30-09-2025

2302CMD303032250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg–m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about the axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be

(1) π/12 N–m

(2) π/15 N–m
(3) π/18 N–m
(4) 2π/15 N–m

2) The rotational kinetic energy of two bodies of moments of inertia 9 kg-m2 and 1kg-m2 are same.
The ratio of their angular momentum is :-

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 1 : 9

3) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making an angle θ with the
horizontal. Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the
highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) mu2 sin θ cos θ

(3)

(4)

4) The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t) =
2t3 – 6t2 . The torque on the wheel becomes zero at :-

(1) t = 1s
(2) t = 0.5 s
(3) t = 0.25 s
(4) t = 2s

5) A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass have the same moments of inertia about
their respective diameters, the ratio of their radii is :-

(1) (5)1/2 : (3)1/2

(2) (3)1/2 : (5)1/2
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

6) A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates through
an angle θ1 in first one second and through an additional angle θ2 in the next one second. The ratio
θ2/θ1 is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

7) A particle moves parallel to x-axis with constant speed as shown, then

(1) Angular momentum of the particle about O remains constant

(2) Angular momentum of particle about O is a variable
(3) Angular momentum of particle about any position remains same
(4) None of these

8) A force N acts at origin. The magnitude of torque about a point with the coordinates (2
m, 1 m, 4 m) will be equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) What is the angular acceleration of a solid sphere with moment of inertia 20 kgm2 as its angular
momentum, changes from 20 kg m2s–1 to 30 kg m2s–1 in 10 sec-

(1) 0.1 rad/s2

(2) 0.5 rad/s2
(3) 0.05 rad/s2
(4) 0.01 rad/s2

10) A string is rolled over a disc-shaped pulley as shown in the figure. What will be the K.E gained by
the block in time 't' seconds after it starts to fall?

(1)

(2)

(3) mg2t2

(4)

11) An ice skater spins at 3π rads-1 with her arms extended. If her moment of inertia with arms
folded is 75% of that with open arms, then what will be her angular speed with folded arms

(1) π rad s-1

(2) 2π rad s-1
(3) 3π rad s-1
(4) 4π rad s-1

12) A uniform rod smoothly pivoted at one of its ends is released from rest. If it swings in vertical

plane, the maximum speed of the end P of the rod is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass
and radius, around their respective geometrical axes is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about point of projection when the particle is
at maximum height is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) m

15) In an experiment with a beam balance an unknown mass m is balanced by two known masses of
16 kg and 4 kg as shown in figure.

Find the value of the unknown mass m in kg.

(1) 2 kg
(2) 4 kg
(3) 8 kg
(4) 12 kg

16) A rigid massless rod of length 3 ℓ has two masses attached at each end as shown in the figure.
The rod is pivoted at point P on the horizontal axis (see figure). When released from initial horizontal

position, its instantaneous angular acceleration will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The rotational kinetic energy of a rigid body of moment of inertia 5 kg-m2 is 10 J. The angular
momentum about the axis of rotation would be-

(1) 100 J-sec

(2) 50 J-sec
(3) 10 J-sec
(4) 2 J-sec

18) Disc of M, R is rotating with on smooth horizontal surface. A smaller disk of is

gently placed on bigger disc with centre coinciding ? Due to friction between them finally they
rotate with same . Find .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the
sphere is :

(1) 7 : 10
(2) 5 : 7
(3) 10 : 7
(4) 2 : 5

20) A uniform disk, a thin hoop, and a uniform sphere, all with the same mass and same outerradius,
are each free to rotate about a fixed axis through its center. Assume the hoop isconnected to the
rotation axis by light spokes. With the objects starting from rest, identicalforces are simultaneously
applied to the rims, as shown. Rank the objects according to their angular accelerations, least to
greatest.

(1) disk, hoop, sphere

(2) disk, sphere,hoop
(3) hoop, sphere, disk
(4) hoop, disk, sphere

21)

A uniform rod AB is 1.2 m long and weighs 16 N. It is suspended by strings AC and BD as shown. A
block P weighing 96 N is attached at E, 0.30 m from A. The magnitude of the tension force of the
string BD is:
(1) 8.0N
(2) 24 N
(3) 32 N
(4) 48 N

22) Let be the force acting on a particle having position vector and be the torque of this force
about the origin. Then:

= 0 and
(1)

(2) and

and
(3)

and
(4)

23) A thin rod of mass 0.9 kg and length 1m is suspended, at rest, from one end so that it can freely
oscillate in the vertical plane. A particle of move 0.1 kg moving in a straight line with velocity 80 m/s
hits the rod at its bottom most point and sticks to it (see figure). The angular speed (in rad/s) of the

rod immediately after the collision will be ______.

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80

24) Figure shows a solid sphere rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. Its radius is r, mass
is m and the velocity of its centre is . Find the angular momentum about any point O on the
horizontal surface along the line parallel to its velocity .
(1)
mvr

(2)
mvr

(3)
mvr
(4) none of these

25) A uniform rod of mass m and length L is suspended with two massless strings as shown in the
figure. If the rod is at rest in a horizontal position the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2 is:

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2: 1
(4) 4: 3

26) Find radius of gyration of a rod of mass M & Length L about the axis perpendicular to rod and
passing through a point L/4 distance away from centre of mass of rod.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A thin uniform stick of length ℓ and mass m is held horizontally with its end B hinged on the
edge of a table. Point A is suddenly released. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the stick at

the time of release, is :-

(1)
g
(2)
g

(3)

(4)
g

28) A uniform ladder of mass 10 kg leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 53º with
it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. Find the normal forces N1 and N2 and the

frictional force that the floor exerts on the ladder-

(1) 65 N, 65 N, 98 N
(2) 65 N, 98 N, 65 N
(3) 98 N, 65 N, 65 N
(4) 65 N, 65 N, 65 N

29) The minimum value of F for which the cube(a) begins to topple about an edge is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg

30) A torque of 30 N-m is acting on a wheel of mass 5 kg and moment of inertia 2 kg-m2. If wheel
starts rotating from rest then its angular displacement in 10 seconds will be-

(1) 750 rad

(2) 1500 rad
(3) 3000 rad
(4) 6000 rad

31) The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its own axis is the same as its moment of inertia
about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to its length. The relation
between its length L and radius R is-

(1)
(2)
(3) L = 3R
(4) L = R

32) A body having moment of inertia about its axis of rotation equal to 4 kg-m2 is rotating with
angular velocity equal to 4 rad/s. Kinetic energy of this rotating body is same as that of translational
kinetic energy of body of mass 64 kg moving with a speed of :-

(1) 1.0 m/s

(2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 1.5 m/s
(4) 2.0 m/s

33) Two bodies with moment of inertia I1 and I2 (I1 > I2) have equal angular momentum. If the KE of
rotation is E1 and E2, then :-

(1) E1 > E2
(2) E1 < E2
(3) E1 = E2
(4) none of these

34) The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD of uniform thickness about an axis passing
through the centre O and perpendicular to the plate is: (a) I1 + I2 (b) I3 + I4

(c) I1 + I3 (d) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b, d

35) The angle turned by a body undergoing circular motion depends on time as θ = θ0 + θ1t + θ2t2.
Then, the angular acceleration of the body is :-

(1) θ1
(2) θ2
(3) 2θ1
(4) 2θ2
36) In the rectangular lamina shown in the figure, AB = BC/2. The moment of inertia of the lamina is
minimum along the axis passing through :-

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) EG
(4) FH

37) A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia
of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is :-

2
(1) (m1 + m2)l
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged on a plane as shown in the figure. The
moment of inertia of the system about AB :

(AB passes through centre of one ring and touches the other two rings)

(1) 3 MR2

(2)

(3) 5 MR2

(4)

39) A fan is rotating with a speed of 450 rev/minute. After being switched off it comes to rest in 10s.
Assuming constant angular deceleration, calculate the number of revolutions made by it before
coming to rest.

(1) 37.5
(2) 37
(3) 38.5
(4) None of these
40) Two circular loops A and B of radii R and 2R respectively are made of the similar wire. Their
moment of inertia about the axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to their plane are

IA and IB respectively. The ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

41) A child's top is spun with angular acceleration α = 4t3 – 3t2 + 2t where t is in seconds and α is in
radians per second-square. At t =0, the top has angular velocity ω0 = 2 rad/s and a reference line on
it is at an angular position θ0 = 1 rad.

Statement I : Expression for angular velocity rad/s

Statement II : Expression for angular position rad

(1) Only statement-I is true

(2) Only statement-II is true
(3) Both of them are true
(4) None of them are true

42) A thin rod of mass m and length is made to rotate about an axis passing through its centre
and perpendicular to it. If its angular velocity changes from 0 to ω in time t, the torque acting on it is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A thin and circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity ω. If another disc
of same dimensions but of mass M/4 is placed gently on the first disc co-axially, then the new
angular velocity of the system is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) A small solid sphere rolls down without slipping from the top of a track in a vertical plane. The

velocity of sphere when it is at point B (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 200 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 17.6 m/s

45)

If the rotational K.E of a body is increased by 300%. What is the percentage increase in its angular
momentum ?

(1) 300%
(2) 200%
(3) 100%
(4) 150%

CHEMISTRY

1) Assuming the reaction A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ C(g) to be exothermic, the yield of the product (C)
increases with :-
(a) Increase of temperature
(b) Increase of pressure
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(e) Removal of (C)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b
(3) b & e
(4) a & e

2) In the melting of ice, which one of the conditions will be more favourable ?

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure

3) Kc for A + B ⇌ C + D is 10 at 25°C. If a container contains 1, 2, 3, 4 mol/litre of A, B, C and D

respectively at 25°C, the reaction will proceed

(1) Left to right

(2) Right to left
(3) Already at equilibrium
(4) None of the above

4) Unit of equilibrium constant for this gaseous reaction

4A + 5B 4X + 6Y

(1) mol2 L2
(2) L mol–1
(3) L2 mol–2
(4) mol L–1

5) For the reaction AB(g) A(g) + B(g), AB is 33% dissociated at a total eqm pressure of P.
Then :-

(1) P = KP
(2) P = 4 KP
(3) P = 3KP
(4) P = 8 KP

6) The equilibrium constant for the following are :

N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ; K1 = 10
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO ; K2 = 2

H2 + O2 ⇌ H2O ; K3 = 5
Then the value of equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction

2NH3 + ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O

(1) 125
(2) 25
(3) 4
(4) 10

7) Degree of dissociation & equilibrium pressure for given reaction N2O3 NO + NO2 is & 10
atm respectively then calculate Kp.

(1) 50 atm
(2) 2 atm
(3) 2.5 atm
(4) 25 atm

8) Assertion (A) :- In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant pressure and temperature, addition of
helium at equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl5.
Reason (R) :- Helium reacts with Cl2 and hence shifts the equilibrium in forward direction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

9) Assertion :- Catalyst affects the final state of the equilibrium.

Reason :- It enables the system to attain a new equilibrium state by complexing with the reagents.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) The equilibrium constant for the reaction

A2 (g) + B2 (g) ⇌ 2AB (g) is 20 at 500 K
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
2AB(g) ⇌ A2(g) + B2 (g) , at 500K would be

(1) 20
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.05
(4) 10

11) For the reaction,

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g), the ratio , where P is the total pressure of gases at equilibrium and

at a certain temperature is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (P) KP = KC (RT)
(B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
2
(Q) KP = KC (RT)
(C) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
–2
(R) KP = KC (RT)
(D) NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g) (S) KP = KC
(1) A – S ; B – R ; C – Q ; D – P
(2) A – Q ; B – S ; C – P ; D – R
(3) A – P ; B – S ; C – Q ; D – R
(4) A – S ; B – R ; C – P ; D – Q

13) Two moles of PCl5 is heated in a closed vessel of 2 litre capacity. When the equilibrium is
attained, 40% of it has been found to be dissociated. What is the value of KC (in mol/dm3)?

(1) 0.532
(2) 0.266
(3) 0.133
(4) 0.174

14) In the reaction H2 (g) + l2 (g) ⇌ 2Hl (g), in a 2 litre flask 0.4 mole of each H2 and l2 are taken. At
equilibrium 0.5 mole of HI are formed. What will be the value of equilibrium constant KC ?

(1) 20.2
(2) 25.4
(3) 0.284
(4) 11.1

15) For the reaction, A + B ⇌ 3C, if 'a' mol/ litre of each 'A' and 'B' are taken initially then at
equilibrium the incorrect relation is

(1) [A] – [B] = 0

(2) 3[B] + [C] = 3a
(3) 3[A] + [C] = 3a
(4) [A] + [B] = 3[C]

16) Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following
equilibriums ?

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

(2) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(4) SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

17) In which of the following case, the reaction is nearer to the completion?

(1) K = 106
(2) K = 103
(3) K = 10–1
(4) K = 10–1

18) Equilibrium constant Kp increases with increase in temperature. The △H for the reaction would
be:

(1) positive
(2) negative
(3) negative
(4) cannot be predicted

19) For the equilibrium

NH2COONH4 (s) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) + CO(g) + O2(g)

the value of Kp is 27 × 2λ/2 atm11/2 at 800 K and the equilibrium pressure is 22 atm. The value of λ is :

(1) 11
(2) 21
(3) 5.5
(4) 10.5

20) The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as :

The degree of dissociation is ‘x’ and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of
dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is :

1/2
(1) (2KP/P)
(2) (KP/P)
(3) (2KP/P)
1/3
(4) (2KP/P)

21) Ka for the acid HA is 1 × 10–6. The value of K for the reaction A– + H3O+ ⇌ HA + H2O is :

(1) 1 × 10–6
(2) 1 × 1012
(3) 1 × 10–12
(4) 1 × 106

22) What is the percent dissociation of 0.1 M solution of acetic acid ? (Ka = 10–5)

(1) 10%
(2) 100%
(3) 1%
(4) 0.01%

23) 1 c.c of 0.1 N HCl is added to 1 litre solution of sodium chloride. The pH of the resulting solution
will be
(1) 7
(2) 0
(3) 10
(4) 4

24) How many H+ ions are present in 1 ml of a solution whose pH is 13 ?

(1) 10–16
(2) 6.022 × 1013
(3) 6.022 × 107
(4) 6.022 × 1023

25) The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

(1) 1.6 × 10–11 M

(2) zero
(3) 1.26 × 10–5 M
(4) 1.6 × 10–9 M

26) The pH of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of a very weak acid (HA) is 3. What is its degree of
dissociation ?

(1) 1 %
(2) 10 %
(3) 25 %
(4) 5 %

27) Ostwald dilution law will be applicable to

(1) HCl
(2) HI
(3) CH3COOH
(4) On all the above

28) Assertion (A) : The addition of sodium acetate to acetic acid solution leads to the suppression in
the dissociation of acetic acid.
Reason (R) : This is due to common ion effect. i.e., CH3COOH and CH3COONa both contains
CH3COO– ion as common.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Solubility product of CaCO3 is 5 × 10–9. Its solubility is :-

(1) 2.2 × 10–9
(2) 7 × 10–5
(3) 2.5 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–5

30) Statement-I: On increasing temperature, pOH of water increases.

Statement-II: On increasing temperature, Kw of water increases.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option among the following :-

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

(2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

31) 10–6 M HCl is diluted 100 times. Its pH is :-

(1) 6.0
(2) 8.0
(3) 6.95
(4) 9.5

32) What is the concentration of ion in a solution containing 0.05 M H+ ions?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33)

Calculate the pH at equivalence point when a solution of 0.1 M CH3COOH is titrated with a solution
of 0.1 M KOH.
(Ka of CH3COOH = 2 × 10–5)

(1) 5.3
(2) 7.3
(3) 10.7
(4) 8.7

34) For cationic hydrolysis, pH is given by–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) If KSP of CaF2 in pure water is 1.70 × 10–10, then find the solubility of CaF2 in 0.10 M NaF solution

(1) 1.70 × 10–10 M

(2) 1.70 × 10–9 M
(3) 1.70 × 10–8 M
(4) 10–1 M

36)

The solubility of different sparingly soluble salts are given as under :-

Sr. No. Formula Type Solubility Product

1 AB 4.0×10-20

2 A2B 3.2×10-11

3 AB3 2.7×10-31
The correct increasing order of solubility is :
(1) 1, 3, 2
(2) 2, 1, 3
(3) 1, 2, 3
(4) 3, 1, 2

37) If the solubility product of MOH is 1 × 10–10, then pH of its aqueous solution will be :-

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 3

38) Select the species which can function as - Lewis base, bronsted acid and bronsted base:-
(a) H2O (b) (c) N–3
Correct code is :-

(1) Only a
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) b, c

39) Let the solubilities of AgCl in pure water, 0.01 M CaCl2, 0.01 M NaCl and 0.05 M AgNO3 be s1, s2,
s3 and s4 respectively what is the correct order of these quantities ? Neglect any complexation.

(1) s1 > s2 > s3 > s4

(2) s1 > s2 = s3 > s4
(3) s1 > s3 > s2 > s4
(4) s4 > s2 > s3 > s1

40) 2 L of 0.1 M KCN are mixed with 1 L of 0.1 M HCl. Determine [H+] in the mixture, if Ka(HCN) =
10–6 M:-

(1) 10–12 M
(2) 10–6M
(3) 10–2M
(4) 10–8M

41)

Which of the following will act as a buffer :

(a) NaCl + NaOH
(b) Borax + boric acid
(c) NaH2PO4 + Na2HPO4
(d) NH4Cl + NH4OH

(1) b, c and d
(2) b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and d

42) Assertion (A) : Buffer mixture is the one whose pH almost remains constant even by addition of
small amount of strong acid or strong base.
Reason (R) : To resist changes in its pH on the addition of an acid or base, the buffer solution
should contain both acidic as well as basic components so as to neutralise the effect of added acid or
base.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Which one of the following pairs can not act as an acidic buffer?

(1) and
(2) and

(3) and

(4) and

44) If 100 mL, 0.1 N H2SO4 solution is mixed with 100 mL, 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 solution then pH of
resulting solution will be :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 12.7
(3) 7
(4) 1

45) Does the pH of solution increases, decreases or remain same when you :
(a) add NH4Cl(s) to 100 ml of 0.1 M NH3 ?
(b) add sodium acetate(s) to 50 ml of 0.015 M acetic acid ?
(c) add NaCl(s) to 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH ?

(1) decreases, increases, decreases

(2) increases, decreases, no change
(3) increases, decreases, increases
(4) decreases, increases, no change

BOTANY

1) Select false statement from followings for root ?

(1) Cell of zone of elongation, responsible for growth of root in length.

(2) Roots may give rise to leaves
(3) Roots provide anchorage to plant
(4) Roots do not have node & internode

2) In maize seed, how many of the following are not the part of embryo?

Coleoptile, Aleurone layer, radicle, Coleorhiza, Plumule, Testa,

Scutellum, Tegmen
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

3)

Read all statement carefully and select incorrect statement :-

(1) In Argemone, Parietal placentation is present.

(2) Placenta swollen with many ovule characterstic of Solanaceae.
(3) In ray floret inferior ovary present.
(4) In pea plant leaf modified in to tendril for defence.

4) Read the following statements carefully and select true statements.

(a) Root hairs are delicate & very fine structures of region of maturation.
(b) The cells of meristematic zone are very large.
(c) Tap roots of Turnip are food storage roots.
(d) Pneumatophores grows vertically down wards for respiration.
Select the appropriate option from given below:

(1) a, c & d
(2) b, c & d
(3) a & d
(4) a & c

5) In given diagram A, B, C, D, E & F are labelled. Which option is incorrect regarding this structure
in angiosperms.

(1) B is coleorhiza encloses to radicle.

(2) D is coleoptile encloses to plumule.
(3) E is aleurone layer which is proteinous layer
(4) F is embryosac of Monocots

6) Statement-I : Placentation is free-central in primrose and Dianthus.

Statement-II : In free-central placentation, the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of
ovary.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

7)

Select the correct match -

Plants Stamens Placentations
(1) Pea Diadelphous Basal
(2) China rose Monoadelphous Parietal
(3) Tomato Epipetalous Axile
(4) Lemon Polyadelphous Free central

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Some plants are mentioned below in the box:

 Canna, Cassia, Bean, Gulmohar,
Pea, Mustard, Chilli and Datura
How many of the plants possess flowers with radial symmetry?
(1) Seven
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Eight

9) Assertion- A few millimetres below the region of meristematic activity is the root cap.
Reason- Root cap protects the tender apex of the root as it makes its way through the soil.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) % K(5)C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1 G1

Select the correct option in respect of given floral formula :-

(1) Posterior petals are fused

(2) Found in flower of tulip plant
(3) Diadelphous condition
(4) All

11)

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(a) In orchids seeds are non-endospermic.
(b) The endosperm is bulky and stores food in maize.
(c) In maize the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called
aleurone layer.
(d) Above the hilum is a small pore called the micropyle.

(1) Only a, b, c
(2) Only b, c, d
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All a, b, c, d

12) In the mustard flower, the stamens exhibit:

(1) Epipetalous attachment

(2) Variation in filament length
(3) Polyadelphous condition
(4) Diadelphous arrangement

13)
Which of the following characters are found in solanaceae family :-
(a) Epipetalous condition
(b) Apocarpous ovary
(c) Oblique septum
(d) Swollen placenta
(e) Zygomorphic flower

(f) Endospermous seeds

(1) Only a and b
(2) a, c and d
(3) c, d, c and f
(4) a, c, d and f

14) Identify the diagram (A, B, and C) shown below and select the right option.

A B C

(i) Hypogynous Epigynous Perigynous

(ii) Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous

(iii) Epigynous Hypogynous Perigynous

(iv) Epigynous Perigynous Hypogynous

(1) i
(2) ii
(3) iii
(4) iv

15)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :-
(a) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems and are arranged in an acropetal order.
(b) Pulvinus leaf base is found in monocotyledons.
(c) In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point i.e. at the tip of
petiole.
(d) In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node.

Options :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d) only
16)

Read the following statement and select the appropriate option :-

(a) Phyllode is found in Australian Acacia.
(b) The leaflets are attached at a common point in silk cotton.
(c) Axile placentation is found in both chinarose and tomato.
(d) The ploidy of coleoptile is triploid .

(e) Vexillary aestivation is found in mustard.

(1) b, c & e are correct
(2) a, b, c & e are correct
(3) d & e are incorrect
(4) a, c and d are incorrect

17) In a racemose inflorescence the main axis:

(1) Bear Solitary flower

(2) Terminates in a flower
(3) Has unlimited growth
(4) Has limited growth

18) Choose the correct floral formula with the help of given floral diagram ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)

Which of the following cannot be shown in a floral formula but can be shown in a floral diagram ?

(1) Cohesion of stamens

(2) Adhesion of stamens
(3) Placentation and Aestivation
(4) Superior and inferior ovary

20) Match the following columns.

 Column I Column II
(Placentation) (Examples)

A. Basal 1. Mustard

B. Axile 2. China rose

C. Parietal 3. Dianthus

D. Free-central 4. Sunflower
(1) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
(2) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3, D → 4
(3) A → 4, B → 2, C → 1, D → 3
(4) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2

21) Assertion (A): More than one stigma per gynoecium is observed in Lotus
Reason (R): In Lotus, gynoecium is apocarpous

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

22) The given figures show some types of phyllotaxy select the option that correctly match them.

A B C

Aletrnate Whorled
Opposite
(1) eg. eg.
eg. Guava
Mustard Alstonia

Aletrnate Opposite Whorled

(2) eg. eg. eg.
Calotropis Chinarose Mustard

Aletrnate Opposite Whorled

(3) eg. eg. eg.
Chinarose Calotropis Alstonia

Opposite Aletrnate Whorled

(4) eg. eg. eg.
Chinarose Calotropis Sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Select the incorrect statement among the following.

(a) Monocot seeds are generally endospermic.
(b) In maize, the seed coat is membranous and generally fused with the fruit wall.
(c) In maize seed, one large and shield shaped cotyledon is known as scutellum.
(d) In orchid, the seeds are endospermic.

(1) a and b only

(2) c only
(3) d only
(4) None of these

24) Assertion : Pea flowers are zygomorphic.

Reason : Pea flower can be cut in two equal halves by any radial plane passing through the centre.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

25) Read the following statements.

(A) In monocot plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a large number of roots.
(B) The stem bears buds, which may be terminal or axillary.
(C) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit.
(D) Leaf is said to be simple, when incision do not touch tree mid rib.
How many above statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

26) Assertion :- Bud is present in axil of petiole in both simple and compound leaf, but not in axil of
leaflets of compound leaf.
Reason :- Compound leaf is present in Neem.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

27)
How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system :

Epidermis, Root hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Assertion :- Vascular bundles of stem are conjoint.

Reason :- Xylem and phloem are present on same radii.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

29) The pholem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities are present within the vascular
bundles in_______.

(1) Stem of Wheat

(2) Stem of Sunflower
(3) Stem of Gram
(4) Stem of Neem

30) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) Vessel is long cylindrical tube like structure composed of many cells.
(B) The presence of vessel is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(C) In monocot stem hypodermis is composed of collenchyma.
(D) In dicot stem hypodermis is composed of sclerenchyma.

(1) Statements A, B and C

(2) Statements A, B and D
(3) Statements A and B
(4) Statements A and C

31) Root of dicot plants can be differentiated from dicot stem in having :-

(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Conjunctive tissue
(4) Developed pith

32) Polyarch, Endarch, Exarch, Pith less developed, Hypodermis, Cuticle, Pith Well developed,
Cambium.
How many structure/Characters belongs to Monocotyledons root -
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

33) Choose a option which is not a feature of dicotyledonous leaf ?

(1) More stomata present on abaxial side.

(2) Mesophyll is not differentiated into pallisade and spongy parenchyma.
(3) Thick walled bundle sheath cells.
(4) Reticulate venation.

34)

Given below is the diagram of transverse section of isobilateral leaf. Identify the parts labelled
A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Abaxial Spongy Adaxial

(1) Xylem
epidermis tissue epidermis

Adaxial Abaxial
(2) Xylem Mesophyll
epidermis epidermis

Adaxial Abaxial
(3) Phloem Mesophyll
epidermis epidermis

Abaxial Palisad Adaxial

(4) Xylem
epidermis tissue epidermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Choose the correct option w.r.t. stomata.

(i) The outer cell wall of guard cell is thick while the inner layer is thin.
(ii) Dicot leaves have stomata on both surfaces in equal numbers.
(iii) Sunken stomata is a common feature of xerophytes.
(iv) Stomatal apparatus is composed of guard cells, a stomatal pore and subsidiary cells.
(1) i & ii are incorrect
(2) All are correct
(3) i & iii are correct
(4) ii & iv are correct

36) Match the columns A, B and C and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

(1) a-iii-M, b-i-L, c-ii-K

(2) a-ii-M, b-iii-L, c-i-K
(3) a-iii-K, b-ii-L, c-i-M
(4) a-ii-K, b-iii-M, c-i-L

37) Identify the given anatomy and choose the correct statement :

(1) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

(2) It has semilunar patches of sclerenchyma just above medullary rays.
(3) It has large number of scattered vascular bundles.
(4) The innermost layer of cortex is rich in starch grains.

38) Read the following statements (A to D)

(A) The root hairs are unicellular elongations of epidermal cells.
(B) The root hairs help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.
(C) The trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular.
(D) On the root the epidermal hairs are called trichomes.
Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B, C and D

39) The following statements is belong to which option.

(a) Cortex is made up of several layers of thin walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
(b) Endodermis is made up of single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces.
(c) Pith is small or inconspicuous.
(d) Conjuctive tissue present in two to four xylem and phloem patches.

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root

40) Monocot root is anatomically different from dicot root in primary stages of growth because of
following reason(s) :-

(1) Monocot roots have fewer xylem bundles, usually less than six.
(2) Pith is large and well developed in monocot roots.
(3) Secondary structures formed is very less in monocot roots.
(4) All of the above.

41) Assertion: Mesophyll possess chloroplasts and carries out photosynthesis.

Reason: The dorsiventral leaves lacks palisade parenchyma.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

42) Assertion: Bulliform cells help in minimizing water loss in monocot leaves.
Reason: Bulliform cells cause leaves to curl inward under water stress.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

43) Statement-1: Dumbbell shaped guard cells are found in grasses.

Statement-2: Endodermis is the innermost layer of cortex.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

44) Assertion: Two cotyledons in seeds are the embryonic leaves.

Reason: The embryo contains radicle and plumule.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

45) Assertion: Perigynous ovary is half inferior

Reason: All the floral parts lie below the level of ovary in perigynous condition and therefore ovary
become half inferior.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

ZOOLOGY

1) In resting condition, the concentration gradient is maintained by :-

(1) Sodium-potassium pump

(2) Active transport of ions
(3) Utilisation of ATP energy
(4) All of the above

2) Association areas are responsible for complex functions like :-

(1) Memory
(2) Communication
(3) Intersensory associations
(4) All of the above

3) Passage of action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next is :-

(1) Nodal conduction

(2) Saltatory conduction
(3) Saltatory stimulus
(4) Mechanical conduction

4) The thermoregulatory centre is situated in :-

(1) Spinal cord

(2) Pituitary body
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Hypothalamus
5) Assertion : Myelinated nerve fibre are enveloped with schwann cell, which form a myelin sheath
around the axon.
Reason : Unmylinated nerve fibre is not enclosed by a schwann cells.

(1) Both A & R correct but R is not correct explaination of A

(2) Both A & R is correct and R is correct explaination of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) Both A & R is incorrect

6) Assertion : Impulse transmission in electrical synapse is always faster than that across a
chemical synapse.
Reason : At electrical synapses, the membrane of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close
proximity' electrical current can flow directly from one neurons into the other across the synapses.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Assertion : Cerebellum has additional space for many more neurons.

Reason : Cerebellum has very convoluted surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is

(1) Duramater-Archnoid-PIamater
(2) Duramater-Piamater-Arachnoid
(3) Arachnoid-Duramater-Piamater
(4) Piamater-Arachnoid-Duramater

9) Which one is not related with 'a' ?

(1) Regulation of sexual behaviour

(2) Neurosecretory cells
(3) Intersensory associations and balance
(4) Regulation of body temperature
10) Site of sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) e
(2) f
(3) d
(4) i

11) Find out correct match for these (A) & (B) histological section of brain :-

(1) A - Cerebellum B - Cerebrum

(2) A - Medulla B - Diencephalon
(3) A - Pons B - Cerebrum
(4) A - Cerebrum B - Medula

12) Analyse the working of following structures and give the answer of following question:-

In above diagrams which structure is closed during depolarisation.

(1) A & B
(2) B & D
(3) C & B
(4) D & A

13) The figure below shows synapse between two neuron, select the option giving correct
identification :-

A - It is a chemical messenger which transmit one neuron to another and always excitatory in
(1)
nature
(2) F - These are receptors which receive Na+ or K+ ion
(3) D - It is synaptic cleft, which may be present or absent depending on type of the synapse
(4) B - It contains the enzyme, which is helpful in reuse of neuro transmitter

14) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-

A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Match the following parts of human brain with the structures associated with them and choose
the correct option :-

Parts of Brain Structure

(i) Forebrain (a) Corpora quadrigemina

(ii) Midbrain (b) Thalamus

(iii) Hindbrain (c) Medulla

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a
16) The part of neuron that conduct action potential.

(1) Soma
(2) Axon
(3) Dendron
(4) Synaptic knob & dendron both

17) Match these columns :

Column-I Column-II

(A) CNS (i) Cranial and spinal nerves

Relay impulses from CNS to

(B) P.N.S. (ii)
skeletal muscles

Transmits impulses from CNS to

(C) Somatic neural system (iii) involuntary organs and smooth
muscles

Site of information processing

(D) Autonomic neural system (iv)
and control

A B C D

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) iv i iii ii

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iv ii iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Look at the diagram given below carefuly and give the answer of following questions :

Complete opening of Na+ V.G.C at :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

19) Identify the wrong statement from the following :

(1) Cerebral cortex is made up of white matter
(2) Association area are neither clearly sensory nor motor
(3) Cerebral aqueduct passes through mid brain
(4) Pons consists of fibrous tract that interconnect different parts of brain

20) Identify the option which represents correct statements :

(A) Cerebral cortex is made up of grey matter.
(B) Association area are neither clearly sensory nor motor.
(C) Limbic system is made up of outer parts of cerebrum.
(D) Brain stem is made up of cerebrum, mid brain and cerebellum.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A and C
(3) A and B
(4) A, B, C and D

21) The autonomic nervous system is divided into:

(1) Sympathetic and parasympathetic

(2) Somatic and autonomic
(3) Central and peripheral
(4) Sensory and motor

22)

Neuroglial cells are involved in-

(1) Protection of neuron

(2) Support the neuron
(3) Conduction of impulse
(4) Both 1 and 2

23)

Select the odd one out w.r.t functions of the brain-

(1) Maintains balance of the body

(2) Thermoregulation
(3) Regulation of hunger and thirst
(4) Secretion of Growth hormone

24)

Which of the following form limbic system?

(1) Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres

(2) Amygdala
(3) Midbrain
(4) Both 1 and 2

25) Limbic system needs coordination from which of the following brain part to control sexual
behaviour?

(1) Pons
(2) Corpra quadrigemina
(3) Thalamus
(4) Hypothalamus

26) Assertion : Insulin enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

Reason : Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion : Aldosterons regulates H2O and electrolytes balance in our body.
Reason : Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid of our body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Assertion : Steroidal hormones are cortisol, estradiol, testosterone.

Reason : Steroidal hormones interact with intracellular receptor.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Find out the incorrect statement :-

(A) In male, ICSH stimulates synthesis & secretion of androgens from testes.
(B) Vasopressin acts on distal tubules for reabsorption of H2O.
(C) Neurohypophysis hormones are regulated by releasing and inhibiting hormones of
hypothalamus.
(D) Hypothyroidism occurs due to development of Nodules.

(1) A & C are incorrect

(2) B & D are incorrect
(3) C & D are incorrect
(4) A & D are incorrect
30) Which one is incorrect statement ?

(1) Hypothalamus regulate a wide spectrum of body functions

(2) Pituitary, Pineal, testes, heart and kidney are organised endocrine gland of body
(3) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals and intercellular messenger
(4) LH helps in maintenance of corpus luteum after ovulation

31) Which of the following disease is caused due to hyper or, over secretion of the structure marked

as x ?

(1) Gigantism
(2) Simple Goitre
(3) Cretinism
(4) Exopthalmic Goitre

32) Identify the gland (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) shown below and select the option with correct

combination of the gland with their hormone and metabolic effect?

Gland Hormone Metabolic effect

(1) (a) Thyroid Parathormone Stimulates Lipolysis

Stimulates
(2) (c) Pancreas Insulin
glycogenolysis

stimulates
(3) (d) Adrenal Cortisol
gluconeogenesis

(4) (f) Ovary Androgen Protein catabolism

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
33) Observe the following diagram and answer :-

How many hormones among following show

this mechanism of action ?
ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxine, ADH, Testosterone, Mineralocorticoid, Insulin

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

34) In the given figure identify A and B :-

(1) A → Receptor, B → Hormone

A → Secondary Messenger,
(2)
B → Ovarian growth
A → Ovarian growth,
(3)
B → Secondary messenger
A → Biological response,
(4)
B → Ovarian growth

35)
In given diagram (A) is bone & in which bony cavity (B) is present & in the gland (C) is located.
Select the correct option for (A), (B) & (C).

(1) Sphenoid, Sella tursica, Pituitary gland

(2) Sphenoid, Glenoid cavity, Thymus gland
(3) Coxal bone, Acetabulum, Adrenal gland
(4) Hyoid, Buccal cavity, Thyroid gland

36) Glucagon is ?

(1) Hypoglycemic hormone

(2) Hyperglycemic hormone
(3) Steroidal hormone
(4) Digestive hormone

37) Blood Ca++ level is regulated by :-

(1) TCT
(2) Parathyroid hormone
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) A person is having an auto immune disorder which targets cells of islets of langerhans, due to
which person suffers from ______A_____ as _____B____ hormone is less in blood. Identify 'A' and 'B' :-

(1) A. insulin, B. hyperglycemia

(2) A. hypoglycemia, B. insulin
(3) A. hypoglycemia, B. glucagon
(4) A. Anemia, B. glucagon

39) Mechanism of action of FSH on target cell generates :

(1) Primary messenger

(2) Second messenger
(3) Tertiary messenger
(4) Pheromones

40) Read the following points and identify the hormone :

(a) Increase alertness
(b) Pupillary dilation
(c) Piloerection
(d) Increase heart beat
(e) Break down of glycogen

(1) Insulin
(2) Testosterone
(3) Cholecytokinin
(4) Catecholamines

41) Which of the following hormone is related with defence capability?

(1) FSH
(2) vasopressin
(3) Melatonin
(4) Insulin

42) Which of the following hormones is not steroid in nature?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Cortisol
(4) Epinephrine

43) A hormone that is antagonist to parathyroid hormone is secreted from :

(1) Thyroid
(2) Adrenal
(3) Thymus
(4) Hypothalamus

44) Which hormone responsible for development and maturation of the central neural system -

(1) Melatonin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Thymosin
(4) Growth hormone

45) Statement-I :- Thymus is degenerated in old individual resulting in a decreased production of

thymosin.
Statement-II :- Adrenal medulla secretes corticoids.

(1) Statement I and II correct

(2) Statement I and II incorrect
(3) Statement I correct and II incorrect
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 1 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 1 2 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 4 4 4 4 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) given, K1 = K2

⇒ ⇒

⇒ or

3) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance from the reference point

τ = mg

= mg

= mu2 sinθ cosθ

Hence option (2)

4) τ = Iα

τ=0

12t – 12 = 0
t = 1 sec
5)

6)

7)

8)

9)

τ= ⇒ = 20∝

⇒ ∝= = 0.05 rad/s2
10) For Block,
mg - T = ma ....(i)

or, .....(ii)

or,
after time t,

velocity of the block

K.E. of block

11)

12)

At the time of maximum speed of point P, the rod should be vertical

Velocity of point P

13)

14) L = (mVcos 45°)

15) mg ℓ2 = 16 gℓ1 .....(i)

mg ℓ1 = 4gℓ2 .....(ii)
⇒ ⇒ m = 8 kg

16)
Applying torque equation about point P.
2M0 (2l) – 5 M0 gl = Iα
I = 2M0 (2l)2 + 5M0 l2 = 13 M0l2d

∴ anticlockwise

17)

KErotational =

⇒ 10 =
⇒ L = 10 J – s

18) Asking About: Final angular velocity ω when a smaller disc is placed on a rotating larger
disc and both rotate together.

Concept: Use conservation of angular momentum (no external torque acts on the system).

Formula:
- L=Iω

Calculation:

- Big dise: , initial

- Small disc

- Final

Apply conservation:

Diagram:
Option: (1)

19)

20)

torque on each circular object is same i.e. τ =Iα=constant therefore α is inversely

proportional to I

21)

torque about A should be zero ,T1.0+96x0.3+16x0.6-T2x1.2=0,T2=32N

22) implies that r, F and τ all are mutually perpendicular to each other.
∴ ,

23)
Using principal of conservation of angular momentum we have
⇒ mvL = Iω

⇒ 0.1 × 80 × 1 =

⇒ ⇒ ω = 20 rad/sec.

24)

Sphere is in pure rolling condition i.e. v = rω.

L0 = LCM + Lof body about CM
= mvr + Iω

= mvr + = mvr

25)
Question Asking About:
We need to find the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2, to ensure equilibrium of the rod.

Key Concept: Translational and rotational equilibrium.

Equilibrium (net force is Zero & net torque is ZERO)

Formula
magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) (the perpendicular distance)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Net torque about the centre of mass is ZERO

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

26)

I= +M

= = MK2

= L=K

27)
For angular motion of the stick

τ = mg = Iα
moment of intertia of stick about B is

Acceleration of centre of mass

=α
28)
τ0 = O
τacw = τcw

N1sin37° ℓ = w cos37° ×

N1 = f2
N2 = w
N2 = 2
= 10 × 9.8
= 9.8N

29) Explanation :
Minimum force F to topple a cube (side a) about its edge.

Concept :
Toppling starts when the torque due to applied force equals the torque due to the weight of
the cube about the pivot (edge O).

Solution :
Formula :

Diagram :
 Calculation :

Equating torques:

Final Answer :
Option (2)

30)

A. Question Explanation:

We're given a wheel with a known mass and moment of inertia. A torque is applied to the
wheel, causing it to rotate from rest. We need to determine the angular displacement of the
wheel after a specific time.

B. Given Data:

A. Torque (τ) = 30 N-m

B. Mass of the wheel: 5 kg (This information might not be directly used in the calculation)

C. Moment of Inertia (I) = 2 kg-m²

D. Time (t) = 10 seconds

E. Initial angular velocity (ω₀) = 0 rad/s (since the wheel starts from rest)

C. Concept:

A. Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: This law states that the net torque acting
on an object is equal to the product of its moment of inertia and its angular acceleration
(τ = Iα).

B. Rotational Kinematics: We'll use the equation of rotational motion that relates angular
displacement, initial angular velocity, angular acceleration, and time: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt².

D. Calculation:

A. Calculate Angular Acceleration (α):

 A. Using Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: τ = Iα α = τ / I α = 30 N-m / 2
kg-m² α = 15 rad/s²

B. Calculate Angular Displacement (θ):

A. Using the rotational kinematics equation: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt² θ = (0 rad/s)(10 s) +

(1/2)(15 rad/s²)(10 s)² θ = 0 + (1/2)(15 rad/s²)(100 s²) θ = 750 radians

E. Final Answer:

The angular displacement of the wheel in 10 seconds is 750 radians. Option 1

31)

32)
v = 1 m/s

33)

E=

E
E1 < E2

34) Asking about: Moment of inertia of a square plate about an axis perpendicular to its
plane through the center.

Concept: Perpendicular axis theorem.

Solution:
Formula:
Calculation/Explanation:
For a square plate, all in-plane axes through the center have equal moment of inertia:

So,
(axes 1 & 2 are perpendicular)
(axes 3 & 4 are perpendicular)
also holds because all axes are equivalent by symmetry
But,
Not correct
Answer is option (2).

35)

Question Asking About:

A body undergoing circular motion has its angular position given as:

we need to determine the angular acceleration of the body.

Key Concept & Formula

• Angular velocity (ω) is the rate of change of angular displacement.

• Angular acceleration (α) is the rate of change of angular velocity.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Given:

1. Find Angular Velocity:

2. Find Angular Acceleration:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

36) The moment of inertia is minimum about FH because mass distribution is at minimum
distance from FH.

37)

OR
38)
I = I1 + I2 + I3

= I1 + 2I2 = =

39) ω =
0
rad/sec. = 15π rad/s
t = 10 sec.
ωf = 0 rad/sec.

θ=

No. of revolutions =
Hence option (1)

40) I = MR2 = ρℓ (2πR)R2

⇒ I ∝ R3 so
Hence option (2)

41) ⇒ ω –2 = (t4 – t3 + t2)t0

⇒ ω – 2 = t4 – t3 + t2
⇒ ω = 2 + t 2 – t 3 + t4

42) Since τ = Iα

So, or
 or

43) According to conservation of angular momentum

44)

⇒ v = 20 m/s

45)

Here
Where L = angular momentum

% age increase

= 100 %

CHEMISTRY

46) Given:
• Reaction is exothermic
• Gaseous reactants and products
• Changes include temperature, pressure, catalyst, inert gas, and removal of product
Concept:
Le Chatelier's Principle

Explanation :
(a) Increase of temperature: Shifts equilibrium backward (exothermic) decreases yield
(b) Increase of pressure. Total gas moles decrease (2 →1), so equilibrium Shilts forward
increases yield
 (c) Addition of catalyst: No effect on equilibrium, only increases rate no change in yield
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume: No effect on partial pressures ⇒ no change in
yield
(e) Removal of C. Equilibrium shifts forward to replace C ⇒ increases yield

Final Answer:
3. b & e
Only increase in pressure and removal of product C increase the yield.

47)

Ice ⇌ H2O(ℓ) ; ΔH = + ve
more volume less volume

on increasing pressure, equilibrium shifts towards less volume means shifts forward.

48)

So Forward direction.

49)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks us to determine the units of the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the given
gaseous reaction: 4A + 5B ⇌ 4X + 6Y.

C: Concept

The equilibrium constant (Kc) is expressed in terms of concentrations (mol/L or M). The units
of Kc depend on the change in the number of moles (Δng) of gaseous species in the reaction.

Kc = [Products]coefficients / [Reactants]coefficients

Δng = (moles of gaseous products) - (moles of gaseous reactants)

D: Mathematical Calculation

A. Write the expression for Kc:

Kc = [X]4 [Y]6 / [A]4 [B]5

B. Determine the units of Kc:

Units of
Units of Kc = mol/L

E: Final Answer

The units of the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction are mol/L.

Therefore, the correct option is (4).

50)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the relationship between the total
equilibrium pressure (P) and the equilibrium constant (K_p) for the dissociation reaction of AB
gas into A and B gases, given that AB is 33% dissociated at pressure P.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the concept of chemical equilibrium in gaseous
reactions and the use of the equilibrium constant (K_p) expression in terms of partial
pressures. We use the degree of dissociation to find the mole fractions and then relate the
total pressure to K_p using the equilibrium concentrations.

Relevant Formulas: K_p = \frac{p_A \times p_B}{p_{AB}} where p_A, p_B, and p_{AB} are
the partial pressures of A, B, and AB at equilibrium respectively. Degree of dissociation
(\alpha) is also used: - Number of moles at equilibrium: n_{AB} = 1 - \alpha, n_A = \alpha, n_B
= \alpha - Total moles n_t = (1 - \alpha) + \alpha + \alpha = 1 + \alpha

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Assume initial 1 mol AB, degree of dissociation . 2. At

equilibrium, moles: - AB = 1 - 0.33 = 0.67 mol - A = 0.33 mol - B = 0.33 mol Total moles, n_t =
0.67 + 0.33 + 0.33 = 1.33 mol
3. Partial pressures given total pressure P: - p_{AB} = \frac{0.67}{1.33}P = \frac{1}{2}P -
p_A = \frac{0.33}{1.33}P = \frac{1}{4}P - p_B = \frac{0.33}{1.33}P = \frac{1}{4}P

4. Calculate K_p:

5. Rearrange to find total pressure:

Tips and Tricks: Remember that for dissociation reactions starting with 1 mole, the total
moles increase by the degree of dissociation ( ) for this type of reaction. Use fractions
carefully to avoid mistakes in partial pressure calculations.

Common Mistakes: 1. Forgetting to use total moles to find mole fractions when calculating
partial pressures. 2. Mixing up numerator and denominator terms when writing the K_p
expression. 3. Using incorrect degree of dissociation values or miscalculating mole ratios.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options with P = K_p, 4K_p, or 3K_p do not correctly
account for mole fractions and partial pressures as derived from the degree of dissociation.
Only P = 8K_p correctly follows from the equilibrium partial pressures and K_p expression.
51) To obtain the required equation
Multiply equation (3) by 3 and add in eq.(2)
and substract from eq. (1)

so desired eq. have K =

52) N2O3 NO + NO2

1 – –

⇒ Kp = × 10 = 2.5 atm

53)
on adding inert gas constant pressure equilibrium will shift in forward direction.

54)

Fact

55)

56)

2NOBr ⇌ 2NO + Br2

P0 0 0

0
Equilibrium P –2x 2x
Ptotal = (P0–2x) + 2x + x = P0 + x

=P⇒

57) KP = KC(RT)Δng

58)

PCI5 (g) ⇌ PCI3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

t=0 2 0 0
teq

59)

H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

t0 0.4 0.4 0
teq. 0.4–x 0.4–x 2x Given : 2x = 0.5
or 0.15 0.15 0.5 x = 0.25

conc.

60)

A + B ⇌ 3C
t=0 a a -
a–x a–x 3x
[A] + [B] = 2a – 2x

61) Δng = 0 for (a).

62) [Hint : Greater is the value of equilibrium constant (K); nearer is the reaction to
completion.]

63) [Hint : the-reaction : log

Shows that the equilibrium constant will increase with temperature for endothermic reaction,
i. e. △H = + ve.]

64) NH2COONH4 (s) ⇌ N2 + 3H2 + CO + O2

0 0 0
P 3P P

= 22
⇒ P0 = 4
KP = 4 × 123 × 4 × 21/2 = 27 × 221/2

65)
Question Explanation:
For 2AB₂(g) ⇌ 2AB(g) + B₂(g), find x (degree of dissociation, x ≪ 1) in terms of Kₚ and total
pressure P.

Concept:
Use Kₚ expression with mole fractions/partial pressures and neglect small x where
appropriate.

Solution:
Initial mole : AB₂(g) = 2, AB(g) = 0, B₂(g) = 0.

Initial moles 2 0 0

Moles at eqm. (2–2x) 2x x

Total moles at eq. = 2 + x

(neglecting x in comparison to 2)

Final Answer: Option 4

66)

HA + H2O ⇌ A– + H3O+ ; Ka = 10–6

A– + H3O+ ⇌ HA + H2O ;

67)
% = α × 100
= 10–2 × 100
= 1%

68) 0.1 N HCl ⇒ 0.1 mole of HCl in 1 L solution

⇒ 0.1 × 10–3 moles of HCl in 1 c.c. (1 mL) solution
⇒ pH = – log10 [0.1 × 10–3] = 4

69)

Given Data
pH = 13
Volume = 1 mL

Concept –
+
pH = – log [H ]
Avogadro's number (6.022 × 1023) of particles.

Calculation –
1. Calculate [H+] = 10(–pH) = 10(–13) mol/L
2. convert of liters : 1 mL = 0.001 L
3. calculate moles of H+ in 1 mL : Moles of H+ = [H+] × Volume = 10(–13) mol/L × 0.001 L =
10(–16) mol
4. Calculate the number of H+ ions : Number of H+ ions = Moles × Avogadro's number =
10(–16) mol × 6.022× 1023 = 6.022 × 107
Ans. 6.022 × 107

70)

AgCl ⇌ Ag+ + Cl¯

s s + 0.1
Ksp = (s) (s + 0.1)
s < < 0.1
Ksp = s × 0.1

s= = 1.7 × 10–9

71) ∵ [H+] = 10–pH= 10–3

[H+] = C ∝ (for weak acid)
10–3 = 0.1 × α

α (in %) = 10–2 × 100 = 1 %

72)
Ostwald's diluton law is valid for weak acid and weak base.

73)

Due to common Ion effect degree of Ionisation (α) decreases.

74)

s=

=
=

75) On increasing temperature, dissociation of water increases means Kw increases but pH and
pOH both decreases.

76)

= 10–8 + 10–7

77)

78)

pH = 7 + (pka + log C)

=7+ (5 – log 2 + log 5 × 10–2)

= 7 + (5 – 0.30 + 0.7 – 2) = 7 + (3.4)

⇒ pH = 8.7

79) Asking about : Cationic Hydrolysis

Concept : Hydrolysis of salt.

 Solution :
B+ + H2O BOH + H+

or
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

80)

CaF2 ⇌ Ca2+ + 2F–

s 2s+0.1 ≈ 0.1

s × (0.1) = 1.7 × 10–10

2

s = 1.7 × 10–8 M

81) Solubility calculations:

For a general salt AxBy, solubility s is given by:

A. AB (1:1 Type)

• A2B (2 : 1 Type)

Increasing Order of Solubility:

Comparing the solubilities:

Thus, the increasing order of solubility is:

Correct Answer:
Option 1: 1, 3, 2

82)
83) Question Explanation :
Identify the molecule/ion capable of donating electron pairs and accepting protons.

Concept :
This question is based on Lewis base (electron pair donor), bronsted acid (proton donor)
bronsted base (proton accepts)

Solution :
H2O can act as Lewis base, Bronsted acid & Bronsted base.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

84)
Note: Solubility decreases in presence of common ion.

85)

Explanation:
Determine [H+]

Concept:
This concept based on Buffer Solution & PH

Solution:
Given data
Ka (HCN) = 10–6
KCM → 2L of 0.1 M =. 2mol
HCl → 1L of 0.1 M = .1 mol
KCN + HCl → KCl + HCN
.2 .1 0 0
.1 0 - .1
& PH of buffer of KCN & HCN

= =6
& H+ = 10–6

Correct option:
(2)

86)
 NaCl + NaOH } Never form a buffer
[Salt of (SA + SB) + strong base]

87)

Concept : Buffer mixtures v/s acid & base & neutralization.

Explanation:

A. Assertion: A buffer mixture is defined as a solution that maintains a nearly constant pH

when small amounts of strong acid or strong base are added.

B. Reason: This occurs because a buffer contains both an acidic component (a weak acid)
and a basic component (its conjugate base) which neutralize any added acid or base.

C. Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains why a
buffer mixture can resist changes in pH.

Answer: Option 1, Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

88) For acidic buffer solutions weak acid and its conjugate base or weak acid and salt of same
weak acid with any strong base should be present.

89)

NV = (NV)Base – (NV)acid
N(100+100) = 0.2 × 100 – 0.1 × 100

–
{Here N = OH }
pOH = – log [OH–]

pOH = – log = 1.3 pH = 14 – 1.3 = 12.7

90) Question Explanation:

Find the change in pH.

Concept:
This question is based on common ion effect.

Solution:
(a) By addition of NH4Cl to NH3(ag), [OH–] ↓ due to common ion effect and pH ↓.
(b) By addition of CH3COONa to CH3COOH(aq), [H+] ↓ due to common ion effect and pH ↑.
(c) By addition of NaCl to strong base NaOH pH will not change.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4)
BOTANY

91)

NCERT IX page no. 59

92) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.77

93) NCERT Pg # 73, 75, 80

94) NCERT Pg. # 67

95) NCERT Pg. # 77

96) NCERT XI Page No.# 75

97)

NCERT IX page no. 64

98) Mustard, Chilly, Datura

99)

NCERT IX page no. 59

100)

NCERT IX page no. 64

101)

NCERT-XI Pg.# 67 (E), 66 (H)

102)

NCERT IX page no. 64

103) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 80

104)
 NCERT IX page no. 62

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 69,70,71

106)

NCERT IX page no. 60, 64, 65

107) Question Explanation :

The question asks about the growth behavior of the main axis in a racemose inflorescence,
which is a common type of flower arrangement.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.

Solution:
The correct answer is 3 . Has unlimited growth

Explanation:
In racemose inflorescence:

A. The main axis continues to grow (shows unlimited or indeterminate growth).

B. Flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession (older flowers at the base, younger at the
top).

Final answer: 3. Has unlimited growth

108) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 79

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 78

110)

NCERT IX page no. 65

111)

NCERT IX page no. 65

112)

NCERT IX page no. 61

113) NCERT Pg # 77

114)
NCERT XI Pg # 62

115)

NCERT IX page no. 58, 59, 60, 65

116)

NCERT IX page no. 60

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 89

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73

119)

NCERT IX page no. 76

120) NCERT XI, Pg # 87, 92, 93

121)

NCERT IX page no. 74

122)

NCERT IX page no. 74

123)

NCERT IX page no. 76

124)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 94

125) NCERT XII Pg. # 89

126)

NCERT IX page no. 73

 127)

NCERT XI, Pg # 92

128) NCERT XI Pg.# 89

129)

NCERT IX page no. 72

130)

NCERT IX page no. 73, 74

131) NCERT-XI, Page # 76,77

REASON is incorrect because in dorsiventral leaves, mesophyll is differentiated into palisade
and spongy parenchyma.

132) NCERT-XI, Page # 77, 3rd paragraph

133)

NCERT IX page no. 74

134)

NCERT IX page no. 67

135) The correct answer is:

If assertion is true, but reason is false.
Here's why:

A. Assertion: "Perigynous ovary is half inferior."

This is true. In a perigynous flower, the ovary is partially inferior, meaning it is somewhat below the
other floral parts, but not entirely inferior.

A. Reason: "All the floral parts lie below the level of ovary in perigynous condition and therefore
ovary becomes half inferior."

This is false.

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT XI Pg. # 317

137) NCERT XI Pg. # 321

138)

Module 6 page no. 16

139)

NCERT XI page no.321

140) NCERT- Pg. # 317 (21.3)

141) NCERT Pg. # 319

142) NCERT Pg. # 321, 322

143) NCERT-Page No. # 319

144) NCERT Pg. # 320

145) NCERT Pg. # 320, 321

146)

Module 6 page no. 9

147)

NCERT XI page no.317

148)

NCERT XI page no.319

149) Therefore, the correct option is 3.

150)

Question Explanation:Identifying brain part structures.

Concept:Anatomy of brain regions.

Solution:The forebrain contains the thalamus, which acts as a relay station for sensory
information. The midbrain is associated with the corpora quadrigemina, a structure with
four colliculi that are involved in visual and auditory reflexes. The hindbrain includes the
medulla, which controls vital functions. Therefore, the correct match is (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c.

Final Answer:(i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c

151) NCERT XIth Pg # 318, Para-2

152) NCERT, Pg # 316(E), 316(H)

153) Module

154)

Question Explanation:Identifying the incorrect brain structure.

Concept:Anatomy of the cerebrum.

Solution:The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the cerebrum, composed of gray matter,
where neuronal cell bodies are concentrated. The inner part of the cerebrum consists of white
matter, which contains nerve fibers. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect. The other
statements are correct: association areas are neither strictly sensory nor motor, the cerebral
aqueduct passes through the midbrain, and the pons consists of fibrous tracts that connect
different parts of the brain.

Final Answer:Cerebral cortex is made up of white matter

155)

Question Explanation:Identifying correct brain facts.

Concept:Anatomy of the brain.

Solution:The cerebral cortex, the outer layer of the cerebrum, is composed of gray matter.
Association areas of the cerebrum are regions that are responsible for complex functions and
are neither strictly sensory nor motor. The limbic system is a complex set of structures
located in the inner parts of the cerebral hemispheres, not the outer parts. The brain stem is
made up of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata, not the cerebrum and cerebellum.

Final Answer:A and B

 156)

NCERT Pg. # 317

157) NCERT Pg # NA

158) NCERT Pg # 235

159) NCERT Pg # 236

160) NCERT Pg. # 321

161) NCERT Pg. # 337

162) NCERT Pg. # 337

163) NCERT Pg. # 340

164)

Pg. No. 242 XI-NCERT

165) NCERT Pg. # 331

166) Question Explanation: Correct statement about β-cells of Islet's of logerthoms?

Concept: Pancras

Solution: Only (D) is wrong because β-Cells secreate insulin whose deficiency uses Diabctes
mellitas

Final Answer (22

167)

let's evaluate the given options:

A. (1) (a) Thyroid - Parathormone - Stimulates Lipolysis: The thyroid gland (a) produces
thyroid hormones not parathormone (produced by the parathyroid glands). So this is
incorrect.
B. (2) (c) Pancreas - Insulin - Stimulates glycogenolysis: The pancreas (c) produces insulin,
 but insulin inhibits glycogenolysis. So this is incorrect.
C. (3) (d) Adrenal - Cortisol - Stimulates gluconeogenesis: The adrenal cortex produces
cortisol, which stimulates gluconeogenesis. This is correct.
D. (4) (f) Ovary - Androgen - Protein catabolism: (f) Appears to be the testis in a female. So
this is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is (3).

168) NCERT Pg. # 339

169) NCERT Pg. # 339

170) NCERT Pg # 241

171)

Question Explaination:

The user wants to identify the primary physiological effect of the hormone glucagon.

Concept:

Endocrine System; Blood Glucose Regulation.

Solution:

Glucagon is a hormone released by the pancreas when blood sugar levels are low. It signals
the liver to break down stored glycogen (glycogenolysis) and release glucose into the
bloodstream. This action raises the blood glucose concentration, so it is classified as a
hyperglycemic hormone. It has the opposite effect of insulin.

Final Answer:

Hyperglycemic hormone

172) NCERT-XI Pg. # 335

173) NCERT Pg. # 337

174) NCERT, Pg # 340

175) NCERT, Pg # 336

176) NCERT Page No.334

177) NCERT Page No. 340

178) NCERT, Pg # 335

179) NCERT XII Pg. # 342

180) NCERT, Pg # 335-336