NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER -

BIOLOGY
Class 11 (Chapters 1-10) + Class 12 (Sexual
Reproduction in Flowering Plants)

Duration: 90 minutes Total Questions: 90 MCQs Total Marks: 360

Marking Scheme
• Correct Answer: +4 marks

• Incorrect Answer: -1 mark

• Unanswered: 0 marks

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question carries 4 marks with -1 negative marking.

3. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

4. Do not mark multiple options for a single question.

1
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

SECTION A: CLASS 11 BIOLOGY (Chapters 1-10)

- 45 Questions

Chapter 1: The Living World

Q1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living organisms?

(A) Growth and reproduction

(B) Responsiveness to stimuli
(C) Static structure
(D) Metabolism

Q2. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by:

(A) Aristotle
(B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) Charles Darwin
(D) Gregor Mendel

Q3. The taxonomic rank that contains the greatest number of individuals is:

(A) Species
(B) Genus
(C) Family
(D) Order

Q4. The correct order of taxonomic categories from largest to smallest is:

(A) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(B) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom
(C) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
(D) Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Family, Genus, Species

Q5. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of classification?

(A) Genus
(B) Species
(C) Family
(D) Kingdom

Page 2 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 2: Biological Classification

Q6. Which of the following kingdom includes photosynthetic prokaryotes?

(A) Monera

(B) Protista

(C) Fungi

(D) Plantae

Q7. Lichens are a symbiotic association between:

(A) Algae and bacteria

(B) Fungus and algae

(C) Fungus and cyanobacteria

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Q8. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites because:

(A) They cannot synthesize their own proteins

(B) They lack ribosomes and metabolic machinery

(C) They require host cell machinery for replication

(D) All of the above

Q9. The cell wall of fungi is made of:

(A) Cellulose

(B) Chitin

(C) Peptidoglycan

(D) Hemicellulose

Q10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Protista?

(A) Unicellular

(B) Eukaryotic

(C) Presence of cell wall

(D) Aquatic habitat

Page 3 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 3: Plant Kingdom

Q11. Which of the following is the most primitive plant?

(A) Bryophytes

(B) Pteridophytes

(C) Gymnosperms

(D) Angiosperms

Q12. The dominant gametophytic generation is found in:

(A) Gymnosperms

(B) Angiosperms

(C) Bryophytes

(D) Pteridophytes

Q13. Stomata are NOT found in:

(A) Liverworts

(B) Ferns

(C) Gymnosperms

(D) Angiosperms

Q14. The vascular tissue in plants is absent in:

(A) Bryophytes

(B) Pteridophytes

(C) Gymnosperms

(D) Angiosperms

Q15. Which plant phylum shows true roots, stems, and leaves?

(A) Bryophytes

(B) Pteridophytes

(C) Gymnosperms

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Page 4 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 4: Animal Kingdom

Q16. Which phylum includes animals with a notochord?

(A) Mollusca

(B) Chordata

(C) Arthropoda

(D) Cnidaria

Q17. The feature that distinguishes mammals from other vertebrates is:

(A) Presence of hair and mammary glands

(B) Four-chambered heart

(C) Internal fertilization

(D) Diaphragm for breathing

Q18. Which of the following animals has radial symmetry in its larval stage?

(A) Starfish

(B) Sea urchin

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Earthworm

Q19. The body cavity of organisms like Earthworm and Vertebrates is:

(A) Pseudocoelom

(B) Coelom

(C) No body cavity

(D) Haemocoel

Q20. Which is the largest phylum in terms of number of species?

(A) Mollusca

(B) Chordata

(C) Arthropoda

(D) Annelida

Page 5 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 5: Morphology of Flowering Plants

Q21. A simple leaf differs from a compound leaf in:

(A) The presence of leaflets

(B) Venation pattern

(C) Petiole structure

(D) Chlorophyll content

Q22. The modified leaf that encloses the flower bud is called:

(A) Bract

(B) Sepal

(C) Spathe

(D) Stipule

Q23. The root that develops from any part of the plant other than the radicle is:

(A) Tap root

(B) Fibrous root

(C) Adventitious root

(D) Lateral root

Q24. The region of root responsible for absorption of water is:

(A) Root cap

(B) Root hair zone

(C) Meristematic zone

(D) Elongation zone

Q25. Which of the following is a modified underground stem?

(A) Root tuber

(B) Rhizome

(C) Bulb

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Page 6 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 6: Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Q26. The vascular bundle arrangement in monocot stems is:

(A) Scattered

(B) In a ring

(C) In the center

(D) Only in the cortex

Q27. Lenticels are found in:

(A) Roots

(B) Stems

(C) Leaves

(D) Flowers

Q28. The cambium produces:

(A) Xylem towards the center

(B) Phloem towards the periphery

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Cork and cortex

Q29. Endodermis in roots is characterized by:

(A) Casparian strip

(B) Thick cell walls

(C) Presence of chloroplasts

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Q30. The tissue that connects different organs of a plant is:

(A) Phloem

(B) Xylem

(C) Parenchyma

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Page 7 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 7: Structural Organization in Animals

Q31. Which tissue type is responsible for protection in animals?

(A) Epithelial tissue

(B) Connective tissue

(C) Muscle tissue

(D) Nervous tissue

Q32. Areolar tissue is an example of:

(A) Dense connective tissue

(B) Loose connective tissue

(C) Specialized connective tissue

(D) Skeletal tissue

Q33. The contractile proteins in muscle tissue are:

(A) Actin and myosin

(B) Collagen and elastin

(C) Keratin and elastin

(D) Fibrin and globin

Q34. Which tissue can conduct electrical impulses?

(A) Epithelial tissue

(B) Nervous tissue

(C) Muscle tissue

(D) Connective tissue

Q35. Cartilage differs from bone in having:

(A) No blood vessels

(B) Flexible matrix

(C) No bone cells

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Page 8 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 8: Cell: The Unit of Life

Q36. The cell membrane is composed primarily of:

(A) Proteins and lipids

(B) Carbohydrates and proteins

(C) Lipids and carbohydrates

(D) Only lipids

Q37. Which of the following is NOT a membrane-bound organelle?

(A) Golgi apparatus

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Ribosome

(D) Mitochondrion

Q38. The main function of lysosomes is:

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) Intracellular digestion

(C) ATP production

(D) Starch storage

Q39. Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in having:

(A) No membrane-bound organelles

(B) A circular chromosome

(C) No nucleus

(D) All of the above

Q40. The semi-permeable nature of cell membrane is due to:

(A) Lipid bilayer

(B) Protein channels

(C) Carbohydrates

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Page 9 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 9: Biomolecules
Q41. Which of the following is a pentose sugar?

(A) Glucose

(B) Deoxyribose

(C) Fructose

(D) Galactose

Q42. The primary structure of a protein is determined by:

(A) The sequence of amino acids

(B) Hydrogen bonding

(C) Disulfide bonds

(D) Ionic interactions

Q43. DNA and RNA differ in having:

(A) Different bases

(B) Different sugars

(C) Different numbers of strands

(D) All of the above

Q44. Enzymes are biological catalysts that:

(A) Increase the activation energy

(B) Lower the activation energy

(C) Change the equilibrium of reaction

(D) Are consumed in the reaction

Q45. The optimum pH for pepsin is:

(A) Neutral (pH 7)

(B) Slightly acidic (pH 4)

(C) Highly acidic (pH 2)

(D) Basic (pH 10)

Page 10 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Chapter 10: Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Q46. The longest phase of the cell cycle is:

(A) G1 phase

(B) S phase

(C) G2 phase

(D) M phase

Q47. During which phase are chromosomes visible under a light microscope?

(A) Interphase

(B) Prophase

(C) Metaphase

(D) Anaphase

Q48. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that:

(A) Meiosis produces four haploid cells

(B) Meiosis involves two divisions

(C) Homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis

(D) All of the above

Q49. Crossing over occurs during:

(A) Prophase I of meiosis I

(B) Metaphase II of meiosis II

(C) Telophase of mitosis

(D) Anaphase II of meiosis II

Q50. The significance of mitosis is:

(A) Growth and repair of tissues

(B) Maintenance of chromosome number

(C) Production of genetically identical cells

(D) All of the above

Page 11 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

SECTION B: CLASS 12 BIOLOGY (Sexual Repro-

duction in Flowering Plants) - 45 Questions
Q51. The male reproductive part of a flower that produces pollen is the:

(A) Stigma

(B) Anther

(C) Ovule

(D) Style

Q52. Microsporogenesis in plants refers to the formation of:

(A) Female gametophytes

(B) Male gametophytes

(C) Microspores

(D) Megaspores

Q53. In a mature embryo sac of a flowering plant, the number of nuclei typically present
is:

(A) Four

(B) Seven

(C) Eight

(D) Nine

Q54. Self-incompatibility in plants is a mechanism that:

(A) Prevents self-pollination

(B) Promotes cross-pollination

(C) Inhibits pollen tube growth

(D) All of the above

Q55. The pollen grain at the time of its release from the anther is:

(A) Unicellular

(B) Bicellular

(C) Tricellular

Page 12 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

(D) Either bicellular or tricellular

Q56. Double fertilization in flowering plants involves:

(A) Fusion of male gamete with egg

(B) Fusion of second male gamete with polar nuclei

(C) Formation of zygote and endosperm

(D) All of the above

Q57. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is formed by fusion of:

(A) Male gamete and female gamete

(B) Male gamete and two polar nuclei

(C) Two male gametes and polar nuclei

(D) Two female gametes

Q58. Which structure in the ovule acts as the opening through which the pollen tube
enters?

(A) Chalaza

(B) Integument

(C) Micropyle

(D) Nucellus

Q59. The egg apparatus of the embryo sac consists of:

(A) One egg and two synergids

(B) Two eggs and one synergid

(C) Three synergids

(D) One egg and one synergid

Q60. Apomixis in plants refers to:

(A) Sexual reproduction

(B) Asexual reproduction through seeds

(C) Vegetative reproduction

(D) Formation of polyembryonic seeds

Page 13 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Q61. The integument of an ovule develops into:

(A) Seed coat

(B) Endosperm

(C) Cotyledon

(D) Embryo axis

Q62. Which of the following is NOT a part of female gametophyte?

(A) Egg apparatus

(B) Polar nuclei

(C) Synergids

(D) Tapetum

Q63. The nucellus of ovule is derived from:

(A) Integument

(B) Chalaza

(C) Megasporangium

(D) Funicle

Q64. Pollination by insects is known as:

(A) Anemophily

(B) Entomophily

(C) Hydrophily

(D) Ornithophily

Q65. Which of the following flowers is pollinated by wind?

(A) Rose

(B) Maize

(C) Sunflower

(D) Butterfly pea

Q66. The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through:

(A) Micropyle

Page 14 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

(B) Chalaza

(C) Integument

(D) Nucellus

Q67. The wall of the pollen grain consists of:

(A) Exine only

(B) Intine only

(C) Both exine and intine

(D) Neither exine nor intine

Q68. The vegetative cell of pollen grain contains:

(A) One nucleus

(B) Two nuclei

(C) Three nuclei

(D) Four nuclei

Q69. Male gametogenesis in plants is called:

(A) Oogenesis

(B) Microsporogenesis

(C) Megasporogenesis

(D) Gametogenesis

Q70. The female gametophyte is also known as:

(A) Pollen grain

(B) Embryo sac

(C) Gametophyll

(D) Sporophyll

Q71. The chalaza of the ovule is:

(A) The opening for pollen tube entry

(B) The basal region opposite to micropyle

(C) The protective layer

Page 15 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

(D) The nutritive tissue

Q72. Endosperm in flowering plants is:

(A) Haploid

(B) Diploid

(C) Triploid

(D) Tetraploid

Q73. The cotyledon develops from:

(A) Integument

(B) Embryo

(C) Endosperm

(D) Ovule

Q74. Which of the following assists the pollen tube in finding the ovule?

(A) Pollen wall

(B) Pollen tube cell

(C) Chemical gradients from synergids

(D) Integument

Q75. Megasporogenesis produces how many functional megaspores?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) One

(D) Four

Q76. The antipodal cells in the embryo sac function as:

(A) Nutritive cells

(B) Protective cells

(C) Reproductive cells

(D) Conductive cells

Q77. The funicle of the ovule connects the ovule to:

Page 16 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

(A) Anther

(B) Stigma

(C) Placenta

(D) Style

Q78. Perfect flowers contain:

(A) Only stamens

(B) Only pistils

(C) Both stamens and pistils

(D) Neither stamens nor pistils

Q79. Unisexual flowers are also called:

(A) Hermaphrodite flowers

(B) Imperfect flowers

(C) Perfect flowers

(D) Bisexual flowers

Q80. The tapetum in the anther provides nutrition to:

(A) Epidermis

(B) Pollen grains

(C) Connective tissue

(D) Vascular tissue

Q81. Anther dehiscence is the process of:

(A) Pollen formation

(B) Opening of anther and release of pollen

(C) Fusion of nuclei

(D) Development of embryo

Q82. Cross-pollination is advantageous because it:

(A) Increases genetic variation

(B) Produces stronger offspring

Page 17 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

(C) Ensures seed production

(D) All of the above

Q83. The pollen tube grows through the:

(A) Ovule tissue only

(B) Stigma and style

(C) Entire pistil

(D) Ovary wall

Q84. Which tissue remains after fertilization to form the seed coat?

(A) Nucellus

(B) Integument

(C) Chalaza

(D) Funicle

Q85. The zygote in flowering plants develops into:

(A) Endosperm

(B) Embryo

(C) Seed coat

(D) Cotyledon

Q86. How many mitotic divisions occur in megasporogenesis after meiosis?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Q87. The receptacle of the flower is derived from:

(A) Carpel

(B) Stamen

(C) Petal

(D) Stem

Page 18 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

Q88. The generative cell in pollen undergoes division to form:

(A) Two vegetative cells

(B) Two sperm cells

(C) One sperm cell

(D) Two synergids

Q89. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from:

(A) Anther to stigma

(B) Anther to ovule

(C) Stigma to anther

(D) Ovule to anther

Q90. The primary role of the synergids is to:

(A) Nourish the egg

(B) Guide the pollen tube

(C) Protect the embryo sac

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Page 19 of ??
NEET PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - BIOLOGY Class 11 + 12

SCORING GUIDELINES
Maximum Marks: 360

Calculate your score:

• Correct answers × 4 = Positive marks

• Wrong answers × 1 = Negative marks

• Score = (Correct × 4) - (Wrong × 1)

Performance Levels:
• 300-360: Excellent (83-100%)

• 240-299: Very Good (67-82%)

• 180-239: Good (50-66%)

• Below 180: Needs improvement (¡50%)

TIPS FOR NEET PREPARATION

1. Understand concepts thoroughly – Don’t just memorize, understand the “why”

2. Practice previous year papers – Familiarize yourself with question patterns

3. Time management – Allocate ∼1 minute per question (90 questions in 90 min-

utes)

4. Review your answers – Don’t leave questions unattempted randomly

5. Focus on high-weightage chapters – Cell division, reproduction, and genetics

carry more questions

6. Practice diagrams – Biology requires understanding of structures and processes

7. Build concept maps – Connect related topics across chapters

Good Luck with your NEET preparation! ⇒

Page 20 of ??