DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL INDIRAPURAM, GHAZIABAD
ANNUAL EXAMINATION: 2025-26
CLASS – IX
Time:3 Hours M. M.80 SUBJECT-SOCIAL SCIENCE No. of Q.:38 No. of Pages :
SAMPLE PAPER
Name Roll No.
General Instructions :
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D-
Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed
120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and
Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in
few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
SECTION-A 20 Marks
HISTORY
1. Unit of currency in France, discontinued in [1]
A.1793 B.1794 C.1795 [Link] of the above
2. [1]
Study the picture and answer the question that follows. Which of the following aspect best signifies
this image?
A. Petrograd Soviet meeting B .London Poor
C. May Day demonstration in Moscow D. None of these
3. Arrange the following events in the Chronological order. Choose the correct answer from the [1]
options given below
1 NAZI had become the largest party with 37 per cent votes.
2 First World War
3 Wall Street Exchange crashed
4 Hitler planned to seize control of Bavaria
A. 4,2,1,3 B. 2,4,3,1 C. 1,3,2,4 D. 2,1,4,3
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4. There are 2 statements as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given, answer as per the code given [1]
below:
Assertion (A) The War Guilt clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied
countries had suffered.
Reason(R) Germany was forced to pay compensation of 2 billion.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. A is wrong, but R is correct
5. Write any two contributions of Mirabeau and Abbé Sieyès. [2]
OR
On the night of 4 August 1789, the Assembly passed a decree. Write any two decisions taken on
this date.
6. What was the incident of Bloody Sunday? Write three points. [3]
OR
What changes were brought by the Bolsheviks after coming to power? (Any three)
7. What was Art of Propaganda used by Adolf Hitler? (Any 5 points) [5]
OR
Explain the NAZI’S world view? (Any 5 points)
8. Read the given source and answer the question that follows : [4]
The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Robespierre followed a policy
of severe control and punishment. All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic – ex-
nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members of his own party who did not
agree with his methods – were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary tribunal. If
the court found them ‘guilty’ they were guillotined. The guillotine is a device consisting of two
poles and a blade with which a person is beheaded. It was named after Dr Guillotin who invented
it.
8.1 Which period is called the reign of terror ? 1+1+2
8.2 Which type of policy was followed by Robespierre ?
8.3 Despite the fact that Robespierre was cruel in his treatment,he had also introduced some
measures to bring equality. Mention any two.
9. On the given political map of World, identify and write the names of the places. 1+1 [2]
A. Allied power
B. Territory under Nazi Power
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SECTION-B 20 Marks
GEOGRAPHY
10. Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in- [1]
A. Both the area of departure and arrival B. The area of arrival
C. The area of departure D. None of the above
11. Which of these is an Integrated Conservation Mission approved as a flagship programme by the [1]
Union Government in June 2014?
A. Namami Devi Narmade B. Yamuna Action Plan
C. Namami Gange Programme D. Cauvery River Conservation
12. Which of the following matches is not correct? [1]
A. Dhaulagiri- Nepal B. Wular lake- Largest salt water lake
C. Majuli-Brahmaputra D. Australia- The Great Barrier Reef
13. What is the total area of the Indian land mass? [1]
A. 32.8 million [Link] B. 3.28 million [Link]
C. 3.82 million [Link] D. 38.2 million [Link]
14. The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as- [1]
A. Loo B. Trade winds C. Kaal Baisakhi D. None of these
15. What is the percentage of population in Rajasthan in India? [1]
A. 5.5 percent B. 15.5 percent C. 4.5 percent D. 10.5 percent
16. Explain any two causes of river pollution. [2]
17. Explain how the monsoon acts as a unifying bond. [5]
OR
Name any two hills of Purvachal. Describe the west-east cross section of the Himalayas. [1+4]
18. Read the source given below and answer the following questions: [4]
The peninsular plateau is flanked by stretch of narrow coastal strips running along the Arabian Sea
on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east. The western coast, sandwiched between the Western
Ghats and the Arabian Sea, is a narrow plain. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the
coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai-Goa), the central stretch is called the Kannad Plain, while the
southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar Coast. The plains along the Bay of Bengal are wide
and level. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar,while the southern part is
known as the Coromandel coast .Large rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and
the Kaveri have formed extensive delta on this coast. Lake Chilika is an important feature along the
eastern coast.
[Link] are the central and southern stretches of western coastal plains known as? [1]
[Link] one basic difference between eastern and western coastal plain. [1]
[Link] the large rivers that have formed extensive delta on the eastern coast. [2]
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19. On the given outline map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols- 1+2 [3]
I. a. The Deccan plateau
OR
b. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
II. Any two of the following-
i. Lake Chilika
ii. The state having lowest population density
iii. The Northernmost latitude of India
SECTION-C 20 Marks
POLITICAL SCIENCE
20. On what does the fate of a democratic country mainly depend on? [1]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link] we as responsible citizens do
[Link] Policy
21. Which of the following best signifies this image? [1]
[Link]
[Link] Aspirants
[Link]
[Link] of these
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22. The resolution of ________ Session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how [1]
independent India's Constitution should look like
[Link] Session
[Link] Session
[Link] Session
[Link] of these
23. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion:- [1]
Assertion (A): Rights ensure that the majority cannot do whatever it likes.
Reason (R): Rights do not protect minorities from the oppression of majority.
(R) Read the above statements and choose the correct option
[Link] (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
[Link] (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C.(A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
D.(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
24. “Democracy enhances the dignity of [Link] the Statement [2]
OR
In China the election do not offer the people any serious choice “.Explain
25. Why should we accept the Constitution made by the Assembly more than fifty years ago? [2]
OR
How did the black majority treat the white minority after the emergence of new democratic
South Africa?
26. How is Lok sabha more powerful than Rajyasabha? [3]
OR
What are the functions of Institutions?
27. What are the rights of the citizens in Saudi Arabia? [5]
OR
Explain the right to Freedom of Religion.
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28. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Once the election results were announced, the sitting Chief Minister resigned. The newly
elected Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) of Lok Dal chose Devi Lal as their
[Link] Governor invited Devi Lal to be the new Chief Minister. Three days after the
election results were declared, he became the Chief Minister. As soon as he became the
ChiefMinister, his government issued a Government Order waiving the outstanding loans of
small farmers, agricultural labourers and small businessmen. His party ruled the State for
four years. The next elections were held in 1991. But this time his party did not win popular
support. The Congress won the election and formed the government.
28.1 How many seats were won by Devi Lal and it's Partners in Assembly election in
Haryana?(1m)
28.2 What was the Promise made by Devi Lal to voters?(1m)
28.3 “ In a democracy there is no permanent winner, nor loser”. Explain by giving example
of Haryana Assembly Election(2m)
SECTION-D 20 Marks
ECONOMICS
29. When did the Great famine of Bengal take place? [1]
A. 1941 B. 1943 C. 1945 D. 1947
30. Who among the following insisted that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of [1]
its people become free of human suffering?
A. Mahatma Gandhi B. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Indira Gandhi D. Amartya Sen
31. Which of the following statements are correct about poverty in India? [1]
Select the correct option:
1. India has the largest single concentration of the poor in the world.
2. Bihar continues to be the poorest state with poverty ratios of 34 percent respectively.
3. Poverty surveys are carried out by the National Statistical Survey Organisation.
4. Among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour
households and the urban casual labour households.
Options:
A. Statements 1 and 2 are appropriate.
B. Statements 1, 2 and 4 are appropriate.
C. Statements 2 and 4 are appropriate.
D. Only statement 3 is appropriate.
32. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement I: In case of India, statistically, the unemployment rate is low.
Statement II: A large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted
as employed.
A. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
B. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct.
C. Both (I) & (II) are incorrect.
D. Both (I) & (II) are correct
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33. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the [1]
lists:
LIST I LIST II
1. Farmer growing a single crop a. Disguised unemployment
2. More than required people are b. Industrial unemployment
working
3. A paradoxical manpower c. Seasonal unemployment
situation is witnessed as
surplus of manpower in
certain categories coexist with
shortage of manpower in
others.
4. Capital Intensive technology. d. Educated unemployment
A. 1.d), 2.a), 3. c), 4. b) B. 1.b), 2.d), 3. a), 4. c)
C. 1.c), 2.a), 3. d), 4. b) D. 1.d), 2.c), 3. b), 4. a)
34. Which of the following scheme aims at improving the child nutritional status as well as school [1]
dropout and enrollment rate?
A. MGNREGA B. PM Poshan
C. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan D. PMUY
35. Explain the role of education in Human capital formation. [3]
36. Explain the role of cooperatives in achieving food security in India. [3]
37. Ahmad is a rickshaw puller in Bangalore. He does not have secured employment and his earnings [3]
fluctuate every day. Ahmad has a yellow card, which is a PDS Card for below poverty line people.
With this card, Ahmad gets a sufficient quantity of wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene oil for his daily
use.
What is the Public Distribution System and how has it helped people like Ahmad overcome his
challenge?
38. Write a short note on the National Multidimensional Poverty Index. Explain how it is better than [5]
consumption based poverty criteria?
Or
Somvati lives in a rural area and her family is categorised Below Poverty Line. Using the
National Multidimensional Poverty Index, explain on what basis she falls under this category?
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