Worksheet/Science/X/2025-26

Section- A

Q1. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following.
A. Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
B. Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
C. Trypsin and lipase digest fats
D. Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsifies fats.

Q2. Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?

A. Nostrils -> Larynx -> Pharynx -> Trachea -> Lungs
B. Nasal passage -> Trachea -> Pharynx -> Larynx -> Alveoli
C. Nostrils -> Pharynx -> Larynx -> Trachea -> Alveoli
D. Larynx -> Nostrils -> Pharynx -> Lungs

Q3. Which of the following is a correct combination of function and part of the brain?
A. Posture and balance: Cerebrum
B. Salivation: Medulla in midbrain
C. Hunger: Pons in hindbrain
D. Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain

Q4. The process in which transport of soluble products of photosynthesis takes place in plants is known as:
A. Transpiration
B. Evaporation
C. Conduction
D. Translocation

Q5. In a cross between black furred rabbit (B) and white furred rabbit (b), all offspring were found to have black
fur. What can be inferred about the genetic makeup of the parent rabbits?
A. BB X bb
B. Bb X Bb
C. Bb X bb
D. bb X bb

Q6. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic
level is known as
A. Eutrophication
B. Pollution
C. Bio-magnification
D. Accumulation

Q7. Food web is the

A. Food that a spider collects using its web
B. Network of interlinked trophic levels
C. Network of interlinked food chains
D. Display of food items on a website
The following two questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by
selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Q8 Assertion (A): Tallness of a pea plant is controlled by an enzyme.
Reason (R): The gene for that enzyme makes proteins which help the plant to be tall.

Q9 Assertion (A): Vulture will always have the least amount of pesticides in a food chain.
Reason (R): Vulture occupies the last trophic level and it gets only 10% of energy of the previous trophic level.

Q10 Define excretion. Write two vital functions of kidney.

Q11 Attempt either option A or B.

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of the following organisms? How is mixing of oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood prevented in their body?
(a) Fishes
(b) Humans
OR
B. Explain the mechanism by which the water is transported in plants?

Q12 About 100 acres of forest land was declared as Natural reserve park. The following organisms were
predominant in the Natural reserve park: rabbit, frog, grass, fish, fox, water insects, zebra, peacock, snake, trees,
bird, owl, insects, tiger, vulture, duck. Create a food web comprising two separate food chains with different
producers by using the above data.

Q13 Draw and explain how the nerve cells help in transmission of impulses?

Q14 In a genetic experiment, plants with pure round green seeds (RRyy) were crossed with plants with wrinkled
yellow seeds (rrYY).
(i) Show the gametes formed when F1 was self-pollinated.
(ii) A total of 144 seeds were produced which developed into saplings. Show this number in form of phenotypic
ratio in which these traits are independently inherited in these144 sapling in F2 generation.

Q15 Neha consumed boiled sweet potatoes and boiled eggs for breakfast. Help her to understand some steps in the
process of digestion of the food taken by her by answering the questions given below. Attempt either subpart C or
D.
A. Which of these food items is rich in starch? How is its digestion initiated?
B. The figure given below represents parts of the human alimentary canal. Which of these parts will have the
maximum amount of digested food as soon as the process of digestion is completed?

C. Which of the above food items is rich in proteins? In which part of the alimentary canal is the digestion of
this component initiated? Name the enzymes, conditions required and the glands associated with the
digestion here.
OR
D. Which of these food items contains fats? How is it digested?
Q16 Attempt either option A or B.
A. Puneet wanted to grow banana plants.
(i) Based on your knowledge on plant reproduction should he opt for seeds or any alternate method of reproduction.
Justify your answer.
(ii) Offsprings of a banana plant usually show very little variation. What causes variation and are variations good or
bad? Justify.

OR
B. Annie was conducting research on the number of fruits produced by watermelon under different conditions. She
grew 25 watermelon plants each in both glass house A and B. She introduced pollinators in glass house A only.
(i) What difference will she observe in the number of fruits produced in the two glass houses? Explain with
reason.
(ii) List 3 changes that will occur in a flower once it gets fertilized.

Section - B (Chemistry)

Q17 We store silver chloride in a dark colored bottle because:

(a) It is a white solid
(b) It undergoes redox reaction
(c) To avoid action by sunlight
(d) It undergoes addition reaction
Q18 State the correct statement from the following:
(a) Anodizing is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of magnesium.
(b) Silver and gold react with oxygen even at low temperature.
(c) Magnesium reacts with cold water to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
(d) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when calcium reacts with nitric acid.
Q19 A metal, X, on treatment with sodium hydroxide liberates a gas G. It also liberates the same gas, G on
treatment with dilute sulphuric acid.
Based on above information, X and G respectively are:
(a) Copper and sulphur dioxide
(b) Zinc and sulphur dioxide
(c) Zinc and hydrogen
(d) Copper and hydrogen
Q20 When sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the gas evolved is:
(a) Hydrogen; it gives pop sound with burning match stick.
(b) Hydrogen; it turns lime water milky.
(c) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.
(d) Carbon dioxide; it blows off a burning matchstick with a pop sound.
Q21 A visually challenged student, has to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given solution. The
acid-base indicator preferred by him will be:
(a) Blue litmus
(b) Clove oil
(c) Red cabbage extract
(d) Hibiscus extract
Q22 The name of salt used to remove permanent hardness of water is:

(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate

(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate
(d) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

Q23 A substance ‘X’ is used in white washing and is obtained by heating limestone in the absence of air. Identify
‘X’.
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) CaO
(c) CaOCl2
(d) CaCO3
In the following question Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose
the correct option of the following:

(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Q24 Assertion: Ethane is more reactive than ethane towards addition reaction.
Reason: Ethane consists of a C-C single bond, while ethene consists of a C=C bond.
Q25 A metal exists in nature in the form of common salt. Name the metal. Give reason why this metal cannot be
obtained from its compounds by heating with carbon. Name the method by which it is obtained from its compound.
Q26 (A) (i) Show the formation of Aluminium Nitride (AlN) by the transfer of electrons.
(ii) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction. Why?
OR
(B) Metal A is used in the thermit process as a reducing agent. When A is heated with oxygen, it gives an oxide B
which is amphoteric in nature. Identify A and B, illustrate with the help of chemical equations, the reaction of B
with HCl and NaOH, respectively.
Q27 Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(i) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(iii) Name the type of this reaction and define it.
Q28 Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions:
During Diwali, Arnav’s favourite pastime is watching the sky light up with dazzling fireworks. He notices that
among many colours, the firecrackers also emit bright white light as they explode high in the sky. Curious about the
reason behind this brilliant light, he turns to his mother for an explanation. She tells him that the white lights are
produced by the burning of a specific metal.
(i) Identify the metal that Arnav’s mother is referring to.
(ii) The burning of firecrackers is an example of which type of reaction in terms of heat energy?
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the burning of the metal mentioned in (i). Mention the names and
physical states of the reactants and products involved.
OR
 (iv) Is the reaction discussed above a combination reaction? Justify your answer.

Q29 (A) (i) Draw the structure and name the functional group in each of the following compounds:
(a) Butanol
(b) Hexanoic acid
(c) Pentanal
(ii) Reeta resides in an area where the water is full of calcium and magnesium salts. One day, she decided to wash
her clothes with substance P and water. To her surprise, very little foam was produced with substance P. Then she
used substance Q, and leather formed immediately. What could be substance P and Q? Why did substance P not
form foam in the above situation?
OR
(B) A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with general formula CnH2n containing two carbon atoms is formed when a compound ‘Y’
undergoes dehydration reaction. Draw the electron dot structure of X and state how many electron pairs are shared
between the two carbon atoms. Identify the compound Y. What will happen when compound Y is treated with
ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst? Do compounds X and Y have the same chemical properties? Give
reason to support your answer.

SECTION-C
Q30 Abhay was describing the magnification by a spherical lens and he made the following statements.
(i) Magnification by a lens can be expressed as the ratio of the height of image to the height of object.
(ii) It can also be defined by the ratio of distance of image to the distance of the object from the lens.
𝑣
(iii) For all types of the lenses magnification can be determined by the expression m= − 𝑢 , where m is
magnification, u is distance of object and v is distance of image.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements about the magnification by a spherical
lens.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) II and III (d) I and III
Q31 Choose the correct statement from the below which explains the twinkling of stars in the sky.
(a) Since the atmosphere bends the star light away from the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly
higher than its actual position.
(b) Apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly, since the physical conditions of
the atmosphere of the universe are not stationary.
(c) Since stars are very distant, they approximate point sized sources of light. When light from such a distant star
travels through atmosphere, the path of star light through atmosphere changes giving rise to the fluctuation of
apparent position of the star.
(d) As the path of rays of light coming from a star through atmosphere does not change with time, so the apparent
position of the star flickers.
The following question consists of two statements -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer the question by
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b)Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q32 Assertion: A point object is placed at a distance of 40cm from a concave lens of focal length 20cm, the image
will not be formed at distance of 40cm from the lens.
1 1 1 40
Reason: For the above system the equation 𝑣 − = 𝑓 gives v = + cm
𝑢 3

Q33For separating the two spherical surfaces of a double convex lens, the lens is cut into two halves along the
circular plane passing through the optical centre of the lens. Now each half of the lens has two surfaces, one is plane
surface and the other a spherical surface.

On the basis of the above information answer the following questions.

(a) What will be the nature of the lens formed by each part obtained from the original lens?
(b) An object is placed at infinity in front of the plane surface of the newly formed lens. Where will the image be
formed and what will be the nature of the image formed?
Q34An electric kettle has two coils. When one of these is switched on, the water in the kettle boils in 6 min. When
the other coil is switched on, the water boils in 3 min. If the two coils are connected in parallel and both are
switched on together, then find the time taken to boil water in the kettle. For all the cases same quantity of water is
taken for boiling.
OR
Q34 Two bulbs of ratings 100W, 220V and 200W, 220 are connected to a 220V source, first in series and then in
parallel. Which bulb will glow brighter in each combination? Give reason for your answer.
Q35 Observe the diagram given below carefully and answer the following questions-
(a) Name and define the phenomena shown in the diagram.
(b) What may be the cause of the phenomena shown in the diagram?
(c) What can be observed by someone on the screen in the diagram? Name the pattern obtained on the screen.

Screen
Q36 In the circuit diagram given below four resistors 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 , 𝑅3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅4 are connected to a battery of 10 V. If power
5
dissipated by 𝑅1 be 9 w, then find-

(a) Potential difference across 𝑅3

(b) Value of unknown resistance 𝑅3

Q37 In the figure given below an aluminium rod of length L is placed on two parallel metal tracks. If parallel metal
tracks are connected to a battery of voltage V and B represents strength of magnetic field, then, what will you
observe?
(a) When electric current flows through the aluminium rod.
(b) When instead of one cell three cells of the same EMF (Voltage) are connected to the tracks.
(c) When strength of magnetic field increases.

Q-38 A ray of light travelling in air is incident obliquely by making an angle of incidence (i) at air-water interface.
After travelling some distance in water it enters in glass and emerges out in air at glass-air interface by making an
angle of emergence (e). If angles of refraction in water and glass are (𝒓𝟏 ) and (𝒓𝟐 ) respectively, then-
(a) Find refractive index of water with respect to air in terms of sine of angle of incidence and the sine of angle of
refraction.
(b) Find refractive index of glass with respect to water.
𝑚
(Speeds of light in glass and water are 2× 108 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2.25 × 108 𝑚⁄𝑠 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑦 )
𝑠
𝑛𝑔𝑎
(c) Prove that 𝑛𝑔𝑤= 𝑛𝑤𝑎

OR
(d) Draw a ray diagram showing the path of a ray of light through the three transparent media given in the above
case.
Q-39 When an electric heater is connected to a supply of 220V, the power dissipation by the heater is 1000W. The
resistivity and area of cross-section of the wire used for heating coil are 10−5 Ωm and 0.4 𝑚𝑚2 , respectively. If the
radius of each turn of the coil is 7 mm, then find-
(a) Resistance of the heating coil.
(b) Length of the wire used for making heating coil.
(c) Total number of turns in the heating coil.
OR
Wires C and D are made from different materials and have length 𝐿𝐶 = 𝐿𝐷 = 1𝑚. Resistivity and diameter of wire
C are 2.2× 10−6 Ω. 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1.0 𝑚𝑚, and those of wire D are 1.21× 10−6 Ω. 𝑚 and 0.5mm. The wires are
joined as shown in the figure, and a current of 2A is set up in them.

(a) Find resistance of the wires C and D.

(b) Find equivalent resistance of the combination of the wires.
(c) Calculate potential difference between the ends 1 and 2.
(d) Calculate potential difference between the ends 2 and 3.