens with focal length 100 cm

- Concave lens with focal length 100 cm

- Convex lens with focal length 10 cm

- Concave lens with focal length 10 cm

Select the suitable lenses for the objective and eyepiece to construct a telescope. Justify
your answer. (2)

OR

6 B. A compound microscope magnifies objects.

a) Where must an object be placed with reference to the objective lens? (1)

(At F, between F and 2F, beyond 2F, between F and the lens)

b) Why should the object not be placed at any of the other given positions? (1)

7. What is meant by carbon footprint? Suggest any one method to reduce the carbon
footprint. (2)

8 A. An object appears green in green light, red in red light, and dark in blue light.

a) What is the colour of this object in white light? Why? (1)

b) In which colour will this object appear in cyan light? Why? (1)

OR

8 B. White light is passed through a magenta filter, then through a yellow filter, and finally
through a red filter, and projected onto a white wall.

a) Which colours of light will pass through the magenta filter? Why? (1)

b) Which colour will fall on the white wall? Why? (1)

3
9. Observe the figure.

a) What form of electricity is obtained in the external circuit when the armature of
this device rotates? Justify the answer. (1)

b) If the armature is kept stationary and the field magnet is rotated, what form of
electricity will be obtained in the external circuit? What is the reason? (1)

10. A transformer without any power loss operating at 240 V has 3000 turns in the primary
and 750 turns in the secondary.

a) What is the voltage across the secondary? (1)

b) If the power in the secondary is 480 W, what is the primary current? (1)

11. The important part of a safety fuse is the fuse wire.

a) What are the properties of a fuse wire? (1)

b) What situations could lead to an excessive current that causes a fuse wire to
melt? (1)

SECTION C

Answer questions 12 to 17 each question carrying 3 score. Questions 14 and 17 have

choices. (6 x 3 = 18)

12. The distance between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of a sound wave is
17.5 cm. This wave takes 2 s to travel a distance of 1400 m.
a) What is the wavelength of the wave? (1)
b) What is the frequency of the wave? (2)

4
13. An object placed in front of a lens produces an erect image. Here magnification is ½.
a) What is the height of the object compared to the height of the image? (1)
(Half / Double / Same size / Four times)
b) Draw the image formation in this case. (2)

14 A. a) What is the distance to the near point for a healthy human eye? (1)
b) How does this distance change for a person suffering from presbyopia? (1)
c) The power of accommodation for them is (higher/lower). (1)

OR

14 B. Observe the figure.

a) Where is the far point of individuals with this defect? (1)

(At Infinity / At a certain distance from the eye / 25 cm)

b) Write two reasons for this defect. (1)

c) How can this defect be corrected? (1)

15. Observe the figure showing a conductor connected to battery and placed between the
magnetic poles N and S,

a) What is the direction of force on the conductor? Which law helped to find this?
(2)

b) Explain why the conductor is moving in this direction. (1)

5
16. A conducting wire AB is bent in the form of a loop. The two ends of this wire are
connected to a battery.

a) What is the direction of the magnetic field formed around the conductor at points
A and B when the switch is turned on? (1)

b) Explain how will you determine the direction of the magnetic field when current
passes through the conducting loop. (2)

17A. An electric heating appliance marked 800 W, 240 V operates for 10 minutes.
a) Calculate the quantity of heat produced. (1)
b) What will be the power of the appliance if the voltage is 120 V? (2)

OR
17B. A heating appliance is marked 1000 W, 230 V.
a) What does it mean? (1)
b) What will be the resistance of this appliance? (1)
c) If we change the labelling of the same device as 250 W, X ; find the value of X?
(1)

SECTION D

Answer any 1 question. Each carries 4 score. (4 x 1 = 4)

18A. A 1200 kgwt load is lifted to the top of a 3 m high building using a 9 m long inclined
plane.
a) How much force is required to lift this load along the inclined plane? (2)
b) Prove that there is no gain in work in using the inclined plane during this process.

(2)

OR
18B. Screw Jacks are used to lift objects easily. 30 cm length of the threaded region of the
screw contains 15 screw threads. The length of each thread is 10 cm.
a) What is meant by pitch of a screw? (1)
b) Calculate the mechanical advantage of this screw jack. (3)

6
 Set A
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26
(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
CHEMISTRY

Std : X
Time : 1½ Hours Maximum Score : 40

Instructions
• First fifteen minutes are cool off time. Read the questions carefully and plan the
answers during this time.
• Write the answers according to the instructions.
• Consider the score while writing the answers.
• Answer only one question for questions having choice A and B.

Answer all the questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 =4)
1. Assertion (A): A gas having a volume of 44 L at 1 atm pressure will compress to
11 L at 4 atm pressure.
Reason (R) : According to Boyle’s Law, P1V1=P2V2.
Which among the following is correct? (1)
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
2 Some statements are given below regarding the element with atomic number 24.
Statement 1. The subshell electron configuration of this element is
1s22s22p63s23p63d44s2.
Statement 2. The last electron enters the d subshell.
Statement 3. The l value of the subshell where the last electron enters is 1.
Statement 4. The subshell containing the outermost electron has 5 orbitals.
Which of the following is correct regarding these statements? (1)
A. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, but 4 is not correct.
B. Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. Statement 1 is not correct, but 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. Statements 1 and 3 are not correct, but 2 and 4 are correct.
3. Which of the following is an acidic salt? (1)
A. NaCl B. Na2CO3
C. NH4Cl D. K2SO4

1
4. Match the following.
A B
Characteristics of ore Method of concentration
X) Ore particles are heavier than p) Froth floatation
the impurities
Y) Ore particles are lighter than q) Magnetic separation
the impurities
Z) Magnetic nature of ore r) Levigation
s) Leaching
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1)
X Y Z
A) p q s
B) p r q
C) s p r
D) r p q
Two questions from 5 to 11 have choice. Each question carries 2 scores. (7×2 =14)
5. A reversible reaction in equilibrium is given.
2NO (g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g) + heat
Write any two changes that should be made in concentration and pressure to increase the
amount of nitrogen dioxide in this chemical reaction. (2)
6. (A) A propyne molecule is allowed to react with two hydrogen molecules
(a) Write the chemical equation for this reaction. (1)
(b) Write the IUPAC name of the product. (1)
OR
(B) Ethane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight.
a) What is the name of this chemical reaction? (1)
b) Write the IUPAC name of the product obtained. (1)
7. A zinc rod is kept in CuSO₄ solution for some time.
a) What change is observed on the surface of the Zn rod? (1)
b) What is the reason for the fading of the blue colour of the CuSO 4 solution? (1)
8. (A) The relationship between the volume and temperature of a fixed mass of gas at
constant pressure is illustrated in the graph below.

Temperature T(K)

2
 a) Which gas law is this graph related to? (1)
b) If the volume of this gas is 150 L at 300 K, what will be the volume of this gas
at 600 K? (1)
OR
(B) 10 L of oxygen at constant temperature and pressure contains X molecules. Answer
the questions related to other gas samples at the same temperature and pressure.
a) How many molecules are there in 5 L of hydrogen under the same conditions? (1)
b) What will be the volume of 3X molecules of CO₂? (1)
9. Ionisation enthalpy of s block elements are lower than that of p block elements.
a) What is ionisation enthalpy? (1)
b) Which element in the second period has the highest ionisation enthalpy? (1)
10. Incomplete equations related to the concentration of zinc ores are given.
X
i. ZnCO3 + heat ⟶ ------ + CO2
Y
ii. ZnS +O2 + heat ⟶ ------ + SO2
(a) Identify X and Y. (1)
(b) How does calcination differ from roasting? (1)
11. Analyze the structure of the given compound.
CH2‒CH2‒CH3
‫׀‬
CH3‒CH2 ‒CH‒CH2‒CH3
(a) How many carbon atoms are in the main chain? (1)
(b) What is the name of the branching alkyl group? (1)
Two questions from 12 to 17 have choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (6× 3 =18)
12. Observe the items given in the box.

Zn, Mg, Cu, CuSO4 solution, MgSO4 solution,

ZnSO4 solution, Salt bridge

(a) How many galvanic cells can be constructed using these? (1)
(b) Which galvanic cell has the highest value of voltage? (1)
(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction occurring at the anode of the cell
with the highest value of voltage? (1)

3
13. Sodium hydroxide is manufactured industrially by the Chlor-alkali process.
a) Identify the substance, the aqueous solution of which is electrolysed? (1)
b) Which substance undergoes reduction at the cathode of the membrane cell? (1)
c) What are the products obtained in addition to sodium hydroxide? (1)
14.(A) The gases CO2 and SO2 are kept at STP. Their volume is 112L.
a) What is the volume of one mole of gas at STP? (1)
b) What is the mass of 112 L of CO₂? (Molecular mass: CO 2 = 44) (1)
c) How many molecules are present in SO₂? (1)
OR
(B) A chemical reaction taking place at STP is given below.
CH4 + 2O2 ⟶ CO2 + 2H2O
a) How many moles of methane are required to react with 10 moles of oxygen? (1)
b) Calculate the mass and volume of CO2 obtained if 64 g of methane is completely
burnt. (2)
(Molecular mass: CH4 = 16, O₂ = 32, CO₂ = 44, H₂O = 18)
15. Ethanol is produced by fermenting diluted molasses with yeast. The enzyme invertase
in yeast converts the sugar solution into glucose and fructose. Then, another enzyme
called zymase converts the glucose and fructose into ethanol.
a) Write the chemical equations for these reactions. (2)
b) What is power alcohol? (1)
16.(A)Aluminium is manufactured by the electrolysis of alumina with the addition of
cryolite.
a) Why is cryolite added to alumina? (1)
b) Which ions are present in alumina? (1)
c) Write the chemical equation for the reduction reaction that takes place at the negative
electrode. (1)
OR
(B) Iron is extracted from haematite using a blast furnace.
a) Which compound acts as reducing agent in the blast furnace? (1)
b) Complete the following chemical equations. (1)
CaCO3 + Heat ⟶ A + CO2
A + SiO2 ⟶ B
c) What is the function of 'A ' in this reaction? (1)

4
17. The atoms of elements A and B each have 3 shells. (Symbols are not real.)
Element A belongs to group 13 and element B belongs to group 16.
a) Write the subshell electronic configuration of A. (1)
b) Which block do these two elements belong to? (1)
c) What is the oxidation state of A in its chloride compound? (1)
(Oxidation state of Cl = −1)
Question 18 has choice. It carries 4 score. (1 × 4 =4)
18. One molecule of an organic compound contains 4 carbon atoms, 10 hydrogen atoms,
and one oxygen atom. The functional group of this compound is hydroxyl group.
a) Write the structural formula of this compound. (1)
b) Write the structural formula of another organic compound with the same molecular
formula but a different functional group. (1)
c) Write the structural formulae of a pair of position isomers with this molecular
formula. (1)
d) Write the structural formula of an isomer with the same molecular formula but
with different alkyl groups on both sides of the functional group. (1)
OR
The IUPAC name of a compound is Pent-1-yne
a) What is the name of the homologous series to which it belongs? (1)
b) Write the structural formula of this compound. (1)
c) Write the structural formulae of a pair of position isomers with this molecular
formula. (1)
d) Write the structural formulae of chain isomers of an alkane containing 5 carbon
atoms with one branch and with two branches. (1)

5
 Set B
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26
(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
CHEMISTRY
Std : X
Time : 1½ Hours Maximum Score : 40

Instructions
• First fifteen minutes are cool off time. Read the questions carefully and plan the answers
during this time.
• Write the answers according to the instructions.
• Consider the score while writing the answers.
• Answer only one question for questions having choice A and B.

Answer all the questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 =4)
1. Match the following. (1)

Category Function
(a) Analgesics (i) control micro organism
(b) Antipyretics (ii) reduce hair fall
(c) Antiseptics (iii) relieve pain
(iv) reduce body temperature
Choose the correct one from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c)
A. (ii) (i) (iii)
B. (iii) (iv) (i)
C (iv) (i) (ii)
D (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. When Cu is added to con. H2SO4, the gas produced is, (1)
A. H2
B. SO2
C. NO2
D. CuO
3. Which of the following statements are correct? (1)
i) -CHO is the functional group of aldehydes.
ii) Acetone contains only two carbon atoms.
iii) Pentanone can show position isomerism.
iv) Ethers have hydroxyl group as functional group.
A. i & ii are correct
B. i & iii are correct
C. i & iv are correct
D. All the statements are correct

1
4. Assertion (A): In d block elements electrons fill in the outermost s subshell before filling in the
penultimate d subshell.
Reason (R) : Outer 4s subshell has higher n value than penultimate 3d subshell.
Which of the following is correct? (1)
A. Both A and R are correct, R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is not correct.
D. A and R are not correct.
Two questions from 5 to 9 have choice. Each question carries 2 scores. (5x 2 =10)
5. The organic compounds with molecular formula C4H10O show metamerism.
a) Which category of organic compounds do these compounds belongs to? (1)
b) Write the structural formulae of these metamers. (1)
6. (A) Calamine and zinc blende are the ores of Zinc.
a) Which of them can be converted to zinc oxide by calcination? (1)
b) Write the equation of this process. (1)
OR
(B) a) Which is the reducing agent used to produce aluminium? (1)
b) Why is cryolite added to alumina during the production of aluminium? (1)
7. You are given sodium chloride and water.
a) How will you produce sodium and chlorine from the given substances? (1)
b) Write a method to produce hydrogen and sodium hydroxide using these substances. (1)
8. The size of an air bubble coming up from the bottom of an aquarium increases.
a) To which gas law does this situation relate? (1)
b) State the law. (1)
9.(A) The subshell electron configuration of an element X is given. (Symbol not real)
X – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2
a) What is the atomic number of X? (1)
b) Find the group to which X belong. (1)
OR
(B) An element A belongs to 4th period. It has three electrons in its 3d subshell.
(Symbol is not real)
a) Write the subshell electron configuration of A. (1)
b) Write any two properties of elements belong to the block to which A belongs. (1)

2
Two questions from 10 to 15 have choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (6x 3 =18)
10. A saturated organic compound has four carbon atoms in its main chain and two methyl groups
in its second carbon atom.
a) Write the structural formula of this compound. (1)
b) Write its molecular formula. (1)
c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound. (1)
11.(A) A Galvanic cell is made using Zn and Cu as electrodes.
a) Write the name of this galvanic cell. (1)
b) At which electrode does oxidation take place? (1)
c) Write the equation of redox reaction taking place in this cell. (1)
OR
(B) In a Galvanic cell Cu acts as cathode and the reaction taking place at the anode is
Al⟶ Al3 + + 3e
a) Which salt solution is to be taken along with aluminium electrode? (1)
b) If a magnesium rod is used instead of copper, write the direction of flow of electron? (1)
c) Arrange Cu, Al and Mg in the decreasing order of their reactivity. (1)
12. Caustic soda is a very important chemical.
a) Write the chemical name of caustic soda. (1)
b) Write the name of industrial production of this compound. (1)
c) Why is caustic soda considered as an alkali? (1)
13. Iron is a very useful metal.
a) Why is limestone added along with the iron ore to blast furnace? (1)
b) Which is the substance used to reduce iron ore? (1)
c) Write the name of iron obtained from the blast furnace? (1)
14.(A) Orbitals and subshells are associated with certain quantum numbers.
a) Find the n+l values of 3p and 4s subshells. (1)
b) Which of them has more energy? Justify your answer. (2)
OR
(B) A subshell has an n value 3 and l value 2.
a) Represent the given subshell. (1)
b) What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in this subshell?(1)
c) How many orientations are possible for the orbitals of this subshell? (1)

3
15. Ammonia is essential for plant growth.
a) Write the equation of production of NH3 by Haber Process. (1)
b) What is the effect of pressure in the reaction after reaching equilibrium? (1)
c) Why 450ºC is used as optimum temperature in Haber process? (1)
One question from 16 to 17 has choice. Each carries 4 score. (2 x 4 =8)
16. (A) A sample of CO2 gas contains 176 g of carbon dioxide.
a) What is the volume of the sample at STP? (2)
b) How many grams of carbon should be burnt to get this amount of CO 2? (2)
(Atomic mass, C = 12, O = 16)

OR
(B) 2H2 + O2 ⟶ 2 H2O is the equation of formation of water.
a) What is the mass of O2 gas needed to get 36 g of water? (1)
b) Find the volume of H2 gas needed to get 22.4 L of H2O vapour at STP? (2)
c) If we take 4 g of hydrogen, how much gram of O2 should be taken to react completely
with this hydrogen? (1)
17. CH≡CH is an alkyne. Starting from this alkyne how are the following compounds formed?
a) CH3 - CH3 (1)
b) CHCl2 - CHCl2 (1)
c) CH2 = CHCl (1)
d) PVC (1)

4
 Set C
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT III 2025-26
(MODEL QUESTION PAPER)
CHEMISTRY
Std : X
Time : 1½ Hours Maximum Score : 40

Instructions
• First fifteen minutes are cool off time. Read the questions carefully and plan the answers
during this time.
• Write the answers according to the instructions.
• Consider the score while writing the answers.
• Answer only one question for questions having choice A and B.

Answer all the questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (4 x 1 =4)

1. Find the relation and fill up suitably (1)

-CHO : alkanal
> C=O : .............
` A. alkanol
B. alkanoic acid
C. alkanone
D. ether
2. Three statements are given. (1)
Statement 1: The groups 3 to 12 are included in d block.
Statement 2 : p block elements are placed at the bottom of the periodic table.
Statement 3 : Ionisation enthalpy increases on moving down the group.
Which of the following is correct regarding the given statements?
A . Statements 1, 2 and 3 are not correct.
B. Statement 1 is correct, but statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
C. Statement 2 and 3 are correct, but statement 1 is not correct.
D. Statement 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is not correct.
3. Match the following. (1)

A B
a) 6.022×1023 NH3 i) 2 g
b) 22.4 L H2 at STP ii) 44 g
c) 1 mol CO2 iii) 17 g
iv)1 g

1
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c)
A. (ii) (i) (iii)
B. (i) (iv) (iii)
C (iii) (i) (ii)
D (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. Assertion (A) : Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with metals and gets reduced.
Reason (R) : Concentrated sulphuric acid is a good oxidising agent.
Which of the following is correct? (1)
A. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not correct.
C. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
D. Both A and R are not correct
Two questions from 5 to 12 have choice. Each question carries 2 scores. (8x 2 =16)
5. The atomic number of an element is 22.
a) Write the subshell electron configuration of the given element. (1)
b) Which group does it belong to? (1)
6. The volume of a fixed mass of a gas at 1 atm pressure is 10 L.
a) What will be its volume if the pressure is increased to 5 atm? (1)
b) State the gas law applicable here. (1)

7. (A) In a galvanic cell, zinc rod is dipped in zinc sulphate solution and silver rod is dipped in silver
nitrate solution.
a) Identify the electrode at which oxidation takes place. (1)
b) What is the energy change taking place in a galvanic cell? (1)
OR
(B) a) What is the energy change taking place in an electrolytic cell? (1)
b) In which electrode, oxidation takes place in an electrolytic cell? (1)
8. A homologous series is given.
CH4, C2H6, C3H8, ...A... , C5H12, ...B... .
a) Find A and B (1)
b) What is the general formula of the given homologous series ? (1)
9. (A) a) What is meant by polymerisation? (1)
b) Write the name of the monomer of polythene. (1)
OR
(B) a) What are the two types of polymerisation? (1)
b) What is the polymer of vinyl chloride? (1)

2
10. Which method of concentration is used in each of the following situations?
a) The density of the ore is more than that of the gangue. (1)
b) The density of the ore is less than that of the gangue. (1)
11. X is a basic salt . Analyse the data regarding the acid and base from which X is formed.
i) The acid is formed when carbon dioxide is dissolved in water under pressure.
ii) The base is formed by Chlor - alkali process.
a) Identify the salt X and write its chemical formula. (1)
b) Write the chemical equation of the hydrolysis of the salt X. (1)
12. Starting from carbon monoxide, how are the following compounds prepared industrially? (2)
a) Methanol b) Ethanoic acid
Two questions from 13 to 16 have choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (4x 3 =12)
13. (A) There are 6 carbon atoms in a saturated hydrocarbon. There is a methyl group at the second
carbon atom.
a) Write the structural formula of the given hydrocarbon. (1)
b) Write the structural formula of any possible chain isomer of it and its IUPAC name. (2)
OR
(B) There are 5 carbon atoms in a hydrocarbon. There is a double bond between the first and
second carbon atoms.
a) Write the structural formula of its position isomer (1)
b) Write the structural formula of another unsaturated hydrocarbon having molecular formula
C5H8 and its position isomer. (2)
14. Analyse the given figure and answer the following questions.

(i) (ii)
a) Identify the beaker in which chemical change take place? (1)
b) Give reason. (1)
c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place here. (1)
15. (A) A sample of carbon dioxide contains 3×6.022×10 23 molecules.
a) Find the number of moles of ammonia which contains as many molecules as that of the sample
of carbon dioxide? Calculate the mass of ammonia. (2)

3
 b) Find the volume of ammonia at STP which contains the same number of moles as that of the
sample of carbon dioxide. (1)
OR
(B) A sample of ammonia has a volume of 2240 L at STP.
a) Find the number of moles of ammonia in the given sample. (1)
b) Find the number of molecules of carbon dioxide equal to that of the sample of ammonia.
(1)
c) Find the number of moles of carbon dioxide present in 396 g of carbon dioxide. (1)
16. a) What are alloys? (1)
b) Write the components of the alloy, Stainless steel. (1)
c) Which is the alloy steel used in the core of electromagnetic instruments? (1)
One question from 17 to 18 has choice. Each carries 4 scores. (2 x 4 =8)
17. (A) Consider the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat
a) What will be the effect on the chemical equilibrium if: (2)
i) Temperature is increased
ii) Pressure is decreased
b) Substantiate your answers. (2)
OR
(B) Consider the reversible reaction.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + heat
a) How does the decrease in pressure affect the rate of forward reaction? (1)
b) How does the increase in temperature affect the decomposition of SO3? (1)
c) Substantiate your answers. (2)
18. A few subshells are given.
(i) 3d (ii) 4s (iii) 4f (iv) 5d
a) Find the n and l values of each subshell (2)
b) Find n+l values and arrange the given subshells in the increasing order of their energies. (2)

4
 SET - A

Summative Assessment - III - 2025 - 2026

(Model question paper)

Class: X BIOLOGY Score: 40

Time: 1 ½ hrs
Instructions:
1. First 15 minutes is given as cool off time. You may use this time to read the questions
and plan your answers.
2. Read the questions carefully and answer the questions.
3. Keep in mind the score and time while answering the questions.
4. Choices are given for questions 6, 8, 10, 14 and 17.
Answer questions 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4x1=4)
1. Observe the illustration of different RNAs and choose the correctly labelled option. 1

A B C
a) A- tRNA, B- mRNA, C- rRNA
b) A- mRNA, B- rRNA, C- tRNA
c) A- mRNA, B- tRNA, C- rRNA
d) A-rRNA, B- tRNA, C- mRNA
2. Which cells form the myelin sheath? 1
i) Oligodendrocyte   ii) Microglial cell
iii) Astrocyte   iv) Schwann cell
3. Match the information in Column A with the information in Column B and choose
the correct one. 1

A. Organism B. sensory mechanisms
P) Insects i) Jacobson’s organ
Q) Snake ii) Eye spot
R) Euglena Iii) Echo location

iv) Ommatidia

a) P-ii, Q- iii, R - iv b) P-iv, Q- i, R- ii

c) P-iii, Q- iv, R- i d) P-iv, Q-ii, R- iii

1
4. Which are the parts of the vestibular system? 1
a) Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea
b) Cochlea, vestibule, hair cells
c) Semicircular canals, vestibule, hair cells
d) Vestibule, semicircular canals, basilar membrane

Answer questions 5 to 9. Each carries 2 score. (5x2=10))

5. An illustration of a stage in the process of protein synthesis within a cell is given. Observe it
and answer the questions

a) Identify and name the stage of the protein synthesis. 1

b) What is the role of the molecule labelled as X, in protein synthesis? 1
6A. Give reason. 2
a) Colour blindness affects males more frequently.
b) Cone cells provide colour vision..
OR
6 B. Analyse the statements about the two fluids in the eye and answer the questions.
A. Watery fluid B. Jelly-like fluid
a) Identify and write the names of fluids A and B. 1
b) What are the functions of each of these fluids? 1
7. Observe the poster displayed at the primary health centre and answer the question.

How does a vaccine become a weapon to fight against diseases? 2

2
8A. Analyse the given indicators about a disease and answer the questions:

• Mosquito-borne disease • The affected part of the body swells

a) Name the disease. Which mosquito spreads it? 1
b) Why does the affected part of the body swell? 1
OR
8B. Analyse the given statement about a disease and answer the questions.
A condition in which cells multiply through abnormal and uncontrolled cell division and
spread to other parts of the body.
a) How does this disease spread to other parts of the body? 1
b) What are the causes of this disease? 1

9. Answer the questions by analysing the given statement.

DNA fingerprinting is a technology used to identify
individuals by analyzing the arrangement of nucleotides.
a) How can individuals be identified using DNA fingerprinting technology? 1
b) Write other two uses of this technology. 1

Answer questions 10 to 15. Each carries 3 score. (6 x3=18)

10A. Observe the illustration of a monohybrid cross conducted by Gregor Mendel and answer the
questions
Parent plants

GG gg
(Green coloured Pod) (Yellow coloured pod)

Gametes

G g

F1

a) Write the phenotype and genotype of F1.

1
b) Illustrate the self-pollination of F1. 2
OR

3
10 B. Observe the dihybrid cross conducted based on the height of the pea plant and the colour of
the pod, and answer the questions.

Parent plants

TTGG ttgg
(Tall, Green coloured pod) (Dwarf, Yellow coloured pod)

Gametes

TG tg

F1

a) Write the phenotype and genotype of F1. 1

b) When the F1 generation is self-pollinated, what new traits are produced in the F2
generation that are different from the parent plants?? 1
c) What is the reason for the appearance of new traits in the F₂ generation? 1

11. Analyse the given statement and answer the questions.

Variation leads to speciation.
a) What is speciation? ? 1
b) What are the causes of variation? 1
c) How does variation lead to speciation? 1
12. Redraw the diagram of Eye and answer the questions.
For redrawing the diagram 1

A
A

a) Name the parts A and B. 1

b) How does the part A regulate the curvature of the lens when looking at
nearby objects? 1

4
13. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.
Lysosome

Receptor

Pathogen

a) Which process is indicated in the illustration? 1

b) Illustrate the steps of this process in the form of a flowchart. 2

14 A. Evaluate the statements related to a hormone and answer the questions.

• Stored in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
• Helps to maintain water balance in the body
a) Which hormone is mentioned here? Which gland produces it?
b) How does this hormone maintain water balance in the body during
summer and winter? 2
OR
14 B. Evaluate the statements related to hormonal disorders and answer the questions..
• Related to growth hormone.
• Occurs during the growth period.
a) Name the hormonal disorders mentioned here? 1
b) Write the cause and symptoms of each 2
15. Observe the illustration of the main stage of a technology and answer the questions.

X
Y

a) Stage of which technology is indicated here? 1

b) Which part is indicated as X? Which stage uses it? 1
c) Which part is indicated as Y? What is its function? 1

5
X
 Answer questions 16 and 17. Each carries 4 score. (2 x4=8)
16 A. Observe the illustration and answer the questions. (No need to draw the figure)

i) Cerebrum

ii) Mid brain

iv) Medulla Oblongata
iii) Thalamus

a) If there is any mistake in the labelling, correct it and write it down.. 1

b) Write the functions of the corrected parts. 2
c) How is the brain protected? 1
OR
16 B. Observe the illustration and answer the questions. (No need to draw the figure)
A

a) Name the parts A and B. 1

b) Identify the fluid in the part labelled as A? What is its function? 1
c) How is part B formed? What is its function? 2

17. The graph showing the FBS (Fasting Blood Sugar) levels of three individuals is given.
Analyse it and answer the questions.

6
a) Which person has diabetes? How can it be identified through graph analysis? 1
b) Further testing revealed that this patient has type 1 diabetes. What does this mean?
(Reason) 1
c) What is the reason for the increase in type 2 diabetes in children? 1
d) Write any two consequences that can occur if diabetes is not controlled. 1

7
 SET B
Summative Assessment - III 2025 - 2026
(Model Question Paper)
Biology
Time : 1 ½ Hours Class : X
Score : 40

Instructions
• The first 15 minutes are cool-off time.
• This time can be used for reading the questions and planning the answers
• Write answers only according to the instructions and questions.
• While writing the answers, consider the score and time.
• Question numbers 5, 10, 13, 16 and 18 are given choices.

Answer questions 1 to 4 (1 score each) (4 x 1=4)

1. Identify the statement which is not the characteristic of DNA and choose the correct
option from the given statements. (1)
Statements:
i. Two strands are present..
ii. Adenine, Thymine, Uracil, and Guanine are the nitrogen bases.
iii. The sugar deoxyribose is present.
A. i and ii
B. i and iii
C. ii only
D. iii only

2. Analyse the table and find out the correct one from the given options. (1)

A B
P. Aldosterone i. Controls sexual development

Q. Androgens ii. Suppresses the Immune responses

R. Cortisol iii. Regulates blood pressure

iv. Helps in the body growth.

A. P-ii, Q-iii. R-iv

B. P-iii, Q-i, R-ii
C. P-iv, Q-ii, R-i
D. P-ii, Q-i, R-iii

1
3. Examine the statement and the reason, and choose the correct answer from the given
options. (1)
Statement: Chemoreceptors help to sense taste.
Reason: Chemoreceptors are found in the mucous membrane of the nose.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct.
B. Both the statement and the reason are incorrect.
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
D. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.

4. Some physiological changes that occur during emergency situations are given below.
Analyse them and find out which ones occur when the sympathetic system is stimulated
from the given options. (1)
i. Slows down peristalsis.
ii. Increases production of saliva.

iii. Decreases heartbeat.

iv. Decreases production of saliva.

A. i, ii correct iii, iv incorrect.

B. i, iii correct ii, iv incorrect
C. ii, iv correct i, iii incorrect
D. i, iv correct ii, iii incorrect

Answer questions 5 to 11 2 scores each. (7 x 2=14)

5. (A). A cross between a plant with red flowers and a plant with white flowers conducted by
Gregor Mendel is illustrated below . Analyse it and answer the following questions.
(2)

Red flowers x White flowers

RR x rr

Gametes R r

F1

a) Write the genotype and phenotype of F1.

b) Illustrate the cross between the F₁ plant and the parent plant that produces white
flowers.
(OR)

2
 (B). When a tall plant producing round seeds was crossed with a dwarf plant producing
wrinkled seeds, the genotype of the first generation obtained was TtRr.

a) Which gametes are likely to be produced when this plant is self-pollinated ?

b) Which phenotypes appear in the second generation that are different from the
parent organisms?

6. Based on Darwin’s theory of evolution, explain the following statement: (2)

"The variation in the beaks of finches in the Galapagos Islands resulted in their
survival.".

7. Explain the role of the following hormones in the process shown in the illustration. (2)

• Gibberellins

• Cytokinins

8. "Growth in technology plays an essential role in the survival and conservation of nature
and its living beings." Write two examples that justify this statement. (2)

9. “Since the AB blood group does not have antibodies, it can receive blood from donors of
any blood group”. Do you agree with this statement? Why? (2)

3
10. (A). Observe the following illustration of a communicable disease transmitted by
mosquitoes and answer the given questions. (2)

a) Identify the disease and write its symptoms.

b) What precautions can be taken to prevent this disease?

(OR)
(B). The illustration shows a disease that causes excessive bleeding even from small
wounds. Observe it and answer the questions given below.

a) Name the disease ? What is the cause of this disease?

b) Suggest any one method of treatment for this disease.

11. An important trend in human evolution is illustrated.

Organic evolution

Cranial capacity- 350cm3 Cranial capacity- 1350cm3

How has this change that occurred through the process of evolution influenced the survival
of modern humans? (2)

4
Answer questions 12 to 17 . 3 scores each (6 x 3=18)

12. Observe the illustration and answer the given questions.. (3)
A

a) How is the molecule A formed in this process?

b) Explain the role of tRNA and rRNA in the formation of the molecule B.

13. (A). Analyse the illustrations X, Y, and Z and answer the questions. (3)

a) Which immune mechanism is shown in the illustration?

b) Explain how this process takes place.

(OR)
(B). Analyse the illustration and answer the questions.

a) Which immune mechanism is shown in the illustration?

b) How does this process help in destroying pathogens?

14. The different layers of cells in the retina are given as indicators. Write the function of each.
(3)
Indicators :
• Layer of photoreceptors
• Bipolar cell layer
• Ganglion cell layer

5
15. Redraw the diagram and answer the questions? (3)

a) Redraw the diagram.

b) Name the parts labelled as P and Q.
c) Write any one function of the part labelled as R.

16. (A). Analyse the illustration and answer the questions. (3)

a) Name the process? a) How does this process bring about changes in the genetic
makeup of organisms?
b) Write the names of the enzymes used in the processes P and Q.

(OR)
(B). A description related to a gene-editing technology is given below. Analyse it and
answer the questions.
“ The sequence of nitrogen bases in DNA is edited so as to make changes in the
characteristic of an organism. Through that, unwanted characteristics can be
removed or new characteristics can be added.”.
a) Name the process mentioned in the description.
b) What are the roles of guide RNA and Cas9 in this technology?

6
17. The cochlea, which is part of the inner ear, is shown in the illustration. Observe it and
answer the given questions. (3)

a) Which fluid fills the upper and lower chambers?

b) Write the name of the part labelled X. What is its importance in the hearing process?

Answer questions 18. 4 scores. (1 x 4=4)

18. (A). P and Q are the hormones that regulate the glucose level in the blood. Observe the
illustration and answer the given questions. (3)

a) Which cells produce the hormone P? Write the name of the gland where these cells
are found.
b) Explain the role of the hormone Q in regulating blood glucose levels.
c) Write any two lifestyle habits that should be adopted to control type 2 diabetes,
which is commonly seen in children.

(OR)
(B). Examine the indicators and explain their role in regulating the water balance in the
body during summer and winter.
Indicators :
• Vasopressin
• Hypothalamus

7
 SET C
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - III - 2025-26
SSLC Model Question Paper
Biology
Std: X Max Score: 40
Time: 1.30 hrs.
Instructions
1. The first 15 minutes are cool-off time, to read and plan the answers.
2. Read all questions and instructions carefully before answering.
3. Consider score and time while writing answers.
4. Questions 5, 10, 13, 16, and 18 carry choices.

Answer questions from 1 to 4 each carries one score (4×1=4)

1. Which human ancestor among the following is the contemporary of modern man? (1)
(Homo sapiens, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis)
2 Analyse the statements and choose the correct answer: (1)
Statement 1 : Night blindness and xerophthalmia are eye diseases caused by
deficiency of Vitamin A.
Statement 2 : Prolonged deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness.
i) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false.
ii) Both statements are false.
iii) Statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.
iv) Both statements are true.
3. Match the different types of movements in Column A with the associated parts of the ear in
Column B and choose the correct option: (1)

A Different types of movements B Parts of the ear

P Linear movement of the head 1. Oval window
Q Rotational movement of the head 2. Hair cells of Organ of Corti
R Movement of endolymph in cochlea 3. Hair cells of vestibule
S Vibration of stapes 4. Round window
5. Hair cells of semi circular canal

a) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5
c) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1
d) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

1
4. Choose the correct statements from the following: (1)
i. The SRY gene on the Y chromosome determines the development of the ovary in the
embryo.
ii. Chromosomes that determine physical traits are autosomes.
iii. DNA strands wind around the histone octamer forms a structure called nucleosome
iv. In chromosome nucleosomes are connected by centromeres
a) i and ii true
b) ii and iv true
c) ii and iii true
d) iii and iv true
Answer questions from 5 to 11 each carries 2 score (7×2=14)
5.A Observe the iluustration showing the muscles that control the size of the pupil and
answer the questions.

i Identify the muscles A and B (1)

ii How does their action differ in bright and dim light . (1)
OR
5B. Analyse the statement and answer:
A variation in production of a neurotransmitter helps in distinguishing light and
darkness.
i) Name the neurotransmitter. (1)
ii) How is darkness detected? (1)
6. Read the news report and answer the questions
"DNA analysis of a fossil skull helped trace human ancestry."
i) Which technology made this possible? (1)
ii) What is the basis of this technology? (1)

2
7. Obsrve the graph and answer the questions

10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
Malaria Tuberculosis Rat fever Filariasis
Diseases
a) Which disease affected the largest number of people? (½)
b) Suggest precautions to prevent its spread. (1)
c) Identify the bacterial diseases from the graph. (½)

8. Some finch species found in the Galápagos Islands are listed in the box. (2)
Explain the formation of these species based on Darwin’s theory of natural selection
insectivorous finches, cactus-eating finches, seed-eating finches.

9. Observe the figure and answer the questions (2)

If the RNA indicated becomes inactive, which stage of protein synthesis will be affected?
How?
10. Analyse the table and answer the questions. (2)

Organism Difference in the amino acids of the beta chain

as compared to humans

Chimpanzee 0

Gorilla 1

Rat 31

a) Which branch of biology is this evidence given in the table related to? (½)
b) Explain the evolutionary relationship among these organisms based on the
information? (1½)
3
11 A. A farmer’s pepper plantation was visited by an agriculture officer and found that the
plants are affected by quick wilt disease.
a) Identify the pathogen of this disease. (½)
b) What symptoms might have helped in identifying the disease? (1½)
OR
B. During a school blood donation camp, a student was given opportunity to match blood
donors and recipients.
a) What factors would be considered for this? (1)
b) What happens if the donor’s blood contains an antigen that is naturally
absent in the recipient’s blood? (1)

Answer questions from 12 to 17 each carries 3 scores (6×3=18)

12.
X

i) What does the illustration indicate? (1)

ii) Write the function of the part indicated as X (1)
iii) How does the process that occurs as a result of the action of the Cas9
enzyme bring about a change in the trait of an organism? (1)

13. Observe the illustration and answer the questions

i) Identify the type of cell shown. (1)

ii) What is the advantage of its sensitivity to different wavelengths? (2)
14 A. Read the statement and answer the questions
Currently, there is no medicine to completely cure this disease. However, through Anti
Retro viral Therapy (ART), it is possible to control the multiplication of the virus and
maintain the patient's immunity
i) Which disease is mentioned in the statement? How does it affect the body? (2)
ii) How can its transmission be prevented? (1)
OR

4
 B. The box shows some proteins and enzymes involved in blood clotting: Analyse the
information in the box and answer the questions.

Prothrombin, Fibrinogen, Fibrin, Thromboplastin

a) Explain the process of blood clotting including the information in the

sequential order. (2)
b) Beyond preventing blood loss, what is the importance of this process? (1)
15 A tall, purple-flowered pea plant (TtPP) was crossed with a short white-flowered plant
(ttpp). Observe the illustration and answer the questions.
Parent Plants
Tall and purple flowered Short and white flowered
TtPP X ttpp

Gametes ...(i)... ...(ii)... tp

TtPp ttPp
i) Fill in the missing gametes ( (i), (ii) ) correctly (1)
ii) Did the offspring show any traits absent in parents? Explain it based on Mendel’s (2)
hypothesis.
16 A. Analyse the situations given below and answer the questions .
A – Calcium level in blood decreases.
B – Calcium level in blood increases.
i) Which gland secretes the hormone required in situation B? (1)
ii) How does the hormone in situation A help maintain the normal level
of calcium ? (2)
OR
B. Observe the figure and answer the questions.

5
 a) What are the hormones produced by A called? (1)
b) Mention any two hormones of this type and write two functions for each. (2)

17. Redraw the diagrams and anwer the questions according to the instructions.

For redraw (1)

i) Label the part acting as an endocrine gland and state its function. (1)
ii) How does the part labelled X help to maintain body balance? (1)

Answer question 18. 4 Scores (1×4=4)

18 A. Analyse the diagram and answer the questions

i) The diagram shows movement of a hormone. Identify the hormone and the plant
movement it causes. (1)
ii) How does this movement be possible? (3)
B. The figure shows a disorder related to the secretion of a tropic hormone.

a) Identify the hormone and name the hormone that controls its secretion. (1)
b) b) Mention disorders caused by its imbalance and their symptoms. (3)