3 in 1 Account – 100%

1. Which two organizations maintain Demat accounts in India?

A: B.) NSDL and CDSL

2. In a 3-in-1 account, is the money of the customer moved to brokers pool account?
A: B.) NO

3. How does Margin Trade Funding feature helps customers?

A: B.) Up to 70% of amount is funded by ICICI Direct Platform at marginal interest rate

4. The demat account services in the 3-in-1 account is provided by?

A: A.) ICICI Securities Ltd.

5. What is the primary purpose of a Trading Account?

A: B.) To buy and sell stocks

6. What is key benefit of not using a broker's pool account?

A: D.) Both a and b

7. What is full form of MTF?

A: A.) Margin Trading Funding

8. Which sector does ICICI's research team cover in its notifications?

A: C.) Multiple sectors across 200 companies

9. What does a 3-in-1 account integrate?

A: A.) Demat, Trading, and Savings Accounts

10. Which organization is responsible for timely settlement of Securities and Funds?
A: A.) Clearing Corporation

11. What feature allows customers to set conditions for buying or selling of stocks without need
to constantly monitor the market?
A: C.) Good Till Trigger (GTT)

12. What is primary function of a Demat Account?

A: A.) To hold securities in digital form

13. How does the Prime 9999 Plan benefit ICICI employees?
A: D.) All of the above

14. Role of Bank in the buying and selling of stocks is of?

A: A.) Depository Participant

15. Which platform is used for trading in ICICI's 3-in-1 account?

A: A.) ICICI Direct

16. 3-in-1 Account can be opened using?

A: D.) Both a & b
17. How long does it take to start trading after opening a 3-in-1 account?
A: C.) 2 days

18. What is the full form of NSDL?

A: B.) National Securities Depository Limited

A: A.) The order expires

20. How long is a GTT order valid?

A: C.) 365 Days

Transaction Processing – 95%

1. What should a staff do if a voucher is unsigned and the customer has left?
A: C.) Hold processing and call the customer

2. What should you do if a customer requests a transaction via WhatsApp?

A: D.) Decline and request original signed request

3. When should you raise a red flag via "Report a Suspicion"?

A: C.) When a transaction pattern deviates from customer profile

4. A scanned Aadhaar is submitted for KYC update. What is the right action?
A: D.) Reject and ask for original copy in person

5. Why must records not be accessed by unauthorized personnel?

A: D.) It violates data privacy and creates security risks

6. What is the most appropriate action when a customer submits a cheque with a
mismatched signature?
A: A.) Decline the transaction and inform the customer

7. A customer submits a pre-filled form for a request. Why is this preferable?

A: B.) It reduces chances of missing information

8. In case of UV lamp malfunction while verifying cheques, what should be done?

A: A.) Use alternate validation methods

9. How do you identify a suspicious transaction?

A: C.) Sudden deviation in transaction pattern from profile

10. What should an employee do if they sense suspicious activity in an account?

A: A.) Report via Whistle Blower or Report a Suspicion

11. A staff member delays voucher filing till week's end. What is the immediate issue?
A: C.) Loss of chronological integrity and audit mismatch

12. An employee allows access to branch records without logging it. What is compromised?
A: C.) Security and traceability
13. A customer is unable to come in person. What is acceptable for processing their
request?
A: B.) Signed physical letter with proper verification

14. What should be done when a scanned image of a cheque looks edited?
A: D.) Decline and request original cheque

15. When should OSV (Original Seen and Verified) be marked on a document?
A: A.) Only after the original document is physically verified by the staff

16. How should customer signature mismatch transactions be handled?

A: A.) Decline and escalate as per bank policy

17. What is the key reason for "Never share system password with anyone"?
A: D.) Compromises system access control and accountability

18. Who is responsible for checking the Mode of Operation before any transaction?
A: B.) The staff executing the transaction

19. What must you check before processing a customer's nomination update?
A: C.) Proper supporting document and authorization

20. What's the best way to prevent incomplete request forms being processed?
A: B.) Verify form before accepting and clarify missing details

Clean Note policy – 84%

1. What should be checked by a cashier before crediting the amount in customers account.
ans: D) All of the above
2. Bait money constitutes of one packet of 100 notes of which currency.
ans: A) 100
3. Fake notes identified through NSM need not be impounded upfront in the presence of customers.
ans: B) False
4. Which among the following are new features of recently launched Rs 10 currency note.
ans: D) All of the above
5. Can the soiled and cut notes be exchanged over the counter at all branches on all working days.
ans: A) YES
6. PAN number or form 60 is not mandatory for cash deposits of above Rs.50,000.
ans: B) False
7. For cash payments UV verification needs to be done on ______ .
ans: C) All cheques 50,000 & above
8. What is the TAT for reversing a SA.H202 account.
ans: C) Same day
9. Cash receipts collected over the counter (OTC) should be processed through NSM.
ans: A) True
10. Branch staff should call a Savings Account customer before processing any transaction for values
__________ .
ans: B) Greater than Rs. 2 Lakhs - Up
11. Branch should ensure that only one service request is raised per day and that the indent of cash is
for minimum Rs. 1,00,000/- and in multiples of Rs. 50,000 above one lac.
ans: A) True
12. For all cash payments above Rs.49,999/- in SB account identity proof needs to be obtained.
ans: A) True
13. Burglar alarm should be in _____ mode while cash opening process.
ans: A) Day
14. Which among the following services can be availed by customer through insta app available in
iMobile?.
ans: D) All of the above
15. Each Full time cashier should ensure that cash along with the _______ money is properly stored
in cash cabin drawers/boxes in different sections.
ans: A) Bait
16. For making payments to customers, teller can use ______ cash.
ans: D) A & B
17. What are the things that a CSO should scrutinize on pay in slip while accepting cash deposit.
ans: D) All of the above
18. What is the Maximum number of notes per deposit (single Transaction- Cash Deposit Machine)?.
ans: A) 190 - 200 Notes
19. Cash can not be deposited in _______ account.
ans: A) NRE account
20. In __________ register the details of the mutilated note, the value paid or rejected is mentioned.
ans: B) DN2
21. Detailed counting is not required if customer is depositing cash in packets (100 notes of same
currency).
ans: B) False
22. Payment against cash withdrawal slip can be done for.
ans: A) Customer
23. What is the name of letter format used by a branch to inform the customer that no value can be
paid for the mutilated notes tendered by him.
ans: C) DN3
24. Separate identification mark should be made on bait money.
ans: B) False
25. For cash deposit of ______ and above customer needs to furnish a letter mentioning the source of
funds.
ans: B) Rs. 5,00,000

Cash Management – 80%

1. What is the purpose of the E-CBR in the cash process?

ans: B) For real-time cash reconciliation denomination-wise

2. What must be ensured during Cash Bundling?

ans: A) Under supervision / CCTV coverage

3. What item must always be available at the teller counter for adjudicating mutilated notes?
ans: D) RBI approved Stencil

4. How should soiled or mutilated notes be handled?

ans: C) Sorted and sent to ICMC

5. When must excess or shortage in cash be reported?

ans: A) Immediately on detection

6. What is the maximum amount eligible for cash shortage waiver after due diligence?
ans: C) Rs 10,000/-
7. Where should processed and unprocessed cash be stored according to audit findings?
ans: B) Separately in proper covers

8. Accounting entries relating to cash excess / shortage to be passed in

ans: A) i-core with approval of BM/DBM on the same day

9. The Exchange Module is a system that tracks all exchanges of which currencies?
ans: D) All of the above

10. Who has the authority to approve waiver requests in case of shortages?
ans: B) Regional Head

Voucher Management Process – 80%

1. When vouchers should be signed and stamped?

ans: C) Post-stitching, before storage

2. If a voucher is accessed by unauthorized person, what should be done?

ans: B) Escalate and log incident

3. If a voucher is requested during audit and not found, what is the most compliant
response?
ans: C) Escalate and attempt recovery

4. What is the best corrective measure if you find unstamped voucher bundles?
ans: A) Stamp and document immediately

5. What would lead to rejection of voucher offloading by the vendor?

ans: C) Missing docket or improper sealing

6. What document should be referred to for transactions above ₹10 lakh?

ans: B) FTR

7. If voucher flaps are missing, what process is affected?

ans: A) Classification between debit and credit

8. What step need to be done essentially before sending a voucher to storage?

ans: C) Labeling with correct date and transaction type

9. What is the key reason for not keeping the vouchers at teller desks overnight?
ans: B) May be stolen or tampered

10. Why is regular monitoring of voucher offloading status important?

ans: A) Prevents backlog and audit gaps

11. Why must vouchers be bundled based on inward and outward clearing?
ans: B) To simplify MIS tally

12. What is the right response if offloaded vouchers are not acknowledged by the vendor?
ans: B) Escalate immediately to Ops

13. What’s the most critical storage feature for protecting vouchers long-term?
ans: C) Fireproof, moisture-proof storage
14. What document validates all vouchers linked to customer financial transactions?
ans: D) Teller Summary Sheet

15. If voucher flaps are missing during stitching, what should be done?
ans: A) Insert flap and recheck classification

16. What must be avoided while transporting stitched vouchers?

ans: A) Exposure to open areas

17. Which practice is considered non-compliant during voucher handling?

ans: C) Storing near customer zone

18. Who should be contacted if voucher offloading hasn’t happened in 12+ months?
ans: C) BM/DBM

19. What is the best way to store vouchers containing high-value transactions?
ans: A) In locked, fireproof storage

20. What should be done if the Mitra report and physical vouchers mismatch?
ans: B) Escalate and reconcile with Ops team

Pre Approved Car Loan - iMobile Pay - 80%

1. How many steps are there to avail Car Loan

ans: C) 4
2. Amount disbursed will be transferred to the whose account?
ans: B) Dealer's Account
3. Which ID proof is asked while eSigning and eStamping process
ans: C) Aadhar Card
4. Which all steps is part of Customization your loan page
ans: A) Dealer quote
5. Can sanction letter be downloaded without disburesment?
ans: B) Yes

Auto Loan - Car Finance Market in India – 80%

1. Which of these is NOT listed as a structured or tailor-made car loan scheme by ICICI
Bank?
ans: D) Smart Flexi Plan
2. What is one of the key benefits of the ICICI Bank’s online direct dealer disbursement
facility?
ans: C) It enables seamless experience with less documentation
3. Which award did ICICI Bank Car Loans win in 2021 for its innovation?
ans: B) Asian Banker Award
4. From where does ICICI Bank source its car loans business?
ans: D) All of the above including online platforms
5. Out of every 100 cars sold in India, how many are typically financed?
ans: B) 80
 Pre Approved Home Loan - iMobile Pay – 100%

1. What are the documents required for taking Pre Approved Home Loan sanction
through iMobile Pay App?
ans: D) No document is required
2. How many steps are there in the iMobile Pre Approved Home Loan journey?
ans: B) 2
3. Which of the following information is given on the offer landing page for pre-
approved home loan
ans: D) All of the above 3
4. From Which section in iMobile app can you apply for home loan
ans: A) Loan
5. What is the validity of Pre Approved Home Loan Sanction Letter?
ans: D) 6 months

Go-to-Market Strategy - Service to Delight – 100%

1. What is the primary goal of the “Service to Delight” pillar in the Go-to-Market
Strategy?
ans: C) Providing exceptional service that exceeds expectations
2. How does capability building enhance service quality?
ans: B) Through training, resources, and structured processes
3. What is one key reason to implement dedicated digital kiosks at business centers?
ans: C) To promote self-service transactions
4. How does service excellence relate to market presence?
ans: B) Positive word-of-mouth and loyalty
5. What helps in adapting digital tools to customer needs?
ans: C) Customer feedback via iMobile
6. Which initiative helps customers shift from traditional to digital banking?
ans: B) Digital adaptability programs
7. Why is digital onboarding emphasized in the service strategy?
ans: C) To ensure more customers adopt digital platforms
8. How are complex digital services like re-KYC made more accessible?
ans: C) By enabling them online
9. Why is personalized service important at business centers?
ans: C) Meets unique local market needs
10. Which of these best reflects the concept of service differentiation?
ans: C) Prioritized service based on customer needs
11. How does tracking digital service requests help improve service quality?
ans: C) Provides insights for improving digital user experience
12. What kind of service structure is needed for complex service requests?
ans: C) Dedicated, trained employees
13. How does encouraging digital migration benefit customers?
ans: B) Provides access to cost-effective services
14. How can the adoption rate of digital channels be improved?
ans: B) Educate customers and simplify onboarding
15. How does capability building affect front-line employees?
ans: B) Equips them for efficient query resolution
16. What role do scorecards play in service management?
ans: C) Track employee service performance
 17. What should be the approach of a well-trained employee towards a customer service
request?
ans: B) Handle quickly using knowledge and tools
18. Why is transparency in service charges important?
ans: B) Builds trust and aids informed decisions
19. Why is digital awareness critical in today’s service model?
ans: C) To help customers understand and use digital channels
20. Why is digital adaptability critical to service success?
ans: C) Shifts banking from operational to service-focused

iFinance - iMobile Pay – 80%

How to access iFinance on iMobile Pay app?
ans: B) Login to iMobile Pay>Accounts & FD/RD>Click on iFinance
iFinance is available on which ICICI bank's platforms?
ans: E) All of them
Which banks accounts user can link with iFinance?
ans: D) All supported banks liscensed by RBI (integrated with Account Aggregator)
Who is the Account Aggregator in iFinance?
ans: B) Anumati
What can you get from iFinance
ans: B) Consolidation of all Bank Accounts

Family Banking – 81%

1. Who can access upgraded insurance benefits under Family Banking?

ans: B) All family members
2. What is the minimum number of members required for Family Banking?
ans: B) 2
3. What is required to apply for Family Banking at a branch?
ans: B) Family ID Request Form with consent signatures
4. Why does the Bank promote Family Banking?
ans: B) Bank can offer 360-degree service to customers and their family members
5. Who gets a complimentary Family Debit Card with lounge access under Family 360
Banking?
ans: C) The primary member
6. What Family Types are there under Family Banking?
ans: B) Family360, Wealth Select, Private, Salary
7. Which account is also considered under Salary Family?
ans: B) Power Pay Account
8. How many members can form a Family Banking relationship under Salary Family?
ans: B) 5
9. How can customers apply for View & Transact/Unified Online Access
ans: B) Customers will need to apply for this facility
10. What is the Universe Path for accessing Family Banking resources?
ans: B) Business Groups > Product Team > Savings Product > Family Banking
11. Which section in iMobile App is used to request Family Banking?
ans: B) Account Services
12. Which relationships are considered under Salary Family?
ans: B) Parents, spouse, children, in-laws
13. How can an existing customer apply for Family Banking online?
ans: B) Via the iMobile App
14. Which accounts are eligible for Family Banking?
ans: A) Savings, Salary, NRI, Current account
15. What is Family Banking?
ans: B) A feature allowing families to bank together and share benefits
16. How many family members can be included in Family Banking under Family
360/Wealth/Private Family?
ans: C) Maximum 10 members

Loans & Advances and other guidelines – 80%

1. XYZ Ltd is a Limited company with a credit exposure of Rs. 200.0 million. Company
has a Director Mr A who is also on board of ICICI Bank. Please share which regulation
is getting applicable on XYZ Ltd
ans: D) Both Sec 20 and Connected Lending
2. XYZ Ltd is a Limited company with a credit exposure of Rs. 200.0 million. Company
has a Director Mr A who is also on board of ICICI Bank. Please share the facilities that
can be sanctioned to XYZ Ltd
ans: D) Bank Guarantee
3. XYZ Ltd is a Limited company with a credit exposure of Rs. 200.0 million. Company
has a Director Mr A who is also on board of Axis Bank. Please share which regulation
is getting applicable on XYZ Ltd
ans: C) None of the above
4. XYZ Ltd is a Limited company with a credit exposure of Rs. 200.0 million. Company
has a Director Mr. A who is also on board of ABC Bank. Please share the facilities that
can be sanctioned to XYZ Ltd
ans: D) No restriction on facilities that can be sanctioned
5. XYZ Ltd is a Limited company with a credit exposure of Rs. 200.0 million. Company
has a Director Mr. A who is also on board of ICICI Securities Ltd. Please share which
regulation is getting applicable on XYZ Ltd
ans: B) Connected Lending
6. LEI is mandatory for non individual borrowers with exposure of Rs. ____ cr and above
from the banking system
ans: C) Rs 5 cr
7. What is the minimum tenor of loan component under Loan Delivery System?
ans: B) 7 days
8. Within___ months of reporting the account as RFA, the lenders have to decide on the
classification of account as Fraud or detagging of RFA
ans: C) 6 months
9. A wilful defaulter is debarred from institutional finance from the scheduled
commercial banks, Financial Institutions, NBFCs, for floating new ventures for a
period of ____ years
ans: B) 5 years
10. An account is identified as non-performing when ______remain overdue for more
than 90 days
ans: D) Interest and/or principal instalment
 Deliverable Management Process – 100%

1. What does the joint custody principle in deliverable management helps to prevent?
Ans: C) Mismanagement and fraud
2. What must be done if a deliverable is taken out for customer verification?
Ans: B) Return same day and re-log
3. What must be checked before accepting a customer’s ID proof?
Ans: C) Original and valid government-issued document
4. Which is the most critical reason to follow TAT for destruction of a deliverable?
Ans: C) Minimize risk of misuse of unclaimed items
5. A deliverable was found in a staff drawer. What SOP was violated?
Ans: A) Storage and custody rules
6. If the DMP system shows 2 unclaimed cards, but register shows 0, what is the likely
cause?
Ans: C) Manual entry failure or unlogged handover
7. In case of branch relocation, what should be done with deliverables?
Ans: C) Transfer securely under joint custody
8. Which of the following best reflects due diligence before handing over a deliverable?
Ans: C) Verify original ID and get customer signature
9. A customer hands over ID of a different person. What should you do?
Ans: B) Raise red flag and deny delivery
10. A customer claims a card was collected, but no signature was found. What control
failed?
Ans: C) Acknowledgment and DMP update
11. When should you escalate issues with deliverable discrepancies?
Ans: C) As soon as mismatch is identified
12. A staff hands over a cheque book to a customer but forgets to get the register
signed. What process is violated?
Ans: C) Delivery acknowledgment
13. A deliverable received at the branch is not recorded in the DMP system. What is the
most likely outcome?
Ans: B) Process failure and audit finding
14. What should staff do if deliverables are not reconciled at day-end?
Ans: C) Escalate and reconcile immediately
15. What does a mismatch between DMP and physical count of deliverables indicate?
Ans: C) Potential control failure
16. If customer fails to collect deliverable and branch hasn’t updated it in DMP, what
happens?
Ans: B) Item becomes audit exception
17. How should we handle a card returned by a customer as “wrong name printed” ?
Ans: B) Store securely and log as returned
18. Rahul accepted a copy of Aadhaar and skipped signature in register. What key
control was by passed?
Ans: C) Identity & acknowledgment protocol
19. The DMP system is primarily designed to support what?
Ans: C) Inventory control and traceability
20. What should you do if a deliverable is damaged upon receipt?
Ans: A) Report and log in DMP immediately
 Family 360 Banking – 84%

1. Accidental death insurance coverage is?

✅ Answer: ₹10 lakhs

2. Air accidental death insurance coverage is?

✅ Answer: ₹40 lakhs

3. Daily spending limit for Titanium Debit Card is?

✅ Answer: ₹5,00,000

4. What is the total relationship value needed across accounts and deposits?
✅ Answer: ₹3 lakh

5. For current accounts, what is the minimum balance required?

✅ Answer: ₹5 lakh

6. What is the TRV threshold for savings account eligibility?

✅ Answer: ₹1 lakh

7. Which prepaid card offers transactions in 15 currencies?

✅ Answer: Multicurrency Forex Card

8. How many family members can enjoy benefits under this program?
✅ Answer: 10

9. What is the unified access feature for families?

✅ Answer: Unified Online Access

10. What type of account does Family 360 Banking offer?

✅ Answer: 3-in-1 account (Savings, Demat, Trading)

11. Who is assigned to the customer for a seamless experience?

✅ Answer: Relationship Expert

12. What is the salary credit required for eligibility under savings account?
✅ Answer: ₹50,000

13. What kind of card is provided to business owners?

✅ Answer: Business Gold Debit Card

14. Which app can be used to access the ‘View & Transact’ feature?
✅ Answer: iMobile App

15. Which type of benefit includes discounts on loan processing?

✅ Answer: Rewarding Benefits

16. Which loan amount qualifies under home or property loan eligibility?
✅ Answer: ₹50 lakh

17. What is the benefit of the ‘View & Transact’ feature?

✅ Answer: View & transact on behalf of others with consent
18. What is the cash withdrawal limit of the Titanium Debit Card?
✅ Answer: ₹1,00,000

19. What is the minimum unsecured loan amount for eligibility?

✅ Answer: ₹5 lakh

Term Deposit – 90%

1. What is the primary benefit of investing in a Fixed Deposit?

Ans: B) Fixed and guaranteed returns
2. What is a cumulative Fixed Deposit?
Ans: B) Interest is added to the principal on regular basis and paid at maturity
3. What is a non-cumulative Fixed Deposit?
Ans: B) Interest is paid monthly, quarterly, or annually
4. Is the interest earned on Fixed Deposits taxable?
Ans: A) Yes
5. Which type of Fixed Deposit offers tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax
Act?
Ans: C) Tax-saver FD
6. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Fixed Deposits?
Ans: C) High risk
7. How does compounding affect a Fixed Deposit?
Ans: A) It increases the effective interest earned
8. What is the lock-in period for a tax-saving Fixed Deposit?
Ans: B) 5 years
9. What is the TDS limit on interest earned from Fixed Deposits for general citizens?
Ans: C) 40,000
10. What is a recurring deposit compared to a Fixed Deposit?
Ans: A) In an RD, you invest a fixed sum periodically, while in FD, you invest a lump
sum

Term Deposit – Variants – 100%

1. What is the primary purpose of iWish deposits?

Ans: B) To provide a flexible savings option for specific goals
2. What makes iWish deposits different from Recurring Deposits (RDs)?
Ans: A) iWish allows flexible contributions, whereas RDs require fixed monthly
payments
3. What is a cumulative Fixed Deposit?
Ans: B) Interest is added to the principal on regular basis and paid at maturity
4. What is a non-cumulative Fixed Deposit?
Ans: B) Interest is paid monthly, quarterly, or annually
5. Which of the following is a benefit of senior citizen Fixed Deposits?
Ans: B) Higher interest rate than general Citizens
 ICICI Bank Education Loan – 90%

1. What is the minimum stable income required for a financial co-applicant without
obligations?
Ans: B) INR 20,000
2. What is the tax benefit available on education loans under Section 80E?
Ans: B) Tax deduction on the interest paid
3. Who can be a financial co-applicant for an education loan?
Ans: D) Parents, Siblings, Spouse, Sibling etc
4. How does ICICI Bank evaluate a student’s eligibility?
Ans: D) All of the above
5. What is the primary purpose of an education loan?
Ans: B) To fund higher education
6. What is the maximum unsecured loan amount for studying abroad under ICICI Bank’s
education loan?
Ans: B) INR 1 Crore
7. Which of the following expenses are covered under an education loan?
Ans: D) Tuition fees, living expenses, and study materials
8. How soon should a student apply for an education loan?
Ans: D) Anytime before fee payment
9. Which repayment option allows a student to pay only the interest during the course
and start full EMI after completion?
Ans: B) Partial Simple Interest
10. What does the bank assess while approving an education loan?
Ans: D) All of the above
11. What is the maximum repayment tenure for an education loan from ICICI Bank?
Ans: C) 15 years
12. Which of the following is NOT covered by an education loan?
Ans: C) Personal vacations
13. What document is required to apply for an education loan?
Ans: C) Academic records, KYC, co-applicant details
14. What is the minimum experience required for a working professional to apply without
a financial co-applicant?
Ans: B) 2 years
15. What benefit does an education loan offer for visa applications?
Ans: A) Acts as proof of funds
16. Which repayment option allows a student to start repaying only after a grace period
post-course completion?
Ans: A) Full Moratorium
17. Why is an education loan beneficial for building a credit score?
Ans: C) Regular repayment improves credit history
18. ICICI Bank's education loan is available for which of the student categories
Ans: C) Both domestic and international education aspirants
19. What is the maximum secured loan amount for studying in India under ICICI Bank’s
education loan?
Ans: C) INR 1 Crore
20. When can a student apply for an education loan?
Ans: D) Even before getting admission
 Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card – 100%

1. How are the cashback rewards credited?

Ans: A) As Amazon Pay Balance
2. How can a customer track their cashback earnings?
Ans: D) All of the above
3. How much cashback do cardholders earn on Amazon Pay partner merchants?
Ans: B) 0.02
4. Do the reward points expire?
Ans: C) No, there is no expiry
5. What is a key feature of the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card?
Ans: C) Seamless Amazon Pay integration
6. Where can Amazon Pay Balance be used?
Ans: B) Amazon & select merchants
7. Which are the partners involved in issuing the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card?
Ans: A) ICICI Bank, Amazon & Visa
8. What is the maximum cashback rate offered by the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit
Card?
Ans: C) 0.05
9. What is the value of each reward point?
Ans: C) ₹1
10. Are there no-cost EMI options available on Amazon purchases?
Ans: A) Yes, for 3 & 6 months
11. What is the cashback rate for non-Prime members on Amazon India purchases?
Ans: C) 0.03
12. What makes the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card convenient for tracking rewards?
Ans: D) All of the above
13. Can the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card be used for offline purchases?
Ans: D) Yes, with 1% cashback
14. What is the primary focus of the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card?
Ans: B) Cashback on Amazon & digital transactions
15. What type of customers is the Amazon Pay ICICI Bank Credit Card best suited for?
Ans: A) Frequent online shoppers

Net Interest Income (NII) – 100%

1. How is Net Interest Income (NII) calculated?

Ans: B) Average of interest received from loans minus average of interest paid on
deposits and borrowings
2. What does NII stand for
Ans: A) Net Interest Income
3. What is cost of funds for a bank?
Ans: C) The average interest banks pay for the funds they acquire
4. Why is the cost of funds important for a bank?
Ans: B) It affects how much interest income a bank retains as profit
5. What does Net Interest Income indicate about a bank?
Ans: B) The profitability from the bank's core lending and borrowing activities
 Branch Operating Profit – 100%

1. What does total operating expenses represent?

Ans: B) The summation of all operating expense areas
2. Why is operating profit important for a bank branch?
Ans: B) It helps in better cost management and decision-making
3. What is the long-term goal of managing operating expenses efficiently?
Ans: B) Enhancing branch performance and achieving long-term success
4. What is operating profit?
Ans: B) The profit after deducting operating expenses from revenue
5. What is the key purpose of understanding a branch’s revenue and expenses?
Ans: C) To improve cost management and profitability

Risks and Non Performing Assets (NPA) -100%

1. Why is risk management crucial for banks?

Ans: B) It ensures that banks assume and manage risks effectively
2. What is liquidity risk?
Ans: A) The risk of not being able to meet short-term financial obligations
3. What is interest rate risk?
Ans: A) The risk of a decline in asset value due to unexpected changes in interest
rates
4. Why is credit loss risk considered the most critical risk for banks?
Ans: A) It impacts profitability directly
5. What does the term "Expected Credit Loss (ECL)" refer to?
Ans: A) The amount of loan defaults expected based on risk assumptions

Key Handling Process at Branches – 95%

An employee finds missing key of a surrendered locker.

Ans: B) Report and document appropriately

Why is joint custodianship used for vault and cash room keys?
Ans: C) Ensures security through shared control

If a new branch is opened, where should we store extra principal keys?

Ans: D) Nearest ICICI branch in sealed envelope

When dealing with offsite principal keys, what packaging is mandated?

Ans: A) Signed, sealed envelope

If the Online KMR is consistently not updated, which department is most likely to raise a red
flag?
Ans: B) Internal Audit

What’s the right protocol if locker master key is accidentally taken home?
Ans: D) Immediately escalate and log incident

When should locker master key be placed back in the defender safe?
Ans: B) Once locker access is over for the day
A branch’s second main door key should be with:
Ans: C) DBM/ABM

What happens if locker keys of vacant lockers are kept in open drawers?
Ans: D) Violates locker safety protocol

What’s a critical compliance for deliverable box key management?

Ans: A) Split custody between original and cash in charge

If a branch receives new inventory, what’s the first step regarding keys?
Ans: D) Assign custodians and record in KMR

Who must mandatorily be one of the joint custodians for principal keys?
Ans: C) SBM/BM/DBM/ABM

Why is sealed envelope storage of duplicate keys important?

Ans: A) Prevents unauthorized use

Which of these requires a two-key system for access?

Ans: C) Double lock inventory

Who should hold duplicate drawer key if cashier has the primary?
Ans: B) BM/DBM in a sealed envelope

Who is not a valid custodian for principal keys?

Ans: A) Office assistant

Frequently observed lapse with locker custodianship is

Ans: D) Taking locker master keys home

A staff member accesses trade documents alone. What policy is violated?

Ans: A) Joint custody requirement

When should locker master keys be taken out?

Ans: D) Only when locker is used

What is a key observation auditors make during reviews?

Ans: B) Joint custody not followed

Customer Rights Policy

Do not use or share customer's personal information for _________, unless specifically
authorized.
Ans: B) Marketing purpose

Do you understand and estimate customer's financial status before offering a product?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you need to adequately explain the product risks to customer prior to sourcing?
Ans: A) Yes
Which of the following should not be done with a customer?
Ans: D) All of the above

One must adhere to Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference

Regulations, 2010 (National Customer Preference Registry) issued by ______. Fill in the blank.
Ans: B) TRAI

It is not the bank's responsibilty to facilitate redressal stemming from the sale of third party
products. State True or False.
Ans: B) False

Customers have right to _______ from all kinds of communications which infringe upon their
privacy. Fill in the blank.
Ans: B) Protection

Do you need to adequately explain the charges and fees to the customer before sourcing
or offering a product?
Ans: A) Yes

Where are the details given of all charges applicable to the products and services chosen by
the customer?
Ans: B) Schedule of charges

Third party products that are being sold do not necessarily have to be in accordance with
extant rules and regulations. State True or False.
Ans: B) False

Ensure complete _______ so that the customer can have a better understanding of what they
can reasonably/fairly expect from the bank. Fill in the blank.
Ans: D) Transperancy

One must promote fair and equitable relationship between the bank and customer. State
True or False.
Ans: A) True

Are you aware that the Bank will compensate him/her for any direct financial loss incurred
due to lapses as per the Bank's Compensation Policy? Do you inform the customer
regarding the same?
Ans: A) Yes

Treat customers _________ and do not discriminate against any customer on grounds such as
gender, caste etc. Fill in the blank.
Ans: C) Fairly

Ensure to have a robust and responsive grievance redressal procedure and clearly indicate
__________ who will be approached by the customer. Fill in the blank.
Ans: D) Grievance Resolution Authority

It is important to make grievance redressal mechanism easily accessible to customers. Is this

statement True or False.
Ans: A) True
Ensure that products and services which are offered are in accordance with relevant ________
and _________. Fill in the blanks.
Ans: C) Laws, rules

Employees must promote good and fair banking practices by setting ______ standards in
dealings.
Ans: A) Maximum

One must attend to the customers and their business _______ and ________. Fill in the blanks.
Ans: C) Promptly, courteously

Products or services offered should be appropriate to the customer's need. State True or
False.
Ans: A) True

Deal ________ and ________ with the things that go wrong and correct mistakes promptly. Fill
in the blank.
Ans: A) Sympathetically, expeditiously

Compensate the customer for any direct _________ loss incurred by them due to lapses as
per the Bank's Compensation Policy. Fill in the blank.
Ans: C) Financial

Is the Name of Principal Nodal officer details (name and contact no.) updated on Escalation
plaque displayed at Branch
Ans: A) Yes

Do you help customer in case of grievances stemming from sale of third party products?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you discriminate customers on the basis of gender, age, religion, caste, literacy,
economic status physical ability, etc?
Ans: B) No

Do you need to explain the Product and Policy in detail before sourcing or offering any
product?
Ans: A) Yes

What are the five Rights of the Customer as per the Customer Rights Policy?
Ans: A) Right to Fair Treatment, Right to Transparency. Fair and Honest Dealing, Right to
Suitability, Right to Privacy, Right to Grievance Redress and Compensation

Product should be based on the assessment of customer's __________ circumstances and

understanding. Fill in the blank.
Ans: C) Financial

Are you aware that, the Banks Policies on Deposits, Cheque Collection, Grievance Redressal,
Compensation, Collection of Dues and Security Repossession, Customer Rights, Customer
Protection are available for customers reference at the below
link: [Link] and the customers are
supposed to be made aware about it?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you treat customers personal information as private and confidential (even when the
customer is no longer banking with the Bank)?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you threaten customers with physical harm, exert undue influence, or engage in blatant
harassment?
Ans: B) No

Do you use or share customers personal information for marketing purpose without
customers consent/authorisation?
Ans: B) No

Do not compel a customer to subscribe to any ______ as a quid-pro-quo for any service
availed by them from the Bank. Fill in the blank.
Ans: B) Third party products

One should treat customer's personal information as private and confidential, unless they
offer specific consent or such information is to be provided under the law or is mandated
business purpose. State True or False.
Ans: A) True

A customer should not be subjected to the following:

Ans: D) All of the above

Do you need to sell products or services offered (including Third Party Products) in
accordance with the rules and regulations?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you ensure that only authorised third party products are sourced?
Ans: A) Yes

Do you inform the customer about the Customer Service Policies of the Bank and
customers can access the same for their reference from mandatory notices board at branch
in 'Customer Service Information' section?
Ans: A) Yes

Term Deposit - Comparison with other Investment Instruments – 100%

• Which of the following investment options offers guaranteed returns?

ans: D) Fixed Deposits.

• What kind of investor is best suited for Fixed Deposits?

ans: C) Conservative investors.

• Which investment option typically has the highest risk and return potential?
ans: B) Stocks.

• Which of these is a feature of mutual funds?

ans: C) Professional management.
• What is the primary advantage of bonds over stocks?
ans: C) Regular income and moderate risk.

• Which investment is ideal for someone seeking long-term growth with high risk tolerance?
ans: B) Stocks.

• Which investment option is most appropriate for a hands-off investor?

ans: C) Mutual Funds.

• What distinguishes Fixed Deposits from savings accounts?

ans: C) Higher interest and fixed term.

Term Deposit - Tax Implications - 100%

What is the tax rate applicable on interest earned from a term deposit?
Ans: C) It is taxed as per the applicable income tax slab

What is the purpose of TDS?

Ans: C) Mechanism to collect tax at income generation

What is the TDS threshold for non-senior citizens on interest income?

Ans: B) ₹40,000

What is the TDS rate applicable when threshold is crossed?

Ans: C) 10%

Who deducts TDS on term deposit interest?

Ans: B) Bank

Can TDS deducted be claimed while filing ITR?

Ans: B) Yes

Under which section can tax saver FD be claimed for deduction?

Ans: B) Section 80C

What is the maximum deduction available under 80C?

Ans: C) ₹1,50,000

What is the lock-in period for tax saver FD?

Ans: D) 5 years

Who can avail the benefit under section 80C?

Ans: C) Any individual taxpayer

e-Collection -85%

Is there any limit restriction for collecting funds from the payers?
Ans: B) No

When are MIS reports typically sent to clients in E-Collection?

Ans: C) Hourly or at End of Day (EOD)
What is the role of the bank in each E-Collection transaction?
Ans: B) Validates each transaction for accuracy and security

What is the prefer length for a virtual account number?

Ans: C) 16 characters

What is the combination of Virtual account number?

Ans: A) Client code + vendor code

How is the virtual account number generated in E-Collection?

Ans: C) Using a combination of client code and vendor code

Which of the following is not a feature of E-Collection MIS reports

Ans: B) Sent only yearly

Which combination is the true for client code generation?

Ans: B) It can be 3,4, or 6 charecters long

What is the primary purpose of E-Collection?

Ans: C) To allow clients to receive funds via RTGS, IMPS, and NEFT using virtual account
numbers

What is the primary benefit of the E-collection product?

Ans: A) It allows clients to collect funds from payers without revealing their actual account
numbers.

What does the e collection offer in terms of MIS ?

Ans: B) Multiple MIS formats and predefined frequency

Which clients benefit the most from E-Collection?

Ans: B) Auto dealerships and high-volume merchants

What is a key benefit of E-Collection for businesses with high transaction volumes?
Ans: B) Faster payment reconciliation

What is e- collection?
Ans: A) Collecting funds in virtual account number from payers for easier reconciliation.

Why is it advised to avoid completely numeric client codes in E-Collection?

Ans: B) They can confuse virtual account generation systems

Find the below mentioned codes identify the correct IFSC code for collecting funds?
Ans: D) All of the above

Which of the following payment methods is NOT supported by E-Collection?

Ans: C) Cash

Which of the following pay modes are available in e-collection?

Ans: B) RTGS,IMPS,NEFT

Which report formats are available for E-Collection MIS?

Ans: B) Excel and XML
Why is it preferred for the virtual account number do not exceed 16 characters?
Ans: B) To remain compatible with all major banks

Orange Pos – 93%

1. ICICI bank POS can be used by what type of merchants?

Ans: C) All of the above
2. ICICI bank POS follows global security standards such as?
Ans: D) Both
3. Does ICICI bank POS have feature of Single Credit Settlement
Ans: A) YES
4. Which ICICI bank POS feature is specifically helpful to international customers?
Ans: A) DCC (Dynamic Currency Conversion)
5. Can billing software and ERP systems be integrated with ICICI Bank POS
Ans: A) YES
6. Is Centralized and Store-level dashboard available with ICICI bank POS
Ans: A) YES
7. Is AMEX available on ICICI Bank POS
Ans: A) YES
8. For Transaction confirmation, does ICICI bank POS provide Duplicate Copy
Ans: A) YES
9. Does Rupay card work on ICICI Bank POS
Ans: A) YES
10. Does ICICI Bank POS have Tap and Pay feature
Ans: A) YES
11. Does ICICI Bank POS provide Location-based report with store-wise identifiers?
Ans: A) YES
12. How many batch settlement summaries can be checked on ICICI bank POS
Ans: D) 30 days
13. Does ICICI Bank POS provide Auto-settlement?
Ans: A) YES
14. Does ICICI Bank POS have Voice Notifications in Mulitple Languages?
Ans: A) YES
15. Using which feature can merchant monitor transactions and Settlements?
Ans: A) Merchant Dashboard
16. Which type of Charge Slip confirmation does ICICI Bank POS provide?
Ans: D) All of the above

Orange Soundbox – 85%

1. Currently how many languages does the sound box support?

Ans: E) Multiple
2. What problem does the Orange Soundbox help solve for merchants like Ramesh?
Ans: B) Fake payment confirmations
3. Which pricing model is available for Orange soundbox?
Ans: C) Both Freedom and normal Rental Plan
4. When is the merchant dashboard updated with transaction details?
Ans: B) Instantaneously
5. Where can the merchant see the amount for transaction done?
Ans: C) Both Merchant facing screen and Dashboard
6. What is the cost structure of the Normal Plan for the soundbox?
Ans: C) Rs. 225 one-time + Rs. 99 monthly
7. Orange soundbox operates through which network system?
Ans: C) Wifi and Sim
8. Why is the Orange Soundbox preferred during peak hours?
Ans: C) It reduces need to manually verify payments
9. What languages can Orange Soundbox support for announcements?
Ans: B) English and Hindi
10. Which team is responsible for validating the merchant background and profile
during the onboarding journey?
Ans: B) Risk Team
11. From where does the merchant download the transaction and settlement reports?
Ans: B) Easypay Plus Merchant Dashboard
12. Where can the merchant see transaction records for reconciliation?
Ans: C) Merchant dashboard
13. UPI has been developed by which entity?
Ans: C) NPCI
14. When is a sound notification triggered on the soundbox?
Ans: B) Realtime
15. Which all SIM network are currently available?

16. Which mode(s) of payment does orange soundbox Support?

Ans: A) UPI
17. Currently, when does the merchant get the funds of successful transactions?
Ans: A) T plus 1
18. Which Team is responsible for validating the deviation , if any, in the offered pricing
to the merchant during the onboarding journey?
Ans: A) Product Team
19. From which team does the request for onboarding a merchant on Easypay Plus
Platform have to be initiated?
Ans: C) Sales Team
20. From which platform can Orange soundbox be onboarded?
Ans: D) Easypay Plus

Auto Loan – Introduction -100%

1. By which year is the Indian Automotive Industry projected to grow to USD 214
Billion?
Ans: D) 2032
2. What is the projected CAGR (Compound Annual Growth Rate) of the Indian
Automotive Industry from 2023 to 2032?
Ans: C) 8.80%
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a market driver for the automobile
industry?
Ans: D) Rise in agricultural exports
4. What percentage of India's GDP is contributed by the automobile industry?
Ans: C) More than 7%
5. What support is provided by the Indian government for the electric vehicle industry?
Ans: A) Tax breaks and subsidies
 API

1. Which industry segment can benefit from ICICI API Banking?

Ans: F) All the above
2. Which of the following is a key benefit of ICICI Bank API Banking?
Ans: C) Real-time integartion of banking services into client systems
3. In ICICI Bank API Banking, what does the e-collection API do?
Ans: B) Automates incoming payments and reconciles them
4. Which of the follwing is NOT a feature of API Banking?
Ans: B) Paper-based fund transfers
5. Which of the following security measures is typically used by ICICI Bank API Banking
to ensure safe transactions?
Ans: B) Use of API keys and OAuth token-based authentication
6. Which of the following APIs is used to retrive account balance details in ICICI API
Banking?
Ans: A) Account Balance API
7. ICICI's API Banking supports which of the following payment modes via APIs?
Ans: F) All the above
8. Which iof the following is a key use case for ICICI Bank's E-Collection API?
Ans: C) Reconcilliation of payments received from multiple parties
9. What is the primary use of the virtual identifier of the Virtual Account collection API
by ICICI bank?
Ans: A) To validate the user from which the payment has been received.
10. Which of the following ICICI Banks API can be used to collect EMIs from customers?
Ans: E) Both C & D
11. ICICI API Banking helps reduce which of the following?
Ans: A) Manual recocilliation efforts
12. ICICI API Banking enables businesses to:
Ans: C) Seamlessly integarte banking within their ERP or platforms
13. ICICI API Banking enables businesses to:
Ans: C) Seamlessly integarte banking within their ERP or platforms
14. Which API would help NBFC to disburse loan through NEFT/FT/RTGS/IMPS/UPI
Payment modes?
Ans: A) Composite Pay API
15. What does API stand for in the context of API banking?
Ans: B) Appliaction Programing Interface
16. What is API Banking?
Ans: B) Banking services accesed via Application Programming Interfaces
17. Which API allows the merchants to get their customers to register recurring or one
time mandate?
Ans: D) ENACH API
18. Which of the following ICICI Bank APIs allows businesses to initiate
NEFT/FT/RTGS/IMPS/ payments with corporate worflows?
Ans: D) CIB API
19. What API service is commonly offered by ICICI Bank?
Ans: C) CIB API
20. ICICI Banks API Banking helps corporates to reconcille their payments automatically.
Ans: A) 1
21. What are the basic pre-requisite for ICICI Bank's API integration?
Ans: E) All the above

Alternate Investment Fund – 100%

1. AIF is ideal for customers seeking:

Ans: B) Exposure to alternative assets
2. What does a pass-through status mean in taxation?
Ans: C) Income is taxed directly in investor's hands
3. What is a unique feature of Category I AIFs?
Ans: C) Focus on socially beneficial sectors
4. How are Category I AIFs taxed?
Ans: C) Income taxed in the hands of investors
5. AIFs are mainly targeted at which type of investors?
Ans: C) Ultra-High Net Worth Individuals
6. Capital protection is:
Ans: C) Not guaranteed in AIFs
7. Which of the following statements is correct about AIF taxation?
Ans: C) Category II is a pass-through
8. How are Category III AIFs different in taxation?
Ans: C) Taxed at fund level at highest rate
9. The structure of an AIF is governed by:
Ans: C) Trust format under SEBI guidelines
10. How are Category III AIFs taxed?
Ans: C) At the fund level as per maximum marginal rate
11. In what legal form is an AIF typically established?
Ans: C) Trust
12. Category II AIF includes:
Ans: C) Real estate and debt
13. Why are AIFs referred to as 'alternative' investments?
Ans: C) They offer options beyond traditional investments
14. Who typically sponsors an AIF?
Ans: B) Asset Management Company
15. The AMC also acts as:
Ans: B) Sponsor
16. What is the role of the investment manager in an AIF?
Ans: C) Manages investment decisions
17. Which statement is true regarding AIFs?
Ans: C) AIFs are suitable for ultra-high net worth investors
18. AIFs allow investments in:
Ans: B) Real estate and private equity
19. Which of the following is a common investment option under AIFs?
Ans: B) Venture Capital
20. AIFs can be used as a proposition to:
Ans: B) Offer traditional investment alternatives
 Bonds – 95%

1. Which type of bonds provides tax exemption under Section 54EC?

Ans: D) 54EC Capital Gain Bonds
2. What happens to the yield when bond prices rise above face value?
Ans: C) Yield decreases
3. A bondholder receives ₹8 annually for a bond bought at ₹80. What is the yield?
Ans: B) 10%
4. Which investor is NOT allowed to invest in RBI Floating Rate Bonds?
Ans: C) NRIs
5. The inverse relationship between bond price and yield means:
Ans: C) Price up, yield down
6. You buy a bond with face value ₹100 and a 10% coupon rate at ₹120. Your effective
yield will be:
Ans: C) Less than 10%
7. Bonds with maturity of less than one year are called:
Ans: B) Short-term Instruments
8. A company wants to raise money without issuing shares. Which instrument might it
choose?
Ans: B) Bond
9. What is the tax implication of interest from RBI Floating Rate Bonds?
Ans: C) Fully taxable
10. Who among the following can invest in 54EC Bonds?
Ans: D) Individuals, HUFs, LLPs, NRIs
11. Which of the following features distinguishes the Primary Market from the Secondary
Market?
Ans: B) Bonds are issued directly by the
12. Which of these is an example of a Corporate Bond instrument?
Ans: C) Commercial Paper
13. What happens to the yield when the bond price rises above the face value?
Ans: C) Yield decreases
14. Which bond allows pre-mature withdrawal for senior citizens based on age brackets?
Ans: C) RBI Floating Rate Bonds
15. Which investor is NOT eligible to invest in RBI Floating Rate Bonds?
Ans: D) NRI
16. Which organization issues 54EC Bonds?
Ans: C) Indian Railway Finance Corporation
17. 54EC Bonds offer exemption on gains from sale of:
Ans: C) Long-term immovable property
18. In bond terms, ‘Face Value’ refers to:
Ans: C) Principal repaid at maturity
19. What is the key relationship between bond prices and yields?
Ans: D) Inverse
20. What is the meaning of “non-transferable” in the context of these bonds?
Ans: C) Cannot be sold or gifted to anyone
 Expression Credit Card - iMobile Pay – 100%

1. What is the joining fee for Expression credit card

Ans: B) Rs 500 + GST
2. Which one is the option available in Expressions credit card?
Ans: D) Both A & B
3. What is special about Expressions credit card?
Ans: A) 1. It is a picture card
4. Which button will leads you towards availing your Expression credit card.
Ans: C) Cards & Forex

Systematic Investment Plan (SIP) – 100%

1. Rupee cost averaging works because:

Ans: C) Market is volatile over time
2. SIP allows which of the following investment frequencies?
Ans: C) Monthly, weekly, or quarterly
3. SIP investing encourages:
Ans: C) Long-term discipline
4. What does the automation in SIP ensure?
Ans: C) Regular investments without action
5. SIPs encourage which type of financial habit?
Ans: C) Regular investing
6. SIP redemption is done by:
Ans: C) Sending instruction to redeem units
7. Compounding in SIP means:
Ans: C) Earnings generate additional earnings
8. SIPs are generally set up to invest at what interval?
Ans: C) Monthly
9. The value of a SIP investment is linked to:
Ans: B) NAV of the mutual fund
10. SIP can be paused or stopped:
Ans: C) At any time without penalty
11. SIP allows increase in investment amount:
Ans: C) Anytime as per investor capacity
12. What determines how many units are bought in a SIP?
Ans: C) NAV on the investment date
13. SIPs can help reduce the average cost of:
Ans: B) Units purchased
14. What is the first action to take when starting a SIP?
Ans: A) Choose a fund based on goals
15. SIP can be invested in:
Ans: C) Equity, debt or hybrid mutual funds
16. SIP is most effective when it is:
Ans: C) Continued for the long term
17. What is a key advantage of investing through a SIP?
Ans: C) Encourages regular investment
18. What happens to SIP units when NAV rises?
Ans: C) Fewer units allocated
19. SIPs are suitable for which of the following goals?
Ans: B) Long-term wealth creation
20. What is the underlying financial principle that leads to wealth creation through SIP?
Ans: C) Compounding

Sovereign Gold Bond – 100%

1. Who cannot invest in SGB?

Ans: D) NRIs
2. Is SGB offered by RBI all time of the year?
Ans: B) No, Only when RBI opens the tranche
3. What is the Minimum Investment required to purchase a unit of SGB
Ans: B) 1gm
4. What is the maximum Investment in SGB that can be made by a resident individual
per PAN per financial year
Ans: B) 4Kgs
5. How is the interest paid to SGB investors?
Ans: C) Semi Annually
6. The capital gains from SGB ,when held till maturity is?
Ans: C) Tax Free
7. SGB can be held in dematerialized or Certificate form?
Ans: A) Yes
8. Can SGB be traded in the secondary markets?
Ans: A) Yes
9. You can invest in SGB using iMobile and Internet Banking ?
Ans: A) Yes
10. Are there making charges in SGB?
Ans: B) No

Working Capital Loan basis GST Returns – 93%

1. What is the maximum ticket size for the Working Capital Loan based on GST returns?
Ans: B) Rs. 2 crore
2. Which of the following facilities is NOT offered under this loan?
Ans: B) Cash Credit
3. How is the loan assessed?
Ans: B) Based on 12 months GST returns and scoring
4. What is the minimum operational vintage required for eligibility?
Ans: B) 2 years
5. How should the Profit After Tax be for eligibility?
Ans: C) Positive
6. Which type of property is NOT accepted as collateral?
Ans: D) Agricultural
7. Is the application process for this loan digital?
Ans: C) Yes
8. What is the purpose of offering this GST-based loan?
Ans: C) To ease the loan process
9. Which of these is NOT a benefit of this loan scheme?
Ans: C) Offline-only application
10. What kind of scoring is used for assessment?
Ans: B) Statistical scoring
11. What is the unique advantage of this loan?
Ans: C) No financials needed
12. Can Nil GST returns be accepted for eligibility?
Ans: C) No
13. Which of the following collateral types is mentioned in the module?
Ans: C) Industrial Property
14. Why is this loan considered hassle-free?
Ans: C) No financials, digital process
15. Are additional documents ever needed?
Ans: D) Yes, depending on the case

Expression Debit Card - iMobile Pay – 100%

1. Which one is the option available in Expressions debit card?

Ans: D) Both A & B
2. What is special about Expressions debit card?
Ans: A) It is a picture card
3. How many variants of Expression debit card is/are present in iMobile Pay app.
Ans: D) Four
4. Which button will leads you towards availing your Expression debit card.
Ans: C) Cards & Forex

Retail Loan Mortgages – 100%

1. What document is required for classifying an enterprise as Micro, Small or Medium

enterprise
Ans: B) Udyam Registration Certificate
2. What is the sanctioned limit for classifying education loan under Priority Sector
Lending
Ans: C) Rs. 20 lakh
3. Which are the eligible categories under Priority Sector
Ans: D) All of the above
4. Which criteria is used to classify an enterprise as Micro, Small or Medium
Ans: C) Both, a & b
5. Which category can be selected while classifying loans to startups that confirms to the
definition of MSME
Ans: B) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
6. Which loans are eligible as Housing, under Priority Sector classification?
Ans: D) a & b
7. Whether following loans are covered under Housing Finance guidelines of RBI?
Ans: C) Both a & b
8. Disbursal of sanctioned housing loans to the builder shall be linked to:
Ans: C) Stages of construction of housing project
9. Whether following exposures are covered under Commercial Real Estate:
Ans: D) All of the above
10. Under Renewable Energy, Bank loans up to a regulatory limit to borrowers for below
purposes eligible for Priority Sector classification:
Ans: D) Both, a & b
 iCRM – 100%

1. A saved appointment cannot be assigned to other users

Ans: B) False
2. Follow ups cannot be scheduled with the customer during appointment closure
Ans: B) False
3. Appointment form is pre populated when we create appointment from which
module/ modules?
Ans: E) All of the above
4. A teams invite can be sent to the customer for the appointment
Ans: A) True
5. Which entity will you select to create an activity for a company account?
Ans: B) Organization
6. Joint visit option can be selected to create an appointment with a subject matter
expert/ colleague
Ans: A) True

Third Party Products and Government Agency Business -100%

1. What among of the following is the regulator for the insurance industry in India
ans: B) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2. Which is a method of risk transfer
ans: B) Insurance
3. Which of the following statement is True
ans: D) Insurance pays when there is loss of asset
4. Which of the following insurance is mandatory in India
ans: C) Motor Insurance for third party
5. Who bears investment risk in case of ULIP
ans: B) Insured
6. Insurance is part of which industry
ans: B) Financial service
7. Who among following is eligible for investing in savings schemes (PPF, SSY etc.)
ans: A) Resident Individual
8. How much tax benefit u/s 80C is available for investing in PPF
ans: B) 150,000
9. Which of the following is the benefit of investing in SGB
ans: D) All of Above
10. Which of the following is maximum limit for GMS investment
ans: D) No limit

SuperBIZ – 93%

1. Can SuperBIZ be availed for a new entity based on co-applicant’s income?

ans: B) Yes
2. Which of the following is a fund-based facility under SuperBIZ?
ans: B) Cash Credit
3. Which of these is a non-fund-based facility under SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Bank Guarantee
4. What type of loan is included under SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Working Capital
5. What’s the key pitch point of SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Smart & Flexible Credit
6. What is the maximum credit limit offered under SuperBIZ?
ans: C) ₹15 crore
7. How is interest optimized in SuperBIZ?
ans: B) On utilized amount only
8. What is the benefit of considering co-applicant’s income?
ans: C) Higher eligible limit
9. Is digital processing available for SuperBIZ?
ans: A) Yes
10. What is Dropline Overdraft categorized as?
ans: B) Fund-based facility
11. Which properties are accepted as collateral under SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Residential & Commercial
12. What document is required from both applicant and co-applicant?
ans: D) CIBIL Report
13. Who can avail SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Business owners
14. What is one key benefit of SuperBIZ's interest structure?
ans: C) Interest is charged only on utilized amount
15. Who can be a co-applicant under SuperBIZ?
ans: C) Either individuals or entities

Introduction to – iMobile – 100%

1. How can users access the iMobile app securely?

ans: B) Through fingerprint, MPIN, or Face ID
2. What is the primary purpose of the ICICI Bank iMobile app?
ans: C) Mobile banking and financial services
3. Which of the following services is NOT offered by the iMobile app?
ans: D) Playing music and videos
4. What does the ‘iMobile Pay’ feature in the app enable?
ans: C) Payments and UPI transfers from any bank account

Bill Pay iMobile – 100%

1. What is the purpose of registering a bill?

ans: C) Monthly reminders
2. Where can customer access registered bills?
ans: D) A & C
3. Which tile should be accessed on iMobile Pay to pay your bills & do recharge?
ans: B) Bill Pay & Recharge
4. What payment options are available for paying bill on ICICI retail & corporate
platforms?
ans: D) All
5. How much platform fees is charged on iMobile Pay for paying bills?
ans: A) Zero fees
 Upgrade Debit Card - iMobile Pay – 80%

1. What is the next step after clicking "Cards & Forex" in iMobile Pay app to upgrade
your debit card
ans: C) Upgrade Debit Card
2. Which button you have to click for final submission of Debit Card upgrade request
ans: B) Submit
3. What benefits you will get on your upgraded debit card
ans: D) All of the above
4. Which button will leads you towards upgrading your debit card.
ans: C) Cards & Forex
5. How many variants of debit card Upgrade is/are present in iMobile pay app.
ans: C) Three

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS

### 1. Direct Taxes Can be collected through online mode only.

*B. False*

Direct taxes can be collected through both online and offline modes. While online
payment is increasingly popular and convenient, taxpayers can still pay their taxes
offline at authorized bank branches using challans.

***

### 2. There is a limit of Rs. 10,000 for GST Tax Payment through NEFT/RTGS mode of
payment.

*B. False*

There is no such limit for GST tax payment through NEFT/RTGS. Payments can be made
for any amount, with NEFT typically being used for transactions up to ₹2 lakh and RTGS
for amounts above ₹2 lakh.

***

### 3. ICICI Bank is entitled to an income of Rs. collected (offline collection) and Rs. per
challan per challan (online collection).
 *A. 40 and 9*

ICICI Bank, as a designated agent for government business, is entitled to a service fee
of ₹40 per challan for offline (over-the-counter) collections and ₹9 per challan for
online collections.

***

### 4. A Direct Tax is kind of charge, which is imposed directly on the tax payer.

*A. True*

A direct tax is a tax that is paid directly to the government by the individual or
organization on whom it is imposed. Examples include income tax and corporate tax.

***

### 5. Entry of MOCA is done by branches in

*A. I-Core*

The entry for Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) taxes, often referred to as MOCA, is
done by bank branches in the *I-Core* application, which is the core banking system
used for various transaction types.

***

### 6. Challans tendered with cash must be processed on the day.

*B. Same*

All challans tendered with cash must be processed on the *same day* of tender. This
is a critical regulatory requirement to ensure timely and accurate reconciliation of
government revenues.

***
 ### 7. For GST payment through NEFT/RTGS, entry also needs to be done in GIB
Collections application

*A. True*

Yes, even for GST payments made via NEFT/RTGS, a corresponding entry must be
made in the GIB (Government Institutional Business) Collections application for proper
tracking, reconciliation, and reporting.

***

### 8. In Delhi, TAX collection is done only through mode.

*A. Online*

In the Union Territory of Delhi, tax collection is done only through the *online* mode.
The Delhi government has mandated that all tax payments be made electronically.

***

### 9. PAN enables the department to link all transactions of the 'person' with the
department.

*A. True*

The Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a unique identifier that acts as a central key.
It allows the Income Tax Department to link all financial transactions of a person,
including tax payments, investments, and other financial activities, to their tax records.

***

### 10. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a ten digit alpha-numeric number issued
by Income Tax Department.

*A. True*
PAN is a unique 10-digit alphanumeric number issued by the Income Tax Department
to all taxpayers in India.

***

### 11. Branch needs to check the GST challan for which of these details before
processing the request

*D. All of the above*

Before processing a GST challan, the branch must verify all critical details, including the
*expiry date, the **Bank Name, the **Mode of Payment, and the **Amount*, to
ensure that the payment is valid and correctly processed.

***

### 12. is responsible for formulating and enforcing direct taxes in India.

*B. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)*

The *Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)* is a statutory authority under the Ministry
of Finance. It is responsible for the administration and collection of direct taxes,
including income tax.

***

### 13. Entry of Central Tax is done by branches in

*A. I-Core*

Similar to other tax collections, the entry for Central Tax is also done by bank branches
in the *I-Core* application.

***
 ### 14. Tax can be accepted by ICICI Bank.

*A. Ministry of Corporate Affairs Tax*

ICICI Bank is authorized to accept *Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) Tax*. Ministry
of Civil Aviation Tax is not a recognized tax collection type handled by banks.

***

### 15. Income Tax comes under

*A. Direct Tax*

Income tax is a tax on a person's income, paid directly to the government, and
therefore falls under the category of *Direct Tax*.

***

### 16. has appointed ICICI Bank as an agent for the conduct of Government Business.

*A. RBI*

The *Reserve Bank of India (RBI)*, on behalf of the Government of India, has
appointed various public and private sector banks, including ICICI Bank, as agents to
conduct government business, which includes the collection of taxes.

***

### 17. GST tax payment can be done only through authorised branches.

*A. True*

For offline payments, GST tax can only be paid at specific bank branches that have
been authorized by the GST Council to accept these payments.

***
 ### 18. Ministry of Corporate Affairs Tax can be accepted by ICICI Bank.

*A. True*

As an authorized bank for government business, ICICI Bank is authorized to accept and
process payments for the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), including taxes and
fees.

Agri Infra Fund – 80%

1. How long is the moratorium period under AIF loans?

ans: D) 6 months
2. What is the effective interest rate of term loan facility under AIF after subvention?
ans: C) 6%
3. How many projects can a borrower undertake under AIF?
ans: C) 25
4. Which portal lists the eligible projects under AIF?
ans: B) Agri Infra Portal
5. Which scheme provides credit guarantee under AIF?
ans: B) CGTMSE
6. What is the funding limit per project under AIF?
ans: C) ₹2 crore
7. What is the maximum ticket size for a project under AIF?
ans: A) ₹2 crores
8. What is the total cap of funding per borrower under AIF?
ans: D) ₹30 crore
9. Who manages the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund?
ans: A) NABARD
10. What is the facility type available under AIF?
ans: B) Overdrafts/Cash Credit and Term Loans
11. What is the minimum business vintage required for eligibility?
ans: B) 2 years
12. What percentage of the project cost must the borrower contribute?
ans: D) 25%
13. Which of the following is an eligible project under AIF?
ans: C) Cold chain infrastructure
14. What is the standard interest rate under AIF before subvention?
ans: C) 9%
15. When was the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) launched?
ans: B) 2020