Hayole Education Project, Furra Model Acadamy

Biology general questions for grade Grade-12, 2015

I. Choose the best answer from the given alternatives

1. If the cell is adapted to carry out particular function, it is called?
A. Specialized cell B. Differentiated cell C. Undifferentiated cell D. A and B
2. Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using
A. TEM B. SEM C. Light microscope D. All
3. One of the following is false statement?
A. No digestion takes place in caecum
B. Lacteal vessel transport fatty-acid and glycerol
C. Chyme is uniform, thick soup-like mixture in stomach
D. Bile doesn‘t neutralize the acidified chyme in duodenum
4. Emulsion test is used to test the presence of?
A. protein B. lipid C. vitamin D. sucrose
5. The body‘s preferred energy source is
A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. fats D. minerals
6. _____ are inorganic substances with metabolic roles that no other substance can fulfill.
A. Fats B. Vitamins C. Minerals D. Simple sugars
7. When you add a few drops of iodine solution on thin slice of potato turns, blue-black, this confirm the
presence of?
A. Protein B. Starch C . Fat D. Vitamin
8. Maltose can be obtained from?
A. Milk B. Sugar cane C. Sweet potato D. Germinating seed
9. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?
A. Lactose B. Maltose C. Sucrose D. Fructose
10. Hexose are similar to double sugars in that both are
A. Water soluble B. Sweet C. Crystalline D. All
11. One of the following carbohydrates are structural component of exoskeleton of insects?
A. Cellulose B. Chitin C. peptidoglycan D. Glycoprotein
12. One of the following is not function of lipids?
A. used to dissolved some vitamins such as VitA, VitD, VitE, & VitK
B. Used to make hormones & steroids
C. it is component of cell-membrane
D. serves as temp. insulates of body
E. none
13. The head part of group of fatty acid is?
A. Ketone group B. aldehyde group C. carboxyl group D. amino group
14. Condensation process involves?
A. the breaking of existing bonds with loss of a water molecule.
B. the breaking of existing bonds with the addition of a water molecule
C. the creation of new bonds with loss of a water molecule.
D. the creation of new bonds with the addition of a water molecule.
15. Fatty acids containing double bonds are found in
A. proteins. B. saturated lipids. C. polysaccharides. D. unsaturated lipids.
16. One is false about the importance of protein?
A. It used in repair of tissue and muscle.
B. It play role in growth.
C. It is the structural component of cell-Membrane.

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D. Functional protein catalyzes biochemical rxn.

17. This organ may be part of the immune system and helps prevent infections in the large intestine.
A. duodenum B. cecum C. rectum D. appendix
18. Which association is incorrect?
A. mouth—starch digestion B. esophagus—protein digestion
C. small intestine—starch, lipid, protein digestion D. stomach—food storage
E. liver—production of bile
19. Bile has roles in digestion and absorption of.
A. carbohydrate B. protein C. fat D. amino acid
20. Which of the following is not a function of the liver in adults?
A. produces bile B. detoxifies alcohol C. stores glucose
D. produces urea E. makes red blood cells
21. Which of these organs is an accessory organ?
A. mouth B. small intestine C. stomach D. liver
22. The liver‘s role in digestion is to:
A. synthesize aminopeptidase and dipeptidase to digest polypeptides.
B. synthesize lipase to form free fatty acids.
C. secrete trypsin to break the bonds in polypeptides.
D. secrete bile and bicarbonate ions to help emulsify fats.
E. store bile between meals.
23. Which of the following sections does not contain enzymes?
A. Bile B. Pancreatic juice C. Intestinal juice D. Saliva
24. Which one of the following is true about the Bile?
A. it is an important enzyme for the digestion of fats. B. it cannot be stored.
C. it is made by the gallbladder. D. it emulsifies fat.
E. All of these are correct.
25. Which of these is not a function of the liver in adults?
A. produce bile B. produce urea C. detoxify alcohol
D. make red blood cells E. store glucose
26. Which of these could be absorbed directly without need of digestion?
A. glucose B. fat C. polysaccharides D. protein E. nucleic acid
27. Which association is incorrect?
A. protein—trypsin B. maltose—pepsin C. fat—bile
D. starch—amylase E. fat—lipase
28. How many of the following structures produce enzymes that digest carbohydrates?
1. colon 2. pancreas 3. gall bladder 4. small intestine 5. salivary glands
A. two B. three C. four D. five
29. Villi, microvilli, and the folds of the small intestine all function to ____________.
A. increase surface area B. secrete important enzymes
C. prevent the intestine from digesting itself D. move chemicals across the membrane
30. Which one of the following is muscular vessels that move blood away from the heart?
A. arterioles B. A. arteries C. venules D. veins E. capillaries
31. sites for the exchange of substances between blood and interstitial fluid is
A. arterioles B. venules C. capillaries D. veins E. arteries
33. Which of the following lists the events of the cardiac cycle in the correct order?
A. both atria contract, then both ventricles

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B. both ventricles contract, then both atria

C. left atria and left ventricle contract, then right atria and right ventricle
D. right atria and right ventricle contract, then left atria and left ventricle
34. Blood moving from the left atrium to the left ventricle passes through which of the following valves?
A. bicuspid(mitral) valve B. tricuspid valve
C. aortic semilunar valve D. pulmonary semilunar valve
35. Blood pressure is highest in the ______ of the cardiovascular system.
A. veins B. capillaries C. arteries D. all
36. A blood pressure reading of 145/90 indicates
A. normal blood pressure. B. hypertension. C. hypotension.
37. Water enters the venous end of capillaries because of
A. osmotic pressure that is higher than blood pressure.
B. an osmotic pressure gradient.
C. higher blood pressure on the venous side.
D. higher blood pressure on the arterial side.
E. higher red blood cell concentration on the venous side.
38. What is the advantage of a four-chambered heart?
A. It uses the least energy of any type of heart.
B. It maximizes the amount of O 2 reaching tissues.
C. It enhances the mixing of blood from the pulmonary and systemic circulation.
D. Both A and C are correct.
39. Which type of blood vessel uses smooth muscle contractions to help control blood flow?
A. A capillary B. A vein C. A venule D. An arteriole
40. How might the body maintain homeostasis if blood pressure rises too high?
A. By boosting the volume of blood. B. By increasing the heart rate.
C. By dilating the blood vessels near the skin. D. By raising the diastolic pressure.
41. Air is pulled into the human respiratory tract mainly because of volume changes in the
A. nose. B. chest cavity. C. pharynx. D. trachea.
42. Breathing rate is mostly determined by
A. the concentration of O 2 in the air. B. the concentration of O 2 in the blood.
C. the concentration of CO 2 in the blood. D. the amount of hemoglobin in the blood.
43. A person with Type O blood is given Type AB blood during a transfusion. Which of the following is
a possible outcome from the transfusion?
A. The anti-A antibodies in the recipient‘s blood will attack the A antigens in the donor‘s blood.
B. The anti-B antibodies in the recipient‘s blood will attack the B antigens in the donor‘s blood.
C. The donor cells will clump inside the recipient‘s body.
D. all of the above
Use the diagram to answer questions

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Biology general questions for grade Grade-12, 2015

44. Which heart chamber pumps blood to the lungs?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
45. Where does blood go when it leaves chamber 4?
A. lungs B. right atrium C. left atrium D. aorta
46. Chamber 1 receives blood from which blood vessel(s)?
A. aorta B. pulmonary arteries C. venae cavae D. pulmonary veins
47. Which best describes the blood in chamber 3?
A. It is headed to the lungs to receive carbon dioxide.
B. It is coming from the lungs after receiving carbon dioxide.
C. It is headed to the lungs to receive oxygen.
D. It is coming from the lungs after receiving oxygen.
48. The vein carrying the highest concentration of oxygen is the
A. iliac. B. renal. C. hepatic. D. pulmonary.
49. The path followed by blood on one circuit through the heart is
A. ventricle, atrioventricular valve, semilunar valve, atrium.
B. atrium, atrioventricular valve, ventricle, semilunar valve.
C. atrium, ventricle, atrioventricular valve, semilunar valve.
D. atrium, semilunar valve, ventricle, atrioventricular valve
50. The SA node (pacemaker) of the heart is located in the wall of the
A. left atrium. B. right atrium. C. left ventricle. D. right ventricle
51. Which of the following is true about the nasal (nose) breathing?
A. It more desirable than mouth breathing B. It moistened & warmth the air
C. It filtered the air D. All of the above
52. Air can enter the body and travel to the lungs?
A. through the mouth and the nose B. through the oesophagus and gullet
C. through the windpipe and the pores D. through the nose and the nervous system
53. What is the function of the pleurae?
A. to compartmentalize, protect the lungs
B. to serve as a passageway and for the continued cleansing of air
C. to produce mucus
D. to lighten the skull
54. Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to:
A. hear B. sneeze C. breathe D. speak E. eat
55. The respiratory conducting passage-ways perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A. allow air to reach the lungs B. warm incoming air
C. purify air D. moistening air E. exchange gases
56. The thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity, formed by a partition, is called
A. Diaphragm B. Abdominal wall C. Pericardium D. Cerebellum
57. Air is pulled into the human respiratory tract mainly because of volume changes in the
A. nose. B. chest cavity. C. pharynx. D. trachea.
58. What processes occur during inhalation?
A. the thoracic cavity expands B. the diaphragm contracts
C. atmospheric pressure declines D. both A and B
59. Most oxygen in blood is transported?
A. bound to hemoglobin B. as carbon dioxide
C. as bicarbonate D. dissolved in the plasma

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60. In the process of breathing air out?

A. Diaphragm contract B. Ribcage is upward
C. Volume of chest cavity decreases D. All of the above
61. What is the force that causes air to flow into the lungs during inspiration and out of the
lungs during expiration?
A. intercostal muscle movements B. atmospheric pressure
C. diaphragm movements D. A and C
Use the following information to answer the question:
1. Alveoli 2. Bronchi 3. Trachea 4. Bronchiole .
62. What is the order in which air passes through these structures during inhalation?
A. 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 3 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 3, 4, 2, 1
63. The structure that connects the larynx to the bronchi in the lungs is?
A. epiglottis B. pleura C. trachea D. esophagus
64. Which of these is incorrect concerning inspiration?
A. The rib cage moves up and out.
B. The diaphragm contracts and moves down.
C. Pressure in the lungs decreases, and air comes rushing in.
D. The force of the incoming air increases lung volume.
65. Identify false statement?
A. CO is gas that can lower the concentration of Oxygen in the blood.
B. Amphetamine and cocaine s are drugs that can increase the breathing rate.
C. 9 people in every 100,000 of population died of smoking related cancer.
D. tars of cigarette smoke contain about 4000 carcinogenic chemicals.
66. The rate at which oxygen moves from the alveoli of our lungs into our blood
A. depends on the difference in oxygen concentration between the alveoli and the blood.
B. depends on the color of the alveoli.
C. depends on the availability of energy to transport gases across the membrane.
D. none of the above
67. The reason why single-celled organisms do not use specialized gas exchange structures is that their
bodies
A. are not large enough to accommodate them. B. have a large surface area–to–volume ratio.
C. are not complex enough to need them. D. have a slow metabolism.
54. Oxygen is transported through the human body
A. as a dissolved gas in the blood plasma. B. bound to hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells.
C. through intercellular air spaces. D. by diffusion.
55. People living in higher altitude have more red blood cells that people living in lower altitudes.
This is because air at higher altitude contain
A. Less Co2 in a given volume of air C. Less O2 in a given volume of air
B. More Co2 in a given volume of air D. More O2 in a given volume of air
56. Respiratory pigments .
A. contain metal ions B. occur only in vertebrates
C. increase the efficiency of oxygen transport D. both A and C
57. Which is the most common form of tobacco use?
A. Chewing tobacco B. Snuffing tobacco
C. Smoking tobacco D. None of the above
58. The addictive drug in cigarettes is:

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A. benzopyrene. B. Formaldehyde C. tar. D. Nicotine

59. Which of the following is the most dangerous gas found in cigarettes?
A. Carbon monoxide B. Tar C. Nicotine D. ammonia
60. In human lungs, gas exchange occurs at the .
A. two bronchi B. alveolar sacs C. pleural sacs D. both B and C
61. When you breathe quietly, inhalation is ________ and exhalation is __________ .
A. passive; passive B. passive; active C. active; active D. active; passive
62. One of the following disease is not caused by smoking?
A. bronchitis B. Lung cancer C. Tuberculosis D. Emphysema
63. If you held cobalt chloride paper about 3cm from your mouth & breathe on it for 2 to 3 minutes, the
paper turns pink, this shows that exhaled air contain?
A. Oxygen B. heat C. water vapor D. carbon dioxide
64. Exhaled air should contain water vapor. This could be detected by a dry cobalt chloride paper which is
changed from to .
A. Yellow to blue B. Blue to yellow C. Pink to yellow D. Blue to pink
65. By breathing over a lime water milky suspension formed. This shows that the presence of in
exhaled air.
A. Water vapor B. Heat C. CO2 D. None of the above
66. The disease that causes breakdown of the alveoli, thus increasing the size of the air spaces and
decreasing the surface area, is known as
A. Emphysema B. asthma C. tuberculosis D. pneumonia
67. Which of the is correct order for steps in artificial respiration?
A. Breathing assessment -- pulse assessment -- lung ventilation -- air way opening
B. Breathing assessment -- Air way opening -- lung ventilation -- pulse assessment
C. Air way opening -- Breathing assessment -- lung ventilation -- pulse assessment
D. None
68. One of the following is biological vectors?
A. mosquito B. tsetse fly C. house fly D. Aand B
69. The head of tape worm that attached to wall of intestine?
A. proglotid B. onchospheres C. scolex D. Cysticerci
70. Typhoid fever can be transmitted through
A. cough and sneezing B. infected water and food
C. insect bite D. direct contact
71. Which of the following methods is used to prevent the spread of malaria?
A. using net over bed B. proper disposal of faces
C. eradicating anopheles mosquetoes D. A and C
72. One of the following STDS can cause blindness in child?
A. chancroid B. syphilis C. Gonorrhoea D. none
73. Which of the following STD‘s are caused by bacteria?
A. Syphilis B. gonorrhea C. chancroid D. all the above
74. One of the following disease attacks mainly men?
A. Gonnorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Chancroid D. AIDS
75. What are the components of the raw materials used to make a nutrient medium?
A. A source of carbon in the form of glucose or the salt of an organic acid such as acetate.
B. A source of nitrogen in the form of amino acids or proteins.
C. Vitamins or growth factors - usually the "B" vitamins and folic acid.

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D. Mineral salts such as potassium, sodium and iron and Water.

E. All
76. Immunity passed from mother to foetus by way of placenta is described as?
A. natural active B. natural passive C. artificial active D. artificial passive
77. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
A. polio B. influenza C. rabies D. chancroid
78. Flagella are characteristic of members of which phylum?
A. Rhizopoda B. Ciliophora C. Apicomplexa D. Sarcomastigophora
79. Organisms without nucleus and cell organelles belong to
(i) fungi (ii) protista (iii) cyano bacteria (iv) archae bacteria
A. (i) and (ii) B. (iii) and (iv) C. (i) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iii)
80. Which of the following is not a criterion for classification of living organisms?
A. Body design of the organism B. Ability to produce one‘s own food
C. Membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles D. Height of the plant
81. The book Systema Naturae was written by
A. Linnaeus B. Haeckel C. Whittaker D. Robert Brown
82. In taxonomic hierarchy family comes between
A. Class and Order B. Order and Genus C. Genus and Species D. Division and Class
83. Find out incorrect sentence
A. Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms
B. Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition for classifying the
organisms in five kingdoms
C. Both Monera and Protista may be autotrophic and heterotrophic
D. Monerans have well defined nucleus
84. 5-Kingdom classification has given by
A. Morgan B. R. Whittaker C. Linnaeus D. Haeckel
85. Well defined nucleus is absent in
A. blue green algae B. diatoms C. algae D. yeast
86. Bacillariophyta : autotrophs :: Apicomplexa :
A. cilia B. flagella C. parasites D. plasmodium
87. The father of taxonomy is:
A. Charles Darwin. B. Charles Lyell. C. Alfred Wallace.
D. Carolus Linnaeus. E. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
88. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature?
A. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
B. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
C. Biological names can be written in any language
D. The first word in biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
89. Which kingdom includes photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs and heterotrophs?
A. Monera B. Protista C. Plantae D. Both B and C
90. which single kingdom out of the following can include blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and
methanogenic archaebacteria?
A. Monera B. Fungi C. Plantae D. Protista
91. Peptidoglycan is a characteristic constituent of cell wall of
A. bacteria and unicellular eukaryotes B. bacteria and cyanobacteria
C. archaebacteria and eukaryotes D. all members of monera and protista
92. Which of the following is not a character of Protista?
A. Protists are prokaryotes. C. Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic.

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B. Some protists have cell wall. D. Membrane bound cell organelles are present.
93. What of the following statement is NOT TRUE about Euglena?
A. Euglena is a multicellular organism
B. Euglena shows photosynthetic mode of nutrition in the presence of light
C. Euglena shows holozoic mode of nutrition in the absence of light
D. Euglena has flagella as locomotory organs.
94. Heterotrophic fungi can live as
A. saprophytes B. parasites C. symbionts D. all of these
95. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to
A. Ascomycetes B. Deuteromycetes C. Basidiomycetes D. Phycomycetes
96. Apicomplexans
A. possess flagella. B. are important primary producers..
C. are all parasitic. D. are algae.
E. include the trypanosomes that cause sleeping sickness.
97. The ciliates
A. move by means of short flagella. B. use amoeboid movement.
C. include Plasmodium, the agent of malaria. D. possess both a macronucleus and micronuclei.
98. Which statement about the brown algae is not true?
A. They are all multicellular.
B. They use the same photosynthetic pigments as do land plants.
C. They are almost exclusively marine.
D. A few are many meters in length.
99. Which statement about the chlorophytes is not true?
A. They use the same photosynthetic pigments as do land plants. B. Some are unicellular.
C. Some are multicellular. D. All are microscopic in size.
100. The red algae
A. are mostly unicellular. B. are mostly marine.
C. owe their red color to a special form of chlorophyll. D. have flagella on their gametes.
101. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
A. Monera B. Protista C. Fungi D. Animalia
102. In taxonomy, ‗class‘ comes in between
A. Kingdom and phylum B. Phylum and order
C. Order and family D. Family and genus
103. Diatoms
A. have rigid cell walls with an outer layer of silica B. have two flagellae
C. are mainly fresh-water organisms D. are prokaryotes
D. increase in size at each generation
104. A fungus is an example of a
A. photoautotroph B. chemoautotroph C. photoheterotroph
D. chemoheterotroph D. none of the above
105. Bryophytes
A. are the only group of plants in which the gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte
B. are vascular plants
C. produce specialized spore-bearing structures called strobili
D. are adapted to very dry conditions
E. are the most diverse group of plants

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106. Conifers
A. have small, inconspicuous flowers B. produce spores
C. are examples of bryophytes D. are examples of gymnosperms
D. have co-evolved with specialized pollinators such as insects
107. Jellyfish are in the phylum
A. Porifera B. Cnidaria C. Platyhelminthes D. Gnetophyta E. Cephalochordata
108. Molluscs
A. are acoelomates
B. have a coelom that originates from a split in the mesoderm layer
C. have a coelom that forms from pouches in the embryonic gut
D. are all characterized by a large external shell
E. include segmented worms
109. Arthropods have
A. eight legs B. a hard exoskeleton C. no coelom D. a single body opening E. ten legs
110. Which statement is true about the kingdom monera?
A. It consists of the prokaryotic cells
B. It consists of the eukaryotic cells
C. It has true nucleus
D. The organelles are bounded by membranes
111. The protists are
A. The 1st prokaryotic cells
B. The 1st eukaryotic cells
C. Without membrane bounded organelles
D. ―B‖ & C‖ are correct
112. Which of the following is a segmented worm?
A. Hook worm B. Leech C. Tape worm D. Ascaris
113. Which of the following animals has a circulatory system?
A. Round worm B. Sponge C. Flatworm D. sandworms
114. Of the following one is an example of class hirudinea?
A. Earthworms B. Flatworms C. Leeches D. sandworms
115. Earthworms are examples of animals classified in.
A. Annelida B. Echineodermata C. Onychopora D. Arthropoda
116. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
A Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
B Viviparous Mammalia
C Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided
D Reptilia
ventricle
117. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals ?
A. Ossified endoskeleton
B. Breathing using lungs
C. Viviparity
D. Warm blooded nature
118. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct ?
A. Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
B. Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates

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C. Molluses are acoelomates

D. Insects are pseudocoelomates
119. In an energy structure of pyramid, the bottom level represents:
A. consumers B. producers C. scavengers D. decomposers
120. An example of a biotic factor in a pond ecosystem is:
A. temperature B. water C. fish D. sunlight
121. An example of a producer is a:
A. fungus B. caterpillar C. bird D. moss
122. Both consumers and producers are a source of food for:
A. omnivores B. decomposers C. carnivores D. herbivores
123. A scientist who studies the interactions of plants and animals is called:
A. a physicist B. a botanist C. a geologist D. an ecologist
124. A food chains shows
A. One possible pathway for energy
B. many possible pathways for energy
C. the amount of energy available to a producer
D. the amount of energy available to a consumer
125. Decomposers are important to ecosystems because they:
A. are at the highest level of the energy pyramid
B. change simple compounds into more complex ones
C. make nutrients available for producers to reuse
D. convert light energy into sugars through photosynthesis
126. Which of the following factors in an ecosystem is biotic?
A. insects B. soil C. water D. sunlight
127. Two examples of decomposers are:
A. fungi and bacteria B. algae and marine mammals
C. carnivores and herbivores D. ferns and mosses
128. A caterpillar eats a leaf, and a bird eats the caterpillar. In this interaction, the bird is a:
A. producer B. herbivore C. primary consumer D. secondary consumer
129. All of the following will make nitrogen available to plants except.
A. ammonification C. Nitrogen fixation B. Denitrification D. Nitrification
130. A group of organisms ( producers, consumers& decomposers) living in a given environment by
interacting with each other & with their physical surrounding is referred as:
A. a population C. an ecosystem B. a Community D. a biosphere
131. Physical factors that determine the type & distribution of plant species in a given terrestrial
environment are:
A. Climate B. Altitudes C. Soil type D. All
132. Which of the following does not increase atmospheric concentration of CO2?
A. Photosynthesis C. combustion(burning wood & fossil)
B. Respiration D. Deforestation
133. The 1st tropic level of aquatic food chain is occupied by:
A. phytoplankton‘s C. green plants
B. dead plant &animal tissue D. fungi & algae,
134. Which of the following does not increase atmospheric concentration of CO2?
A. Photosynthesis C. combustion(burning wood & fossil)
B. Respiration D. Deforestation

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135. How is a food web model different from a food chain?

A. In a web, energy moves from an organism to only one other.
B. In a web, energy may move to many organisms from one.
C. In a web, an organism gets energy from one source.
D. In a web, an organism receives less energy than in a chain.
136. Which list of terms is in the correct order, from simplest to most complex?
A. organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere
B. organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere
C. organism, population, community, biosphere, ecosystem
D. organism, community, ecosystem, population, biosphere
137. A snake that eats an insect-eating frog is a:
A. primary consumer B. secondary consumer
C. tertiary consumer D. primary producer
138. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
A. Heterotrophy B. chemotroph C. autotroph D. producer
139. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the trophic level that would contain the largest biomass would be the
A. Producers B. primary consumers C. secondary consumers
D. highest order consumers E. decomposers
140. What is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of complex interactions
among organisms in a community from producers to decomposers?
A. food web B. an ecosystem C. food chain D. a population
141. What is an organism that feeds only on plants called?
A. Carnivore B. herbivore C. omnivore D. detritivore
142. The greenhouse effect is
A. the result of an excess of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B. a natural phenomenon that maintains Earth‘s temperature range
C. the result of the differences in the angle of the sun‘s rays
D. an unnatural phenomenon that causes heat energy to be radiated back into the atmosphere
143. Nitrogen gas returns to the atmosphere by the action of
A. nitrogen fixing bacteria B. denitrifying bacteria
C. nitrifying bacteria D. nitrate fertilizers
144. Which of the following is NOT recycled in the biosphere?
A. Water B. nitrogen C. carbon D. energy
145. One of the following is true about tej making process?
A. Gesho gives bitter flavor to tej.
B. Honeys used as source of food for yeast
C. The alcoholic content of tej varies from 6 to 11%.
D. All
146. One of the following apparatus is not found in industrial fermenter?
A. Stirrer B. Water cooled jacket C. Oxygen supply D. None
147. One of the following is the use of genetic engineering?
A. Improve the growth rate of plants and animals C. Improve food value of crops.
B. Make plants resistant to drought and disease. D. All
148. Which of the following statements about lactic fermentation is not true?
A. It gives yoghurt its sharp, tangy taste.
B. It gives yoghurt a smooth, thick texture.

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C. It causes the milk to clot and solidify into yoghurt.

D. Lactose is converted into ethanol.
149. Blood clotting proteins or life saving proteins can be obtained from genetically engineered
___________?
A. Bacteria B. sheep milk C. Hybridomass D. None
150. Put the following stages of the process of making and using biogas into correct order?
1. Some of the bacteria break down the plant cell walls while others breakdown the sugars formed,
producing methane and other gases
2. Dung or plant material is collected and put into a biogas digester or generator
3. The biogas produced is piped into homes, where it is burned to produce light, heat, and
refrigeration.
4. A mixed population of different types of bacteria is added.
1,2,3,4 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 2,4,1, 3
151. A nerve impulse is best described as a(n)
A . electrical signal traveling along a neuron's membrane
B. chemical signal inside the nerve cell
C. electromagnetic message from the brain to the muscles
D . chemical change occurring in the brain
152. One of the following nerve cell limited to CNS.
A. efferent neuron B. afferent neuron C. relay neuron D. All
153. Which of the following is correct about accommodation?
A. the shape of the lens doesn‘t change to focus
B. To focus the distant object on the retina, the lens become thin
C. It is possible to get sharp image of object that placed few cm to the lens of eye
D. No role for ciliary muscles & suspensor ligament during accommodation.
154. Which of the following eye-defects can be corrected by wearing eye glassed with convex lens?
A. Astigmatism B. Short sight C. Blindness D. Long sight
155. If eyeball is shorter and lens is thin, then probable defect would be:
A. Astigmatism B. Presbyopia
C. Short-sightedness D. Long-sightedness
156. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the
human eye, is a derivative of
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
157. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
A. Hearing B. Speech C. Vision D. Memory
158. Which of the following drugs is not legal in Ethiopia?
A. Nicotine B. Alcohol C. Khat D. Cannabis
159. Structures are activated by sound waves in the vertebrate ear in the following order:
A. oval window, tympanum, semicircular canals, Golgi tendon organ, incus, malleus, stapes.
B. organ of Corti, malleus, incus, stapes, auditory nerve, eardrum.
C. eustachian tube, round window, vestibular canal, tympanic canal, cochlear canal, oval window,
pinna.
D. basilar membrane, tectorial membrane, otoliths, utricle, saccule, malleus, cochlea.
E. pinna, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlear duct.
160. The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:
A. pharyngotympanic membrane B. tympanic membrane C. saccculus

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D. utriculus E. none of the above

161. One of the following is true statement
A. Nervous system is slow in transmitting massage than endocrine system.
B. A nerve is collection of axon bind together by connective tissue.
C. LSD is depressant drug that slowdown the CNS.
D. Drug abuse is strong physical & psychological dependency on a drug.
162. Which of the following is touch receptors?
A. pacinian corpuscles B. meissners corpuscles C. krauses end bulb D. nociceptors
163. Secretion of ductless glands pass
A. In to tubes or ducts B. Directly into blood
C. Directly into the organs where they are used D. All
164. The ―master gland or controller of endocrine orchestra ―of body is?
A. Thyroid B. adrenal C. Pituitary D. pancreas
165. Which of the following organ(s) act(s) as both an exocrine and endocrine gland?
A. pituitary B. parathyroid gland C. thyroid gland D. pancreas
166. Which of the following acts as the link between the nervous system and the endocrine system?
A. posterior pituitary gland B. anterior pituitary gland
C. hypothalamus D. parathyroid
167. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are hormones produced in the hypothalamus but released from
the_______ .
A. anterior lobe of pituitary B. pancreas
C. posterior lobe of pituitary D. pineal gland
168. In the emergency situation during an operation in which rate of hear beat decreases, a doctor
would most likely to administer an injection of ?
A. Insulin B. Adrenalin C. Thyroxin D. ADH
169. In the female reproductive system, sperm follow the following route
A. Vagina, cervical canal, Fallopian tube, uterus C. Vagina, Fallopian tube, cervical canal, uterus
B. Vagina, cervical canal, uterus, Fallopian tube D. None of the above
170. After ovulation, the follicle becomes a
A. dormant follicle. B. corpus luteum. C. polar body. D. germ cell.
171. Whereas a human sperm cell has ______, an egg cell has ______.
A. a flagellum; a large amount of cytoplasm
B. 23 chromosomes; 46 chromosomes
C. nutrients; mobility
D. a cell membrane; a cell wall
172. Why can‘t a fertilized polar body develop into a fetus?
A. Because it has too few chromosomes
B. Because it has too many chromosomes
C. Because it lacks sufficient cytoplasm and organelles
D. Because it carries excess flagella
173. Which animal has largest surface area to volume ratio?
A. Human B. Rabbit C. Elephant D. Rat
174. One of the following pair is Incorrectly matched?
A. Medula- inner part of kidney
B. Urethera- Convey urine to bladder
C. Ureter- connect kidney to bladder

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D. Cortex- outer part of kidney

175. Which of the following functions of the kidney is correctly paired with its description?
A. Filtration: Fluid containing solutes moves into the nephron.
B. Reabsorption: Water returns to the blood.
C. Secretion: Hydrogen ions move into the nephron.
D. All of these are correctly paired.
176. Which of the following is NOT reabsorbed into the bloodstream from the nephron?
A. Glucose B. Urea C. Water D. Amino acids
177. You may feel the urge to urinate after drinking an alcoholic beverage because
A. alcohol travels quickly through the digestive tract.
B. the digestive tract does not absorb alcohol.
C. alcohol is easily reabsorbed at nephrons.
D. alcohol decreases the reabsorption of water at nephrons.
178. Which plant hormone(s) is (are) most closely associated with cell division?
A. ethylene B. cytokinin C. abscisic acid D. phytochrome
179. In plants oriented horizontally, auxin moves toward the ______ surface of shoots and toward
the ______ surface of roots before bending occurs.
A. upper; upper B. lower; lower C. upper; lower D. lower; upper
180. Auxin is responsible for many plant growth responses, including all of the following except
A. phototropism. B. apical dominance. C. promotion of abscission. D. cell elongation
181. Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
A. Wind B. water C. vegetation D. coals &minerals
182. The application of which of the following hormones would be a logical first choice in an
attempt to produce normal growth in mutant dwarf plants?
A. indoleacetic acid B. cytokinin C. gibberellins D. abscisic acid E. ethylene
183. A dormant seed will germinate only when:
A. the temperature becomes optimal C. water becomes available.
B. oxygen becomes available. D. All of the above
184. Which of the following gases are the causes of acid rain?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen oxide C. Sulphur dioxide D. All
185. Many plants have adaptations to help them survive in certain climates. The cactus is one such
plant. Its leaves have been modified into spines in an effort to
A. increase the amount of surface area for photosynthesis.
B. reduce the amount of shade produced by the plant
C. reduce the amount of water lost by transpiration.
D. increase the surface area for dew to collect.
186. One of the following is not method of conserving wild life?
A. controlled hunting B. establishing national parks
C. preventing spread of disease D. All
187. One of the following is not endemic plant species of Ethiopia?
A. Zigba B. teff C. Girar(Acacia) D. None
188. One of the following is not National park?
A. Yangudi Rassa B. Senkelle C. Gambella D. Nechisar
189. One of the following is the effects of air pollutants?
A. Global warming B. Acid rain C. ozone depletion D. Health problems E. All
190. One of the following is not causes of air pollution?

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A. smokes of burning fuel B. Industrial waste

C. wastes of vehicles D. photosynthesis
191. Which one of the following is endemic animal to Ethiopia?
A. Oryx B. Zebra C. Cheetah D. Walia Ibex
192. You are most likely to find root hairs in which of the following areas of the root?
A. root cap B. zone of cell differentiation
C. zone of cell elongation D. zone of cell division
193. Which of these is an example of a positive gravitropism and a negative phototropism?
A. the downward growth of the root of a plant embryo
B. the transfer of a pollen grain from an anther to a stigma
C. the opening of a flower in the morning
D. the bending of a stem toward light
194. One of the following is not factor that affects transpiration rate?
A. temperature B. Wind C. humidity D. light intensity E. none
195. One of the following factors increase transpiration as it increases except?
A. No. of stomata B. humidity C. wind D. temperature
196. Most dicot seeds germinate by epigeal way except?
A. kidney bean B. broad bean C. groundnut D. A& B
197. Maltose, sucrose, and lactose differ from one another:
A. because not all contain glucose.
B. because not all of them exist in ring form.
C. in the number of carbons in the sugar.
D. in the number of hexose monomers involved.
E. by the linkage of the monomers.
198. Lipids that are liquid at room temperature:
A. are fats.
B. contain more hydrogen atoms than lipids that are solids at room temperature.
C. if polyunsaturated, contain several double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
D. lack glycerol.
E. are not stored in cells as triglycerides.
199. The monomers of proteins are __________, and these are linked by polar covalent bonds commonly
referred to as____________ bonds.
A. nucleotides, peptide B. amino acids, ester C. hydroxyl groups, ester
D. amino acids, peptide E. monosaccharides, glycosidic
200. The ________ of a nucleotide determines whether it is a component of DNA or a component of
RNA.
A. phosphate group B. five-carbon sugar C. side chain
D. fatty acid E. Both b and d are correct.
201. _________ are molecules that have the same molecular composition but differ in structure and/or
bonding association.
A. Isotopes B. Isomers C. Free radicals D. Analogues
202. ____________ is a storage polysaccharide commonly found in the cells of animals.
A. Cellulose B. Sucrose C. Glycogen D. Starch
203. What two functional groups are bound to the central carbon of every free amino acid monomer?
A. an R-group and a hydroxyl group B. an N-H group and a carbonyl group
C. an amino group and a hydroxyl group D. an amino group and a carboxyl group

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204. What type of bond is directly involved in the formation of an α-helix?

A. peptide bonds between amino acid residues
B. hydrogen bonds between amino acid residues
C. van der Waals interactions between nonpolar residues
D. disulfide bonds that form between cysteine residues
205. Which of the following statements about condensation reactions is not true?
A. Protein synthesis results from them.
B. Polysaccharide synthesis results from them.
C. They involve covalent bonds.
D. They consume water as a reactant.
E. Different condensation reactions produce different kinds of macromolecules.
206. A nucleotide in DNA is made up of
A. four bases. B. a base plus a ribose sugar.
C. a base plus a deoxyribose sugar plus phosphate. D. a sugar plus a phosphate
207. Which is a difference between DNA and RNA?
A. DNA is single-stranded and RNA is double-stranded.
B. DNA is only informational and RNA is only catalytic.
C. DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose.
D. DNA contains uracil (U) and RNA contains thymine (T)
208. The characteristic globular shape of a polypeptide is the
A. primary structure. B. secondary structure.
C. tertiary structure. D. quaternary structure.
209. Glycerol and a fatty acid can be joined together by means of
A. digestion B. hydrolysis C. hydrogen bonds D. removing water E. disulfide bonds
210. Which of the following statement is True?
A. only some enzymes are protienaceous
B. A co-enzyme is always non-protein in nature
C. Allosteric inhibitor molecule is structurally similar to the substrate
D. Competitive inhibitor alter the shape of the enzyme
211. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
A. As the product is released, the enzyme breaks down.
B. The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate, which is like a lock.
C. The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
D. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the enzyme site changes to accommodate the
reaction
212. Which of the following biochemical reactions an exergonic?
A. the construction of a protein from amino acid
B. ADP+ phosphate + energy → ATP + H2O
C. 6 CO2+ 12H2O+ energy → C6 H12 O6+6O2+6H2O
D. C6 H12 O6+6O2 → 6H2O+ energy
213. In an enzymatic reaction:
A. the enzyme leaves the reaction chemically unchanged.
B. if the enzyme molecules approach maximal rate and the substrate is continually increased, the rate
of the reaction does not reach saturation.
C. in the stomach, enzymes would have an optimal activity at a neutral pH.
D. increasing temperature above the optimal value slows the reaction rate.

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214. Which statement about temperature effects is not true?

A. Raising the temperature may reduce the activity of an enzyme.
B. Raising the temperature may increase the activity of an enzyme
C. Raising the temperature may denature an enzyme.
D. Some enzymes are stable at the boiling point of water.
E. All enzymes have the same optimal temperature
Use the chart below and your knowledge of the living environment to answer
questions 215 And 216.

215. If enzyme C is functioning at 25°C and a pH of 7, under which conditions would the rate of
enzyme action probably increase?
A. The temperature is decreased to 22 OC and the pH is kept the same.
B. The temperature is kept the same and the pH is decreased to 6.
C. The temperature is increased to 44 OC and the pH is kept the same.
D. The temperature is increased to 30 OC and the pH is increased to 8.
216. At what temperature would enzyme D most likely be denatured?
A. 15O C B. 20 OC C. 25O C D. 39 OC
O
217. At 25 C the optimum reaction rate of a certain enzyme occurs at a pH of 7. A greater reaction rate could
probably be attained by
A. increasing the temperature to 35OC and keeping the pH at 7
B. increasing both the temperature and the pH
C. decreasing the pH and increasing the temperature
D. increasing the pH and keeping the temperature at 25OC.
218. Feedback inhibition of enzyme action is affected by
A. Enzyme B. Substrate C. End products D. None of these
219. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for the activity of enzyme is called
A. Holoenzyme B. Apoenzyme C. Coenzyme D. Isoenzyme
230. Cofactor (Prosthetic group) is a part of holoenzyme, it is
A. Inorganic part loosely attached
B. Accessory non-protein substance attached firmly
C. Organic part attached loosely
D. None of these
231. Enzyme inhibition caused by a substance resembling substrate molecule is
A. Competitive inhibition B. Non-competitive inhibition
C. Feedback inhibition D. Allosteric inhibition
232. Which inactivates an enzyme by occupying its active site?
A. Competitive inhibitor B. Allosteric inhibitor
C. Non-competitive inhibitor D. All of these
233. A small molecule that binds directly to the active site of an enzyme and disrupts its catalytic reaction is

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called:
A. an allosteric inhibitor. B. a competitive inhibitor.
C. a noncompetitive inhibitor. D. RNA inhibitor
234. A cell would tend to gain water if it were moved from
A. an isotonic solution to a hypotonic solution. B. an isotonic solution to a hypertonicsolution.
C. a hypotonic solution to an isotonic solution. D. a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution
235. The most common microorganism manipulated for genetic engineering is a
A. bacterium. B. fungus. C. protozoan. D. virus.
236. Vinegar is too acidic for most micro-organisms to grow and multiply, so keeping foods in
vinegar is a good way of preserving them. This method of preserving food is called:
A. pasteurization B. pickling C. vinegaring D. acidifying
237. Large vessel containing all the parts and condition necessary for the growth of desired
microorganisms is called
A. Fermenter B. Auto reactor C. Impeller D. None of these
238. Over-heating of fermenter during fermentation is controlled by
A. Cooling jacket B. Steam C. Cool air D. None of these
239. What organism can survive on earth‘s surface in the absence of light energy?
A. Bacteria B. cockroach C. human D. fungi
240. Microorganisms used for alcohol production
A. Saccharomyces sereviceae B. Bacillus subtilis C. Penicillium chrysogenum D. None of these
241. The controversy of spontaneous generation was solved by
A. Louis Pasteur B. Koch
C. Joseph Lister D. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
242. Diseases- causing bacteria can be transmitted by:
A. sexual intercourse C. eating contaminated food
B. droplet infection D. all
243. Chicken is reservoir for infections of?
A. Tetanus B. Malaria C. typhoid D. salmonella
244. One of the following diseases is result from the aging process during which the affected
tissues deteriorates over time due to wear and tear principle?
A. Human induced disease B. Deficiency disease C. Degenerative disease D. Social disease
245. Agrobacterium tumefaciens are used to introduce foreign genes into
A. plants B. E.c oli C. Yeast D. Mammalian cells
246. One of the following is true about vinegar production?
A. vinegar is produced by fermentation of beer, wine, or cider.
B. vinegar is dilute solutions of ethanoic acid in water.
C. Acetobacter bacteria is used to oxidize ethanol in to ethanoic acid.
D. All
247. A young learner wanted to transfer DNA into a soya bean. If you were a genetic engineer,
which one do you suggest is appropriate for this purpose?
A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Plasmids D. Gene gun
248. Which of the following leads to the destruction of the host cells?
A. lysogenic cycle B. lytic cycle C. prophage D. temperate phage
249. A virus obtains its envelope during which of the following phases?
A. attachment B. penetration C. assembly D. release
250. Which of the following components is brought into a cell by HIV?

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A. a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase

C. ribosome D. reverse transcriptase
251. Which stage in the life cycle of HIV is disrupted if AIDS patients are treated with a drug that
has a protease inhibiting activity?
A. Entry of the virus into the host. B. Conversion of viral RNA to DNA.
C. Integration of viral DNA into host DNA. D. Assembly of viral parts into whole virus
252. Which one is false in reproduction of virus?
A. Viral genome use host cell enzymes, ribosome, & nutrient.
B. If viral genome is RNA, an RNA replicase enzyme helps the synthesis of DNA.
C. If viral genome is RNA, a reverse transcriptase enzyme helps the synthesis of RNA
D. B and C
253. Which occurs during the lytic cycle of a viral infection?
A. The host cell becomes a factory that continually makes more copies of the virus.
B. The host cell undergoes cell division that makes more copies of the virus.
C. The virus incorporates its nucleic acid into the DNA of the host cell and lies dormant.
D. The virus takes over the cell, makes copies of itself, and usually kills the host cell.
254. HIV is a retrovirus. What does this mean?
A. Viral RNA is used to make DNA. B. Protein is made directly from viral RNA.
C. Viral DNA is used to make RNA. D. Protein is made directly from viral DNA
255. In meiosis,
A. meiosis II reduces the chromosome number from diploid to haploid.
B. DNA replicates between meiosis I and meiosis II.
C. the chromatids that make up a chromosome in meiosis II are identical.
D. each chromosome in prophase I consists of four chromatids.
E. homologous chromosomes separate from one another in anaphase I.
256. In a cell undergoing meiosis, during which stage do the sister chromatids separate from each other?
A. anaphase I B. anaphase II C. telophase I D. telophase II
257. Which describes the process of cytokinesis?
A. chromosomes duplicate B. spindle disintegrates
C. nucleus disappears D. cytoplasm divides
258. Which statement about mitosis is not true?
A. A single nucleus gives rise to two identical daughter nuclei.
B. The daughter nuclei are genetically identical to the parent nucleus.
C. The centromeres separate at the onset of anaphase.
D. Homologous chromosomes synapse in prophase.
E. The centrosomes organize the microtubules of the spindle fibers.
259. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Incomplete dominance i. Unexpressed
B. Roan coat color of cattle ii. Dihybrid cross
C. Recessive allele iii. 1:2:1
D. Tall red  Dwarf white iv. Co-dominance
v. Expressed
A. A  iii, B  ii, C  v, D  iv B. A  iii, B  iv, C  i, D  ii
C. A  v, B  ii, C  i, D  iv D. A  ii, B  iv, C  v, D – iii

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260. Non-coding section of DNA molecules are

A. can be used in genetic fingerprinting B. also called Mini-satellites
C. are normally found as the repeating sequences of DNA D. all
261. Which of the statements below is false?
A. The genetic code is overlapping B. The genetic code is universal
C. Degenerate codons specify the same amino acids D. The genetic code is triplet
262. Which of the following is not true regarding mRNA processing?
A. Spliceosomes process it in the nuclei B. Involves removal of exons
C. Involves removal of introns. D. Occurs only in eukaryotes E. none
263. When comparing eukaryotes versus prokaryotes:
A. Prokaryotic DNA replication occurs at multiple points compared to eukaryotic DNA
replication.
B. Prokaryotes are likely to contain more non-coding (intron) DNA compared to eukaryotes.
C. Prokaryotic DNA can be found on linear chromosomes, while eukaryotic DNA is usually
circular in the nucleus.
D. Eukaryotes undergo transcription in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm; Prokaryotes
undergo both in the cytoplasm.
264. What are ribosomes composed of?
A. rRNA only B. proteins only C. both rRNA and protein
D. mRNA, rRNA, and protein E. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, and protein
265. The function of the ribosome in polypeptide synthesis is to
A. hold mRNA and tRNAs together.
B. catalyze the addition of amino acids from tRNAs to the growing polypeptide chain.
C. move along the mRNA and eject tRNAs during the translocation process.
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
266. The sites of kreb‘s cycles in bacteria is
A. nucleoid B. plasma membrane C. cytoplasm D. Ribosomes
267. Oxidation of a molecules of Acety-CoA produces
A. 15ATP B. 12ATP C. 30ATP D. 6ATP
268. Both respiration and photosynthesis requires
A. sunlight B. chlorophyll C. cytochromes D. glucose
269. In bacteria the site of oxidative phosphorylation is
A. cytoplasm B. mesosomes C. plasmid D. ribosomes
270. Assume a mitochondrion contains 58 NADH and 19 FADH 2. If each of the 77 dinucleotides were
used, approximately how many ATP molecules could be generated as a result of oxidative
phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)?
A. 36 B. 77 C. 173 D. 212 E. 1102
271. Which of the following is NOT true of photosystem II?
A. It is located in thylakoid membranes.
B. It is involved in the oxidation of water.
C. It has a special oxidizable chlorophyll, P680.
D. It has an associated antenna complex for light harvesting activity.
E. It is required for cyclic photophosphorylation.
272. Which step shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?

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273. Which statement about the Calvin–Benson cycle is not true?

A. CO2 reacts with RuBP to form 3PGA.
B. RuBP forms by the metabolism of 3PGA.
C. ATP and NADPH + H+ form when 3PGA is reduced.
D. The concentration of 3PGA rises if the light is switched off.
E. Rubisco catalyzes the reaction of CO2 and RuBP
274. 12 H2O + 12 NADP+ + 18 ADP + Pi → 6 O2 + 12 NADPH + 18 ATP summarizes the
____________ reactions of photosynthesis.
A. carbon fixation B. light-dependent C. light-independent
D. CAM E. electron transport
275. At night, CAM plants incorporate CO2 into ____________, which is stored in the
____________ of their cells.
A. fructose; vacuoles B. acetyl CoA; mitochondria C. glucose; starch granules
D. pyruvate; starch granules E. malate; vacuoles
276. The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis takes place within the
A. plasma membrane of the cell.
B. membranes of the mitochondria.
C. the stacks of membranes (thylakoids) in the grana.
D. the outer membrane of the chloroplast.
E. the semi-fluid stroma of the chloroplast.
277. In a CAM plant, the concentration of organic acid
A. increases during the day. B. decreases during the day.
C. increases during night. D. decreases or increases during day.
278. Biologists define evolution as .
A. the origin of a species B. heritable change in a line of descent
C. acquiring traits during the individual‘s lifetime D. all of the above
279. __________is the original source of new alleles.
A. Mutation B. Genetic cross C. Natural selection D. Gene flow to new alleles
280. According to the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis, the atmosphere when life began was believed to be
composed primarily of:
A. H2O, N2, and CO2. B. H2, H2O, NH3, and CH4.

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C. H2O, N2, O2, and CO2. D. O2 and no H2. E. H2 only.

281. The Miller-Urey experiment:
A. was based on the belief the atmosphere was oxidizing.
B. was able to synthesize amino acids and macromolecules from reduced gases.
C. did not require much energy or a continuous energy source to keep synthesizing.
D. did not require water to produce organic molecules.
E. used free oxygen as a reactant.
282. An unknown organism was found in a park. It was one celled, had no nuclear membrane around its
DNA, and contained no mitochondria and no chloroplasts. It belongs to the group:
A. eukaryotes. B. plants or fungi.
C. vertebrates or plants. D. fungi. E. bacteria or archaea.
283. A common means of sympatric speciation is
A. polyploidy. B. hybrid infertility.
C. temporal segregation of breeding seasons. D. spatial segregation of mating sites.
E. imposition of a geographic barrier.
284. 14C can be used to determine the ages of fossil organisms because
A. all organisms contain many carbon compounds.
B. 14C has a regular rate of decay to 14N.
C. the ratio of 14C to 12C in living organisms is always the same as that in the atmosphere.
D. the production of new 14C in the atmosphere just balances the natural radioactive decay of 14C.
E. all of the above
285. Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamarck was not included in Darwin‘s theory?
A. Organisms change in response to their environments.
B. Changes that an organism acquires during its lifetime are passed to its offspring.
C. All species change with time.
D. Genetic changes may be passed from one generation to the next.
E. Specific mechanisms cause evolutionary change
286. If a storm kills many small sparrows in a population, but only a few medium-sized and large ones, which
type of selection is probably operating?
A. directional selection B. stabilizing selection
C. disruptive selection D. intersexual selection
287. Natural selection may occur when there are .
A. differences in forms of traits
B. differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that differ in one or more traits
C. both A and B
D. None
288. If two species of holly (genus Ilex) flower during different months, their gene pools may be kept separate
by:
A. mechanical isolation. B. ecological isolation. C. gametic isolation.
D. temporal isolation. E. behavioral isolation
289. Directional selection .
A. eliminates uncommon forms of alleles B. shifts allele frequencies in a consistent direction
C. favors intermediate forms of a trait D. works against adaptive traits
290. Disruptive selection .
A. eliminates uncommon forms of alleles B. shifts allele frequencies in a consistent direction
C. doesn‘t favor intermediate forms of a trait D. both B and C

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 Hayole Education Project, Furra Model Acadamy
Biology general questions for grade Grade-12, 2015

291. Reproductive isolating mechanisms .

A. stop interbreeding B. reinforce genetic divergence
C. stop gene flow D. all of the above
292. The absolute age of a geological stratum is determined by:
A. the thickness of its rocks. B. the particle size in its rocks.
C. the types of fossils found within it. D. radiometric dating techniques.
293. Which of the following hominid species was the earliest?
A. Ardipithecus ramidus B. Australopithecus afarensis
C. Homo habilis D. Homo erectus
E. Homo neanderthalensis
294. Touching the leaves of Mimosa piduca causes them to fold up rapidly. After a short time, the leaves
begin to unfold. This is an example of
A. phototropism B. geotropism C. thigmotropism C. nastic movement
295. Hibernation is associated with
A. circadian rhythms. B. annual biological cycles.
C. migration. D. days becoming longer in the springtime.
296. The function of territoriality may be
A. To reduce intraspecific fighting C. To ensure food supply
B. For mating and rearing of young D. All of the choices are correct
297. Which one of the following is not the benefits of social behavior?
A. Form stable groups in which intra-specific aggression is reduced.
B. protect them against attack more effectively
C. Forage more efficiently – especially if sources of food are localized.
D. increase the chance of surviving extreme conditions
E. none
298. One of the following types of pheromone is secreted by animals when attacked and produce the response
of flight or aggression by others of the same species
A. Releaser pheromones B. Territorial pheromones
C. Alarm pheromones D. primer pheromone
299. Croaking of male frogs can be example of?
A. Social behavior B. Aggressive behavior C. Courtship behavior D. All
300. Which of the following involves trial-and-error learning?
A. Habituation B. classical conditioning C. sensitization D. operant conditioning
301. Aggressive behavior in stickle back fish was demonstrated by this scientist?
A. Watson B. E. Pavlov C. B.F. Skinner D. NikoTinbwergen
302. Edward Tohlman discovered is
A. imprinting B. Insght learning C. latent learning D. operant conditioning
303. We do not usually notice that we are wearing clothes even though the clothes are continuously
touching our body. To which type of learned behavior does this belong?
A. sensitization B. habituation C. insight learning D. latent learning
304. Kebede learn to ignore smell of toilet after while entering into the room.
A. Is habituation B. Is sensitization C. Latent learning D. None
305. A father scolds his son when he hits his little sister. The son stops hitting the sister. This changes in
the child‘s behavior is a result of
A. punishment B. negative reinforcement
C. positive reinforcement D. classical conditioning

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