23-11-2025

1001CMD303282250011 MD

PHYSICS

1)

For any spherical mirror focal length will be :-

(1) maximum for red light

(2) maximum for blue light
(3) maximum for white light
(4) Same for light of all colours

2) An object is moves toward a plane mirror with velocity 2 m/s in direction making an angle 45°
with the normal to the mirror. The velocity of image with respect to man will be :

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) none

3) Graph between angle of deviation and incident angle in single reflection :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following letters do not show lateral inversion :-

(1) HGA
(2) HOX
(3) VET
(4) YUL

5) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is -

(1) virtual, erect and magnified

(2) real, erect and magnified
(3) real, inverted and magnified
(4) virtual, erect and reduced

6) If refractive index of red, violet and yellow lights are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for a
medium, its dispersive power will be -

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

7) The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin plano-convex lens is 15 cm and refractive index
of its material is 1.6. The power of the lens will be

(1) +1D
(2) –2D
(3) +3D
(4) +4D

8) Dispersive power of a prism depends on-

(1) Material
(2) Prism angle
(3) Shape of prism
(4) Angle on incidence

9) A beam of light is converging towards a point. A plane parallel plate of glass of thickness t,
refractive index μ is introduced in the path of the beam. The convergent point is shifted by (assume

near normal incidence):

(1)
away
(2)
away

(3)
nearer

(4)
nearer

10) The incorrect statement for a concave mirror producing a virtual image of an object.

(1) The linear magnification is always greater than one, Except at the pole
(2) The linear magnification is always less than one.
(3) The magnification tends to one as the object moves nearer to the pole of the mirror.
(4) The distance of the object from the pole of the mirror is less than the focal length of mirror.

11) A bird in air looks at fish vertically below it and inside water in a tank. If the distances of the fish
as estimated by the bird is h1 and that of bird as estimated by the fish is h2, then the refractive index
of liquid is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An object is placed 10 mm away from objective of a compound microscope . The lenses are 30
cm apart and intermediate image given by objective is formed 50 mm from the eyepiece. Overall
magnifying power is :

(1) 125X
(2) 12.5X
(3) 14X
(4) 1.4X

13) A long conducting wire carrying a current I is bent into the shape as shown. The net magnetic

field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc of radius 'R' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A current of 10A is established in a long wire along positive z-direction. The magnetic field B at
the point (1m, 0, 0) is :-

(1) 1 μT along the –y direction

(2) 2 μT along the +y direction
(3) 1 μT along the –x direction
(4) 2 μT along the +x direction

15) Two insulated wires of infinite length are lying mutually at right angles to each other as shown
in the figure. Current of 2A and 1.5 A respectively are flowing in them. The value of magnetic

induction at point P will be :-

(1) 2 × 10–3 N/A-m

(2) 2 × 10–5 N/A-m
(3) 0
(4) 2 × 10–4 N/A-m

16) Equal currents are flowing in three infinitely long wires along positive x, y and z direction. The
magnetic field at a point (0, 0, –a) would be (i = current in each wire) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A length of wire carries a steady current. It is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn.
The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field
at the centre caused by the same current is :-
(1) a quarter of its first value
(2) unaltered
(3) four times of its first value
(4) half of its first value

18) A straight wire carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a small
distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is
(consider earth field) :-

(1) Greater than at Q

(2) Same as at Q
(3) Less than at Q
(4) Greater or less than at Q, depending upon the strength of current

19) A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD with O as centre
and angle AOC = 60°. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents

in ABC and ADC respectively, then ratio is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 6

20) Two wires with currents 2 A & 1 A are enclosed in circular loop. Another wire with current 3 A is

situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is :-

(1) μ0
(2) 3μ0
(3) 6μ0
(4) 2μ0

21) Two long straight wire carrying current I and 2I in the same direction produces a magnetic field
B at the mid point. What will be the magnitude of magnetic field at same point when 2I wire is
switched off?

(1) B/2
(2) 2B
(3) B
(4) 4B

22) Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2π cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3
ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in
weber/m2 at the centre of the coils will be :-

(1) 5 × 10–5
(2) 7 × 10–5
(3) 12 × 10–5
(4) 10–5

23) A proton moves along vertical line and towards observer, the pattern of concentric circular field
lines of magnetic field which are produced due to Its motion:

(1) ACW, In horizontal plane

(2) ACW, In vertical plane
(3) CW, In horizontal plane
(4) CW, In vertical plane

24) A co-axial cable consists of a thin inner conductor fixed along tha axis of a hollow outer
conductor. The two conductors carry equal currents in opposite directions. Let B1 and B2 be the
magnetic fields in the region between the conductors, and outside the conductors respectively :-

(1) B1 ≠ 0, B2 ≠ 0
(2) B1 = B2 = 0
(3) B1 ≠ 0, B2 = 0
(4) B1 = 0, B2 ≠ 0

25) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given
by :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Current I flows along the length of a long thin walled cylindrical shell of radius R. Match the
field in different regions given in column I to their respective matches in column II

Column-I Column-II

(a) B (r < R) (p) B ∝ 1/r

(b) B (r > R) (q) Zero

(c) B (r = R) (r) B∝r

(d) B (r = 0) (s) Maximum

(1) a → p ; b → q ; c → r ; d → s
(2) a → q ; b → p ; c → s ; d → q
(3) a → r ; b → q ; c → s ; d → q
(4) a → s ; b → p ; r → r ; d → s

27) A long straight wire, carrying current I, is bent at its midpoint to form an angle of 45º. Magnetic

field at point P, distance R from point of bending is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) The time period of small oscillation of mass m is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring
constants k1 and k2, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio
(AQ/AP) of the amplitude AQ of mass Q to the amplitude AP of mass P is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A particle executes SHM of period 8 seconds. After what time of its passing through mean
position will the energy be half kinetic and half potential.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 1 sec
(3) 2.5 sec
(4) 4 sec

31) A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely

immersed in a liquid of density of the density of material of the bob is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in
the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released, the
mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the
minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan ?

(Take, g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10.0 cm
(2) any value less than 12.0 cm
(3) 4.0 cm
(4) 8.0 cm

33) Sound waves in air are always longitudinal, becuase :

(1) Density of air is very small

(2) Air is a mixture of several gases
(3) Air does not have a modulus of rigidity
(4) Of the inherent characteristics of sound waves in air

34) A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy U = 2 – 20 x + 5x2 joule. The particle is
released at x = – 3. The maximum value of 'x' will be [x is in meter and U is in joule ] :-

(1) 5 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 7 m
(4) 8 m

35) The wavelength of a wave, in a medium is 0.5 m. Due to this wave, the phase difference between
two particles of the medium is π/5. The minimum distance between these points is :-

(1) 5 cm
(2) 5 m
(3) 5 mm
(4) 5 km

36) For stationary wave

Y = 10 sin (300πt) sin m,

value of distance between consecutive nodes is :-

(1) 8 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 2 m

37) For COP of fundamental freq. is 100 Hz, then 5th overtone is :-

(1) 1100 Hz
(2) 900 Hz
(3) 500 Hz
(4) 600 Hz

38) Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512 Hz. It
is seen that if one arm of A is filed, then the number of beats increases. Frequency of A will be :-

(1) 502
(2) 507
(3) 517
(4) 522

39) The vibrations of four air columns of same length are represented in figure. The ratio of

frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is:

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

40) A string with a linear mass density of 4 × 10–3 kg/m is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both
ends. One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz.
The mass of the string in gram is :-

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 24
(4) 4

41) An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at
ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length
of P1 and P2 is:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Stationary waves are produced in 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments
and wave velocity is 20 m/s, then the frequency is :-

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 5 Hz
(3) 4 Hz
(4) 2Hz

43) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

44) Mark the correct statement :-

(1) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at antinodes

(2) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at nodes
(3) In case of stationary waves, pressure change is same at all the nodes and antinodes
(4) In case of stationary waves, no pressure change takes place

45) In the figure, the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources S1 and S2 is I0. The

wavelength of the wave is λ = 4 m. Resultant intensity at D will be :-

(1) 4I0
(2) I0
(3) 2I0
(4) zero

CHEMISTRY

1) For reaction; The value of Kp (equilibrium constant) changes with :

(1) Catalyst
(2) Temperature
(3) Amounts of H2 and I2
(4) All the above factors

2) For the reaction

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
The two reaction constants Kp and Kc are related to each other by the expression :-

(1)

(2) Kp (RT) = Kc
–2
(3) Kp = Kc (RT)
2
(4) KP = KC.(RT)

3) At constant temperature for a heterogeneous equilibrium CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g) the

concentration equilibrium constant is Kc. The value of Kp will be :-

(1) Kc(RT)
(2) Kc
2
(3) Kc(RT)
(4) None of these

4) In the reaction, 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g), Kp is :-

(1) Greater than Kc

(2) Equal to Kc
(3) Less than Kc
(4) Zero

5) At equilibrium state of any chemical reaction :-

(1) Concentration of reactants and products are equal

(2) Concentration of reactants is half than products
(3) Concentration of reactants and products remain constant
(4) None of these

6)

Equilibrium constant for the reaction

H2 + O2 H2O is .

Then equilibrium constant for

2H2O 2H2 + O2 will be :-
(1) 9

(2)

(3)

(4) 81

7) Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction,

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g) at 1300K from the following data :
C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 2H2(g) ; Kp=3.9 atm
H2(g)+CO2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g) ; Kp = 0.7 atm

(1) 4.6 atm

(2) 1.91 atm
(3) 0.7 atm
(4) 3.9 atm

8) For the following gaseous equilibrium

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when temperature is :-

(1) 0°C
(2) 273 K
(3) 1 K
(4) 12.19 K

9) In the presence of excess of anhydrous SrCl2, the amount of water taken up is governed by Kp =
1012 atm–4 for the following reaction at 273 K
SrCl2.2H2O(s) + 4H2O(g) ⇌ SrCl2.6H2O(s)
What is equilibrium vapour pressure in (torr) of water in a closed vessel that contains SrCl2.2H2O(s)?

(1) 0.001 torr

(2) 103 torr
(3) 0.76 torr
(4) 1.31 torr

10) In the following reaction which one oxide is more stable :-

2MO(g) M2(g) + O2(g) K1 = 1 × 1010
2MO2(g) M2(g) + 2O2(g) K2 = 4 × 106

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

11) If 6A 4B + C ; K1 = 100

6B + C 9A ; K2 = ?
Then find out value of K2

(1) 10–3
(2) 10–6
(3) 103
(4) 106

12) For which reaction at 298 K, the value of is maximum and minimum respectively :-
(a) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
(b) 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
(c) Y(g) + X(g) ⇌ 4Z(g)
(d) A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 7C(g)

(1) d, c
(2) d, b
(3) c, d
(4) d, a

13) The value of Kc for the dissociation of PCl5 is 4 at 1000 K then find out the value of Kp in terms of
R, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(1) 200 R
(2) 2000 R
(3) 4000 R
(4) 400 R

14) For which of the reaction Kp is unitless ?

(1) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(2) Ni(s) + 4CO(g) ⇌ [Ni(CO)4](g)
(3) C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

15) For the equilibrium, 2A(g) 2B(g) + C(g), Kc is 4 × 10–6 at 1080 K. Calculate the value of Kp at
this temperature. (R = atm mol–1 K–1)

(1) 3.6 × 10–4

(2) 4 × 10–6
(3) 3.6 × 10–6
(4) 4 × 10–4

16) For the following gaseous equilibria X, Y and Z at 300 K -

x : 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
y : PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
z : 2HI H2 + I2
for the given chemical reaction ratio of Kp and Kc in the increasing order is -

(1) x = y = z
(2) x < y < z
(3) x < z < y
(4) z < y < x

17) Statement 1: When a chemical equilibrium, is established in a closed container, concentration

of reactants and products always becomes equal to each other.
Statement 2: At equilibrium state, rate of forward reaction always becomes equal to rate of
backward reaction.

(1) Statement (1) is correct but statement (2) is incorrect.

(2) Statement (1) is incorrect but statement (2) is correct.
(3) Both statement (1) & (2) are correct.
(4) Both statement (1) & (2) are incorrect.

18) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals

19) Compound insoluble in NaOH :-

(1) K2O
(2) Al2O3
(3) BeO
(4) ZnO

20) Which of following is most acidic in aqueous solution ?

(1) H2Te
(2) H2S
(3) H2Se
(4) H2O

21) Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)2Cl2] ⇒ Hetroleptic complex

(2) [Pt(NO2)(NH3)(H2O)Cl] ⇒ Show optical isomerism
–3
(3) [Fe(OX)3] ⇒ Paramagnetic, show optical isomerism
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] ⇒ Show fac-mer isomer

22) Which of the following pair of oxygen group have minimum and maximum electron affinity
respectively :-

(1) O, S
(2) S, Po
(3) Po, O
(4) Se, O

23) If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

24) Which of following does not belong to same block as others :-

(1) [Xe] 4f145d106s2

(2) [Kr] 4d105s2
(3) [Kr] 5s2
(4) [Ar] 3d64s2

25) Element of atomic no. 55 belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

26) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

27) Correct order of Ist ionisation potential is :-

(a) Li < B < Be < C
(b) O < N < F
(c) Be < N < Ne

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c

28) From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having the least atomic radius
:
(P) O2–, F–, Na+ (Q) Ni, Cu, Zn
(R) Li, Be, Mg (S) He, Li+, H–
CORRECT answer is :

(1) O2–, Cu, Li, H–

(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
(3) F–, Zn, Mg, He
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He

29) Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) Elements of ns2np6 electronic configuration lies in 1st to 6th period

(2) Typical elements lies in 3rd period
(3) The seventh period will accommodate thirty two elements
(4) Boron and silicon are diagonally related

30) Number of ligand around the central metal in a complex of Co+3 when NH3 is added in aqueous
solution is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

31) Magnetic moment of [FeF6]–3 is :-

(1) 2.93
(2) 4.72
(3) 5.83
(4) 1.73

32) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 and [Fe(CN)6]–4 differs in :-

(1) Geometry, magnetic moment
(2) Magnetic moment, coordination number
(3) Geometry, hybridisation
(4) Hybridisation, No. of unpaired 'e'

33) Increasing value of spin only magnetic moments of :-

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(II) [Fe(CN)6]–3
(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) II < III < I < IV
(4) I < II < IV < III

34) Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)4(H2O)2]
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(3) [Ni(H2O)2Cl2]
2+
(4) [Ni(en)3]

35) Which of the following statement is not correct for brown ring complex ?

(1) EAN of Fe is 37
(2) Hybridisation of Fe is sp3d2
(3) Spin magnetic moment of complex is 3.9 B.M.
(4) EAN of complex depends on charge of NO ligand.

36) λabsorbed for d-d transition is increased when [M(H2O)6]+2 is converted into :-

+3
(1) [M(H2O)6]
+2
(2) [M(en)3]
–4
(3) [MF6]
–4
(4) [M(NO2)6]

37)

How many EDTA molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion?

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two
38) Which one do not show optical isomerism :-

(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
+2
(2) [Fe(en)3]
–3
(3) [Co(OX)3]
(4) [Fe(en)2Cl2]

39) In which of the following d-d transition is not a reason for colour :-

(1) Na2CrO4
(2) Br2
(3) AgI
(4) All

40) Which gives 50% mole of AgCl, when reacts with AgNO3 ?

(1) PtCl2.4NH3
(2) PtCl4.5NH3
(3) PtCl4.4NH3
(4) PtCl4.3NH3

41) The number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]+2 will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 2

42) Statement I :- Cr+2 is reducing in nature and Mn+3 is oxidizing in nature ? Statement II :- Sc+3
is diamagnetic in nature ?

(1) Statement I and II both correct

(2) Statement I and II both incorrect
(3) Statement I correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct

43) Which of the following will acts as strongest oxidising agent among these

(1) KMnO4 in acidic medium

(2) KMnO4 in neutral or slightly basic medium
(3) KMnO4 in strongly basic medium
(4) K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium

44) K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 + NaCl → A

(1) A → CrO3
(2) A → CrO2Cl2
(3) A → Cr2O3
(4) A → CrCl3

45) Which one of the following exhibits largest number of oxidation states?

(1) V(23)
(2) Mn(25)
(3) Ti(22)
(4) Cr(24)

BIOLOGY

1)

Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :-
(a) The codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion
(b) UAG codon has dual function in protein synthesis
(c) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like inverted 'L'
(d) 28 's' r-RNA in bacteria aslo behave as ribozyme

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a and c

2) What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA :-
3'GCTAGCTAGCTAGCT5'-Template strand
5'CGATCGATCGATCGA3'-Coding strand

(1) 3'GCUAGCUAGCUAGCU5'
(2) 5'CGAUCGAUCGAUCGA3'
(3) 3'CGAUCGAUCGAUCGA5'
(4) 5'GCUAGCUAGCUAGCU3'

3) A specific factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete
polypeptide from the ribosome these specific factor are known as :-

(1) Initiation factor

(2) rho factor
(3) Sigma factor
(4) Releasing factor

4) During translation peptide bond is formed between:-

(1) P site amino acid–NH2 and A site amino acid –COOH
(2) A site amino acid –COOH and P site amino acid – NH2
(3) P site amino acid –COOH and A site amino acid – COOH
(4) P site amino acid –COOH and A site amino acid –NH2

5) Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to human genome project?

(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code for protein

(2) Chromosome 1 has most genes and the Y has the fewest
(3) About 1.4 million locations have identified where SNPs occurs in humans
(4) The average gene consists of 30,000 bases

6) In human genome project the method which involved-identification of all the genes that expressed
as RNA was :-

(1) Expressed sequence tags

(2) Sequence Annotation
(3) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(4) DNA polymorphism

7) Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if more than
one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency ________:-

(1) Less than 0.01

(2) Greater than 0.01
(3) Less than 0.1
(4) Greater than 0.1

8) Assertion : The probability of polymorphism is observed high in non-coding DNA sequence.

Reason : Mutations in non-coding DNA sequence may not have any immediate effect in an
individual's reproductive ability.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Main steps in DNA fingerprinting are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
(A) Autoradiography
(B) Hybridisation
(C) Blotting
(D) Gel electrophoresis
(E) Isolation of DNA
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) E,C,B,A,D
(2) E,B,A,C,D
(3) E,D,B,C,A
(4) E,D,C,B,A

10) Read the following statements :-

(i) In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of gene expression is at transcriptional initiation
level.
(ii) y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to β-galactosides.
(iii) Repressor of the operon is synthesized constitutively from the i gene.
(iv) Activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated by interaction with
accessory proteins, which affect its ability to recognise start sites. Choose the correct statements.

(1) (i), (ii), (iv) only

(2) (i), (iii), (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) Only (iii) & (iv)

11)

In a cross between pure green pod colour with round seed shape garden pea plant and yellow pod
with wrinkled seed shape plant. How many plants are with green pod colour in F2 generation out of
16.

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 6
(4) 12

12) Assertion : Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

Reason : The repressor protein binds to operator region of the operon and prevents RNA poymerase
from transcripting the operon.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) How many of these diseases are associated with smoking?

Lung cancer, Throat cancer, Gastric ulcer, Bronchitis, Coronary heart disease.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

14) Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the whole reading frame of
following mRNA ? 5'AUG GGA CCA UGU GUG AAA3'

(1) Insertion of AAA After GGA codon

(2) Deletion of 'G' from 4th position
(3) Deletion of CA from 8th and 9th position
(4) Insertion of U after 3rd position

15) Select the correct statement regarding protein synthesis :-

(1) When the small subunit of ribosome encounters an m-RNA the process of translation begins
(2) Peptidase catalyses the formation of peptide bond
(3) UTR are present between the start codon and stop codon
(4) Charging of amino acid is done with help of GTP.

16) Find out the sequence of binding of the following amino acyl – t–RNA complexes during
translation to an m–RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence. 3'
GTGCACTACCAG 5'. Choose the answer showing the correct order of alphabets :–

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) d, a, b, c
(3) a, b, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d

17) Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce recombinant
protein by recombinant DNA technology ?

(1) Genetic code is non ambiguous

(2) Genetic code is degenerate
(3) Genetic code is specific
(4) Genetic code is nearly universal

18) The phenotype/trait will only be dependent on the functioning of the ___(A)___. The__(B)__traits is
seen due to non-functional enzyme or no enzyme is produced. Choose the correct option for A and B.

(1) A – unmodified allele ; B – recessive

(2) A – modified allele ; B – dominant
(3) A – modified allele ; B – recessive
(4) A – unmodified allele ; B – dominant

19) Which of the following trait is only express in homozygous condition -

(a) Yellow seed colour
(b) Green pod colour
(c) Inflated pod shape
(d) Terminal flower position
(e) Yellow pod colour

(1) Only e
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) d and e

20) Mendel always used pure parents for crossed, He develops pure parents by:-

(1) Selfing of hybrids only

(2) Hybridization process
(3) Bagging & Tagging Technique
(4) Continuous selfing & Selection

21)

Blue eye colour in human is recessive to brown eye colour. The expected children of a marriage
between a blue eyed woman and a brown eyed man who had a blue eyed mother will be-

(1) All black eyed

(2) All blue eyed
(3) All brown eyed
(4) 50% probability of each blue eyed and brown eyed

22) If two plants having violet (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed,
75% of the flowers are violet and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having
violet coloured flowers will be :-

(1) Both homozygous

(2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(3) Both heterozygous
(4) Both hemizygous

23) In Mendelian dihybrid cross how many offsprings are with recombinant or new phenotype in F2
generation:

(1) 37.5 %
(2) 62.5 %
(3) 18.5 %
(4) 50 %

24) Emasculation process is responsible :-

(1) To prevent cross pollination
(2) To prevent self pollination
(3) To prevent hybridization
(4) To increase chance of self pollination

25) Which cross will prdouce 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio ?

(1) AaBb × AaBb

(2) AaBB × aaBb
(3) Aabb × aaBb
(4) AABB × aabb

26) Which two genes of Mendelian characters are present very close on same chromosome ?

(1) Seed shape and plant height gene

(2) Pod colour and plant height gene
(3) Pod shape and plant height gene
(4) Flower position & seed colour gene

27) The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by :-

(1) test cross

(2) dihybrid cross
(3) pedigree analysis
(4) back cross

28) Which of the following do not show incomplete dominance :-

(1) Flower colour in Snapdragon

(2) Flower colour in Mirabilis
(3) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
(4) Size of starch grain in Pisum sativum

29) Which of the following characteristic represent 'Inheritance' of blood group in humans :-
(a) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
(b) Plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface.
(c) The gene I has three alleles i.e. IA, IB and i. Each diploid person possesses all three alleles of gene
I.
(d) There are eight different possible combinations of three alleles of gene I.
(e) 'O' blood group is not possible in the progeny of 'AB' blood group parents.

(1) only a, b and e

(2) only b, c and d
(3) only b and d
(4) only a , c and e
30) A daughter has blood group A. If the mother has blood group AB and father has blood group B
then the genotype possible for mother, father and daughter respectively would be

(1) IAIB, IBIO, IAIA

(2) IAIB, IBIO, IAIO
(3) IOIO, IAIB, IAIO
(4) IOIO, IAIA, IAIB

31) The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to :

(1) presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.
(2) a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.
(3) more than two genes affecting a single character.
(4) presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.

32) Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of Inheritance was given by :-

(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) Gregor Mendel

33) Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?

a. Dominance b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance f. Pleiotropic gene
(1) b, c and e
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, d and e
(4) a, c and e

34) What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern

(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

35)

The minimum weight of tomatoes obtained from a plant is 20g. The maximum weight of tomatoes
obtained is 120g. What will be the weight of tomatoes obtained by genotype Aabb :-

(1) 45g
(2) 70g
(3) 100g
(4) 25g

36)

Which one of the following group is not of infectious diseases?

(1) Cancer, Allergy, Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Pneumonia, Plagus, Diphtheria
(3) Polio, Typhoid, Tetanus
(4) Smallpox, Ringworm, common cold

37) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

Stool with mucous & blood

(C) Pneumonia (iii)
clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

38) Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?

(1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

(2) Mutations destroy activity of tumor supressor gene
(3) Mutations inactive the cell cycle control.
(4) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

39) In the given list, how many diseases are spread by mosquito vectors ?
Malaria, dengue, chikungunya, elephantiasis, ringworms

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

40) Which of the following is incorrect matching?

(1) Typhoid - Sustained high fever
(2) Ascariasis - blockage of the pulmonary passage
(3) Elephantiasis - Chronic inflammation of lower limb
(4) Amoebiasis - abdominal pain & cramps.

41) Cancer is generally caused due to mutation of....... into.....and / or inactivation of........ :

(1) Oncogene, tumour suppressor gene, proto-oncogene

(2) Tumor suppressor gene, oncogene, proto-oncogene
(3) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour suppressor gene
(4) Apoptic gene, tumor suppressor gene, protooncogene.

42) A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immuno deficiency Syndrome.
Which techniques will you suggest for its suggest and confirmation :

(1) WIDAL and ELISA Respectively

(2) ELISA and Western blotting Respectively
(3) MRI and ELISA Respectively
(4) Western blotting and PCR Respectively

43) Which of the following is correct about malaria

(a) Malignant malaria is caused by plasmodium falciparum
(b) Plasmodium enters the human body as gametocytes
(c) It is caused through the bite of infected female anopheles.
(d) The rupture of [Link] is associated with release of a toxic substance haemozoin

(1) b, c only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) a, b, c, d

44) Select the correct answer about figure A, B and C given below :

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A - Datura, B - Opium, C - Cannabis sativa

(2) A - Opium, B - Datura, C - Cannabis sativa
(3) A - Opium plant, B - Cannabis sativa, C - Datura
(4) A - Cannabis sativa, B - Datura C - Opium

45) Which of the following statement is false :-

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
(1)
is called allergy
(2) The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids increase the symptoms of allergy.
Some how, modern-day life style has resulted in lowering of immunity and more sensitivity to
(3)
allergens.
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in our society is an auto-immune disease.

46) After immunoflorescence technique done on stomach sections, Antibodies found in parietal cells
are marker for ?

(1) Sickle cell anemia

(2) Pernicious Anaemia
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Thalassemia

47) Choose the option which describes the physical barrier of innate immunity :-

(1) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes prevent microbial growth
Mucosal Lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital tracts help in trapping
(2)
microbes entering our body
(3) Chemical like interferons protects cells from viral infection
(4) N K cells

48) Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between :-

(1) Two light chain

(2) Two heavy chain
(3) One heavy and light chain
(4) Two epitopes

49) Cocain interferes with the transport of which of the following Neurotransmitter

(1) Serotonin
(2) GABA
(3) Dopamine
(4) Glycine

50) Datura plant is used for the synthesis of :

(1) Depresent drugs

(2) Stimulant drugs
(3) Hallucinogen drugs
(4) Pain killer drugs

51) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Linkage is exception to Mendels law of independent assortment

(2) Term linkage was given by T.H Morgan
(3) Linked genes are non-allelic and present on different chromosome
(4) Linked genes can be separated by gene recombination

52) The recombination frequency between the genes E & F is 26%., G & E is 10%, E & H 18%, G & F
is 16%, F & H is 8% and G & H is 8% What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear
chromosome?

(1) E,H,G,F
(2) F,E,G,H
(3) G,F,E,H
(4) E,G,H,F

53) With respect to human skin colour whichh genotype represent darkest and mulatto skin colour?

(1) AABBCC and aabbcc

(2) AABBCC and AaBbCc
(3) aabbcc and AaBbCc
(4) AaBbCc and AABBCc

54) _____________used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome.

(1) William bateson

(2) Johann Mendel
(3) Alfred sturtevant
(4) Carls correns

55) Which of the following pair is matched incorrectly:

(1) Cri du chat - Terminal deletion

(2) Turner's syndrome - Aneuploidy
(3) Chronic myeloid leukemia - Frame shift mutation
(4) Sickle cell Anemia - Gene mutation

56) In the inheritance of flower colour in dogflower plant, the F1 had a phenotype that :-

(1) Resembles both of the parents

(2) Did not resemble either of the parents
(3) Resembles with only one parent
(4) (1) and (3) both

57) Statement -I : Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes
was parallel to the behaviour of genes and used chromosome movement to explain Mendel’s laws.
Statement-II : Sutton and Boveri argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosome
would lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they carried.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

58) Choose the correct statements -

(a) Oxygenated blood is received by the left atria of human heart.
(b) Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood from heart.
(c) Afferent arteriole is a fine branch of glomerulus.
(d) Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by an efferent arteriole.

(1) Only b
(2) Only a, b
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) a, b, c,d

59) Choose the incorrect statement -

(a) PCT is lined by simple cuboidal epithelium without brush border.
(b) Stretch receptors are present on the walls of the bladder.
(c) Plasma without clotting factors is called serum.
(d) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals
Option :-

(1) a, c, only
(2) b, d, only
(3) a only
(4) b, c, d, only

60) A person passes excessive urine and drinks a lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is
due to

(1) increased secretion of glucagon

(2) fall in glucose released in urine
(3) reduction in insulin secretion
(4) reduction in vasopressin secretion by posterior pituitary

61) Which of nitrogenous waste also eliminated through saliva ?

(1) Urea
(2) Creatine
–
(3) HCO3
(4) Ammonia

62) Which of the following vein has least amount of urea?

(1) Pulmonary vein

(2) Hepatic portal vein
(3) Hepatic vein
(4) Renal vein

63) Which of the following Leucolyte is agranulocyte?

(1) Basophil
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Lymphocyte
(4) Eosinophil

64) A patch of nodal tissue is present in the right upper corner of the right atrium called :-

(1) Sino-atrial node (SAN)

(2) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN)
(3) Atrio-ventricular bundle
(4) Purkinjee fibre

65) About 1000 ml of air is always remain inside the human lungs. It is described as :-

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Residual volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

66) Which of the following is not included in vital capacity ?

(1) RV
(2) IRV
(3) TV
(4) ERV

67)

Which of the following are sesamoid bones :-

(1) Pisiform, Patella

(2) Patella, Talus
(3) Calcaneum, Navicular
(4) Pisiform, Calcaneum

68) The false ribs are attached to the 7th rib with the help of :-

(1) Yellow elastic cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Hyaline cartilage

69) Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct one :-
 Stomach,
1. Skeletal muscle
Small intestine

2. Cardiac muscle Never fatigue

3. Smooth muscle upper & lower arm

4. Voluntary muscles Branched

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) All

70) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Humerus (I) Pelvic girdle

(B) Femur (II) Pectoral girdle

(C) Clavicle (III) Fore limb

(D) Pubis (IV) Hind limb

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

71) Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of 3 bones :-

(1) Ilium, Clavicle, Carpal

(2) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
(3) Ischium, Pubis, Phalanges
(4) Aeromian, Clavicle, Scapula

72) Match list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Carpals (I) 14

(B) Phalanges (II) 8

(C) Meta carpals (III) 5

(D) Humerus (IV) I

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

73) First vertebrae is _____ and it articulates with the _____.

(1) Atlas, maxilla

(2) Axis, occipital condyles
(3) Atlas, occipital condyles
(4) Axis, mandible

74) Mehcanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states
that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by -

(1) The sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments
(2) The sliding of the thick filaments over the thick filaments
(3) The sliding of the thick filaments over thin filaments
(4) The sliding of the thin filaments over the thin filaments

75)

The figures given here represent three different conditions of sarcomeres identify these conditons
and select the correct option :-

A B C

(1) Contracting Relaxed Maximally contracted

(2) Relaxed Contracting Maximally contracted

(3) Maximally contracted Contracting Relaxed

(4) Relaxed Contracted Contracting

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Select the correct combination :-

(1) IC = TV + ERV
(2) FRC = ERV + IRV
(3) EC = IRV + RV
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV

77) Which of the following statement is true?

Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of carbon dioxide to the

(1)
alveoli.
(2) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of oxygen to the tissues.
(3) Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of carbondioxide to the alveoli.
Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 10 mL of carbondioxide to the
(4)
alveoli.

78) Which is not a true statement

(a) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg
(b) pCO2 of alveolar air is 40 mm Hg
(c) pO2 of alveolar air is 104 mm Hg
(d) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 45 mm Hg

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) only c
(4) only a

79) During ventricular systole –

Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
(1)
pulmonary artery
Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
(2)
the artery
Oxygenated blood is pumped into aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary
(3)
vein
Oxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
(4)
pulmonary artery

80) Which is correct about joint diastole ?

(1) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open

(2) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed
(3) A.V. valves closed and semilunar valves are open
(4) AV valve and Semilunar valves are open

81) In the given diagram which wave is the indication of ventricular contraction ?
(1) P-wave
(2) Q-wave
(3) QRS Complex
(4) T-wave

82) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Hypertension leads to herat diseases and also affect vital functions.
In Angina pectoris a symptom of acute chest-pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching
(2)
the heart muscles.
(3) In heart attack heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply.
In cardiac arrest is the state of heart is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs
(4)
of the body.

83) Assertion : Heart failure is the state of the heart when it is not pumping blood effectively
enough to meet the needs of body.
Reason : Lung congestion may be lead to heart failure.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

84) Match column I with column II and select the correct option :

Column I Column II

(A) Angina (i) When the heart stops beating

Occurs due to conditions

(B) Cardiac arrest (ii) that affect the blood flow.
or acute chest pain

Heart is not pumping blood

(C) Coronary Artery disease (iii) effectively enough to meet
the needs of the body.

(D) Heart failure (iv) Atherosclerosis

(1) A-i ; B-iii ; C-ii ; D-iv
(2) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D-iii
(3) A-iii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D-ii
(4) A-ii ; B-iii ; C-iv ; D-i

85)
Pick out the correct statements regarding O2–Hb dissociation curve :-

(a) Curve 'C' may be normal curve

(b) Curve 'A' may be for myoglobin
(c) Curve 'B' represents early saturation of Hb at low pO2
(d) Curve 'D' represents lower pCO2
(e) Curve 'B' represents higher pCO2
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) All are correct

86) Assrtion : We cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume

Reason : Lungs are situated in the thoracic chambers which is anatomically an air tight chamber.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3)
Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) Identify the type of joint present at point A, B, C & D :-

A B C D

(1) Ball & socket Hinge Fibrous Gliding

(2) Hings Ball & socket Cartilagenous Fibrous

(3) Ball & Socket Pivot Fibrous Gliding

(4) Hinge Ball & socket Cartilagenous Fibrous

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88)

Read the following statements carefully :-

(a) Cross-bridge formation
(b) Neurotransmitter released
(c) Action potential generated in sarcolemma.
(d) Shortening of sarcomere
(e) Binding of calcium at C-site of Troponin

Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence of muscle contraction

(1) b → c → e → a → d
(2) a → c → b → d → e
(3) c → b → a → e → d
(4) c → b → e → a → d

89)

When levels of estrogen is decrease than cause :

(1) Gout
(2) Osteroporosis
(3) Arthritis
(4) Myasthenia gravis

90)

During cardiac cycle each vantricle pumps out approximately __A___ ml of Blood which is called
stroke volume. Identify the (A)

(1) 50
(2) 120
(3) 5000
(4) 70
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 4 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 4 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Formula f = R/2
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
where R is the radius of curvature. This formula shows that the focal length depends only on
the radius of curvature, which is a physical property of the mirror and does not depend on the
wavelength of light.
The focal length of a spherical mirror is the same for light of all colors.
Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

2)
Relative velocity =

3)

(A) Question Explanation : To Find correct graph for reflection.

(B) Concept : Deviation formula.
(C) Formula : δ = 180 – 2i, straight line equation

(D) Visual aid :

(E) Calculation : y = mx + c
δ = –2i + 180° , y → δ, x → i
m = – 2, c = 180 = π
(F) Final Answer : (1)
4)

5)
image given by objective is Real, inverted, large.

6)

7)

P = +4D

8)

Dispersive power depends only material

9)

Shift = t
Shifting along the direction of light.

10)
Theory based

11)
Distance of fish seen by bird

h1 = y1 +
Distance of bird seen by fish
h2 = y2 + µy1
µh1 = µy1 + y2
h2 = y2 + µy1
____________
µh1 – h2 = 0

µ= .

12)

h' = 25 h

13) The net magnetic field at the centre 'O' of the circular arc is

14)
 i.e. +y axis
Right hand palm rule.

15)

16) At (0,0,–a) magnetic field due to wire along x-axis is

B1 =
due to wire along y-axis

B2 =
due to wire along Z-axis
B3 = 0

Bnet =

17)

use B∝N2 (for ℓw = constant)

18) At 'P' field of wire and BH in same direction but at 'Q' both are in opposite direction

19)

=1

20)
= 2 – 1 = 1A

= μo

21)

Bm =
Now 2I is switched off

then Bm = =B
22)

Explaining the question : We are given two concentric coils with radii of 2π cm. The
currents are 3 A and 4A in each coil respectively. We need to calculator the magnetic
induction at the center of the coils.
Concept : Biot - Savart law
Solution :
The magnetic field at the center of each coil is:

For each coil :

Resultant magnetic field:

Final Answer : Hence, option (1) is correct.

5 × 10–5

23)

Theoretical

24)

Inside field given by only inner conductor but out side. Field given by both conductor but
current in both are opposite so that net field will be zero
∴ B1 ≠ 0 and B2 = 0

25)

26)

Bin = 0, Bs =
27)

Here sin45°=
BP = B2 –B3
∴ x = R/

28)

29) Maximum speed = APωP = AQωQ

⇒ =

∴ ∵ mP = mQ

30)

Given, KE = PE

K(A – x ) =
2 2
Kx2

At t = 0, x = 0
At t x = A sin ωt =

ωt = ⇒t= =

⇒ t= = 1 sec

31) In vacuum,
Let V be the volume and T be the density of the mass of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob inside the liquid = Weight – upthrust

i.e. effective value of g is

So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

32)

k = 200 N/m
mg > mω2A

A= , ω2 =

So, A =

A=
A = 10 cm

33) For the propogation of transverse mechanical wave medium have modulus of elasticity
(shearing property)

34)

U = 2 – 20x + 5x2

F= = –(–20 + 10x)
F = 20 – 10x
x = 2 M.P.

x=

A = 5 cm xmax = 7 cm

35) Δϕ = Δλ

Δλ = 0.05 m
= 5 cm

36)

y = 10 sin (300 πt)sin m

y = 2a sin ωt sin kx

λ = 16 m

distance between N–N =

37)

COP

= 100 Hz
Harmonic 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : 11
O.T. 0 1 2 3 4 5

5th O.T. = = 1100 Hz

38)
ans. is 517

39)

np : nq : nr : ns

: : :
 : : :
1 : 2 : 4 : 3

40)

∴ 4 × 10–3 =
M = 8 × 10–3 kg
M = 8 gm

41)

P1 is COP
P2 is OOP

first harmonic of COP

third harmonic of OOP

For resonance
n1 = n2

42) n = P n=
n = 5 Hz

43)

44) When a stationary wave is established in a medium, then maximum deformation of the
medium is produced at nodes. Hence, maximum pressure change takes place at nodes and at
 antinodes, no pressure changes takes place. Hence, option (2) alone is correct.

45)

Δx = 5 – 4 = 1m

Ir = 2I0

CHEMISTRY

46)

Kp change with temperature

47)
Δng = 1

48)

CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)

Δng =1
Kp = Kc(RT)1

49)

Δng =2
Kp = Kc(RT)2
Kp > Kc

50)

At equilibrium, concentration of reactants & products do not change with time.

51)

H2 + 1/2 O2 —→ H2O k = 1/9

multiply by 2

2H2 + O2 —→ 2H2O k' = =

 Reverse the reaction
2H2O —→ 2H2 + O2

K11 = = = 81

52)

C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 2H2(g) ; Kp=3.9 ... (i)

H2(g)+ CO2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2O(g) ; Kp = 0.7 ... (ii)
eqn. (i) + 2eqn. (ii)
Keq = 3.9 × (0.7)2
= 3.9 × 0.49 = 1.91

53)

Kp = Kc

54)
⇒
10–3 × 760 torr = 0.76 torr

55)

Oxide ⇒ Reactant

Stability of reactant

56)

6A 4B + C ; K1 = 100

K2 = 10–3

57)

max. Δng max

(b) Δng = –1
(d) Δng = 3

58)

Kp = 4 × (1000R)1
Kp = 4000R

59)

60) Kp = Kc(RT)Δng

= 4 × 10–6

61) For x; Δng = – 1, y ; Δng = 1, z ; Δng = 0

if Δng

62) At equilibrium state concentration of reactants may be same, greater than or less than
concentration of products but rate of forward and backward reactions are always become
equal.

63)

Given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.

64)

Basic oxides do not react with bases. K₂O is a strongly basic oxide, while Al₂O₃, BeO, and ZnO
are all amphoteric, meaning they react with and dissolve in strong bases.

65)

Acidic nature of hydrides increases down the group in p-block.

So H2Te will be most acidic among given options.

66)

[Pt(NO2)(NH3)(H2O)Cl] is dsp2 square planar.

So does not show optical isomerism.

67)
Lowest EA is oxygen family is oxygen and highest sulphur.

68)

69) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To determine which option does not belong to the same block as the others,
let's analyze the electron configurations and identify their respective blocks.
Concept-Options (1), (2), and (4) belong to the d-block.
Option (3) belongs to the s-block.

70) Answer - Option(1 )

Explanation - To identify the correct block for atomic number 55
Concept - The element with atomic number 55 (Cesium) belongs to the s-block.

71)

All orders are correct.

72)

All orders of IE are correct.

73)

Smallest in P is Na+, Q is Ni, R is Be & S is Li+.

74)

He show 1s2, so ns2np6 starts from 2nd period.

75)

Co+3 show CN = 6

76)

Fe+3 with WFL so 5 unpaired electrons present.

77)

[Fe(H2O)6]+2 = sp3d2 no. of unpaired eϴ = 4

[Fe(CN)6]–4 = d2sp3 no. of unpaired eϴ = zero

78)

Unpaired eϴ
[Fe(CN)6]4– zero
[Fe(CN)6]–3 1
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ 3
[Ni(H2O)4]2+ 2

79)

[Ni(H2O)2Cl2] sp3
So doesn't show isomerism

80)

EAN value doesn't depend on ligands.

81)

WFL show more λ absorb.

82)

EDTA–4 is hexadentate, so [Ca(EDTA)]–2

83)

[Co(NH3)3Cl3] show fac-mer isomerism

84)

All compounds show colour without d-d transition.

85)
Form 2 moles of AgCl so 50%

86)

Mn+2 with WFL so 5 unpaired eϴ

 87)

Sc+3 → 3s2 3p6 → 0 unpaired

88)

KMnO4 neutral or weak basic is strongest O.A.

89)

This is the chromyl chloride test for chloride ions.

The reaction forms chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2)
K2​Cr2​O7​ + 4NaCl + 6H2​SO4​ →
2CrO2​Cl2​+2KHSO4​+4NaHSO4​+3H2​O
Thus, A is CrO2Cl2

90)

In 3d-series Mn show largest no. of oxidation state.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XII, Pg. # 112

92) NCERT-XII Pg. # 108

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 99

94)

Module-9, Pg. # 126

95)

NCERT XII Pg. # 104

96) NCERT (XII) Pg # 103

97)

NCERT XII Pg # 106

98)

Question Explanation: Mutations in non-coding DNA are less likely to be harmful and can
accumulate.
Concept: DNA Polymorphism.
Solution: The assertion is true; genetic polymorphism (variation) is more frequently observed
in non-coding DNA sequences than in coding sequences. The reason is also true and correctly
explains why. Mutations that occur in non-coding regions are less likely to have a detrimental
effect on an individual's phenotype or reproductive ability. As a result, they are not selected
against and can accumulate in the population over time, leading to a higher degree of
polymorphism.
Final Answer: 1. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

99) NCERT-XII Pg. # 106

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 99, 100, 101

101)

NCERT Pg. # 63, 64

102) NCERT XII Page No. # 101

103)

NCERT Pg. No. # 144

104) NCERT-XII, Pg # 113

105)

NCERT XII Pg. # 99

106)

d, a, b, c

107) NCERT-XII, Pg # 96

108)

NCERT XII Pg. # 61

109)

NCERT XII Pg. # 55

110)

NCERT XII Pg. # 55

111)

NCERT Pg. # 58, 59

112)

NCERT XII Pg. # 57

113)

NCERT XII Pg. # 63

114)

NCERT XII Pg # 71

115)

NCERT XII Pg. # 62,63

116)

Gane for pod shape & plant height gene is present on chr. -4th.

117)

NCERT XII Pg. # 58

118)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60

119)

NCERT XII Pg. # 61

120)
NCERT XII Pg. # 61,62

121) NCERT XII Pg # 69

122)

NCERT XII Pg. # 67

123)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60,61,62

124) NCERT-XII Pg # 69

125)

maximum wt-minimum wt no. of dominant allele.

126)

NCERT Pg. # 130-134

127)

Explain Question: Match each disease with its correct causative agent or characteristic
symptom.

Concept: This Question is based on Protozoan diseases, Viral Diseases, Bacterial Diseases

Explanation :

Common cold (A) → Rhino virus (iv)

Typhoid (B) → Salmonella typhi (v)

Pneumonia (C) → Haemophilus influenzae (ii)

Malaria (D) → Haemozoin (vi)

Ringworm (E) → Dry & Scaly lesions (i)

Amoebiasis (F) → Stool with mucous & blood clots (iii)

This matches with : A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii Final answer: 1

128)

In cancer cells, mutations activate or up-regulate the activity of telomerase. Telomerase

 protects chromosome ends, and supports continuous proliferationl.

129) 1NCERT-XII, Pg # 131, 133

130) NCERT Pg. No. # 130,131,132

131) Question Explanation:

The question asks about the genetic changes that can lead to cancer, specifically focusing on
the roles of proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, and tumor suppressor genes.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
3. Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour suppressor gene
• Explanation:

A. Proto-oncogenes: These are normal genes involved in cell growth and division. When they
mutate, they become oncogenes.
B. Oncogenes: These are mutated proto-oncogenes that promote uncontrolled cell proliferation,
contributing to cancer development.
C. Tumor suppressor genes: These genes normally regulate cell growth and division or initiate
apoptosis (programmed cell death) in damaged cells. When tumor suppressor genes are
inactivated, they lose their ability to control cell growth, also contributing to cancer.

132)

ELISA & western blot test.

133)

NCERT XII Pg. # 132

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142,143

135)

NCERT Pg. # 137

Explanation:

The false statement is: 2. The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids
increase the symptoms of allergy.
Correct Answer : (2)

136)

Immnofluorescence technique is a laboratory method used to detect specific antigens

(proteins) in a tissue or cell sample using antibodies tagged with fluorescent dyes.
Autoantibodies directed against gastric parietal cells lead to immune-mediated destruction of
the oxyntic mucosa, resulting in castles intrinsic-factor deficiency, which ultimately leads to
pernicious anemia.
So after immunoflorescence technique if antibodies are found in parietal cells, they are
markers for pernicious anemia.

137)

NCERT XII Pg. # 134, 135

138)

NCERT XII Pg. # 135

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 143

140)

NCERT XII Pg. # 143

141) NCERT Pg. No. # 67

142) NCERT Pg. No. # 67, 68

143) NCERT Pg, No. # 69

144)

NCERT Pg. No. # 67

145)

Module - 9, Pg. No. # 137 to 139

146) NCERT Pg. No. # 60

147) NCERT Pg. No. # 65, 67

148) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 197, 207

149)

NCERT XI Pg. # 213

150) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

151) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 298

152)

NCERT XI Pg. # 206

153) NCERT XI, Page # 279, last para

154) NCERT Pg. # 284,18.3.1

155)

NCERT XI, Pg # 187

156)

NCERT XI Pg. # 187

157)

NCERT XI Pg. # 226

158)

NCERT XI Pg. # 225

159) NCERT Pg. # 218

160) NCERT Pg. # 310,311

161) NCERT Pg.# 311

162) NCERT Pg. # 311

163) NCERT Pg No. 225

164)

NCERT XI Pg. # 222-223

165)

NCERT XI Pg. # 223

166) NCERT Pg. # 275

167)

NCERT XI Pg. # 190

168)

NCERT XI Pg. # 188 Fig. 14.3

169)

NCERT XI Pg. # 199

170)

Joint diastole is the period when all four chambers of the heart are relaxed.
Therefore, during joint diastole, the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open, and the semilunar
valves are closed.
Final Answer : (1) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open

171)

Question Explanation: ECG wave for ventricular depolarization.

Concept: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Solution: The QRS complex represents the electrical impulse spreading through the ventricles
(depolarization), which causes them to contract. The P-wave shows atrial contraction, and the
T-wave shows ventricular relaxation.
Final Answer: 3

172) NCERT, Pg. # 203

173)

NCERT XI Pg. # 203

174) NCERT Page No. - 203

175)

NCERT XI Pg. # 189

176) Question Explanation : The question checks understanding of how pulmonary volume
changes and the role of the thoracic cavity's airtight nature.
Concept : This question is based on lungs and thoracic cavity.
Solution : The correct answer is option 2.
• Assertion : True – We cannot directly alter pulmonary volume because we don't have muscles
inside the lungs to expand or contract them voluntarily.
• Reason : True – Lungs are inside the thoracic cavity, which is airtight. The change in
pulmonary volume happens indirectly through contraction/relaxation of diaphragm and
intercostal muscles, altering the thoracic volume, not by directly moving the lungs.
The airtight thoracic chamber is exactly why changes in thoracic volume get transmitted to the
lungs, making the reason a correct explanation.
Final Answer : Option (2)

177) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 311

178) NCERT-XI, Page#307

179)

NCERT XI Pg. # 227

180)

NCERT XI Pg. # 200