30-11-2025

5001CMD303001250023 MD

PHYSICS

1) The value of is :-

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 27

2) Two forces each of magnitude 50 N are applied on a point as shown. Their resultant force is :-

(1)
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 25 N

3) If a vector make angle α, β and γ respectively with the x, y and z axis. Then sin2α + sin2β + sin2
γ=

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

4) The ratio of the distance through which a ball falls in the 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is (the initial
velocity of the ball is zero) :-

(1) 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 4 : 5 : 6
(3) 4 : 9 : 16
(4) 1 : 3 : 5

5) If Position(s) of a particle depends on time 't' as S = 2t2 – t + 1 metre, then acceleration of particle
at t = 1 sec will be : (m/s2)

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

6) (sin 120°) = ............

(1) cos 120°

(2) 120 cos 120°
(3) 0
(4) None of these

7) Sec 135° is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle moves along the x-axis such that is co-ordinate (x) varies with time (t), according to the
expression : x = 2 – 5t + 6t2, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The initial velocity of the
particle is :–

(1) –5 m/s
(2) –3 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

9) The sum of a series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) For a moving car if it’s distance time relation is given as S = t3 – 27t + 4. Then find its
acceleration when velocity is zero.

(1) 15 m/s2
(2) 18 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 24 m/s2

11)

In the given figure, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8. Then will be :

(1) 3x2 + 2x + 15
(2) 3x2 + 4x + 7
(3) x3 + 2x2 + 15
(4) x3 + 4x + 7

13) The minimum value of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Condition for maxima of the is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15)

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

16) Evaluate :-

(1)
x5/2

(2)
x5/2

(3)
x3/2
(4) 0

17) Statements-I: A null vector is a vector whose magnitude is zero and direction is arbitrary.
Statements-II: A null vector does not exist.

(1) Statement I is true and statement II is true

(2) Statement I is true and statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is false

18) If , then = ............

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4)

19) The angle made by the vector with x-axis is

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 30°

20) Two vectors and are perpendicular to each other. The value of 'P'
is :-

(1) 10
(2) –10
(3) –2
(4) 2

21) Correct statement, considering figure is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Which of the following cannot be the vector addition of these vectors. If two forces are 10N and
15N ?

(1) 4 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 5.5 N
(4) 24.5 N

23) Two equal forces are acting at a point with an angle of 90° between them. If the resultant force
is equal to , The magnitude of each force is :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 80 N
(4) 30 N

24) If = 1, then angle between and is :-

(1) 0º
(2) 45º
(3) 90º
(4) 60º
25) find the angle between and ?

(1) 90°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

26) Find the magnitude of resultant :-

(1) 5 N
(2) 10 N
(3)

(4)

27) The resultant of two vectors and makes an angle α with and β with , then

(1) α < β
(2) α < β if P < Q
(3) α < β if P > Q
(4) α < β if P = Q

28) At what angle should the two force vector 2F and act so that the resultant force is

(1) 37°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

29) Two forces and are acting at a point. If is reversed, the new resultant becomes
perpendicular to the initial resultant. Then :-

(1) P = Q
(2) P = 2Q
(3) 2P = Q
(4) P = Q/4

30) Assertion : Unit vector has a unit though its magnitude is one.
Reason : Unit vector has only direction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31) Match the vector diagram (column-I) and vector equation (column-II)

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R)

(D) (S)

(1) A → R; B → S ; C → Q ; D → P
(2) A → S; B → R ; C → P ; D → Q
(3) A → S ; B → R ; C → Q ; D → P
(4) A → R ; B → S; C → P ; D → Q

32) Assertion(A) : If the sum of the two unit vectors is also a unit vector, then magnitude of their
difference is root of three.
Reason(R) : To find resultant of two vectors, we use square law.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason are false
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

33) An object is thrown horizontally from a tower H meter high with a velocity of m/s. Its
speed on striking the ground will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34) Position-time graph is given, find average velocity in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) –2 m/s

(4)
m/s

35) A Body moves 6 m north, 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

36) The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y = 10x – x2. If we assume g = 10 ms–2 then the
range of projectile (in meter) is :-

(1) 36
(2) 24
(3) 18
(4) 9

37) A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of = a + b . if range of the projectile is double
the maximum height attained by it then :

(1) a = 2 b
(2) b = a
(3) b = 2a
(4) b = 4a

38) Rain is falling vertically down at 3km/hr and a person holding a hollow tube is standing as
shown. If he runs at 4km/hr forwards at what angle with vertical he should tilt the tube so that rain
water entering tube do not wet the tube from inside?

(1) 30°
(2) 53°
(3) 37°
(4) 60°

39) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 72 km/hr in 10s, then it covers a
distance of

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 400 m

40)

In Column-I vector is shown in Column-II its unit vector representation :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R)
 (D) (S)

(1) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R

(2) A-R; B-Q; C-S; D-P
(3) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S
(4) A-S; B-P; C-R; D-Q

41) The velocity of a particle moving with constant acceleration at an instant t0 is 10 m/s After 5
seconds of that instant the velocity of the particle is 20m/ s. The velocity at 3 second before t0 is :

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 7 m/s

42) A train covers the first half of the distance between two stations at a speed of 40 km/h and the
other half at 60 km/h. Then its average speed is :

(1) 50 km/h
(2) 48 km/h
(3) 52 km/h
(4) 100 km/h

43) An engine of the train moving with uniform acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u,
and the last compartment with velocity v. The middle point of the train passes past the same pole
with a velocity of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) An insect moves on a circular path of radius 7m. The maximum magnitude of displacement of the
insect is :-

(1) 7 m
(2) 14π m
(3) 7π m
(4) 14 m

45) Figure shows graph and slope relationship :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Positive

(B) (Q) Negative

(C) (R) Zero

(D) (S) Can not define

(T) Constant in magnitude

(1) A→Q,T ; B→S ; C→P,T ; D→P
(2) A→Q ; B→Q ; C→P ; D→P
(3) A→Q,T ; B→R ; C→P,T ; D→P
(4) A→R,T ; B→Q ; C→P ; D→T

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following orbital diagram violates Pauli's exclusion principle?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
2) The total value of m for the electrons (n = 4) is -

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32

3) Orbital angular momentum of 4s electron will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 0
(3)
(4)

4) How many angular node(s) are present in 3s-orbital ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

5) The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p subshells respectively are :-

(1) 2 and 0
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 0 and 2
(4) 2 and 1

6) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Number of angular nodes = n – ℓ – 1

(2) Number of radial nodes = ℓ
(3) Total number of nodes = n – 1
(4) All

7) Find out the number of waves made by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its fourth
orbit.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

8)

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is:

(1) (2l + 1)2
(2) 22 (2l + 1)
(3) 2(2l + 1)
(4) (2l + 1)

9) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers? n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The maximum number of such electrons in an atom with quantum number n = 3, l = 2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 14

11) Uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momentum. Uncertainty in velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The radii of second orbit of He+ is [NCERT (XI)-I-48]

(1) 52.9 pm
(2) 105.8 pm
(3) 158.7 pm
(4) 211.6 pm

13) Which of the following set of quantum number is not correct.

n ℓ m s

(1) 4 3 2
+

(2) 3 2 1
 (3) 4 3

(4) 1 0 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Maximum frequency of emission is obtained for the transition :-

(1) n = 2 to n = 1
(2) n = 6 to n = 2
(3) n = 1 to n = 2
(4) n = 2 to n = 6

15) Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents an impossible arrangement?

n ℓ mℓ ms

1) 3 2 -2 1/2

2) 4 0 0 1/2

3) 3 2 -3 1/2

4) 5 3 0 -1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Number of electrons present in all the compo und filled subshell having n = 4 and s = +1/2.

(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 22

17) The probability of finding the electron for orbital is maximum

(1) along x–axis only

(2) along y–axis only
(3) along x, y–axis only
(4) between x, y axis

18) The ratio of radii of first orbits of H, He+ and Li2+ is

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 9 : 4 : 1

19) Which of following statement is not correct :-

(1) Isotones are atoms of different elements having same number of neutrons.
(2) Isobars are atom of different elements having same number of nucleons.
(3) Isotopes are atom of different elements having same number of protons.
(4) Isotones and isobars are atom of different elements.

20) Which of the following statements is incorrect for anode rays ?

(1) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields

(2) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in the discharge tube used to produce the anode rays
(3) The e/m ratio of anode rays is constant
(4) They are produced by the ionization of the gas in the discharge tube

21) Ionisation energy of He+ atom will be :-

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –54.4 eV
(3) +40.8 eV
(4) +54.4 eV

22) 1st excitation energy in H-atom will be :-

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 12.1 eV
(3) 10.2 eV
(4) 1.89 eV

23) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength :-

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) H2O

24) The de broglie wavelength of a 66 kg man sking down kufri hill in shimla at 1 × 103 m/sec is:-

(1) 1 × 10–36 m
(2) 1 × 10–37 m
(3) 1 × 10–38m
(4) 1 × 10–39 m

25) Identify the pair which are not isotopes :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26)

X20 and X22 are two isotopes of an element X. If abundance of heavier isotope is 40% then its average
atomic weight will be :-

(1) 21
(2) 20.8
(3) 21.2
(4) 20.4

27) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are :

(1) 175, 104 and 71

(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71
(4) 71, 71 and 104

28)

–
The no. of protons, neutrons and e in are respectively :

(1) 35, 35, 45

(2) 35, 45, 35
(3) 35, 45, 45
(4) None of these

29) The no. of e–, protons and neutrons in a species are equal to 18, 16 and 16 respectively, the
proper symbol to the species is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) If the table of atomic mass were established with the carbon atom and assign valve of 100 then
the mass of magnesium atom would be approximately.
(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 150
(4) 200

31) If no. of proton in x– is 17. Then no. of electron in x+3 will be –

(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 17
(4) 18

32) The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is:-

(1) 3.0 × 1023

(2) 6.02 × 1023

(3)

(4)
×1023

33) Molecular weight of NH3 is

(1) 17 g
(2) 17 amu
(3) 17 kg
(4) 1.66 × 10–24 g

34)

Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. It contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen Number of atoms of
nitrogen in one molecule of it -

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

36) The mass of one mole of a substance in gram is called

(1) molecular mass
(2) molar mass
(3) Avogadro's mass
(4) formula mass

37) Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

(1) 64 g SO2
(2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3
(4) 8 g H2

38) One amu is equal to :-

(1) 1.57 × 10–24 kg

(2) 1.66 × 10–24 kg
(3) 1.99 × 10–23 kg
(4) 1.66 × 10–27 kg

39) The number of atoms of C and O are 1.2 × 1010 and 2.4 × 1010 respectively. It's empirical formula
is :-

(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) C3O4
(4) C2O3

40) Empirical formula of CH3COOH :-

(1) C3H6
(2) C2H4O2
(3) CH2O
(4) CHO

41) On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain 254 g of iodine (at. mass 127) and 80 g
oxygen (at. mass 16). What is the formula of the compound ?

(1) IO
(2) I2O
(3) I5O3
(4) I2O5

42) A hydrocarbon contains 75% of carbon. Then its molecular formula is -

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) C2H2

43)

1.5 moles of O2 combine with Mg to form MgO. The moles of Mg that has combined is

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
(1) 3 mol
(2) 1.5 mol
(3) 2 mol
(4) 1 mol

44) In a given reaction 9 g of Al will react with

2Al + O2 → Al2 O3

(1) 6 g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

45) 15 mole of B reacts with A. Calculate the number of moles of C produced in the reaction A + 3B
→ 2C

(1) 5 mole
(2) 10 mole
(3) 20 mole
(4) 15 mole

BIOLOGY

1)

Find out the incorrect pair:-

(1) Starch - Amyloplasts

(2) Fat - Elaioplast
(3) Protein - Aleuro plast
(4) Oil - Amyloplast

2) Select the correct match:

(1) Ribosomes - Non-membrane bound and made up of DNA & proteins

(2) Golgi apparatus - Important site for formation of glycolipids and glycoproteins
(3) Secondary wall - Capable of extension
(4) Endomembrane system - Organelles whose Functions are not co-ordinated

3) Cell wall of algae is rich in _____

(1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectins and proteins

(2) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans and Minerals like CaCO3
(3) Cellulose, Lignin, Pectin and CaCO3
(4) Cellulose, Pectin, Galactans and Lignin

4) (I) The vacuoles are bounded by single membrane called _____(A)_____.

(II) The concentration of ions is _____(B)_____ in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.

(1) A-Plasma membrane; B-Lower

(2) A-Tonoplast; B-Lower
(3) A-Tonoplast; B-Higher
(4) A-Tonoplast; B-Equal

5) Identify the given diagram and choose the correct option :

(1) This organelle was discovered by George Palade

(2) Hair like outgrowth of cell membrane known as cilia/flagella
(3) Contain hydrolytic enzyme
(4) Show 9+0 arrangement

6) Assertion : The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic reticulum (ER), Golgi complex,
lysosomes and vacuoles.
Reason : Mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are not the part of endomembrane system
because their functions are not coordinated with the same.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are False but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of :-

(1) DNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) t-RNA

8) When the centromere is located at the tip of the chromosome is known as :-

(1) Metacentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Submetacentric

9) Ribosomes of mitochondria, prokaryotes and chloroplast are of :-

(1) 50 S type
(2) 80 S type
(3) 70 S type
(4) 30 S type

10) Which of the following is not true regarding nucleolus?

(1) It is site for active rRNA synthesis

(2) Large and numerous nucleoli are present in actively carbohydrate synthesizing cell
(3) It is usually spherical structure present in nucleoplasm
(4) It is not a membrane bound structure

11) At a number of places the nuclear envelope is interrupted by minute pores, which are formed by
the ?

(1) Fusion of its two membrane

(2) Fission of its two membrane
(3) Nucleoplasmin protein
(4) Nuclear Lamina

12) In human being the membrane of the RBC has approximately :-

(1) 40 percent lipid and 52 percent carbohydrate

(2) 40 percent protein and 52 percent lipid
(3) 40 percent lipid and 52 percent protein
(4) 40 percent protein and 52 percent carbohydrate

13) How many of the following are double membrane bound structure.
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Ribosome, Mitochondria, Vacuole, Chloroplast, Lysosome,
Centriole.

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

14) According to most widely accepted model of plasma membrane :-

(1) Liquid protein layer is surrounded by phospholipids

(2) Lipid are arranged in fluid layer of proteins
(3) Proteins are arranged in fluid layer of phospholipids
(4) Liquid phospholipid layer is surrounded by proteins

15) Match List -I with List - II.

List -I List -II

(a) Cristae (i) Primary constriction in chromosome

(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria

Flattened membranous sacs in

(d) Cisternae (iv)
stroma of plastids
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) (I) Endoplasmic reticulum

(II) Chloroplast
(III) Golgi body
(IV) Lysosome
(V) Mitochondria
(VI) Vacuoles
(VII) Ribosome
Of the above, which set of organelles are considered as endomembrane system ?

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, III, IV, VI
(3) I, V, VI, VII
(4) II, V, VI, VII
17)

Column-I Column-II
(A) Nucleolus (I) Attachement site for spindle fibres
(B) Chromosome (II) Ends of chromosme
(C) Telomere (III) ribosome factory of the cell
(D) Kinetochore (IV) Condense form of chromatin

Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct option :-
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

18) Depending upon ease of extraction membrane protein can be classified as :-

(1) Saturated and unsaturated

(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic
(3) Integral and peripheral
(4) Acidic and basic

19) The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging of materials. Materials to be
packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the __‘A’__ face of the golgi apparatus and
move towards the __‘B’__ face
Choose the correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’ :-

A B
(1) cis Maturing face
(2) Trans Forming
(3) Maturing Trans
(4) Forming cis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) If mitotically dividing diploid cell has initial amount of DNA as 5 Pg in G1 stage, that is
distributed among its 8 chromosomes then which of the following assumption is correct ?

(1) G2 - phase - 16 chromosomes with 10 Pg DNA.

(2) Late prophase - 4 chromosomes with 10 Pg DNA.
(3) Anaphasic cell - 16 chromosomes with 10 Pg DNA.
(4) S Phase-4 chromosomes with 2.5 Pg DNA.

21) Meiosis involves :-

 Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II but only single
(1)
cycle of DNA replication
(2) One cycle of nuclear and cell division called meiosis but only single cycle of DNA replication
(3) One cycle of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I but two cycles of DNA replication
Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II and two cycles
(4)
of DNA replication

22) Cell examined during prophase of cell cycle contained 50 chromosomes. What would be the
number of chromosomes in anaphase of this cell cycle ?

(1) 25 chromosomes
(2) 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 chromosomes
(4) 75 chromosomes

23) Cells of quiescent stage (G0) :-

(a) are metabolically inactive
(b) normally do not divide
(c) they are metabolically active

(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

24) Assertion : During S-phase the amount of DNA per cell becomes double.
Reason : During S-phase DNA-synthesis or DNA-replication takes place.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Choose the incorrect pair :-

(1) Synapsis – zygotene

(2) Synaptonemal complex – Leptotene
(3) Crossing over – Pachytene
(4) Terminalisation – Diakinesis

26) Match the column I and column II :-

Column I Column II
a Zygotene i Nucleolus disappear
b Diplotene ii Bivalent clearly appear
Formation of
c Pachytene iii
synaptonemal complex
 X-shaped structure
d Diakinesis iv
appear

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(2) d-i, a-iii, b-iv, c-ii
(3) d-iv, a-iii, c-ii, b-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

27) Crossing over occurs between _______ chromatids of ______ chromosomes.

(1) non-sister, homologous

(2) non-sister, non-homologous
(3) sister, homologous
(4) sister, non-homologous

28) In anaphase-I as compared to metaphase-I, cell possessing :-

(1) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids in each chromosome.
(2) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids in each chromosomes.
(3) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids in each chromosomes
(4) Double number of chromosomes and double number of chromatids in each chromosomes.

29) How many chromosomes will the onion root tip cell have at G1-phase, after S-phase and after M-
phase, if it has 16 chromosomes in mesophyll cell

(1) 16, 32, 32

(2) 16, 32, 16
(3) 8, 16, 16
(4) 16, 16, 16

30) How many meiosis division is required for the formation of 62 pollen grain :-

(1) 62
(2) 31
(3) 16
(4) 15

31) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus

(1) b → c → d → a
(2) d → a → b → c
(3) b → a → c → d
(4) a → b → c → d

32) A. Centromere split and chromatids seprate

B. Chromatids move to opposite poles.
These statements are correct for which stage of cell division :-

(1) Interkinesis
(2) Interphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase

33) Identify the phase of cell cycle shown in below diagram and then answer the question asked next

to it - Which of the following is correct ?

Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material occurs in the phase that comes before the
(1)
phase shown in diagram.
Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material occurs in the phase that comes after the
(2)
phase shown in diagram.
(3) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material occurs in the phase shown in diagram.
(4) There is no need of condensation of chromosomal material during cell cycle.

34) Plant cell cytokinesis is :-

(1) From centre towards periphery and called centripetal

(2) From centre towards periphery and called centrifugal.
(3) From periphery towards centre & called centripetal
(4) From periphery towards centre & called centrifugal.

35) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle :-

(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Cytokinesis

36) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

37) Select the correct matching in the following pairs :

(1) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

(2) Rough ER– Synthesis of glycogen
(3) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
(4) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids

38) Choose the wrong statement regarding bacterial cell :-

(a) Glycocalyx is outermost covering in bacteria.
(b) Glycocalyx could be loose sheath called capsule.
(c) Glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer.
(d) Special structure formed by plasma membrane is called mesosome.

(1) a and d are wrong

(2) c and d are wrong
(3) a and b are wrong
(4) b and c are wrong

39) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

a – nerve cell (long and narrow)

(1)
b – tracheid (long and elongated)
a – Nerve cell (branched and long)
(2)
b – tracheids (long and narrow)
a – Nerve cell (branched and long)
(3)
b – columnar epithelial cell (long and narrow)
a – Nerve cell (long and narrow)
(4)
b – mesophyll cell (branched and long)

40) Statement-1 : Transverse section of flagella have nine peripheral doublets microtubules.
Statement-2 : Centriole have 9+2 arrangement.

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct only
(4) Statement 2 is correct only
41) ___________is a protein which helps inhydrolysis of ATP liberates energy for flagellar movement.

(1) Tubulin
(2) Flagellin
(3) Nexin
(4) Dynein

42) In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

(1) Mushroom glands

(2) Testes
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Seminal vesicles

43) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will live for as long as

(1) 2 weeks
(2) 1 week
(3) 3 weeks
(4) 4 weeks

44) What is haemolymph of cockroach composed of

(1) Colourless plasma

(2) Haemocytes
(3) Visceral organs
(4) Both (1) and (2)

45) Assertion :- Gap junctions facilitate the cell to communicate with each other.
Reason :- Gap junctions connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cell, for rapid transfer of Ions.

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2)

Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(3)

Both Assertion & Reason are False.

(4)

46) In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present
on

(1) 5th segment

(2) 10th segment
(3) 8th and 9th segment
(4) 11th segment

47) Identify the cockroach size ranges in cm, mm and inches respectively

(1) 0.6 – 7.6, 34 – 53, 3

(2) 130, 25 – 34, 4
(3) 5.0 – 10.8, 14 – 20, 2
(4) 150, 40 – 60, 3

48) Statement-I: Sclerites are joined to each other by thick & flexible arthroidal membrane.
Statement-II: Cockroaches become residents of human homes & thus are serious pests and vectors
of several diseases.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

49) Assertion:. Connective Tissues are named for their functions of linking and supporting other
tissues and organs
Reason: Connective tissues are found in Complex animals

(a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

50) Assertion: Bones provide the structural framework to the body.

Reason: Bones have hard, non-pliable ground substance rich in Ca2+ salts and Collagen fibres.
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are true & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

51) Cockroach is.................:-

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Ammonotelic
(3) Proteinotelic
(4) Uricotelic

52) Which of the following statements is true for cockroach ?

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Anal style absent in female
(3) Larval stage called caterpillar
(4) Number of ovarioles in each ovary is ten

53) Total number of ganglia present in nervous system of cockroach ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 13

54) Juvenile of cockroach is known as :

(1) Tadepole
(2) Caterpillar
(3) Nymph
(4) None of the above

55) Collaterial glands of cockroach help in :

(1) Fertilization
(2) Formation of ootheca
(3) Copulation
(4) Formation of oothecal chamber

56) How many ovarioles are found in each overy of cockroach ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 16

57) What type of vision is found in cockroach ?

(1) Mosaic
(2) Super position
(3) Binocular
(4) None of them
58) Structural units found in the compound eye of cockroach are called :

(1) Rhabdom
(2) Cone cells
(3) Ommatidia
(4) Simple eye

59) Exeretory organs of cockroach are :

(1) Trachea
(2) Kidney
(3) Nephridia
(4) Malpighian tubules

60) The body cavity of cockroach is called :

(1) Pseudocoel
(2) Coelom
(3) Hydrocoel
(4) Haemocoel

61) Salivary glands of cockroach open on :

(1) Maxilla
(2) Hypopharynx
(3) Labium
(4) Labrum

62) Mouth part of cockroach are suited for :

(1) Piercing
(2) Absorbing
(3) Cutting & chewing
(4) Drinking

63) Cockroach is :

(1) Omnivorous
(2) Herbivorous
(3) Carnivorous
(4) Sanguivorous

64) In cockroach food is crushed in which part :

(1) Crop
(2) Gizzard
(3) Mesenteron
(4) Oesophagus

65) Allary muscles in cockroach are associated or connected with :

(1) Trachea
(2) Heart
(3) Legs
(4) Alimentary cana

66) In cockroach O2 is carried to tissue by :

(1) Haemoglobin and haemocyanin

(2) Blood plasma
(3) Tracheal tubes
(4) Diffusion through integument

67) Number of chambers in the heart of cockroach :

(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 13
(4) 16

68) Cockroach and other insects have exoskeleton made up of :

(1) Keratin
(2) Spongin
(3) Chitin
(4) Cuticle

69) Anal styles are found in :

(1) Housefly
(2) Female cockroach
(3) Male cockroach
(4) Both male & female cockroach

70) Which structure is known as lower lip of cockroach ?

(1) Labrum
(2) Labium
(3) Mantum
(4) Submentum

71) Gastric caeca are present at _____.

(1) Junction of fore gut and midgut
(2) Foregut
(3) Hindgut
(4) Junction of midgut and Hindgut

72) If the head of cockroach is cut-off, it will still live for as long as one week, because–

(1) Head holds a large mass of nervous system

(2) Most of the Nervous system is present in ventral part of its body
(3) Nervous system present only in abdominal part
(4) No control of brain over the body

73) Nymph differs from adult cockroach in –

(1) Absence of wings

(2) Smaller in size
(3) Absence of mature reproductive organs
(4) All of these

74) Zoological name of cockroach is :

(1) Glossina palpalis

(2) Periplaneta americana
(3) Musca nebulo
(4) Apis indica

75) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body:

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

76) Which cell junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together?

(1) Cilia
(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Gap junctions
(4) Inter digititation

77) Match column-I with column-II and find the correct option:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Simple (i) Wall of blood

cuboidal vessels
 (B) Simple
(ii) PCT
squamous

(C) Ciliated (iii) Germinal

columnar epithelium

(D) Compound
(iv) Fallopian tube
epithelium

(E) Brush border (v) Moist surface of

epithelium buccal cavity

(1) A = i, B = ii, C = iii, D = iv, E = v

(2) A = iii, B = i, C = iii, D = iv, E = ii
(3) A = iii, B = i, C = iv, D = v, E = ii
(4) A = ii, B = i, C = iv, D = v, E = iii

78) Which of the following statements about cell junctions are correct:
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials.
(ii) In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional
link between its individual cells.
(iii) Tight junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules
and sometimes big molecules.

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi) and (v)

79) Select the correct statement:

Glandular Specialised for

(1)
epithelium protection

Compound Specialised for

(2)
epithelium diffusion

Endocrine
(3) Ductless glands
gland

Simple Specialised for

(4)
epithelium protection
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Mammalian bone differs from cartilage due to presence of:

(1) Collagen
(2) Blood vessels
(3) Lymph vessels
(4) Haversian canal

81) Which of the following is correctly matched pair?

(1) Microvilli Stomach

Ligament Dense regular

(2)
and tendons connective tissue

(3) Cilia Buccal cavity

(4) Cartilage Non-Pliable matrix

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Read the following statements:

i. Goblet cells are multicellular glands.
ii. Compound epithelium occurs in stomach only
iii. Simple epithelium is made of single layer of cells
iv. Ciliated epithelium occurs in the fallopian tubes and bronchioles
v. Tendon connects muscle to bone
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Five

83) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them:
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Identify A, B and C above figures of simple epithelium tissue:-

(A) (B)

(C)
Identify A, B and C above figures of simple epithelium tissue:-

A B C

1 Cuboidal Columnar Squamous

2 Squamous Cuboidal Columnar

3 Squamous Columnar Cuboidal

4 Cuboidal Squamous Columnar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Find the correct statement?

(1) Adipose tissue stored fat.

(2) Collegen fibers are white in colour & gives strength.
(3) Ligament connects bone to bone
(4) All of the above

86) Which of the following is wrongly matched.

(1) Fibroblast - Fiber production

(2) Collegen fiber - Highly branched
(3) Macrophage - Phagocytosis
(4) Elastic fiber - Yellow fiber

87) Ion linkage between larger and smaller subunit of ribosome is formed with the help of :-

(1) Ca2+
(2) Na+
(3) Mg2+
(4) K+

88) (A) Well defined nucleus is present

(B) Genetic material is absent
(C) Nuclear membrane absent
(D) Mesosome present
(E) Circular DNA is present
Which of the above mentioned are correct for Prokaryotic cell ?

(1) C,D,E
(2) A,C,E
(3) A,B,D
(4) B,C,E

89) Which face of Golgi apparatus receives vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum ?

(1) Cis-face
(2) Trans-face
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Face associated with ribosome

90) The ________ confers certain unique phenotypic character of bacteria like resistance to
antibiotics. Fill the blank from given option ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Genomic DNA
(3) Plasmid DNA
(4) Chromosomal DNA
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

=
Final answer : 3

2)

Given here

\(∴\) Resistant,

R = 50 N

Final Answer: Option (2)

3)

+ + =1
sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ = 2

4)
∴ u = 0, a = g
∴ S2nd = g/2 (2×2-1) = 3g/2
∴ S3rd = g/2 (2×3-1) = 5g/2
∴ S4th = g/2 (2×4-1) = 7g/2
∴ S2nd : S3rd: S4th = 3 : 5 : 7

5) S = 2t2 – t + 1

velocity v =
v = 4t – 1

Acceleration a =
⇒ a = 4 at t = 1 sec
a = 4 m/s2

6) Solution :

7) sec 135° = sec (180-45) = - sec 45 =

8) Calculation

The initial velocity (t = 0):

Substituting t = 0 into v(t):

Correct Option : 1
Final Answer: -5 m/s

9) Sum =

a=1 r=

Sum =

10) S = t3 – 27t + 4

v= = 3t2 – 27; time when v = 0

t = 3t2 – 27 = 0
t2 = 9
t=3
 a= = 6t
at t = 3 ⇒ a = 18

11)

Allen module.

12)

13)

14)

Conceptual.

15)

Solution :

⇒
2 2
= [2 – 1 ] – 4[2 – 1] = 4 – 1 – 4 = –1.
Final answer : 2

16)

17)

A null vector has zero magnitude and undefined direction. Statement I : True (definition is
correct)
Null vectors do exist in mathematic and physics. Statement II : False (null vectors exist)

18)

θ = 60°
19)

tan α =
α = 45°

20) ,
if then
= 8 – 18 + P = 0 ⇒ P = 10

21) by triangle law

22) 10 – 5 ≤ R ≤ 10 + 5
5 ≤ R ≤ 15

23) 2F cos (θ/2) =

θ = 90°

⇒ F = 20 N

24)
=
Square both the side
a2 + b2 + 2ab cosθ = a2 + b2 – 2ab cos θ
4 ab cos θ = 0
⇒ cos θ = 0
⇒ θ = 90°

25) Solution :

squaring both sides.

1 + 1 + 2 cosθ = 3
2 (1 + cosθ) = 3

⇒ θ = 60º

Final Answer : (4)

26) Solution :

Here A = 5 N = B and θ = 60°

So R = 2a cos
= 2(5) cos 30°
=

Final Answer : (3)

27)
If P > Q then α < β

28)

29) In first case the resultant will be

 And after is reversed the resultant become =
It is given that both resultant are perpendicular to each other, so there dot product will be
zero.

30)

Conceptual.

31)

For equilibrium (zero met force)

F1~ F2 ≤ F3 ≤ F1 + F2

32) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Let , then using parallelogram law of vector, we have
1 = (12 + 12 + 2 × 1 × 1 × cosθ)1/2
or 1 = 2(1+cosθ)

or

or or θ = 120o

∴
Now the angle between and is
= 180o – 120o = 60o
∴ The resultant of

33)

Question Explanation: This problem asks to find the speed of an object striking the ground
after being thrown horizontally from a power.
Concept : This question is based on Projectile motion.
Solution:

The horizontal component of velocity always remains unchanged.

The vertical component of Velocity as it reaches ground.

V=

The correct option is (3)

34)

Average velocity = = =

35) Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

36)

When y = 0, x = Horizontal range

⇒ O = 10x –

⇒ x = R = 10 ×

37) ⇒ u cos θ = a and u sin θ = b

R = 2Hmax

also
⇒ tanθ = 2

∴ ⇒ b = 2a

38) tan θ =
θ = 53°
39)

40) (A) (B)

(C) (D)

41)

42)

or

43) v2 – u2 = 2as
Suppose, velocity of the middle part = vm.

Then

or

∴
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

44)
 Solution :
•Maximum displacement = Diameter of the circle
•Maximum displacement = 2 * Radius
•Maximum displacement = 2 * 7 meters
• Maximum displacement = 14 meters

45)

Explain Question : Asking about the correct match between the column (1) & column (2).

Concept : This question is based on slope of the graph.

Solution :
As we know that, slope of a graph is given by tanθ & here, θ is taken from + x axis.

Therefore,
Graph (A) → tan θ = –ve = slope (Q) = As well as constant
Graph (B) → tan θ = 0 = slope (R)
Graph (C) → tan θ = +ve = slope (P) = As well as constant
Graph (D) → tan θ = +ve = slope (But decreeing) (P)

Final Answer : option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46) According to this principle, in an orbital, the electrons have opposite spin.

47) n2

48) O.A.M =

49)

Question explanation:
Determine the number of angular nodes in the 3s orbital.

Concept:
This question is based on Number of angular nodes = azimuthal quantum number ℓ.

Solution:
For an s-orbital, ℓ = 0, so angular nodes = 0.

Final answer: Option 1: 0

50)
Explanation the Question:
Find the number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p subshells.
Concept:
This question is based on
Number of radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1
Solution:
• 3s → n = 3, ℓ = 0 → radial nodes = 3 – 0 – 1 = 2
• 2p → n = 2, ℓ = 1 → radial nodes = 2 – 1 – 1 = 0
​Final Answer: (1)

51)

Question Explanation:
We are given four statements related to atomic orbitals and asked to identify the correct one
regarding the number of nodes.

Concept:
Total nodes = n – 1; Radial nodes n – ℓ – 1; Angular nodes = ℓ

Solution :
• Option 1: Number of angular nodes = n–ℓ–1 → Incorrect, this is the formula for radial
nodes, not angular nodes.
• Option 2: Number of radial nodes = ℓ → Incorrect, the correct formula is radial nodes = n –
ℓ – 1.
• Option 3: Total number of nodes = n – 1 → Correct,
because: Total nodes = Radial nodes + Angular nodes
⇒ (n – ℓ – 1) + ℓ = n – 1
• Option 4 : All → Incorrect, only Option 3 is correct.

Final Answer : option (3)

52)

Circumference of 4th orbit = 2πr4

and angular momentum mνr4 = ...(i)

de-broglie wavelength λ = & mν = ...(ii)

therefore from eq.(1) and (ii)

r4 = or 2πr4 = 4λ
and circumference of 4th orbit is equal to 4 times to wavelength of electron.

53)

54)
Explain Question : The question asks for the number of orbitals that can be defined by the
given set of quantum numbers: n = 3, l = 1, and m1 = 0
Concept : This question is based on Quantum Number
Solution :

We are given the following quantum numbers:

n = 3 (The third energy shell)

l = 1 This corresponds to a 'p' subshell)

ml = 0 (This specifies a single orientation within the p-subshell, specifically the pz orbital)
Since all three quantum numbers are fixed, they describe a single, specific orbital. Therefore,
only one orbital can be identified with this exact set of quantum numbers.
Final answer : 1

55)

Explanation the Question:

Find maximum electrons possible in orbital set with n = 3, ℓ = 2.
Concept:
This question is based on
Magnetic quantum number mℓ values decide orbital count, electrons = 2 × orbitals.
Solution:
For ℓ = 2, orbitals = 2ℓ + 1 = 5. Each holds 2 electrons → 5 × 2 = 10.
Final Answer: (3)

56)

Δx = 2Δp

Δx. Δp =

2Δp2 =

Δp2 =

m2 Δv2 =

Δv =

57)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.48

58)

Question Explanation : Identify the invalid set of quantum numbers based on established
rules.
Concept : Rules for quantum numbers: n ≥ 1; 0 ≤ ℓ ≤ n − 1; − l ≤ m ≤ + l; s = ± ​.

Solution :
Given:

(1) n = 4, l = 3, m = 2, s = + ​

(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = − ​

(3) n = 4, l = 3, m = – ​, s = + ​

(4) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = − ​
Checking each option:

In option (3), the value of m = – & we know that m can not be a fractional value so it is
incorrect.

Final Answer : option (3)

59) n=2 to n=1

60) Explain the Question : We need to find which set of quantum numbers is impossible for
an electron.
Concept : This question is based on rules of quantum numbers :
n = 1, 2, 3....ℓ = 0 to n–1; mℓ = –ℓ to +ℓ; ms = ±1/2
Solution :
Option 1 : n = 3, ℓ = 2 → mℓ = –2, ms = 1/2. Here n and ℓ are valid, and mℓ is within –ℓ to +ℓ.
This set is allowed.
Option 2 : n = 4, ℓ = 0 → mℓ = 0, ms = 1/2. ℓ = 0 is valid for n = 4, and mℓ = 0 is correct for s-
orbital. This set is allowed.
Option 3 : n = 3, ℓ = 2 → mℓ = 2 → mℓ = –3, ms = 1/2. Here mℓ is outside the allowed range
(–2 to +2) for ℓ = 2, so this set is impossible.
Option 4 : n = 5, ℓ = 3 → mℓ = 0, ms = –1/2. ℓ and mℓ values are within allowed limits, so this
et is allowed.
Final Answer : Option(3)

61)
Find order of reaction.

62) Along x, y axis the shape of orbital is as shown below :

63)

64) Isotopes are atoms of same element having same no. of protons
So option (3) is incorrect.

65) e/m ratio of anode rays depends on the gas in discharge tube.

66)

Explain Question : We need the ionisation energy of He+ ion.

Concept :
Ionisation energy for hydrogen-like species: IE = 13.6 × Z2 eV.

Solution :

IE = 13.6 × Z2 eV.

For He+, Z = 2

IE = 13.6 × 22 = 13.6 × 4 = 54.4 eV.

Final Answer : Option (4)

67)

fact

68)

Explain Question : Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength

Concept : de-Broglie wavelength (λ): λ=h/mv

Solution : least mass ⇒ longest λ

Proton, Neutron = intermediate mass
H2O molecule = highest mass ⇒ least λ

Final Answer : option (4)

69)

Question Explanation :
This question asks for the de-Broglie wavelength of a man, given his mass and velocity.
Concept :
The de-Broglie wavelength (λ) is calculated using the formula:

Solution :
Given a mass of 66 kg and a velocity of 1 × 103 m/s, substitute these values into the formula:

The de-Broglie wavelength is 1 × 10–38. The correct option is 3.

Final Answer : option (3)

70) Isotopes → same atomic number but different mass number.

71)

Explanation the Question : Find the average atomic weight of element X with isotopes X20
and X22, if the heavier isotope has 40% abundance.
Concept : This question is based on weighted average of isotopes.
Formula : Average atomic mass = (fraction of lighter isotope × mass of lighter isotope) +
(fraction of heavier isotope × mass of heavier isotope)
Given:
Fraction of X20 = 60% = 0.6
Fraction of X22 = 40% = 0.4
Calculation :
Average atomic mass = (0.6 × 20) + (0.4 × 22)
= 12 + 8.8
= 20.8
Final Answer : 2

72)

Explanation the Question : We need to find number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
175
71Lu .
Concept: This question is based on for an atom ZXA :
• Protons = Z
• Electrons = Z (for neutral atom)
• Neutrons = A – Z
Solution:
Protons = 71
Neutrons = 175 – 71 = 104
Electrons = 71
Final Answer: 2

73) no. of p = no. of e– = Z

(In neutral atom)
no. of p+ = no. of e– = 35
No. of neutron = A–Z = 80 – 35 = 45
p,n, e– ⇒ 35, 45, 35

74) Z = no. of p = 16
⇒ Sulphur
We know in neutral S no. of e– = 16
∴ It is anion.
e– = Z – (Charge on atom with sign)
18 = 16 – Charge
Charge = –2

75) 12 amu — 100 unit

1 amu — unit
for

24 amu — × 24 = 200 unit

76) No. of e– = z – charge on ion

No. of e– = 17 – (+3)
No. of e– = 14

77)

mass of 1 atom of He = 4 amu

16 amu contain = 4 He atom

78)

Molecular weight of NH3 = atomic weight of N + 3 (atomic weight of H) = 14 amu + 3 1

amu = 17 amu.

79)

No. of 'N' atoms =

80)

16 gm

81)

Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance in gram.

82) SO2 number of moles = = 1 mole

CO2 number of moles = = 1 mole

O3 number of moles = = 1 mole

H2 number of moles = = 4 mole

H2 gas maximum number of moles, so it has maximum number of molecules.

83) 1 a.m.u. = 1.67 × 10–24 g or 1.67 ×10–27 Kg

84)

C : O = 1.2 × 1010 : 14 × 1010

=1:2

85)

2 mole CHI3 ≡ 1 mole C2H2

0.01 mole CHI3 forms × 0.01 mole C2H2

= 0.005 mole
V = 0.005 × 22.4
= 112 × 10–3 L

86)

I : O

Moles
2 : 5

87)

C H

:
 : 1
1 : 4
formula CH4

88)

Answer is 3 mol

89)

n= mol

Al → mol O2 8 g O2

90)

Explain question : We need to find number of moles of C for given reaction if number of
moles of B is given
Concept : This question is based on Stoichiometry based concept
Explanation :
A + 3B → 2C
t=0 15 mole
∵ 3 moles of B gives = 2 moles of C

∴ 1 moles of B gives = moles of C

∴ 15 moles of B gives = × 15 = 10 moles of C

Number of moles of C = 10 mole
Final answer :- (2)

BIOLOGY

91)

Oil seeds have Elaioplast

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94
 94)

Question Explanation: The question is asking to fill in the blanks about vacuoles:
Concept: Vacuoles
Solution: The vacuole is bounded by a single membrane called tonoplast. Inside the vacuole, the
concentration of ions (like K⁺, Na⁺, etc.) is maintained higher than in the cytoplasm.
Final Answer: 3. A–Tonoplast; B–Higher

95)

The given diagram shows the cross-sectional structure of cilia/flagella, characterized by the 9
+ 2 arrangement of microtubules (9 outer doublets + 2 central singlets).

A. Correct answer is option 2. Hair like outgrowth of cell membrane known as cilia/flagella

A. The structure is typical of eukaryotic cilia/flagella

B. It is not the 9+0 arrangement (which is found in basal bodies or centrioles)

C. It does not contain hydrolytic enzymes (those are found in lysosomes)

D. It was not discovered by George Palade (he discovered ribosomes)

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

97)

Explain Question: Question asking about function of nucleolus

Concept: This question is based on Nucleolus.

Solution:

Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

Final answer: 3

98) NCERT XI Pg. # 139

99) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129

100) NCERT XIth Pg.#138

101) NCERT-XI Pg. # 138

102) NCERT XI, Page # 131

103) NCERT XI, Page # 126

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

105)

NCERT Pg # 135-136

106)

Asking about : The set of organelles that constitute the endomembrane system.

Concept : Understanding the components of the endomembrane system and their

interconnectedness.

Solution :

The endomembrane system is a network of membranes within a eukaryotic cell that are either
directly connected or connected via vesicles. It includes:

A. (I) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER): Involved in protein and lipid synthesis and transport.

B. (III) Golgi body (Golgi apparatus): Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids.

C. (IV) Lysosome: Contains digestive enzymes for breaking down waste materials.

D. (VI) Vacuoles: Storage and waste disposal compartments.

Therefore, the correct set of organelles that constitute the endomembrane system is I, III, IV,
and VI.
Answer: 2. I, III, IV, VI

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

108) NCERT XI Pg # 93

109) NCERT- XI Pg. # 134

110)

NCERT-XI _Pg. # 127, 128

Explanation

A. In anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids separate, effectively doubling the

chromosome number temporarily.

B. Since the G₂ phase has 8 chromosomes and 10 Pg DNA, when the chromatids separate,
the cell temporarily has 16 chromosomes but still 10 Pg DNA (since DNA amount does
not change, only distribution changes).

Correct answer: 3. Anaphasic cell - 16 chromosomes with 10 Pg DNA.

111)

Question Explanation: The key events of meiosis, including nuclear division and DNA
replication.

Concept: Meiosis and its stages

Solution: Meiosis consists of two sequential nuclear divisions, Meiosis I and Meiosis II, which
follow a single S-phase where DNA is replicated.

Final Answer: Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-
II but only single cycle of DNA replication.

112)

NCERT XI#165, 166

113) NCERT XI Pg # 164

114) NCERT Pg # 163

115) NCERT-XI, Page # 168

116) NCERT XI Pg # 108, para 10.4.1

117)
 NCERT Pg # 168

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168, 169

119)

Given:
• Onion mesophyll cell has 16 chromosomes, so an onion root tip cell (also diploid) will have 16
chromosomes in its normal cell cycle.
• Root tip cells divide by mitosis, meaning chromosome number remains constant throughout
the cycle.
1. G1-phase:
• This is the phase before DNA replication (S-phase ).
• The chromosome number remains the same as in normal diploid cells.
• Chromosome count: 16
2. After S-phase:
• In the S-phase, DNA replication occurs, but the chromosome number does not change.
• Each chromosome now consists of two sister chromatids, doubling the DNA content, but not
the chromosome count.
• Chromosome count: 16 (but with doubled DNA).
3. After M-phase (Mitosis completed):
• Mitosis ensures that daughter cells receive the same chromosome number as the parent cell.
• After mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same in each daughter cell.
• Chromosome count: 16
Final Answer:
16 (G1), 16 (S-phase), 16 (After M-phase)- Option 4 is correct.

120)

NCERT XI #170

121)

Correct answer: Option 3 - b → a → c → d

Correct Sequence of Events in Meiosis:
1. (b) Synapsis → Occurs in Zygotene

A. Homologous chromosomes start pairing (synapsis) and form the synaptonemal complex.

2. (a) Crossing over → Occurs in Pachytene

A. Exchange of genetic material takes place between homologous chromatids.

B. G1 phase (Option 1) → Cell grows and prepares for DNA replication but does not synthesize
spindle proteins.
C. S-phase (Option 2) → DNA replication occurs, but spindle fibre proteins are not produced.
D. G2 phase (Option 3) → Spindle fibre proteins (like tubulin) are synthesized, preparing for
mitosis.
E. Early Prophase (Option 4) → Spindle fibres start assembling, but their synthesis happens
earlier in G2 phase.
Thus, spindle fibre proteins are synthesized in the G2 phase.

122) NCERT-XI Pg. # 166, IInd, IIIrd line

123) NCERT Pg. # 165

124)

Question Explanation:

Identifying plant cell cytokinesis.

Concept:

Cytokinesis in plant cells.

Solution:

In plant cells, a cell plate forms at the center of the cell and grows outwards towards the
periphery, dividing the cytoplasm. This process is called centrifugal because it moves away
from the center.

Final Answer:

From centre towards periphery and called centrifugal.

125) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the most "dramatic" period of the cell cycle.

Concept :
This question is based on M-phase (Mitosis).

Explanation:
"The M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle involving a major reorganisation of
virtually all components of the cell."

Final answer : 3

126) NCERT XI pg.# 126

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133

128)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the wrong statements regarding bacterial
cell structures, specifically the glycocalyx and mesosome.
Concept : This question is based on PROKAROTIC CELL
Explanation :
(b) Glycocalyx could be loose sheath called capsule – Wrong, capsule is thick and organized,
slime layer is loose.
(c) Glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer – Wrong, slime layer is thin/loose;
thick glycocalyx is capsule.
Final answer : 4

129) NCERT XI Pg # 127 Fig 8.1

130) Question Explanation :

to check the correctness of two statements regarding the microtubule arrangement in flagella
and centrioles.

Concept :
This question is based on centrioles

Solution :
Statement-1: “Transverse sections of flagella have nine peripheral doublets microtubules.” →
Correct
Flagella and cilia → Have a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules: nine peripheral doublets and
two central singlets.
Statement-2: “Centrioles have 9+2 arrangement.” → Incorrect (centriole has 9+0) Centriole →
Has a 9+0 arrangement (nine triplets in a cartwheel pattern, no central pair).

Final Answer :
Option (3)

131) NCERT Package # 22

134) Old Ncert page 113.

135)

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137) Old Ncert page 111.

138) Old Ncert page 111.

139)

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143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

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165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101.

172) Three
 177)

Question Explanation : The question asks which ion helps in forming the linkage between
large and small ribosomal subunits.
Concept: Ribosomes
Solution :

A. Ribosomes consist of a large and small subunit.

B. These two subunits remain dissociated in the absence of ions.
C. The Mg²⁺ ion plays a key role in stabilizing and linking both subunits together.

Final Answer: Option (3)

178) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 127,128,129

179)

Question Explanation:: The question asks about the face of Golgi apparatus which receives
vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum.

Concept:Golgi complex.

Solution:

Cis or convex or forming face of the Golgi apparatus receives proteins and lipids vesicles from
the endoplasmic reticulum.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: 1

180) NCERT Pg.#128 (8.4)