22-12-2025

2302CMD303031250017 MD

PHYSICS

1) Statement-1 : In uniform circular motion acceleration is constant.

Statement-2 : In uniform circular motion, angular acceleration is constant.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

2) Find angular velocity of A w.r.t. O at the instant shown in the figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The speed of a particle moving in a circle of radius r = 4m varies with time as v = 2t2. (t in
second v m/s). Find radial and tangential acceleration at t = 2 seconds. (in S.I. unit)

(1) 32 & 8
(2) 34 & 16
(3) 8 & 16
(4) 16 & 8

4) A highly elastic ball moving at a speed of 3 m/s approaches a wall moving towards it with a speed
of 3 m/s. After the collision, the speed of the ball will be :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) zero

5) In the figure shown a small ball hits obliquely with a smooth and horizontal surface with speed U,

whose x and y components are indicated. If the coefficient of restitution is , then its x and y

components Vx and Vy just after collision are respectively :-

(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

(2) 2 m/s, 2 m/s
(3) 2 m/s, 1 m/s
(4) 1 m/s, 2 m/s

6) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

Momentum of each particle

(A) remains conserved in (P) Perfectly elastic collision
collision

Total kinetic energy of

(B) system remains conserved (Q) Perfectly inelastic collision
before and after collision

Both the bodies stick

(C) (R) Inelastic collision
together after collision

(D) 0<e<l
(1) A → P, B → R, C → Q
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R
(3) B → P, C → Q, D → R
(4) B → Q, C → P, D → R

7) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the

rod is :-

(1) g/L
(2) 2g/L

(3)

(4)

8) A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The
torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is :

(1) 2 × 10–6 N m
(2) 2 × 10–3 N m
(3) 12 × 10–4 N m
(4) 2 × 106 N m

9) A solid spherical ball rolls on an inclined plane without slipping. The ratio of rotational energy and
total energy is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Four identical uniform solid spheres each of same mass 'M' and radius 'R' are placed touching
each other as shown in figure with centres A, B, C, D. IA, IB, IC, ID are the moment of inertia of these
spheres respectively about an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane, then
(1) IA > IB > IC > ID
(2) ID > IC > IB > IA
(3) IA = ID > IB = IC
(4) IA = ID < IB = IC

11) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Find gravitational field at point (2, 3) if gravitational potential is given by V = 5x2y.

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The escape velocity on a planet with radius double that of earth and mean density equal to that
of earth will be (escape velocity on earth = 11.2 km/sec) :-

(1) 11.2 km/sec

(2) 22.4 km/sec
(3) 5.5 km/sec
(4) 15.5 km/sec

14) A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities ρ1 and ρ2, respectively. A solid
ball, made of a material of density ρ3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position

shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 ?

(1) ρ1 > ρ3 > ρ2

(2) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3
(3) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2
(4) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2

15) A tank is filled with water up to height H. Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the
walls at a depth D below the surface of water. Express the horizontal distance x in terms of H and D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the
velocity ' v ' of the fluid is :

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

17) The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If

YA and YB are the Young's moduli of the materials, than

(1) YB = 2YA
(2) YA = YB
(3) YB = 3YA
(4) YA = 3YB
18) A U-tube with both ends open to the atmosphere is partially filled with water. Oil which is
immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water
level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram),

the density of the oil is

(1) 650 kg m-3

(2) 425 kg m-3
(3) 800 k g m-3
(4) 928 kg m-3

19) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's modulus of steel and brasss wires in the figure are a, b

and c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths woulds be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4cm). If the work done is
3 × 10–4J, the value of surface tension of the liquid is.

(1) 0.2 N/m

(2) 8.0 N/m
(3) 0.250 N/m
(4) 0.125 N/m

21) A soap film of surface tension 3 × 10–2 N/m formed in a rectangular frame can support a wire as

shown in the figure. If g = 10 ms–2 then the mass of the wire is :-

(1) 0.006 g
(2) 0.06 g
(3) 0.6 g
(4) 6 g

22) The internal energy of 2 moles of a monoatomic gas at temp. T is :-

(1)

(2) 3 RT
(3) 2 RT
(4) 5 RT

23) Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 > d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated

(1) both d1 and d2 will decrease

(2) both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase

24) If 10 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 g water at 20°C, the final temperature will be :-

(1) 50°C
(2) 10°C
(3) 0°C
(4) 15°C

25) Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as
shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C
respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be :

(1) 45°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 30°C
(4) 20°C

26) A solid sphere is supplied heat at a constant rate. The temp. of material is charging with heat

input as shown in figure. what does slope BC represent :

(1) Latent heat of fusion

(2) Latent heat of vaporization
(3) Heat Capacity of vapour
(4) Inverse of heat capacity of liquid

27) Four rods with different radii r and length are used to connet two reservoirs of heat at
different temperatures. Which one will conduct more heat?

(1) r = 1 cm, = 1m
(2) r = 2 cm, = 2m
(3) r = 1 cm, = 1/2 m
(4) r = 2 cm, = 1/2 m

28) The work done by a gas taken through that closed process ABCA is.

(1) 6P0V0
(2) 4P0V0
(3) P0V0
(4) Zero
29) For an ideal P-V graph is given then :-

(1) Temperature is constant

(2) Temperature is decreasing continuously
(3) Temperature is increasing continuously
(4) Temperature first increases then decreases

30) For the given arrangement if all surfaces are frictionless then acceleration of 2 kg block will be :

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2

(3)
m/s2

(4)
m/s2

31)

A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is µ.
The acceleration a of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A particle of mass m moves with constant speed v on a circular path of radius r as shown in
figure. The average force on its during its motion from A to B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The rate of doing work by force acting on a particle moving along x-axis depends on position x of
particle and is equal to 2x. The velocity of particle is given by expression :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U = where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of field for the equilibrium. The distance of
particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) W , W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three different
1
paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational influence of a point mass m, find the
correct relation between W1, W2 and W3.

(1) W1 > W2 > W3

(2) W1 = W2 = W3
(3) W1 < W2 < W3
(4) W1 > W2 < W3

36) A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it given by S = (in m).
Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 24 J

37) A lift starts from rest. Its acceleration is plotted against time. When it comes to rest its height
above its starting point is :

(1) 20 m
(2) 64 m
(3) 32 m
(4) 36 m

38) Three projectiles A, B and C thrown from the same point in the same plane and their trajectories

are shown in the figure then which of the following statement is true?
(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is largest for particle C
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) All of the above

39) A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at time t is given by x2 = 2 + t. Its
acceleration is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between
them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

41) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) If y = 4x2 + 2x then graph between and x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) The main scale of vernier calliper has 20 divisions in 1 cm. If 4 division of main scale coincide
with 5 divisions of vernier scale. The least count of vernier calliper is :

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 1 cm

44) If the three vectors are coplanar and then value of

x is :-

(1) 36/21
(2) –51/32
(3) 51/32
(4) –36/21

45) If the resultant of two forces of magnitudes P and Q acting at a point at an angle of 60° is ,
then P/Q is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3/2
(3) 2
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to produce 11.2 litre CO2 :-

(1) 50 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 52.6 g
(4) 25 g

2) A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is :

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 48

3) How many atoms are present in 1 mole of Ca(OH)2 ?

(1) 30 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms

(2) 5 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms
(3) 6 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms
(4) 6.02 × 1023 atoms

4) The ratio of specific charge (e/m) of an electron to that of hydrogen ion is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1837 : 1
(3) 1 : 1837
(4) 2 : 1

5) The ratio of the radii of first orbits of H, He+ and Li2+ is :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 4 : 9
(4) 9 : 4 : 1

6) Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +

7) In Cr(24) atom, Find out the number of unpaired electrons with n = 3 and m = +1 :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

8) Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order of electron gain enthalpy
(with negative sign) of the given atomic species.

(1) Cl < F < S < O

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F
(4) F < Cl < O < S

9) Three successive I.P. value of an element is 7.5 eV, 15 eV and 85 eV. The most stable oxidation
state of element is (IP-ionizatin potential) :

(1) M+
(2) M+2
(3) M+3
(4) cannot predicted

10)

Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity.

N, O, F, C, Si
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Si < C < N < O < F

(2) Si < C < O < N < F
(3) O < F < N < C < Si
(4) F < O < N < C < Si

11) Which pair of species has identical bond angle?

(1)
(2) CO2, SiO2
(3) BF3, BrF3
(4)

12) Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3 (ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3 (iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv

13) Dipole moment of is 1.5D predict the dipole moment of

(1) 3 D
(2) 2.35 D
(3) 1.5 D
(4) 1 D

14) Which order of dipole moment is correct ?

(1) CCl4 < CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3

(2) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) BF3 > NH3 > NF3
o-dichlorobenzene < m-dichlorobenzene
(4)
< p-dichloro benzene

15) The lattice energy of the lithium halide is in the following order :

(1) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI

(2) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI
(3) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
(4) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

16) Order of bond strength is correct :-

(a) N2 (b) N2– (c) N2+

(1) a < b < c

(2) c < b < a
(3) b < c < a
(4) b = c < a

17) In which of the following molecules only π-bond is present :-

(1) O2, F2
(2) N2, O2
(3) B2, C2
(4) H2, O2

18) Oxidation number of central bromine in Br3O8 is

(1) + 1
(2) + 2
(3) + 4
(4) + 6

19) Which of the following is disproportionation reaction :-

2– + 2–
(1) 2CrO4 + 2H → Cr2O7 + H2O
(2) CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4] SO4
 – – –
(3) 2NO2 + 2OH → NO2 + NO3 + H2O
(4) Cr2O72– + → 2CrO42– + H2O

20) Consider the following reaction :

The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively :-

(1) 2, 5 and 16
(2) 5, 2 and 8
(3) 5, 2 and 16
(4) 2, 5 and 8

21)

Calculate cell potential at 298 K for the following galvanic cell

(1) 0.38
(2) – 0.38
(3) 0.36
(4) – 0.36

22) The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for electrolyte BA and CA are 140 and 120
S cm eq . The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for BX is 198 S cm2 eq–1 The
2 –1
(in units
2 –1
of S cm eq ) of CX is :-

(1) 178
(2) 198
(3) 218
(4) 130

23) Which of the following statements is not correct:-

(1) The conductance of one cm3 of a solution is called specific conductance

(2) Specific conductance increases while molar conductivity decreases on dilution.
The limiting molar conductivity of weak electrolyte cannot be determined exactly by
(3)
extrapolation of the plot of against .
(4) The conductance of metals is due to the movement of free electrons.

24)

If Then what is the value of :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2x1 + x2

25)

EMF values for some ions is given as :

Determine the value of E° for :-

(1) 1.84 V
(2) 1.6 V
(3) 2.52 V
(4) 7.36 V

26) AB3(g) dissociates as AB3(g) ⇌ AB2(g) + B2(g)

When the initial pressure of AB3 is 800 torr and the total pressure developed at equilibrium is 900
torr. What percentage of AB3(g) is dissociated?

(1) 10 %
(2) 20 %
(3) 25 %
(4) 30 %

27) At constant pressure the addition of argon to N2+3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 will

(1) Shift the equilibrium in forward direction

(2) Shift the equilibrium in backward direction
(3) Not affect the equilibrium
(4) Stop the reaction

28) What is the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 4×10–13) in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution :-

(1) 10–6
(2) 10–7
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 2×10–7

29) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.25 M HA solution?(Ka = 4 × 10–8)

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–4

30) A 50 ml solution of strong acid of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 ml solution of strong acid of pH = 2.

The pH of the mixture will be nearly (log 5.5 = 0.74)

(1) 0.74
(2) 1.26
(3) 1.76
(4) 1.5

31) 0.1M CH3COOH is titrated against 0.1M NaOH. What would be the difference in pH between 1/4
and 3/4 stages of neutralisation of acid :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2log 3

32) Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis :-

(1) CuSO4
(2) NH4Cl
(3) FeCl3
(4) Na2CO3

33) The work done by a system is 8 J, when 40 J heat is supplied to it. The change in internal energy
of the system in the process is :-

(1) 32 J
(2) 40 J
(3) 36 J
(4) 44 J

34)

Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1mol–1. For the reaction, ,
If ΔH = –30 KJ, to be at equilibrium the temperature will be :-

(1) 1250 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 1000 K
35) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) ΔHHydration

(B) (Q) ΔHneutralisation

(C) (R) ΔHformation

(D) (S) ΔHcombustion

(1) A → S, B → R, C → P, D → Q
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R, D → S
(3) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
(4) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P

36) Bond energies of X2 & Y2 are 100 and 200 kJ/mol respectively then calculate bond energy of XY.
If enthalpy of formation of XY is –50 kJ/mol.

(1) 100 kJ/mol

(2) 50 kJ/mol
(3) 200 kJ/mol
(4) 150 kJ/mol

37) Which of following solution is example of positive deviation-

(1) C6H6 + C6H5CH3

(2) Ph–OH + Ph–NH2
(3) H2O + C2H5OH
(4) C6H5Cl + C6H5Br

38) 2 m aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionized. The boiling point of the solution is
(Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg/mol) :-

(1) 375.08 K
(2) 394.04 K
(3) 405.2 K
(4) 390.2 K

39) Effective collisions are those in which molecules must :-

(1) Have energy equal to or greater than the threshold energy

(2) Have proper orientation
(3) Acquire the energy of activation
(4) All of these
40) 99.99% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minute, when 99.90% of the reaction will
complete :

(1) 48 min.
(2) 24 min.
(3) 64 min.
(4) None of these

41) Plot of t1/2 and [A]0 is a straight line parallel to x-axis, the order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

42) For zero order reaction relation between t1/2 and t1/4 is :-

(1) t1/2 = 2 t1/4

(2) t1/2 = 1.5 t1/4

(3)
t1/2 = t1/4

(4)
t1/2 = t1/4

43) In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y, X + 3Y → XY3 The initial rates are reported as
follows –

[X] [Y] Rate

0.1 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1

0.2 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.3 M 0.2 M 0.008 Ms–1
0.4 M 0.3 M 0.018 Ms–1
The rate law is –
(1) r = K[X][Y]3
(2) r = K[X]°[Y]2
(3) r = K[X][Y]
(4) r = [X]°[Y]3

44) How many of the following are planar ?

XeF2, ClF3, H2O, [XeF5]–, I3–, BCl3, XeF4, SF4, PCl5, SF6, IF7.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 4
45) If ‘X’ is ionization energy of hydrogen then the energy required for excitation of electron of
Li2+ ion from 2nd excited state to 5th excited state is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

1) The thallus of liverwort is usually

A. Dorsiventral
B. Closely appressed to substrate
C. Diploid

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only A & B are correct
(3) Only B & C are correct
(4) All are correct

2) Which of the followings is/are symbiotic associations between autotrophic and heterotrophic
organisms only
(A) Mycorrhiza between fungi and roots of higher plants
(B) Lichen between phycobiont and mycobiont.
(C) Coralloid roots of Cycas having cyanobacteria
(D) Obligate association between Pinus roots and fungi making mycorrhizae.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A, B & D

3) Consider the following statements :

(a) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction
(b) Belongs to pheophyceae
(c) Major pigments - Chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin
(d) Food is stored in the form of floridean starch
(e) Flagella-Absent
How many statements are true about Fucus :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two
4) The four sketches (A,B, C and D) given below represent four different organisms. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct stored food and class ?

Name of Stored
Class
Organism Food
(1) (D) Nostoc Glycogen Myxophyceae
Floridean
(2) (A) Volvox Chlorophyceae
starch
(3) (B) Laminaria Starch Phaeophyceae
Floridean
(4) (C) Polysiphonia Rhodophyceae
starch
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Non-membrane bound organelles found in all type of cells is/are –

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centriole
(3) ER
(4) both (1) and (2)

6) The quasi-fluid nature of membrane is due to

(1) Carbohydrate or Sugar

(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Lipid and Carbohydrate

7) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Mitochondria, unless specificialy stained are not easily visible under the microscope
(2) Physiolosical activity of cells determines the number of mitochondria per cell
(3) the mitochondria divide by fission
(4) the outer membrane forms number of infolding called cristae.

8) Select the correct statement regarding cytoskeleton

An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structure present in the cytoplasm of

(1)
prokaryotic cell is collectively reffered to as the cytoskeleton
(2) Cytoskeleton involved in mechanical support, motility and maintenance of the shape of the cell
(3) Microtubules are part of endomembrane system.
(4) None of these

9) How many in the list given below are true part of ground tissue system.
Epidermis, Hypodermis, Root hair, Endodermis, Trichome, General Cortex, Stomata, Medullary
Rays, Xylem, Pith, Phloem

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

10) Identify the following cell organelle show below as well as its structure and function and select

the right option for the two together :-

Structure Functions

(1) Double membrane bound Protein synthesis

(2) Network of protein filaments Mechanical support

Glycolipids & glycoproteins

(3) Many flat, disc shapaed - cisterne
synthesis

(4) Granular (Attached ribosomes) Protein synthesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Assertion :- In dicot stem endarch type of primary xylem are present.
Reason :- When proto-xylem situated towards central region is called endarch.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Carefully observe the given diagram and select the correct option.
I. The epidermis which covers both adaxial epidermis and abaxial epidermis of leaf has a
conspicuous cuticle.
II. Mesophyll possesses chloroplasts and carry out photosynthesis, is made up parenchyma.
III. Vascular bundles are surrounded by layer of thin walled bundle sheath cell.
IV. The tissue between the upper and lower epidermis is called the mesophyll.

(1) II, III, IV only

(2) I, II, IV only
(3) I, II, III only
(4) All of these

13) The cortex of stem, particularly in dicots, is differentiated into :-

(1) Epidermis, hypodermis and endodermis

(2) Epidermis, cuticle and endodermis
(3) Epidermis, general cortex and endodermis
(4) Hypodermis, general cortex and endodermis

14) How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after S and after G2 phase, if gamete formed by
it has 8 chromosome.

(1) 16, 16, 16

(2) 16, 16, 8
(3) 8, 8, 8
(4) 8, 16, 16

15) The potato spindle viroid (PSV) contain :-

(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat

(2) Double stranded DNA with protein coat
(3) Single stranded RNA without protein coat
(4) Double stranded RNA with protein coat

16) Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) Nucleus is present in both plant and animal cells.
(B) All chromosomes have a staining secondary constriction at constant location.
(C) Each centriole has an organisation like cartwheel in longitudinal section
(D) Matrix of mitochondria contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrate only.

(1) A only
(2) B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C & D

17) Statement - I :- The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis
in dorsiventral leaf
Statement - II :- The palisade parenchyma is placed abaxially and the spongy parenchyma is placed
adaxially in Isobilateral leaf.
Options -

(1) Both statement - I & II are correct.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I & II are incorrect.

18) Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories :-

Common
Family Order Class Phylum/Division
name

Man Hominidae Primata Mammalia A

Housefly Muscidae Diptera B Arthropoda

Mango C Sapindales Dicotyledonae Angiospermae

Wheat Poaceae Poales D Angiospermae

Select the correct option for A, B, C and D.
(1) A–Chordata, B–Insecta, C–Anacardiaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
(2) A–Animalia, B–Arachnida, C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae
(3) A–Chordata, B–Arachnida, C–Polygonaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
(4) A–Non-chordata, B–Insecta, C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae

19) You are given with various categories of classification of housefly. Arrange them in correct
sequence of taxonomic hierarchy starting from the lowest category:
(a) Muscidae
(b) insecta
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Musca
(e) Diptera
(f) Animalia

(1) f→c→b→e→a→d
(2) d→a→b→c→e→f
(3) d→a→e→b→c→f
(4) d→b→c→a→e→f

20) Mark the wrong statement.

(1) Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive characteristics
(2) Plant families are put in similar order on the basis of similar floral characters
(3) Felidae and Canidae are included in similar order Mammalia
(4) Fishes, birds, amphibians are included in same Phylum

21) If a cell undergoing mitosis has 10 pg of DNA and 16 chromosomes in G1 then which of the
following is correct ?

(1) S-phase will have 5 pg of DNA

(2) The cell at anaphase stage will have 20 pg of DNA and a total of 32 chromosomes
(3) G2-phase will have 8 chromosomes in a cell
(4) The cell at metaphase will have 10 pg of DNA and a total of 16 chromosomes

22) Select the correct matches :-

(a) S-phase – DNA replication
(b) Zygotene – Synapsis
(c) Diplotene – Crossing over
(d) Meiosis – Both haploid and diploid cells
(e) Gap 2 phase – Quiescent stage

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) c and e
(4) a, c and e

23) condensation of chromosomes is completed in

(1) Early Prophase

(2) Late Prophase
(3) Transition to Metaphase
(4) Metaphase

24) The figures below show three stages (A, B, C) of mitotic division. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents ?

Options :-

(1) B-Individual chromosomes can no longer be seen

(2) A-Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) C-Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(4) B-Chromosomes consist of one chromatid

25) Ray florets of sunflower have

(1) Superior ovary

(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Inferior ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary

26) The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of pea (Pisum Sativum) is :-

(1) Polyadelphous
(2) Monadelphous
(3) Diadelphous
(4) Polyandrous

27)

List some of the plants is given below:

Tomato, Potato, Lupinus, Soyabean, Triticum, Asparagus, Atropa, Petunia

Out of them, how many plants possesses swollen placenta, bicarpellary gynoecium, superior ovary
and axile placentation ?
(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

28) The correct floral formula of chilli is :-

(1) K(5) C5 A5

(2)

(3) K(5) C(5) A(5)

(4) K5 C5 A(5)

29) In unisexual flowers how many whorls

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

30) Read the following 4 statement A-D and select the option which includes correct ones :-
(A) Stipules are small leaf like structure present at the base of petiole.
(B) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called pulvinus.
(C) The veins are parallel in parallel venation. (D) Leaf orginates from root apical meristem.

(1) Statement A, B, C
(2) Statement B, C, D
(3) Statement C, D
(4) Statement A, C, D

31) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Photolysis of water takes place in the lumen of thylakoid when cyclic photophosphorylation
takes.
(B) In the stroma lamellae, both PS I & PS II are present
(C) Reducing power which are generated during the light reaction are utilized in the stroma of the
chloroplast.
(D) When only light of wavelength beyond 680 nm are available then only ATP is formed.
How many of the above statement are right ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

32) In green plants _A_ is the hydrogen donor and is oxidized to _B_ :-

(1) A-CO2 , B-O2

(2) A-H2O, B-CO2
(3) A-H2O, B-O2
(4) A-O2 , B-CO2

33) Stroma is the site of :-

(1) Light reaction

(2) Cyclic ETS
(3) Light independent reaction
(4) TCA-cycle

34) Two plants A and B are supplied with CO2 with H2O18 and CO218 with H2O respectively. Which of
the following plants releases O18 type oxygen in photosynthesis ?

(1) A plant
(2) B plant
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) First A and then B plant

35) The chemiosmotic hypothesis has been put forward to explain the mechanism of:

(1) ATP synthesis

(2) NADH synthesis
(3) Sugar synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

36) Which of the following is incorrect:

(1) In maize, calvin cycle occur in mesophyll cells

(2) Hatch and slack pathway occurs in sorghum
(3) During hatch and slack pathway aspartic acid formed in mesophyll cells
(4) During calvin, 3-phosphoglycerate is formed in mesophyll cell

37) Two to eight flagella are present in the zoospore of :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) All of the above

38) Prothallus is :-

(1) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and thalloid gametophyte of bryophytes

(2) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid gametophyte of pteridophytes
(3) Conspicuous, multicellular, large and thalloid gametophyte of bryophytes
(4) Inconspicuous, multicellular, small and photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte of pteridophytes

39) Which of the following structures are haploid in gymnosperms?

(1) Pollen grain, Megaspore, Embryo

(2) Pollen grain, Megaspore, Endosperm
(3) Megaspore, leaf, root
(4) Leaf, root, integument

40) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

41) NADP reductase enzyme is located :-

(1) Inside stroma of chloroplast

(2) Inside lumen of thylakoids
(3) Outer side of stroma lamellae
(4) Outer side of grana thylakoids membrane

42) In the Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary fixation of atmospheric CO2, Regeneration of
phosphoenol pyruvate and decarboxylation of C4 acid occurs respectively in -

(1) Mesophyll cell, bundle sheath cell and mesophyll cell

(2) Bundle sheath cell, mesophyll cell and bundle sheath cell
(3) Mesophyll cell, mesophyll cell and bundle sheath cell
(4) Bundle sheath cell, bundle sheath cell and mesophyll cell

43) To produce one fructose, respectively how many ATP, NADPH and CO2 are required during dark
reaction of C4 plants ?

(1) 36, 18 and 12

(2) 18, 12 and 6
(3) 30, 12 and 6
(4) 30, 18 and 12

44) Choose the correct option with respect to A, B, C & D given in the
diagram.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
45)
Which of the following is correctly labelled for the given figure ?

(1) A : PSII : B : PSI : C : e-acceptor : D : LHC

(2) A : LHC : B : e– acceptor : C : PSI : D : PSII
(3) A : PSI : B : PSII : C: e-acceptor : D : LHC
(4) A : e-acceptor : B : LHC : C : PSII : D : PSI

ZOOLOGY

1) The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in :

(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles

(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

2) Identify A, B and C in the diagramatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Select the correct option from the following :

(1) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Hormone-receptor Complex, C-Protein

(2) A-Protein Hormone, B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP
(3) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Receptor, C - Second Messenger
A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP,
(4)
C-Hormone-receptor Complex
3) All of the following are parts of forebrain, except

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Association areas
(4) Hypothalamus

4) Match the following joints with the bones involved:

(a) Gliding joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(b) Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas and Axis

(c) Pivot joint (iii) Between the carpals

(d) Saddle joint (iv) Between Humerus and Ulna.

Select the correct option from the following:

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), d-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(iv)

5) The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner medullary interstitium is maintained due to :
(i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta
(ii) Counter current mechanism
(iii) Selective secretion of HCO3¯ and hydrogen ions in PCT
(iv) Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries

(1) Only (ii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

6) Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in
humans :
(a) Platelets (b) Neutrophils
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Eosinophils
(e) Monocytes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (c), (a), (b), (e), (d)

(2) (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
(3) (d), (e), (b), (a), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

7) Assertion (A): Secondary metabolites such as alkaloids, flavonoids, and pigments have no known
physiological role in the host organism.
Reason (R): Secondary metabolites are considered useless by-products of metabolism.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

8) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the ends of the sarcomere.
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine.
(3) Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding sites.
(4) Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament.

9) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below:

Column I Column II

a Glycosuria i Accumulation of uric acid in joints

Mass of crystallised salts within the

b Gout ii
kidney

c Renal calculi iii Inflammation in glomeruli

d Glomerular nephritis iv Presence of glucose in urine

a b c d

1 iii ii iv i

2 i ii iii iv

3 ii iii i iv

4 iv i ii iii

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates, why ?

(1) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adult of some chordates.

(2) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in some chordates.
(3) All chordates possess vertebral column.
(4) All chordates possess notochord throughout their life.

11) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?
 (1) Medulla oblongata controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

consists of fibre tracts that

(2) Limbic system interconnect different regions of brain;
controls movement.

production of releasing hormones and regulation

(3) Hypothalamus
of temperature, hunger and thirst.

band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral

(4) Corpus callosum
hemispheres.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

Located between
(a) Floating Ribs (i)
second and seventh ribs

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus

(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle

Do not connect
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv)
with the sternum

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited ?

(1) Tetany
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Botulism

14) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

 The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous
(1)
contraction of the atria
(2) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
(3) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
(4) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

15) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance

(b) Globulin (ii) Blood clotting

(c) Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

(a) (b) (c)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following is a nucleic acid that acts as an enzyme?

(1) Apoenzyme
(2) Coenzyme
(3) Ribozyme
(4) Deoxyribonucleic acid

17) Which of the following is not an example of simple lipid?

(1) CH3—(CH2)14—COOH

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) Which of the following conditions cause erythroblastosis foetalis ?

(1) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh–ve

(2) Mother Rh–ve and foetus Rh+ve
(3) Both mother and foetus Rh–ve
(4) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve

19) In the composition of cellular mass, arrange the components- proteins(P), carbohydrates(C),
lipids(L) and nucleic acids(N) in decreasing order of mass percentage.

(1) C > N > P > L

(2) P > N > C > L
(3) P > C > L > N
(4) P > N > L > C

20) When a stimulus is applied, the electrical potential difference which develops across the plasma
membrane of a neuron is termed as

(1) Repolarisation
(2) Nerve impulse
(3) Resting potential
(4) Synapse

21) Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep–time disrupt the activity of

(1) Thymus gland

(2) Pineal gland
(3) Adrenal gland
(4) Posterior pituitary gland

22) Consider following features:

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda , Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

23) Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(1) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.

(2) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(3) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(4) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

24) Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively ?

(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(3) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

25) Statement 1: Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants, providing structural
support.
Statement 2: Chitin, found in exoskeletons of arthropods, is a homopolymer.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement 1 is true; Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false; Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

26) Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporesis ?

(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin

(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

27) Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

(1) Salamandra
(2) Hippocampus
(3) Pavo
(4) Ornithorhynchus

28) During muscular contraction which of the following events occur ?

(a) 'H' zone disappears / Reduced
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only

29) Select the correct statement.

(1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.

(2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(3) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

30) Match the items given Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tidal volume (i) 2500-3000 mL

(b) Inspiratory Reserve volume (ii) 1100-1200 mL

(c) Expiratory Reserve volume (iii) 500-550 mL

(d) Residual volume (iv) 1000-1100 mL

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Match column I with column II:

Column I Column II

A Monosaccharide i Energy storage in animals

B Starch ii Sugar units

C Glycogen iii Energy storage in plants

D Phospholipid iv Lecithin
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i
(2) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D - ii
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D - iv
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv

32) Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropiate?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (d) are correct

33) Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :

(1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

34) In the Central nervous System, the amount of voltage Change required to open enough sodium
channel to initiate a nerve impulse, is referred as

(1) Refractory period

(2) Threshold potential
(3) Action potential
(4) Polarization potential

35) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(1) Macropus
(2) Chelone
(3) Camelus
(4) Psittacula

36) Select the correct statement :

(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure.

(2) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
(3) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed in vasa recta.
(4) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG cells to release renin.

37) Match List - I with List - II

 List - I List - II

(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system

(b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex

(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iii) Retina of Eye

(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i). (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

38) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1) Anthracis
(2) Silicosis
(3) Botulism
(4) Emphysema

39) What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

(1) 50 beats per minute

(2) 75 beats per minute
(3) 100 beats per minute
(4) 125 beats per minute

40) Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

Gregarious,
(a) (i) Asterias
polyphagous pest

Adult with
radial symmetry
(b) (ii) Scorpion
and larva with
bilateral symmetry

(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

 (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) In the regulation of respiration, a chemo-sensitive area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the
medulla region of the brain, is highly sensitive to :

(1) CO2
(2) O2
(3) N2
(4)

42) Ear wax secreting cells have which type of epithelium?

(1) Exocrine glandular epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Endocrine glandular epithelium
(4) Columnar epithelium

43) A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay
allows.

(1) blood to enter aorta.

(2) the ventricles to empty completely.
(3) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(4) the atria to empty completely.

44) Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addision's disease

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

 (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Assertion :-The immune responses of old person become weak.

Reason : - Thymus is degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of
thymosin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 2 2 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 2 1 1 4 1 3 4 4 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 2 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 2 3 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) but direction is changing; a = 0

2)

3) Linear speed at t = 2,
v = (2)2 × 2 = 8 m/s

4)

v2 – v1 = u1 – u2
3 – v1 = – 3 – 3
v1 = 9

5) Vx = 2m/s
For velocity in vertical direction
eU1 – eU2 = V2 – V1

– × 4 = –V1 ⇒ V1 = 1 m/s
Vy = 1 m/s

6)

Theory

7)

When the string is cut, the rod will rotate about end P. Let α be the initial angular acceleration
of the rod.

Then Torque,
 ...(1)
( ∵ Moment of inertia of the rod about one end=ML2/3)

Also, ...(2)
Equating (1) and (2), we get :

or

8)
ωf = 0
θ = 2π × 2π rad

9)

KEr =

KEJTotal =

Ratio =

10)

11)

12)

Given V = 5x2y

;
at point (2, 3) ;
 13) Ve =

Ve ∝ R

V2 = 22.4 km/sec

14) Since solid ball floats in between the two liquids hence ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2

15)

16) from equation of continuity,

(A × 3) = (A × 1.5) + (1.5 A × V)
⇒ V = 1 m/s

17) There will be both shear stress and normal stress.

18)

19)

Δℓ =

= =
 20)

Question Explanation : A rectangular liquid film is stretched from 4 cm × 2 cm to

5 cm × 4 cm. Given that work done is 3 ×10−4 J. calculate surface tension.

Concept : Work done in stretching a soap film.

Formula : W = T(2ΔA)

Solution :

W = T(2ΔA)
3 × 10–4 = T × 2 × [20 × 10–4 – 8 × 10–4]

T = = 0.125 N/m
Final answer : Option (4)

21) 2Tℓ = Mg ⇒ M =

= = 0.6 g

22)

23) If the sheet is heated then both d1 and d2 will increase since the thermal expansion of
isotropic solid is similar to photographic enlargement.

24) Heat given by water 20 °C → 0 °C

Q1 = 10 × 1 × (20–0) = 200 cal
Heat required to melt 10 g ice
Q2 = mL = 10 × 80 = 800 cal
Q1 < Q2
∴ equilibrium temperature = 0 °C

25)
i1 + i2 = i3

180 – 2T = T
3T = 180 ⇒ T = 60 °C
26)
dQ - msdT

27)

For mort heat flow

28)

w = Area under P-V graph and volume aris

= 6 P0V0

29)

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Ideal Gas Law: PV = nRT => T = (PV)/(nR)

B. Linear Relationship from Graph: The graph is a straight line with a negative slope, so
we can express the relationship between P and V as: P = a - bV, where 'a' and 'b' are
positive constants.

C. Substitute P in the Ideal Gas Law: T = (a - bV)V / (nR) = (aV - bV^2) / (nR)

D. Find the maximum temperature: To find the maximum temperature, we take the
derivative of T with respect to V and set it to zero: dT/dV = (a - 2bV) / (nR) = 0 => a -
2bV = 0 => V = a / 2b

E. Analyze the Temperature behavior: The temperature equation T = (aV - bV^2) / (nR)
is a quadratic equation in V. Since the coefficient of the V^2 term (-b) is negative, the
parabola opens downwards. This means the temperature increases initially with
increasing V, reaches a maximum at V = a/2b, and then decreases as V increases
further.
Final Answer :
The temperature first increases then decreases. Option 4

30)

31)
Here f = mg and N = mα but f ≤ µN

so mg ≤ µmα ⇒ .

32) Solution :
Magnitude of centripetal force at A & B will be same

Time taken from A to B

Final answer : 4

33)
P = 2x
⇒ F.v = 2x
⇒ mav = 2x

⇒ m.

⇒ v2dv = xdx
on integrating both sides

⇒ ⇒v=
Hence option (1)

34) Question Explanation: Find equilibrium distance for particle with given potential energy.

Concept: Equilibrium in conservative field.

Solution:

∵F= = 0 for equilibrium

35) Gravitational force is a conservative force and work done against it is a point function. i.e
does not depends on the path

36) S =
∴ dS = t2dt

⇒a= =
2
= 2t m/s
Now work done by the force

W=
37)

38)

Question Explanation : To find the correct option for the three projectiles A, B and C as
shown in graph.
Concept : This question is based on ground to ground projectile motion.
Solution :

All three projectiles A, B, C have same maximum height

H 1 = H2 = H3
hence their uy are same [uy = usinθ = vertical component of initial velocity]

T= (time of flight also depends on uy only)

T1 = T2 = T2
∴ Time of flight are also same for all three

Range , R =
uy is same for all three projectiles
∴ Range ∝ ux (ux = horizontal component of initial velocity)
R C > RB > RA
∴ (Ux)C > (Ux)B > (Ux)A
Final Answer : Option (4)

39) x2 = 2 + t

2x =1

v=

a=v

a=
40)

41)

v0x0 – v0x – vx0 + vx = vx

42) = 8x + 2

Now if we take as 'y' then

it is a form of y = mx + c i.e. straight line
with (the slope and the y-intercept)

43)
4 MSD = 5 VSD

L.C. = 1 MSD – 1VSD

= 1MSD – MSD

= 0.1mm
 44)

If are coplanar
So,

1(–11x –a) + 2(–21) + 3(–7x) = 0

– 32x = 51

x=– .

45) R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos60°

7Q2 = P2 + Q2 + PQ
P2 – 6Q2 + PQ = 0

Let such that above eqn. becomes.

2
x +x–6=0
or x2 + 3x – 2x – 6 = 0
x(x + 3) – 2(x + 3) = 0
⇒ x = –3 or 2

Hence

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain the Question :

Calculate the weight of a 95% CaCO3 sample need to produce 11.2 L of CO2 at STP.
Concept : This question is based on Stoichiometry (CaCO3 → CO2), Molar volume (22.4 L/mol
at STP).
Solution :

1.
2. Mass of pure CaCO3 :
Ratio is 1 : 1, so 0.5 mol of CaCO3 is needed.
Mass = 0.5 mol × 100 g/mol = 50 g
3. Weight of 95% sample (W) :
50 g is 95% of W.

Final Answer : 3
47) Meq. of metal = Meq. of oxygen

48)

Question Explanation: The question asks for the total number of atoms in 1 mole of Ca(OH)₂.
Concept: Number of atoms = mole × atoms × Avogadro's number (6.02 × 10²³)
Solution:
One formula unit of Ca(OH)₂ contains 1 calcium (Ca) atom, 2 oxygen (O) atoms, and 2
hydrogen (H) atoms, totaling 5 atoms per formula unit.
Number of atoms in 1 mole of Ca(OH)₂ = 1 mole × 5 atoms × Avogadro's number (6.02 × 10²³)
= 5 × 6.02 × 10²³ atoms.
Final Answer: Option (2).

49)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the ratio of the specific charge (charge-to-mass
ratio, e/m) of an electron compared to that of a hydrogen ion (a proton). In simpler terms, you
need to find how many times larger or smaller the electron's specific charge is relative to that
of a hydrogen ion.

Underlying Concept: The specific charge is defined as the ratio of the charge (e) of a particle
to its mass (m). Here, the electron and the hydrogen ion both have the same magnitude of
charge, but their masses are different. Since specific charge depends inversely on mass,
comparing their masses gives the ratio of their specific charges.

Relevant Formulas: The specific charge is given by where - = charge

of the particle - = mass of the particle

Step-by-Step Calculation: For electron, specific charge = For hydrogen ion (proton),

specific charge = The ratio of the electron's specific charge to that of the hydrogen ion is:

Thus, the ratio .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the proton mass is about 1837 times that of the electron, so
the electron's charge-to-mass ratio will be larger by roughly this factor.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the charge ratio with the mass ratio or forgetting that charge
cancels out in the ratio since it's the same magnitude for both particles.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like '1:1' incorrectly assume identical masses or
ignore mass difference. The '1:1837' reverses the ratio, placing the electron's specific charge
smaller than the proton's, which is incorrect. '2:1' is arbitrary and not related to known
 physical constants.

50)

Question Explanation:
Find the ratio of radii of the first orbit (n = 1) for H, He+, and Li2+

Concept:
This question is based on Radius of first orbit for hydrogen-like ions:

where rH = radius of hydrogen atom, Z = atomic number.

Solution :
For first orbit, n = 1:

H(Z = 1) :

He+ (Z = 2) :

Li2+ (Z = 3) :
Ratio:

Final Answer : Option (2) : 6:3:2

51) Question Explanation : Identify the quantum numbers corresponding to the highest
every electron.
Concept : Energy is determined by the (n + ℓ) rule; higher (n + ℓ) means higher energy
Solution : The energy of an electron is determined by the (n + ℓ) value. Calculate (n + ℓ) for
each option.
Option (1) (4 + 0) = 4
Option (2) (2 + 0) = 2
Option (3) (3 + 1) = 4
Option (4) (3 + 2) = 5 (highest (n + ℓ) value so higher energy)
Final Answer : Option (4)

52) Question Explanation

You're asked to find the number of unpaired electrons in the Cr atom (Z = 24) where:

A. Principal quantum number n = 3

B. Magnetic quantum number m = +1

Concept
 Quantum numbers define the location of electrons.

A. n = 3 → refers to 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals

B. m = +1 corresponds to:

A. one orbital of p (m = –1, 0, +1) → pₓ

B. or d (m = –2 to +2) → d_{xz}

We must consider only electrons in orbitals with n = 3 and m = +1.

Solution:

Cr (Z = 24) has configuration:

→ [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ (due to extra stability of half-filled 3d)

Electrons in n = 3 shells:

A. 3s² → filled

B. 3p⁶ → filled

C. 3d⁵ → half-filled (all unpaired, 1 in each orbital)

Now, in 3d orbitals, m = +1 corresponds to one of the orbitals (say d_{xz}) — and since all 5
3d orbitals have one unpaired electron each in Cr,
→ there is 1 unpaired electron in the 3d orbital with m = +1

Final Answer: (3)

1 unpaired electron

53)

Explain the Question : Arrange the given atomic species by increasing electron gain
enthalpy.
Concept : This question is based on Electron Gain Enthalpy.
Solution : Chlorine has the most negative value. Fluorine's is less negative than chlorine's due
to high electron repulsion in its small shell. Similarly, sulfur's is more negative than oxygen's.
correct order of ΔHeg = O < S < F < Cl
Final answer : 2

54)

ΔIE2 > ΔIE1

55)

Explain the Question : Arrange the given elements by their increasing electronegativity
 order.
Concept : This question is based on Electronegativity Trends.
Solution : Electronegativity increases across a period (C < N < O < F) and decreases down a
group (Si < C). Combining these trends gives the final correct order.
Final answer : 1

56)

(A) & – sp3 – 109°28'

(B) CO2 = sp – 180°
SiO2 – sp3 – 109°28'
(C) BF3 = sp2 – 120°
BrF3 = sp3d – < 90°
(D) XeF4 = sp3d2 – 90°
= sp3d – 180°

57)

Question Explanation: Identify molecules showing hybridisation in their ground state (not
excited).

Concept: Hybridisation.

Solution:

A. BCl₃: B (1s² 2s² 2p¹) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

B. NH₃: N (1s² 2s² 2p³) → already has 3 unpaired + 1 lone pair → hybridises in ground state
C. PCl₃: P (3s² 3p³) → same as N → ground state hybridisation
D. BeF₂: Be (1s² 2s²) → needs excitation → hybridisation in excited state

Final Answer: Option (3)

58) Explain Question : Question is asking about the Dipole moment of given molecule
according to the given condition
Concept : This question is based on dipole moment

Solution :
The three bond moments, which are 120° apart and equal in magnitude, have resultant zero.

It's net dipole moment equals to the . So dipole moment will remain same
Final answer : 3

59) Correct order of dipole moment :

CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
BF3 < NF3 < NH3
O-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene
> p-dichlorobenzene

60) Question Explanation : Question is asking about the correct order of the lattice energy
of the lithium halides.
Concept: This question is based on lattice energy.

Explanation : Lattice energy

The less the size the more is the lattice energy so correct order would be LiF > LiCl > LiBr >
Lil

Final Answer: option (1)

61)

a > N2 b > N2– c > N2 +

Bond order ⇒ 3 2.5 2.5

Electron filled in Antibonding molecular orbitals will decrease bond strength.

62)

Explain Question : Identify molecules that contain only π-bonds and no σ-bonds.
Concept : This question is based on MOT
Solution : B2 and C2 have only pi-bonds because their σ-bonding orbitals are either
unoccupied or cancel due to antibonding electrons.
B2 : 10 electrons - σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2px1 = π2py1
C2 : 12 electrons - σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, π2px2 = π2py2
Final Answer : option (3)

63)

64) Question Asking - Disproportional

Concept - Type of Redox

solution -
option 3 -

No2 Shows the Disproportional

65)

x = 2, y = 5, z = 16 Ans.

66)

Given Data:
E° cd+2/cd = – 0.40 v
[cd+2] = 0.1 M
[H+] = 0.1 M
PH2= 0.5 atm

Concept:
E°cell = E° cathode – E° anode

Ecell = E°cell

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Reaction at anode :-
Cd → Cd+2 +25
Reaction at Cathode :-
2H+ + 2e – → H2 (g)
E°cell = E°cathode - E°anode
=O (for H-electrode) - (–0.40)
E°cell = 0.40v

Ecell = 0.40 –
Ecell = 0.38v

67) Question Explanation

The question asks to find the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for the electrolyte CX,
given the equivalent conductances of three other electrolytes: , and BX .

Concept
Kohlrausch's Law

Solution
Final Answer: option (1) .

68)

69)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the standard electrode potential for the
reduction of Fe³⁺ directly to Fe (metal), given the standard potentials for the two-step
reduction: Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ and Fe²⁺ to Fe. We need to combine these to find the overall
potential for Fe³⁺ to Fe.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on the relationship between Gibbs free energy
change (ΔG°) and electrode potential (E°) in redox reactions. The standard Gibbs free
energy change is related to the number of electrons transferred and the electrode potential by
the equation ΔG° = -nFE°, where n is number of electrons, F is Faraday's constant, and E°
is the standard electrode potential. For multi-step reactions, the total ΔG° is the sum of the
ΔG° values for each step.

Relevant Formulas: ΔG° = -nFE°

where - ΔG° is standard Gibbs free energy change, - n is number of moles of electrons
transferred, - F is Faraday's constant, - E° is standard electrode potential.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Reduction of Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ involves 1 electron: \[

\Delta G_1^\circ = -1 \times F \times x_2 \]
Step 2: Reduction of Fe²⁺ to Fe involves 2 electrons: \[ \Delta G_2^\circ = -2 \times F \times
x_1 \]
Total reaction: Fe³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Fe Total Gibbs free energy change: \[ \Delta G^\circ =
\Delta G_1^\circ + \Delta G_2^\circ = -F(x_2 + 2x_1) \]
For the overall reaction involving 3 electrons: \[ \Delta G^\circ = -3 F E^\circ_{Fe^{3+}/Fe}
\]
Equating both: \[ -3 F E^\circ_{Fe^{3+}/Fe} = -F(x_2 + 2x_1) \implies
E^\circ_{Fe^{3+}/Fe} = \frac{2 x_1 + x_2}{3} \]

Tips and Tricks: Use the ΔG° = -nFE° relation to convert potentials into Gibbs energies
for intermediate steps, sum those, then convert back to the overall potential. This method
ensures accurate combined electrode potentials.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to directly average or add the electrode potentials
without considering the number of electrons transferred in each step. Forgetting to multiply
potentials by the respective number of electrons can lead to incorrect results.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like or are incorrect because
they use the wrong number of electrons (denominator) in averaging potentials. The total
electrons involved are 3, so denominator should be 3. The option ignores
normalization by total electrons.

70)

Explain the question: We have to determine E° for FeO42– / Fe2+ using given electrode
potentials.
Concept: This question is based on the overall cell potential can be found by using ΔG° =
–nFE° and ΔG°(overall) = ΔG°1 + ΔG°2.
Solution:
ΔG°(overall) = ΔG°1 + ΔG°2.
Thus, –nFE°(overall) = –n₁FE°1 – n₂FE°2.
For FeO42– → Fe3+, E°1 = +2.20 V (n1 = 3)
For Fe3+ → Fe2+, E°2 = +0.76 V (n2 = 1)
ΔG°1 = –3F(2.20)
ΔG°2 = –1F(0.76)
Total ΔG° = –F[3(2.20) + 0.76] = –F(7.36)
Total electrons (n = 4)
E° = 7.36 / 4 = 1.84 V
Final Answer: 1

71)

A: Question Explanation
We must find % dissociation of AB₃ from given initial and equilibrium pressures.

B: Concept
Degree of dissociation using partial pressures and total pressure at equilibrium.

C: SOLUTION

Reaction: AB₃(g) ⇌ AB₂(g) + 1/2 B₂(g)

Initial pressure of AB₃ = 800 torr

Let dissociated amount in terms of pressure = x
At equilibrium pressure of each species are
AB₃ = 800 – x, AB₂ = x, B₂ = x/2
Total P = (800 – x) + x + x/2 = 800 + x/2

Given total pressure = 900 torr

So, 800 + x/2 = 900 ⇒ x/2 = 100 ⇒ x = 200

% dissociation = dissociated pressure/initial pressure

= (200 / 800) × 100 = 25%

D: Final Answer→ Option 3

72) Question Explanation : N2 + 3H2 ≓ 2NH3
Given:
• Inert gas (angon) is added
• Pressure is kept constant
• The system is gaseous and dynamic equilibrium exists
Concept:
affecting factor of Equilibrium

Explanation :
At constant pressure, adding an inert gas increases the total volume to keep pressure
constant.
This leads to a decrease in partial pressures of the reacting gases
The system will now shift to the tide with more moles of gas to increase pressure again In the
given reaction
• Reactants: 1 mol N2,+ 3 mol H2 = 4 mols
• Products 2 mol NH3
So, since the reactant side has more gas molecules, equilibrium will shift towards the left
(backward) to increase the total number of gas molecules

Final Answer: 2. Shift the equilibrium in backward direction

At constant pressure, adding argon cures the equilibrium to shift backward.

73)

Explanation the Question :

We are asked to calculate the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in a solution that already contains
CO32– ions (common ion effect).
Concept :
Common ion effect: In solution with [CO32–] already present, solubility decreases.
Solubility expression: Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32–]
Solution :
Given:
Ksp(Ag2CO3) = 4 × 10–13
[CO32–] = 0.1 M
Let solubility of Ag2CO3 = s
Ksp = [Ag+]2 × [CO32–]
4 × 10–13 = (2s)2 × 0.1 ≈ 4s2 × 0.1 = 0.4 s2
s2 = 4 × 10–13 / 0.4 = 1 × 10–12
s = 10–6 M
Final Answer : 1

74) Asking About :- Hydronium ion [H3O+]

Concept :- Based on O strand's dilution LAW
Soln / Explanation :- Ace. to strand's dilution law for weak electrolyte

=
 =
[H+] = 10–4
[H3O+] = 10–4
Option -4 is correct answer

75)

We are mixing two strong acid solutions:

A. Solution 1: pH = 1 → [H+] = 10–1 = 0.1 mol/L

B. Solution 2: pH = 2 → [H+] = 10–2 = 0.01 mol/L

Both solutions are 50 mL each = 0.050 L.

Step 1: Calculate moles of H+ in each

A. From Solution 1: 0.1 × 0.050 = 0.005 mol

B. From Solution 2: 0.01 × 0.050 = 0.0005 mol
C. Total H+ moles = 0.005 + 0.0005 = 0.0050 mol

Step 2: Total volume

A. 50 mL + 50mL = 100mL = 0.1L

Step 3: Final [H+] concentration

Step 4: Calculate pH
pH = – log(0.055) = –log(5.5 × 10–2) = – [log(5.5) + log(10–2)]
= –[0.74 –2] = 2 – 0.74 =
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

76)

Explanation

A. CH3COOH (acetic acid) is a weak acid.

B. NaOH (sodium hydroxide) is a strong base.
C. The reaction is: CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O

Given Data

A. [CH3COOH] = 0.1 M
B. [NaOH] = 0.1 M

Concept

A. This is a weak acid-strong base titration, resulting in a buffer solution on the 1/4 and 3/4
stages of neutralisation of acid.
B. In the buffering region before the equivalence point, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is
 crucial: pH = pKa + log ([CH3COO–] / [CH3COOH])

Calculation

A. 1/4 Neutralization:
A. [CH3COO–] = 1/4 of the initial acid.
B. [CH3COOH] remaining = 3/4 of the initial acid.
C. pH(1/4) = pKa + log (1/4 / 3/4) = pKa + log (1/3)
B. 3/4 Neutralization:
A. [CH3COO-] = 3/4 of the initial acid.
B. [CH3COOH] remaining = 1/4 of the initial acid.
C. pH(3/4) = pKa + log (3/4 / 1/4) = pKa + log (3)
C. Difference in pH:
A. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = (pKa + log 3) - (pKa + log (1/3))
B. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = log 3 - log (1/3)
C. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = log3-log(3-1)
D. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = log3 - (-log3)
E. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = log3 + log3
F. pH(3/4) - pH(1/4) = 2log3

Answer option 4(2log 3).

77)

Question is Asking About :-

Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis.

Concept :-
Hydrolysis of W.A. + SB Type salt is Anionic hydrolysis in option (4)
Na2CO3 ⇒ NaOH + H2 CO3
S.B. W.A
Final Answer : Option 4

78) Question Explanation : The problem asks to calculate the change in internal energy (ΔU)
of a system when a certain amount of heat is supplied to it and the system performs a certain
amount of work.
Concept : First Law of Thermodynamics (ΔU = q + w)
Solution :

Given Data

Work done by the system (w) = 8 J

Heat supplied to the system (q) = 40 J

Calculation -

According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, the change in internal energy (ΔU) of a system
is given by: ΔU = q + w

Substitute these values into the equation:

 ΔU = (+40 J) + (-8 J)

ΔU = 40 J - 8 J

ΔU = 32 J

Final Answer : Option (1)

79) Question Asking: Need to find temperature at equilibrium.

Concept : At equilibrium ΔG = 0
Formula : ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution/Explanation:
at equilibrium ΔG = 0
ΔH = –30kJ = –30 × 103 J
ΔS = ?
We know that, for chemical reaction

Now, 0 = – 30 × 103 J – (T × (–40))

0 = – 30000 J + 40 T
40T = – 30000J

T=
Correct Answer is Option (3).

80)

Theory based

81) , ΔH = –50 kJ.

–50 =

82) (a) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 → Ideal solution

(b) ph – OH + ph – NH2 → –ve deviation
(c) H2O + C2H5OH → +ve deviation
(d) C6H5Cl + C6H5Br → ideal solution

83) Explain Question:

We must find the boiling point of a 1 m aqueous solution of electrolyte X3Y2, ionized 25%, using
Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1.

Concept:
 Boiling point elecation:
ΔTb = i × Kb × m
For electrolyte AXBY number of ions = x + y; van't Hoff factor:
i = 1 + α(n–1)

Solution:
Electroyte X3Y2 X3+ + Y2–, so total ions n = 5.
α = 0.25
i = 1 + α(5 – 1)
i = 1 + 0.25 × 4
i = 1 +1 = 2

Now,
ΔTb = i × Kb × m
ΔTb= 2 × 0.52 × 2
ΔTb = 2.08 K
Boiling point = 373 K + 2.08 = 375.08 K

Final Answers: Option(1)

84)

Question Explanation :
The question asks to identify the essential conditions that molecules must satisfy for their
collisions to be "effective," meaning the collisions lead to a chemical reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on Collision Theory

Solution :
For a collision to be effective and result in product formation, reacting molecules must satisfy
two main criteria:

A. Energy Requirement: They must possess energy equal to or greater than a minimum value
called the threshold energy (which implies they have overcome the activation energy barrier).
B. Orientation Requirement: They must collide with a proper spatial orientation that allows for
the necessary bond breaking and bond formation. Options 1,2 , and 3 all describe these
essential aspects.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : All of these

85) Question Explanation: We have to find time at which 99.9% reaction is complete.

Concept : This question is based on First order.

Solution : kt = 2.303 log

 t99.9% = 24 min.

Final Answer : option (2).

86)

A. Question Explanation
We are given that a plot of t₁/₂ (half-life) versus [A]₀ (initial concentration) is a straight line
parallel to the x-axis, i.e., t1/2 is constant regardless of [A]₀.
We are to determine the order of the reaction.

B. Given Data

A. Plot: t1/2 vs [A]₀ is constant

B. Shape: Horizontal line (parallel to x-axis)

C. Concept
Half-life behavior for different reaction orders:

A. Zero-order: t1/2 ∝ [A]₀

B. First-order: t1/2 = constant (independent of [A]₀)
C. Second-order: t1/2 ∝ 1 / [A]₀
D. Third-order: t1/2 ∝ 1 / [A]₀²

Only first-order reactions have a constant half-life.

D. Mathematical Calculation
For first-order:
t1/2 = 0.693 / k → does not depend on [A]₀

E. Final Answer
Option 2: 1

87)

t1/2 = ...(1)

t1/4 = ...(2)

⇒ = 2 ⇒ t1/2 = 2 t1/4

88) r = k[y]2
 89)

Explain Question : Identify how many among the given molecules/ions have planar shapes
using VSEPR theory.

Concept : Planarity depends on molecular geometry determined by lone pairs and bonds.

Solution :
Apply VSEPR theory to each species:
Planar: XeF2, CIF3, H2O, [XeF5]–, I3–, BCl3, XeF4
Non-planar: SF4, PCl5, SF6, IF7
→ Total planar species = 7

Final Answer : option (2)

90) (I.E.)H = – (E1)H = x

E ∝ Z2 ΔE = E6 – E3

BOTANY

91) Question Explanation : The question asks to identify the correct characteristic(s) of the
thallus of a liverwort
Concept : This question is based on Liverworts
Solution : The plant body of a liverwort is thalloid, often dorsiventral, and closely appressed
to the substrate.
Final Answer : Option (2)

92) Correct Answer: 4. A, B & D Explanation:

A. A, B, and D represent symbiotic associations strictly between autotrophs (plants or algae) and
heterotrophs (fungi).
B. C is incorrect because the cyanobacteria are autotrophic, but Cycas roots are not
heterotrophic.

93) Explain Question :The question presents five statements about the characteristics of an
organism and asks how many of these statements are correct for Fucus.
Concept :This question is based on Phaeophyceae.
Explanation :
(a) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction - True
Fucus shows oogamous sexual reproduction (fusion of large non-motile egg with small motile
sperm).
(b) Belongs to Phaeophyceae - True
Fucus is a classic example of brown algae → Phaeophyceae.
(c) Major pigments - Chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin - True
These pigments are characteristic of all brown algae, including Fucus.
Final answer :2
94)

Explain Question : The question has provided an image with four sketches (A, B, C, and D)
of different organisms and a table with four options. The task is to identify which option
correctly matches the organism, its stored food, and its class.
Concept : This question is based on types of algae
Explanation :
Polysiphonia (C) is a red alga, belonging to the class Rhodophyceae, and stores food
primarily as Floridean starch, which is characteristic of this group.
Final answer : 4

95) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-8) Page No. 126

96) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-8) Page No. 132

97) NCERT (XI) Page No. 134, 135

98) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136

99)

Question Explanation: Counting ground tissue components.

Concept: Plant Tissue Systems.
Solution: The ground tissue system includes all tissues that are not part of the epidermal or
vascular tissue systems. From the given list, the ground tissue components are: Hypodermis,
Endodermis, General Cortex, Medullary Rays, and Pith. Epidermis, root hair, trichome, and
stomata are part of the epidermal tissue system, while xylem and phloem are part of the
vascular tissue system. Therefore, a total of 5 items are true parts of the ground tissue system.
Final Answer: 5

100)

Question Explanation: The question asks you to identify the organelle shown (Golgi complex)
and match it with the correct structure and function pair.

Concept: Golgi complex

Solution: Golgi complex has many flat, disc-shaped cisternae and is involved in glycolipid and
glycoprotein synthesis.

Final Answer: (3)

101)

Question Explanation: Understanding the arrangement of primary xylem in dicot stems.

Concept: Endarch and Exarch Protoxylem.
Solution: The Assertion states that dicot stems have an endarch arrangement of primary
xylem, which is correct. The Reason explains that endarch is the condition where protoxylem is
located towards the center (pith), while metaxylem is towards the periphery. This explanation
correctly defines endarch arrangement and directly supports the assertion. Therefore, both
the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is a correct explanation for the assertion.
Final Answer: Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

102)

Question Explanation: Identifying correct statements about a leaf.

Concept: Anatomy of a leaf.

Solution:
Vascular bundles are surrounded by layer of thin-walled bundle sheath cell. - incorrect
Correct - Vascular bundles are surrounded by layer of thick-walled bundle sheath cell.

Final Answer : Option (2) I, II, IV only

103)

Question Explanation: Layers of the dicot stem cortex.

Concept: Dicot Stem Anatomy.
Solution: The cortex of a dicot stem is a multi-layered region found between the epidermis
and the pericycle. It is typically differentiated into three distinct sub-layers: the hypodermis
(outermost), the general cortex (middle), and the endodermis (innermost). The epidermis is the
protective outermost layer of the stem and is not part of the cortex.
Final Answer: Hypodermis, general cortex, and endodermis.

104) NCERT XI, Page # 164-165

105)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the type of genetic material and structural
composition of the potato spindle viroid (PSV). It wants to identify whether PSV contains
single-stranded or double-stranded DNA or RNA and whether it has a protein coat.

Underlying Concept: Potato spindle viroid is a type of viroid, which are the smallest
infectious pathogens known. Viroids differ from viruses in that they do not have a protein coat
and only consist of a short strand of single-stranded RNA. This RNA is circular and does not
code for any protein.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that viroids are composed only of single-stranded RNA and do
not have a capsid (protein coat), unlike viruses.

Common Mistakes: Confusing viroids with viruses, assuming they have a protein coat or viral
DNA. Also, mistaking RNA viroids for DNA viruses.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mentioning DNA or protein coats are incorrect
because PSV is a viroid that only contains single-stranded RNA and lacks a protein coat.

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 135, 137, 140

107) NCERT - XI, Pg.# 93

108) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 11, Table-1.1

109)

NCERT XI, Pg # 11 ; Table : 1.1

110)

NCERT Reference:
Botany-XI Page No.- 10

111)

112)

113) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-8) Page No. 134

114) NCERT XI (E/H) Pg # 165, 166

115) Question Explanation :

The question asks about the position of the ovary in the ray florets of a sunflower.

Concept :
This question is based on The Inflorescence.

Solution :
"The ovary is inferior in members of Asteraceae (e.g., sunflower), where the floral parts are
epigynous."

Final Answer :
Option (3)

116) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the specific botanical term that describes the arrangement of the
androecium (the male part of the flower, consisting of stamens) in a pea flower (Pisum
sativum).

Concept :
This question is based on Stamen.

Solution :
"In pea flowers, the androecium is diadelphous, with nine stamens united and on free"

Final Answer:
Option (3)

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 80

118) NCERT XI pg.# 80

119) NCERT Pg. 72

120) Question Explanation : The question asking select correct statements about leaf.
Concept:
This question is based on THE LEAF.

Solution:
(A) Stipules are small, leaf-like structures at the base of the petiole - Correct
(B) In some leguminous plants, the leaf base becomes swollen and is called a pulvinus -
Correct
(C) "The veins are parallel in reticulate venation" - Incorrect
(D) Leaf originates from the shoot apical meristem - Correct
The leaf originates from shoot apical meristem.

Final answer: 1. Statement A, B, D

121)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140,142

122) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 208

123) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 209

124) Nurture Module-3 Pg. # 180

125) NCERT Pg.#140

126)

Correct answer: 1. In maize, Calvin cycle occurs in mesophyll cells — Incorrect

Explanation:
In maize (a C₄ plant), the Calvin cycle does not occur in mesophyll cells.
It occurs in bundle sheath cells.

127)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking which algal group(s) have zoospores with 2–8 flagella

Concept :
This question is based on Chlorophyceae

Solution :
Zoospores of Chlorophyceae have two to eight flagella which are equal in length and inserted
apically

Final Answer :
Option (1)

128)

Explain Question:
Question asking about gametophyte in pteridophytes
Concept: This question is based on Pteridophyta -general characters and life cycle
Solution:
In pteridophytes the spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular
free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called prothallus.
Final answer: (4)

129)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify which of the listed structures in
gymnosperms are haploid (n).
Concept : This question is based on gymnosperm, general characters and life cycle.
Explanation : The structures that are haploid in gymnosperms are the pollen grain,
megaspore, and endosperm.
Final answer : 2

130)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

131) NCERT XI Pg No. # 214

 132) NCERT XI, Page 219 ( fig 13.9)

133) In C4 plants for the production of one glucose = 30 ATP, 12 NADPH and 6 CO2 same
requirement for one fructose.

134) NCERT Pg. # 214

135) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 212

ZOOLOGY

136)

The correct answer is: 4. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

Explanation:

Ciliated epithelial cells have hair-like projections (cilia) that beat in a coordinated way to
move substances like mucus, dust, or ova in a specific direction.

A. In the bronchioles (part of the respiratory tract), cilia help move mucus and trapped
particles out of the lungs.

B. In the fallopian tubes (female reproductive tract), cilia help in moving the egg from the
ovary to the uterus.

137) A: Protein Hormone

A. The diagram shows the hormone binding to a receptor on the cell surface. This is
characteristic of peptide and protein hormones, which cannot directly cross the cell
membrane.

B: Receptor

A. The receptor is the specific protein on the cell surface that binds to the hormone, initiating the
signaling cascade.

C: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

A. In many cases, the binding of a hormone to its receptor activates a second messenger system.
A common second messenger is cAMP. It is generated inside the cell in response to the
hormone-receptor interaction.

Therefore, the correct identification is:

A-Protein Hormone; B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP

138) Cerebellum is the part of the hind brain, while corpus callosum, association areas and
hypothalamus are part of forebrain.
 139)

Question explanation: Match types of joints with the bones they connect.
Concept: Types of joints and their examples
Solution:
Gliding joint: This type of joint allows for sliding movements. An example is the joint
between the carpals. So, (a) matches with (iii).

Hinge joint: This type of joint allows for movement in one plane, like a door hinge. An example is
the joint between the humerus and ulna. So, (b) matches with (iv)
Pivot joint: This type of joint allows for rotational movement. An example is the joint between the
atlas and axis. So, (c) matches with (ii).
Saddle joint: This type of joint allows for movement in two planes. An example is the joint between
the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb.
So, (d) matches with (i).
Therefore, the correct matching is:
(a) - (iii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (ii) (d) - (i)

Final Answer: Option(1)

140) Question Explanation: Identify the factors responsible for maintaining the osmolarity
gradient in the renal medulla.

Concept: The question is based on counter-current mechanism and mechanism of urine

formation

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. (i) Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta: Enables efficient exchange of solutes
and water, preserving the medullary gradient.
B. (ii) Counter-current mechanism: Involves opposing flow in Henle’s loop and vasa recta, crucial
for maintaining increasing osmolarity from cortex to inner medulla.
C. (iii) Selective secretion in PCT: Regulates acid-base balance but does not contribute to
medullary osmolarity gradient.
D. (iv) Glomerular blood pressure: Drives filtration but is unrelated to osmolarity gradient
maintenance.

So,only (i) and (ii) are related to osmolarity gradient maintenance.

Final answer: Option 4

141) Solution/Explanation:
Erythrocyk (RBC) – 50 – 55 Millian / mm3 of bloodNeutrophils - 60 – 65 % of WBC (WBC =
6000- 8000 / mm3)
Eosirophyl – 2 – 3 % of WBCMonocyle – 1.5 – 3.5 Millian / mm3 of Blood
Hence correct answer is 1

142) Concept :
Solution : The Reason is false: Secondary metabolites are not useless; many have
significant ecological and economic importance (e.g. antibiotics, rubber, spices, scents).
 Final Answer : (3)

143)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct structural or functional feature of muscle fibers.

Concept: The question is based on structure of contractile protein.

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the ends of the sarcomere:

This is incorrect. Z-lines anchor actin (thin) filaments, not myosin, to the ends of the sarcomere.
Myosin is located in the A-band of the sarcomere.
1. Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine:
This is incorrect. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores calcium ions (Ca²⁺), not acetylcholine.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter stored in synaptic vesicles in the nerve terminals.
2. Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding sites:
This is incorrect. Myosin cross bridges have ATPase activity for energy release and binding sites
for actin, but calcium binding sites are located on troponin, a regulatory protein in thin filaments.
3. Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament:
This is correct. The thin filament consists of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin. These regulatory
proteins play a crucial role in muscle contraction.

Final answer: Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament.

144) Question Explanation: Match renal and metabolic conditions with their correct
descriptions.

Concept: The question is based on excretory system disorders.

Solution:

A. a. Glycosuria → iv. Presence of glucose in urine

B. b. Gout → i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
C. c. Renal calculi → ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
D. d. Glomerular nephritis → iii. Inflammation in glomeruli

Correct matching: a → iv, b → i, c → ii ,d → iii

Final answer: Option 4

145)

Solution/Explanation:

All vertebrates belong to the phylum Chordata, which is characterized by the presence of a
notochord at some stage of development. However, not all chordates become vertebrates.
Some chordates, like tunicates and lancelets, retain the notochord throughout their life but do
not develop a vertebral column.
So from the given options the correct answer is option (1)
 146) Question Explanation :Identify the incorrectly matched brain part and function.

Concept: CNS

Solution:
Limbic system: This is incorrect. The limbic system is primarily involved in emotions,
memory, and motivation. It doesn't consist of fiber tracts that interconnect different regions of
the brain or control movement.

Final Answer : Option (2)

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 310,311

148)

Question explanation: Identify the muscular disorder that is genetically inherited.

Concept: Disorder of muscular system

Solution:
Muscular dystrophy: Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic
disorder.

Final answer: Option 2

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg#200

150)

A. Fibrinogen: This protein plays a crucial role in blood clotting. So, (a) matches with (ii).
B. Globulin: These proteins are involved in various functions, including immune response and
transport. So, (b) matches with (iii).
C. Albumin: This protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance in the blood. So, (c)
matches with (i).

Therefore, the correct matching is:

(a) - (ii) (b) - (iii) (c) - (i)
So, the correct option is 4.

151) Ribozyme

152) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : -
 Final Answer : (4)

153) What the Question Is Asking: The question asks to identify the combination of
maternal and fetal Rh blood types that leads to erythroblastosis foetalis.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER: The correct answer is 2. Mother Rh–ve and foetus
Rh+ve.

Explanation: Erythroblastosis foetalis (also known as hemolytic disease of the fetus and
newborn or HDFN) occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If the
mother is exposed to the fetus's Rh-positive blood (usually during delivery), she can develop
antibodies against the Rh factor. In subsequent pregnancies with an Rh-positive fetus, these
antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells.

154) Explaining : Proteins – 10-15%; Nucleic acids – 5-7%; Carbohydrates – 3%; Lipids – 2%.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

155) Hint: Action potential

Sol.: The electrical potential difference that develops across the plasma membrane of a
neuron where stimulus is applied, is termed as nerve impulse. The electrical potential
difference across the resting plasma membrane is called the resting potential. The nerve
impulse is conducted along the axonal membrane in the form of a wave of depolarisation and
repolarisation. The synapse is the junction through which a nerve impulse is transmitted from
one neuron to the other.

156)

The correct answer is Option 2: Pineal gland.

Explanation: The pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone that regulates
sleep-wake cycles. Melatonin production is influenced by light exposure. When it's dark, the pineal
gland releases melatonin, promoting sleep. However, exposure to artificial light, especially at night,
can suppress melatonin production, leading to sleep disturbances and other health issues.

157)

Let’s break down the features one by one and see which phyla possess all three:

Given Characteristics:

(a) Organ system level of organisation

(b) Bilateral symmetry

(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body

Now let’s analyze the options:

1. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata

Organ system level – Yes (all)

Bilateral symmetry – Yes (all)

True coelom – Yes (all)

Segmentation – Yes (all have segmented bodies)

2. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca

Mollusca do not have segmentation : Incorrect

3. Arthropoda, Mollusca, and Chordata

Mollusca do not have segmentation : Incorrect

4. Annelida, Mollusca, and Chordata

Mollusca do not have segmentation : Incorrect

A. So, the correct answer is option 1 - Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

158) Explaining : Palmitic acid – A saturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms. Adenylic acid -
Adenosine with a phosphate molecule. Alanine amino acid – neutral amino acid.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

159)

Explination :

We are asked to identify the lung conditions characteristic of asthma and emphysema,
respectively.

Concept :

Respiratory disorders

Solution:

Asthma:

Inflammation of bronchioles → narrowing of airways → difficulty in breathing.

Emphysema:

Destruction of alveolar walls → decreased respiratory surface area → impaired gas exchange.

Final answer :

Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

 160) Explaining :
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

161)

Question Explanation: Identify hormones that significantly influence the development of

osteoporosis.
Concept: The question is based on endocrine system.
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Estrogen deficiency after menopause increases bone resorption, while excessive

parathyroid hormone (PTH) promotes calcium release from bones — both contributing to
osteoporosis.

B. Estrogen:

A. Maintains bone density by inhibiting bone resorption.

B. Its deficiency (e.g., post-menopause) leads to accelerated bone loss, a major cause
of osteoporosis.

C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH):

A. In excess, it promotes bone resorption, increasing blood calcium at the expense of

bone mass.

B. Chronic elevation can contribute to osteoporotic changes.

Final answer: Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

162)

Explanation: Which organism excretes nitrogenous waste in the form of pellets or paste?

Concept: Modes of Nitrogenous Excretion

Solution: The correct answer is option: 3

A. Pavo (peacock) is a bird, and birds are uricotelic—they excrete uric acid in the form of a
semi-solid paste or pellets, which helps in water conservation.

Final answer: Pavo

163)
(a), (c), (d), (e) only

164)

Solution/Explanation:
Here's a breakdown of why the other options are incorrect:
Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia: This is incorrect. Insulin actually helps lower blood
sugar levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia: This is also incorrect. Glucagon is a hormone that
raises blood sugar levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes: While insulin does act on adipocytes (fat cells),
it primarily acts on cells throughout the body, especially muscle and liver cells, to promote
glucose uptake.
Therefore, the only correct statement is that glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, which
is the process of converting non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and glycerol into
glucose.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is 2. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

165)

Explanation : We are asked to match respiratory volumes with their approximate average
values in adults.

Concept : Respiratory volumes and capacities.

Explanation :

Matching Column-I → Column-II:

(a) TV → iii (500–550 mL)

(b) IRV → i (2500–3000 mL)

(c) ERV → iv (1000–1100 mL)

(d) RV → ii (1100–1200 mL)

Final answer : (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii

166)

Explaining : Monosaccharide – Sugar units

Starch – Energy storage in plants
Glycogen – Energy storage in animals
Phospholipid - Lecithin
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)
 167) Question Explanation – The question is asking which problems may occur during
hemodialysis using an artificial kidney from the given statements.

Concept – Effects of reduced kidney function and hemodialysis on body processes

Solution –

In hemodialysis, nitrogenous wastes and excess potassium ions are removed, so (a) and (b) are
not correct.
Kidney failure leads to less active vitamin D formation, causing reduced calcium absorption
from the gastrointestinal tract, so (c) is correct.
Kidney failure also causes decreased erythropoietin release, leading to reduced RBC
production, so (d) is correct.

Thus, the correct pair is (c) and (d).

Final Answer – Option 3

168)

The correct answer is Option 4: Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma.

Here's why:

A. Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens (A and B)
on the surface of red blood cells (RBCs) and corresponding antibodies (anti-A and anti-B)
in the plasma.

B. AB blood group: Individuals with AB blood have both A and B antigens on their RBCs
but no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma.

C. Universal recipient: Because they lack these antibodies, people with AB blood can
receive blood from any blood group (A, B, AB, or O) without their plasma antibodies
attacking the donor RBCs. This is why they are called universal recipients.

169) Fact

170)

A. Macropus: This refers to a kangaroo, which is a mammal. Mammals are endothermic,

meaning they maintain a constant body temperature. So, this is not the answer.
B. Chelone: This refers to a turtle. Turtles are ectothermic, meaning their body temperature
varies with their environment. Therefore, Chelone is the correct answer.
C. Camelus: This refers to a camel, which is a mammal and a homeotherm.
D. Psittacula: This refers to a parrot, which is a bird and a homeotherm.
Therefore, among the given options, Chelone (turtle) is not a homeotherm.

171) The correct answer is Option 4: Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG
cells to release renin.
Explanation:

A. Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR): When blood flow to the kidneys
decreases, the GFR also decreases. This is detected by specialized cells in the kidneys called
the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells.
B. Activation of JG cells: In response to the decreased GFR, JG cells release an enzyme called
renin.
C. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS): Renin initiates a cascade of events,
ultimately leading to the production of angiotensin II.
D. Angiotensin II: This powerful vasoconstrictor causes blood vessels to narrow, increasing
blood pressure.

172)

The correct answer is (4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i).

Explanation:

A. (a) Multipolar neuron → (ii) Cerebral cortex

A. Found in the cerebral cortex, these neurons have multiple dendrites and a single
axon, allowing complex processing.

B. (b) Bipolar neuron → (iii) Retina of Eye

A. Found in the retina, these neurons have one axon and one dendrite and are
involved in sensory signal transmission.

C. (c) Myelinated nerve fibre → (iv) Spinal nerves

A. Myelinated fibres have a protective myelin sheath, allowing fast impulse

conduction, found in spinal nerves.

D. (d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre → (i) Somatic neural system

A. Unmyelinated fibres conduct impulses slowly and are part of the somatic neural
system.

Conclusion:

Since option (4) correctly matches the neuron types with their locations/functions, it is the
correct answer.

173)

The correct answer is: 2. Silicosis

Explanation: Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder caused by the inhalation of fine
silica dust, typically in industries like mining, construction, or sandblasting. This condition
leads to inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.

174) Question Explanation: Calculating heart rate from CO, EDV, and ESV

Concept: Cardiac Output Calculation

Solution:
1. Calculate Stroke Volume (SV):
SV=End-Diastolic Volume (EDV)−End-Systolic Volume (ESV)
SV=100 mL−50 mL=50 mL
2. Calculate Heart Rate (HR):
Cardiac Output (CO)=SV×HR
HR=CO/SV
Convert CO to mL/min:
5 L/min=5000 mL/min
HR=5000 mL/min/50 mL/beat=100 beats/min

Final Answer: 100 beats per minute

175)

Question Explanation: This question asks to correctly match the characteristics of animals
(Column-I) with the corresponding examples (Column-II).

Concept: Animal classification.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3 –

A. (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest → (iv) Locusta (locusts are known for swarming
behavior and feeding on crops)

B. (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry → (i) Asterias
(starfish exhibit this feature)

C. (c) Book lungs → (ii) Scorpion (scorpions have book lungs for respiration)

D. (d) Bioluminescence → (iii) Ctenoplana (comb jellies like Ctenoplana show

bioluminescence)
Final Answer: Option (3)

176)

Explanation: We are asked to which substance, the chemo-sensitive area near the medullary
respiratory center is highly sensitive to.

Concept : Regulation of respiration

Solution: The chemo-sensitive area is located near the medullary rhythmicity center in the
medulla oblongata. It primarily monitors CO₂ levels in the blood (via pH changes in
cerebrospinal fluid).

Final answer : CO2

177)

Ear wax secreting cells, also known as ceruminous glands, are a type of exocrine gland.
Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts onto a surface or into a cavity. In the
case of ceruminous glands, they secrete earwax (cerumen) into the ear [Link]-1

178) Option 4: the atria to empty completely. This delay ensures that the atria have
enough time to contract and completely empty their blood into the ventricles before the
ventricles begin to contract. This efficient filling of the ventricles maximizes the volume of
blood pumped with each heartbeat, improving cardiac output.

179)

Solution/Explanation:
Here's a brief explanation of each match:
Pituitary gland and Diabetes insipidus: The pituitary gland produces antidiuretic hormone
(ADH), which regulates water balance. A deficiency of ADH leads to diabetes insipidus,
causing excessive urination and thirst.
Thyroid gland and Grave's disease: Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder where the
thyroid gland produces excessive thyroid hormones, leading to hyperthyroidism.
Adrenal gland and Addison's disease: Addison's disease occurs when the adrenal glands
don't produce enough cortisol and aldosterone.
Pancreas and Diabetes mellitus: The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood
sugar levels. Diabetes mellitus occurs when the body. doesn't produce enough insulin or can't
use insulin properly, leading to high blood sugar levels.

Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct option is (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

180) NCERT XI Page # 243