02-11-2025

2302CMD303033250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) A person wants to drive on the vertical surface of a large cylindrical wooden 'well' commonly
known as 'death well' in a circus. The radius of the well is 2 meter, and the coefficient of friction
between the tyres of the motorcycle and the wall of the well is 0.2, the minimum speed the
motorcyclist must have in order to prevent slipping should be –

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 25 m/s

2) An object is moving on a circular track of radius 450 m. At some instant, the object is moving at
30 m/s and gaining speed at a uniform rate of 2 m/s2. Its acceleration at this instant is nearly:-

(1) 1.6 m/s2

(2) 0.8 m/s2
(3) 2.8 m/s2
(4) 3.4 m/s2

3) Velocities of two particles A and B are as shown in fig. The distance between A and B is constant

along x- axis. Find angular velocity of B w.r.t.A.

(1) rad/s

(2)
rad/s
(3) rad/s

(4)
rad/s

4) One end of a string of length ℓ is connected to a particle of mass m and the other end is
connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed ,
the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) will be :

(1)
(2)
(3) zero
(4) T

5) A weightless thread can withstand tension upto 30 N. A stone of mass 0.5 kg is tied to it and is
revolved in a circular path of radius 2m in a vertical plane. If g = 10 m/s2, then the maximum angular
velocity of the stone can be:

(1) 5 rad/s
(2) 30 rad/s
(3) 60 rad/s
(4) 10 rad/s

6) A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of two

fragments are m/s and m/s. The velocity of the third fragment is (in m/s):-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) If linear mass density of a rod of length 2m varies as λ = 3x + 2, then the position of the centre of
gravity of the rod is-

(1) 1 m
(2) 1.5 m
(3) 1.2 m
(4) 2 m

8) Blocks A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal surface given equal speed of 2 m/s in opposite

direction as shown in the figure. At t = 0 at position of as shown in the

figure, then co-ordinates of centre of mass at t = 3 sec will be-

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (3, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) (2.5. 0)

9) A uniform metal sphere of radius R is taken and out of it a sphere of radius is cut off from the
end. The centre of mass of remaining part from the centre will be-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 1 m/s, respectively, as
shown. If the spring constant is 75 N/m, the maximum compression of the spring is -

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

11) A ball is dropped from a height h on a fixed horizontal floor and rebounds to a height The
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If the origin of co-ordinate system lies at the centre of mass, the sum of the moments of the
masses of the system about the centre of mass :

(1) may be greater than zero

(2) may be less than zero
(3) may be equal to zero
(4) is always zero

13) Find moment of inertia of the system for axis in the plane :-
(1) 14 kg m2
(2) 12 kg m2
(3) 10 kg m2
(4) None

14) A disc of mass M and radius R is reshaped in the form of ring of same mass but radius 2R. The
radius of gyration increased by a factor :

(1)
(2)
(3) 4
(4) 2

15) In an experiment with a beam balance an unknown mass m is balanced by two known masses of
16 kg and 4 kg as shown in figure.

Find the value of the unknown mass m in kg.

(1) 2 kg
(2) 4 kg
(3) 8 kg
(4) 12 kg

16) Four equal and parallel forces are acting on a rod (as shown in figure) at distances of 20 cm, 40
cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively from one end of the rod. Under the influence of these forces the

rod :

(1) is at rest
(2) experiences a torque
(3) experiences a linear motion
(4) experiences a torque and also a linear motion

17)
Find minimum force required to topple the cubical box about an edge.

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

18) The position of a particle is given by :

and momentum . The angular momentum is perpendicular to :-

(1) x axis
(2) y axis
(3) z axis
(4) line at equal angles all the three axis

19) A child stands at the cente of a turntable with his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set
rotating with an angular speed of ω. Now he folds his hands back. As a result moment of inertia of

system reduces to times the initial value. Find his new angular speed.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

20) Two particles of equal mass go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two solid spherical planets of equal radii R having masses 4M and 9M their centre are separated
by a distance 6R. A projectile of mass m is sent from the planet of mass 4 M towards the heavier
planet. What is the distance r of the point from the lighter planet where the gravitational force on
the projectile is zero ?

(1) 1.4 R
(2) 1.8 R
(3) 1.5 R
(4) 2.4 R

22) In the given situation 'A' is a solid sphere of mass M and radius a. 'B' is a spherical shell of same
mass M with radius 3a. The gravitational Intensity at a point 'P' which is situated at a distance 2a

from their's common centre.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

23) Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but its radius is 3 times bigger
than the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the
surface of the new planet is g', then :

(1) g' = 3g
(2) g' = g/9
(3) g' = 9g
(4) g'=27 g

24) With what angular velocity the earth should spin in order that a body lying at 37° latitude may
become weightless :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) An object of mass m is raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius of the
earth, that is , taken from a distance R to 2R from the centre of the earth. What is the gain in its
potential energy?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) An object is projected with the speed of . (Here Ve is the escape velocity) from the surface of
earth. Find out maximum height attained by the object.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from
it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be a
black hole ?

(1) 10–9 m
(2) 10–6 m
(3) 10–2 m
(4) 100 m

28) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit

of radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two wires of the same material have lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radii are in the ratio
. If they are stretched by applying equal forces. The increase in their lengths will be in the
ratio

(1)
(2)
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

30) Young's modulus of a material depends on :-

(1) Cross sectional area

(2) Temperature
(3) Applied stress
(4) Strain developed in the material

31) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/[Link] what depth (approximately) a rubber ball be
taken in a lake so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?

(1) 25 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 500 m

32) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as

shown. The breaking stress of the metal is . If g = 10 m s–2, then what should be the

minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 2 mm

33) An 8 m long copper wire and 4 m long steel wire, each of cross section 0.5 cm2 are fastened end
to end and stretched by 500 N force. The elastic potential energy of the system is :-
(Young's modulus: Ycu = 1 × 1011 N/m2,
Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2)

(1) 1/4 J
(2) 1/3 J
(3) 1/2 J
(4) 1 J

34) The increase in length on stretching a wire is 0.05%. If its Poisson’s ratio is 0.4, then its
diameter
(1) Reduce by 0.02%
(2) Reduce by 0.1%
(3) Increase by 0.02%
(4) Decrease by 0.4%

35) Figure shows graph between stress and strain for a uniform wire at two different temperatures
then

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) None of these

36) Water is filled in container as shown in figure. If pressure at bottom (B) of the container is 10

atm. Then find pressure at point A.

(1) 9.7 atm

(2) 10.3 atm
(3) 1 atm
(4) 8.5 atm

37) An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2 cm of water is poured into one of the arms of the
tube, how high does the mercury rise in the other arm from its initial level?

(1) 0.56 cm
(2) 1.35 cm
(3) 0.41 cm
(4) 2.32 cm

38) A rubber balloon has 300 g of water in it. Its weight in water will be (neglect weight of balloon)

(1) 100 g
(2) 200 g
(3) 300 g
(4) Zero

39) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the
velocity ' v ' of the fluid is :

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

40) Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure of water
is P at a point where flow speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow speed is 2v, is :-
(Take density of water as ρ)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P – ρv2

41) Eight equal drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops
coalesce, the new velocity is:-

(1) 10 cm/s
(2) 40 cm/s
(3) 16 cm/s
(4) 5 cm/s

42) Under a pressure head the rate of orderly volume flow of a liquid through a capillary tube is Q. If
the length of capillary tube is doubled and the diameter of tube is halved, the rate of flow would
become :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 8Q

43) The length of needle floating on the surface of water is 2.5 cm. The force in addition to its weight
required to lift the needle from water surface will be :-
(Surface tension of water = 7 N/cm)

(1) 35 N
(2) 17.5 N
(3) 0.35 N
(4) 0.175 N

44) A water drop of diameter 2 cm is broken into 64 equal droplets. The surface tension of water is
0.075 N/m. In this process the gain in surface energy will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
water in the capillary tube is 5 g Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
of water that will rise in this tube is :-

(1) 2.5 g
(2) 5.0 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 20 g

CHEMISTRY

1) The pH of a dilute solution of acetic acid was found to be 4.3. The addition of a small crystal of
sodium acetate will cause pH to :-

(1) Become less than 4.3

(2) Become more than 4.3
(3) Remain equal to 4.3
(4) Unpredictable

2) The hydroxide ion concentration of a wine is 8 × 10–11 M. What is the pH of the wine ?

(1) 2.1
(2) 2.9
(3) 3.9
(4) 10.1

3) The degree of dissociation in a weak electrolyte increases :-

(1) On increasing pressure
(2) On decreasing dilution
(3) On increasing dilution
(4) On increasing concentration

4) For which of the following is ΔHreaction equal to ΔHf for the product :-

(1) Cdiamond + O2(g) —→ CO2(g)

(2) N2(g) + O3(g) —→ N2O3(g)

(3)
H2(g) + I2(g) —→ HI(g)

(4)
N2(g) + O2(g) —→ NO(g)

5) The heats of neutralisation of four acids, A, B, C, D are –13.7, –9.4, –11.2 and –12.4 kcal
respectively when they are neutralised by a common base. The acidic character obeys the order:

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > D > C > B
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) D > B > C > A

0
6) Based on the values of B.E. given, ΔfH of N2H4(g) is :
Given : N–N = 159 kJ mol–1; H–H = 436 kJ mol–1
N≡N = 941 kJ mol–1; N–H = 398 kJ mol–1

(1) 711 kJ mol–1

(2) 62 kJ mol–1
(3) –98 kJ mol–1
(4) –711 kJ mol–1

7) The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. for the formation
of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1) 200 kJ mol–1

(2) 100 kJ mol–1
(3) 800 kJ mol–1
(4) 400 kJ mol–1

8) Out of electrode potential (I), temperature (II), ΔG (III), volume(IV) extensive properties are :

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) III, IV
9) What is true for a cyclic process

(1) w = 0
(2)
(3) q = 0
(4) None

10) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

A pext = 0 1 Free expansion of an ideal gas

B 2 Adiabatic process

C 3 Isothermal reversible process

D 4 In Isobaric process
(1) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3 , D - 2
(2) A - 1, B - 3, C - 3 , D - 4
(3) A - 1, B - 3, C - 4 , D - 2
(4) A - 1, B - 3, C - 2 , D - 4

11) What will be the change in Internal energy when no heat is observed by the system from the
surroundings but work is done on the system

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Equilibrium constant for the reactions,

the correct relation is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The equilibrium N2 (g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) is established in a reaction of vessel 2.5 L
capacity. The amounts of N2 and O2 taken at the start were respectively 2 moles and 4 moles. Half a
mole of nitrogen has been used up at equilibrium. The molar concentration of nitric oxide is :

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.1

14) Which is most stable oxide :-

(1) 2NO2 N2 + 2O2 K = 6.7 × 1016

(2) N2O2 N2 + O2 K = 2.2 × 1030
(3) 2N2O3 2N2 + 3O2 K = 1.2 × 1034
(4) 2N2O 2N2 + O2 K = 3.5 × 1033

15) What will be the concentration of acetate ion in a 1.0 M solution of acetic acid containing 0.1 M
HCl [Ka = 2 × 10–5]:-

(1) 2 × 10–3 M
(2) 2 × 10–4 M
(3) 2 × 10–2 M
(4) 2 × 10–6 M

16) Write the favourable conditions for forward direction in term of pressure and temperature for
following equilibrium Fe(s) Fe(l)

(1) High T, High P

(2) High T, Low P
(3) Low T, High P
(4) Low T, Low P

17) Which of the following reaction will be favored at low pressure :-

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

18) Consider the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) for which kC = 278 M–1. 0.001 mole of each
reagents SO2(g), O2(g) and SO3(g) are mixed in a 1.0 litre flask. Determine the reaction quotient of
the system (θC is reaction quotient).

(1) θC = 1000; the equilibrium shift to the right

(2) θC = 1000; the equilibrium shift to the left
(3) θC = 0.001; the equilibrium shift to the left
(4) θC = 0.001; the equilibrium shift to the right

19)
X and Y are respectively

(1) X = OH–, Y = H+
(2) X = H+, Y = OH–
–
(3) X = OH , Y = H2O2
–
(4) X = H2O2,Y = OH

20) When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to :-

(1) Sn
(2) Sn3+
(3) Sn4+
(4) Sn+

21) Which of the following element does not show the variable oxidation state.

(1) Fe
(2) Mn
(3) Cu
(4) Zn

22) Which of the following aqueous complex ion does not shows colour :-

(1) Ti+4 & Sc+3

(2) Cr+3 & Mn+3
(3) Fe+3 & Fe+2
(4) Mn+2 & Co+2

23) When MnO2 is fused with KOH and KClO3, a coloured compound is formed. The product and its
colour is :-

(1) K2MnO4, green

(2) KMnO4, purple
(3) Mn2O3, brown
(4) Mn3O4, black

24) Which of the following is exceptional electronic configration

(1) Gd
(2) Cm
(3) Th
(4) All of these

25) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

26) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

27) Maximum C–O bond length present in :-

(1) Fe(CO)5
–
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
+
(3) [Fe(CO)5]
(4) All have equal

28) Correct formula of diamminedichlorodicyanochromate(III) is :-

+3
(1) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–3
(2) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
(3) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–
(4) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]

29) Which complex is most stable ?

Where kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

30) Which of the following is correct order of cyrstal field splitting.

(1) C–donor > N–donor > O–donor

(2) N–donor > O–donor > C–donor
(3) C–donor > O–donor > N–donor
(4) O–donor > N–donor > C–donor

31) Which of the following cannot show linkage isomerism ?

(1) H2O
(2) CN–
(3) SCN–
(4)

32) The oxidation no and coordination number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– :-

(1) +1, 3
(2) +2, 4
(3) +3, 6
(4) +2, 5

33) Select most stable complex :-

+3
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
+3
(2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]
+3
(3) [Co(NH3)4(en)]
+3
(4) [Co(en)3]

34)

In any natural process :-

(1) The entropy of the universe remains const.

(2) The entropy of the universe tends towards minimum
(3) The entropy of the universe tends towards maximum
(4) Any of the above can happen

35) Free energy change at 300K for following reaction will be :-

2CuO(s) → Cu2O(s) + O2(g)

Given that
ΔH = 145.6 kJ mol–1 & ΔS = 116 JK–1 mol–1 :-

(1) 110.8 kJ mol–1

(2) 221.5 kJ mol–1
(3) 55.4 kJ mol–1
(4) 145.6 kJ mol–1

36) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L) to (2.0 atm, 7.0 L) with a
change in internal energy (ΔU) = 30 L-atm. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the process in L-atm:

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 25
(4) None of these
37) Predict which of the following reaction (s) has a negative entropy change ?
I. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) —→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
II. NH3(g) + HCl(g) —→ NH4Cl(s)
III. 2KClO4(s) —→ 2KClO3(s) + O2(g)

(1) III
(2) II
(3) I and II
(4) I

38) Statement-I: For any irreversible adiabatic compression for an ideal gas
Statement-II: For any reversible adiabatic compression for an ideal gas

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both Statements are correct
(4) Both Statements are incorrect

39) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column I Column II

(A) Fe(OH)3 (i) Ksp = s2

(B) Ag2CrO4 (ii) Ksp = 27s4

(C) CH3COOAg (iii) Ksp = 108s

5

(D) Ca3(PO4)2
3
(iv) Ksp = 4s
(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
(4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)

40) The solubility product of BaSO4 in water is 1.5 × 10–9. The molar solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M
solution of Ba(NO3)2 is

(1) 0.5 × 10–8 M

(2) 1.5 × 10–8 M
(3) 1.0 × 10–8 M
(4) 2.0 × 10–8 M

41) Which of the following is most soluble in water ?

–70
(1) Bi2S3 (Ksp = 1 × 10 )
–51
(2) Ag2S (Ksp = 4 × 10 )
–37
(3) CuS (Ksp = 8 × 10 )
 –16
(4) MnS (Ksp = 4 × 10 )

42) Synergic bonding involves :-

(1) Transfer of electron from ligand to metal

(2) Transfer of electron from filled metal orbitals to anti-bonding orbitals of ligands
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of above

43) Value of CFSE, in tetrahedral complex having 3d4 configuration of metal ion, surrounded by
weak field ligands, will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The magnetic moment of complexes given below are in the order :
(I) [Ni(CO)4] (II) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [CoF6]3–

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV > III > I > II
(4) IV > II > I > III

45) Match the following :-

Complex Property
2–
(A) [PtCl4] (P) dsp2
3–
(B) [Co(CN)6] (Q) diamagnetic
+3
(C) [Co(H2O)6] (R) Paramagnetic
2+
(D) [Mn(NH3)6] (S) Octahedral
(1) A → P,Q, B → Q,S, C → Q,S, D → R,S
(2) A → R, B → P,Q, C → Q, D → S
(3) A → P, B → R, C → Q,R,S, D → P
(4) A → R,S, B → P,Q, C → Q,R, D → R,S

BOTANY
1) Mannitol and laminarin are stored food in :-

(1) Sphagnum and Sargassum

(2) Spirogyra and Sargassum
(3) Sargassum and Ectocarpus
(4) Porphyra and Polysiphonia

2) In pteridophytes, prothallus produces :-

(1) Sporangia
(2) Antheridia and archegonia
(3) Vascular tissues
(4) Root, stem and leaf

3) Isogamy by non motile gamete in algae, found in :-

(1) Fucus
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Porphyra
(4) Ulothrix

4)

Which stage of moss consist of upright, slender axis bearing spirally arranged leaves?

(1) Protonema stage

(2) Prothallus stage
(3) Leafy stage
(4) Sporophyte

5) Read the following statements related to pinus :-

(1) Pinus have branched stem.
(2) Its root is associated with fungi in the form of mycorrhiza.
(3) Its male and female strobili are borne on different trees.
How many statement are true :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None

6) Select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Zoospores i Brown Algae a Chlamydomonas
(B) Non-Motile spores ii Red Algae b Polysiphonia
(C) Fragmentation iii Green Algae c Dictyota
(1) A-iii-a; B-ii-b; C-i-c
(2) A-ii-b; B-iii-a; C-i-c
(3) A-ii-a; B-i-b; C-iii-c
(4) A-iii-a; B-ii-c; C-i-b

7) Few stages of life cycle of moss is given below. Arrange these events in correct order starting
from sex organ bearing structure and select the correct option from option given below :
A. Protonema
B. Leafy gametophyte
C. Spore formation
D. Spore germination
E. Fertilization
F. Sporophyte

(1) A → B → C → D → F → E
(2) A → B → C → D → E → F
(3) A → B → F → E → C → D
(4) B → E → F → C → D → A

8) Identify the figure A, B and C and find the correct option from options given below:

(1) A: Laminaria; B: Spirogyra; C: Sphagnum

(2) A: Fucus; B: Ulothrix; C: Sphagnum
(3) A: Laminaria; B: Ulothrix; C: Sphagnum
(4) A: Fucus; B: Spirogyra; C: Sphagnum

9) Consider the following statements :-

(a) Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom
(b) Marchantia thallus is liver shaped and dorsiventral
(c) In mosses, the early stage of gametophyte is called protonema
(d) In Marchantia, sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.
How many above statements are true :-

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

10) Sporophyte depend on gametophyte is character of -

(1) Salvinia
(2) Adiantum
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Lycopodium

11) Which of the following is a unique character of all angiosperms

(1) Double fertilisation

(2) Fertilisation
(3) Pollination
(4) Pollen germination

12) Which of the following is an incorrect match ?

(1) Perigynous flower – Pulm, rose and peach

(2) Monoadelphous stamens – Pea
(3) Epigynous flower – Guava, cucumber and ray florets of sunflower
(4) Polyadelphous stamens – Citrus

13) What type of phyllotaxy is found in Calotropis and Guava?

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) None

14) Following characters are found in which family?

Leaves exstipulate, venation reticulate, flower actinomorphic, aestivation valvate, epipetalous
condition, placenta swollen.

(1) Fabaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Cruciferae

15) Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation in tomato ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Match the column I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-I

The cells of this region are

Region of very small, Thin walled and
x 1
maturation with dense protoplasm they
divide repeatedly

The cell of this region

Region of
y 2 gradually differentiates and
elongation
mature

Region of The cells of this region

z meristematic 3 undergo rapid elongation and
activity enlargement

(1) x–1, y–2, z–3

(2) x–3, y–1, z–2
(3) x–2, y–3, z–1
(4) x–2, y–1, z–3

17) The given shows the aestivation found in :-

(1) Calotropis
(2) Cotton
(3) Gulmohar
(4) Pea

18) If a flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through it is
called :-

(1) Actinomorphic
(2) Zygomorphic
(3) Asymmetric
(4) Both 1 & 2

19) Among mustard, muliathi, watermelon, soyabean, pumpkin, ashwagandha, Asparagus, brinjal,
Allium, Trifolium, Rose, Indigofera, bitter gourd, plum, cucumber, arhar, moong and peach, how
many plants have hypogynous flowers ?

(1) Three
(2) Ten
(3) Four
(4) Eleven

20) Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column - II

(a) (i) Brassicaceae

(b) (ii) Liliaceae

(c) (iii) Fabaceae

(d) (iv) Solanaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

3 (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

4 (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
21) In some plants thalamus contributes to fruit formation. Such fruits are termed as :

(1) False fruits

(2) Aggregate fruits
(3) True fruits
(4) Parthenocarpic fruit

22) The mesocarp of mango and coconut is respectively ?

(1) Fibrous and Fleshy

(2) Fleshy and Stony
(3) Stony and Fibrous
(4) Fleshy and Fibrous

23) Semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma is found in :

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

24) In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty
colourless cells. There are called :

(1) Spongy parenchyma

(2) Complimentary cells
(3) Bulliform cells
(4) Subsidiary cells

25) In ......X...... protoxylem lies toward centre and metaxylem lies towards periphery. Such an
arrangement of primary xylem is called as ...Y.... Select the correct word for X and Y ?
X - Y
(1) Stem - Exarch
(2) Root - Endarch
(3) Root - Exarch
(4) Stem - Endarch

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following is not a part of ground tissue system in dicot stem?

(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle
(3) General cortex
(4) Mesophyll

27) Which of the following is correct sequence of layers in dicot root from inner to outer side

(1) Epidermis → Hypodermis → General cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Vascular bundle → Pith
(2) Epidermis → General cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Vascular bundle → Pith
(3) Pith → Vascular bundle → Pericycle → Endodermis → General cortex → Hypodermis → Epidermis
(4) Pith→Vascular bundle→ Pericycle → Endodermis → General cortex → Epidermis

28) In leaf of, _______ abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis :–

(1) Sunflower
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Bamboo
(4) Grasses

29) All of the following statements are incorrect for guard cells, except

(1) They are bean-shaped in grasses

(2) Non green cells
(3) They do not enclose a stomatal pore
(4) Their outer walls are thin and inner walls are thick

30) Which of the following is not true regarding the plant part shown in given diagram ?

(1) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring.

(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint collateral and closed.
(3) Pith is well developed.
(4) Usually trichomes are present on it.

31) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the structure which regulate opening and

closing of stomata ?
(1) A : Subsidiary cell
(2) D : Guard cell
(3) B : Guard cell
(4) C : Subsidiary cell

32) Pith of dicot root is

(1) Small or inconspicuous

(2) Large or well developed
(3) Very large and conspicuous
(4) Large and inconspicuous

33) Which of the following is true about the ground tissue system?

(1) It is composed of xylem and phloem.

(2) It includes the epidermis, pericycle, and pith.
(3) It forms the main bulk of the plant body.
(4) It is absent in monocot roots.

34) Experiment which proves that CO2 is essential for photosynthesis :-

(1) Bell-Jar experiment

(2) Variegated leaf experiment
(3) Half leaf experiment
(4) Hill's experiment

35) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants has :-

(1) 2 carbons
(2) 6 carbons
(3) 3 carbons
(4) 4 carbons

36) In a chloroplast lowest pH is found in :-

(1) stroma
(2) lumen of thylakoid
(3) inter membrane space
(4) antennal complex

37) How many ATP are required in regeneration step of calvin cycle during the fixation of one
CO2 molecule ?

(1) 6 ATP
(2) 3 ATP
(3) 1 ATP
(4) 4 ATP

38) C4 plants shows saturation at about A while C3 responds to increased CO2 conc. and saturation
is seen only beyond B .

(1) A - 360 μlL–1, B - 360 μlL–1

(2) A - 360 μlL–1, B - 450 μlL–1
(3) A - 450 μlL–1, B - 360 μlL–1
(4) A - 450 μlL–1, B - 450 μlL–1

39) In plant cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during :-

(1) Photosynthesis only

(2) Respiration only
(3) Both photosynthesis and respiration
(4) Photorespiration only

40) Which of the following is not the product of light reaction ?

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH2
(3) O2
(4) Glucose

41) Major limiting factor for photosynthesis is :-

(1) Water
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Light
(4) Temperature

42) In Calvin cycle ATP is consumed during :-

(1) Carboxylation phase only

(2) Reduction phase only
(3) Reduction & regeneration phases
(4) Carboxylation & regeneration phases

43) In photosynthesis Hydrogen from a suitable _____ reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrate :

(1) Reducible compound

(2) Oxidisable compound
(3) Sugar
(4) Organic compound

44) What is required to cause a conformational change in the CF1 particle of the ATP synthase ?
(1) ATP
(2) ADP
(3) Break down of the proton gradient
(4) Proton pump

45) Statement-I :- Plant factors depends on the genetic predisposition and growth of the plant.
Statement-II :- Rate of photosynthesis saturates at 10% of the full sunlight.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

ZOOLOGY

1) Select the correct option :

Animal Common name

(a) Gorgonia (1) Bath sponge

(b) Ctenoplana (2) Sea fan

(c) Taenia (3) Comb jelly

(d) Euspongia (4) Tapeworm

(1) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(2) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

2) Identify the following animal a, b and c :-

a b c

(1) Sycon Spongilla Euspongia

(2) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia

 (4) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The members of which of the following phyla are primitive multicellular animals?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Platyhelminthes

4) Which of the following is true regarding molluscs :-

(1) All molluscs have soft bodies enclosed by calcareous shells

(2) Radula is present for feeding
(3) Adult molluscs are radially symmetrical
(4) Feather like gills are present near mouth.

5) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body cavity
is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called :-

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate

6) Identify A, B, C and D along with their phyla :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Ophiura, Devil fish, Pila, Star fish,

(1)
Mollusca Arthropoda Echinoderm Mollusca

Ophiura, Octopus, Pila, Star fish,

(2)
Echinodermata Mollusca Mollusca Echinodermata

Star fish, Octopus, Pila, Asterias,

(3)
Echinodermata Annelida Mollusca Echinodermata

Asterias, Devil fish, Apple snail, Ophiura,

(4)
Echinodermata Mollusca Mollusca Arthropoda
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which pair is not matched correctly ?

(1) Loligo – Squid

(2) Dentalium – Chiton
(3) Pinctada – Pearl oyster
(4) Aplysia – Sea hare

8) Read the following four statements A-D :-

(A) All members of phylum porifera are aquatic found in marine water only
(B) Sponges are primitive multicellular animals and have cellular level of organisation
(C) In sponges fertilisation is internal and development is direct
(D) Water transport system is helpful in food gathering and respiration only not in the removal of
nitrogenous wastes
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

9) Which of the following animals are radial symmetrical ?

(1) a & b
(2) b & d
(3) c & d
(4) a & c

10) Number of floating ribs in human are :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

11) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) All locomotion are movement but all movement are not locomotion.
(2) All movement are locomotion but all locomotion are not movement.
(3) Cardiac muscle is present in heart.
(4) Cardiac muscle are involuntary but striated muscle.

12) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in given diagram :-

(1) A = Actin, B = Myosin, C= Troponin

(2) A = Troponin, B = Tropomyosin, C = F-actin
(3) A = Actin binding site, B = Troponin, C = Cross arm
(4) A = Actin binding site, B = ATP binding site, C = Cross arm

13)

ATPase enzyme, needed for muscle contraction is located in :

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Myosin

14) Which is not true for scapula in the following?

(1) It is found between 2nd to 7th ribs

(2) It has an cavity which is found above the acromian process
(3) It is found dorsal part of throrax
(4) It is a flat triangular bone

15) Example of pivot joint is

(1) Ankle joint

(2) Hip joint
(3) Atlas-axis joint
(4) Metacarpophalangial joint
16) Identify the given below diagram and match correct option :-

(1) A-Radius, B-Ulna, C-Humerus, D-Carpals

(2) A-Humerus, B-Radius, C-Ulna, D-Carpals
(3) A-Humerus, B-Ulna, C-Radius, D-Carpals
(4) A-Carpals, B-Ulna, C-Radius, D-Humerus

17)

In scapula, just below the __A__, a cavity called __B__ is located, which articulate with head of
__C__.
Identify the A, B & C.

(1) A-Coracoid process, B-Acetabulum, C-Femur

(2) A-Coranoid process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(3) A-Acromion process, B-Glenoid, C-Humerus
(4) A-Spinous process, B-Acetabulum, C-Tibia

18) Given below is the diagrammatic view of human skull in which certain bones are labelled by A,
B, C and D. Find out the correct option in which all the alphabets are correctly labelled?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Zygomatic bone Sphenoid bone Temporal bone Frontal bone

(2) Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone Occipital bone Parietal bone

 (3) Sphenoid bone Zygomatic bone Occipital bone Frontal bone

(4) Zygomatic bone Maxilla bone Temporal bone Parietal bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19)

The autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to muscle fatigue, weakening
and paralysis of skeletal muscles is :-

(1) Tetany
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Arthritis

20) Match the column–I with column–II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Myosin (i) Troponin-C

(b) Z-disc (ii) Intercalated Disc

(c) Actin (iii) AT Pase Enzyme

(d) Cardiac muscle (iv) Actinin Protein

(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii

(2) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii

21) 'U'-Shaped bone is :-

(1) Vomer
(2) Frontal
(3) Hyoid
(4) Palatine

22)

Pectoral girdle consists of :-

(1) Scapula + Sternum

(2) Sternum + Ribs
(3) Scapula + Ribs
(4) Scapula + Clavicle

23) Nissl's granules are absent in :-

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendron
(3) Axon
(4) Both (2) and (3)

24) The forebrain consists of :-

(1) Cerebellum, thalamus and hypothalamus

(2) Pons, cerebrum and medulla.
(3) Amygdala, hippocampus and brain stem
(4) Thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebrum

25) Association areas is-

(1) Sensory in function

(2) Motor in function
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function
(4) Neurosecretory in function

26) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-

A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Transmission of an impulse across ___A___ synapse is very similar to impulse conduction along a
single ___B___ . Choose the correct options for A and B

A B

(1) Chemical Axon

 (2) Electrical Cyton

(3) Chemical Cyton

(4) Electrical Axon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Find out the correct match :

(a) Limbic system = regulation of sexual behaviour with hypothalamus.
(b) Thalamus = Co-ordinates sensory and motor signals.
(c) Association = Intersensory association, memory and communication.
(d) Pons = Consist fibre tracts that inter connect different brain regions.

(1) only a, b, c correct

(2) only a, c correct
(3) only b, c, d correct
(4) All correct

29) Select the correctly marked options of the given diagram ?

(1) (A) Synaptic cleft (B) Post synaptic membrane (C) Axon terminal
(2) (A) Synaptic cleft (B) Receptor (C) Pre-synaptic membrane
(3) (A) Synaptic vesicles (B) Receptor (C) Axon terminal
(4) (A) Pre synaptic membrane (B) Synaptic cleft (C) Post-synaptic membrane

30) Which structure form Brain stem

(1) A, B, C
(2) G, D, F
(3) D, H
(4) E, F, H
31) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

32) Which of following decreases the blood pressure :-

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Nor-adrenaline

33) Adrenal cortex regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Parathyroid regulates .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :-

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, BMR, release of few amount of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

34) Find out incorrect labelling in following diagram ?

(1) Axonal transport and anterior pituitary gland

(2) Portal circulation and posterior pituitary
(3) Anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
(4) Midbrain

35) Which one is group of peptide hormone :-

(1) Gastrin, glucagon, cortisol

(2) MSH, insulin, ANF
(3) Secretin, gastrin, Aldosterone
(4) Oestrogen, FSH, secretin

36) Which one is an organised endocrine gland ?

(1) Kidney
(2) GIT
(3) Liver
(4) Pineal

37) Gland which regulates sleep-wake cycle :-

(1) Adrenal gland

(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Thymus gland

38) Which one is not a secondary messenger?

(1) IP3
(2) Ca+2
(3) cAMP
(4) ATP

39) Find out the correct statement

(A) Gluconeogenesis & lipolysis are stimulated by glucocorticoids of adrenal.
(B) In diabetes insipidus patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
(C) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is secreted which causes dialation of blood vessels to
increase B.P.
(D) Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.

(1) A, C
(2) B, C
(3) A, D
(4) B, D

40)

Pineal gland regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Adrenal cortex is the source of .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :–

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, Ca+2 metabolism, release of few amount of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

41) Choose the correct option for pair of hormone which doesn't have antagonist function.

(1) Insulin-Glucagon
(2) Parathormone-Calcitonin
(3) Melatonin-MSH
(4) Thyroxine-Thymosin

42) The growing ovarian follicles mainly secretes which hormone?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Androgens
(4) Testosterone

43) Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?

(1) Development of growing ovarian follicles.

(2) Regeneration of endometrium
(3) Mammary gland development.
(4) Act on the mammary gland and stimulates the formation of alveoli.

44) Which statements is incorrect regarding hormone ?

(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical

(2) Act as intracellular secondary messenger
(3) Produce in trace amount
(4) Hormones are species non specific

45) The adrenal cortex hormone, which are involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called ?

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Gonadocorticoids
(3) Mineralocorticoids
(4) Glucocorticoid
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 2 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 2 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 3 4 3 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) NCERT XI, Pg. # 104

μN = mg

2)

3) 10 cos 60° = V cos 30° ⇒ m/s

⇒(V⊥)BA = WBA rBA

⇒ 10sin 60° – . sin30° = wBA(2)

⇒wBA = rad/s.

4)

5)

Question Explain : We have to find out maximum angular velocity of time performing V.C.M.

Concept : Tension in vertical circular motion.

Formula : Tension at the bottommost point (Tbottom​):

Tbottom​ − mg = mω2r

Calculation : Tbottom​ = Tmax​ = 30N

Tbottom​ − mg = mω2r

30 - (0.5)(10) = (0.5)ω2(2)

ω2 = 25

ω = 5 rad/s

Final Answer: Option (1).

6)

Applying principle of conservation of linear momentum,

7)

= =

= = 1.2 m

8)

At t = 0, =0
hence remains constant
Xcm = = 2.5
Ycm = 0
COM = (2.5, 0)

9)

d=

10) Due to spring force, velocity of 1 kg decreases and that of 3 kg increases. At the maximum

compression, both the blocks move with same velocity. By the

momentum conservation

1 × 2 + 3 × 1 = (1 + 3) v ⇒ v = m/s
By the energy conservation

x2 =

11) h1 = e2h ⇒

12)

If the origin of the co-ordinate system is at the centre of mass then which in turn

implies that

Here, represents the moment of a mass about the origin or the centre of mass.

13)
14)

Moment of inertia of the disc of mass M and radius R

⇒
And for the ring of same mass but radius 2R,
= M(2R)2
⇒ k2 = 2R

Thus,

15) mg ℓ2 = 16 gℓ1 .....(i)

mg ℓ1 = 4gℓ2 .....(ii)

⇒ ⇒ m = 8 kg

16)

τ = 20 × f – 40 × f + 60 × f – 80 f
= – 40 f

17)
F = 20 N

18)

and the x axis is given by .

Dot product of these two vectors is zero so angular momentum is perpendicular to x axis.

19) From angular momentum conservation

Ifωf = Iiωi
 20)

21)

Explain question : a body m is thrown from 4M to 9M. Find position of neutral point.

Concept: This question is based on for neutral point Fnet= 0

Solution:

The gravitational force on projectile of mass m at a distance r from a planet of mass 4M is zero

∴
or 4(6R–r)2 = 9r2 or 2(6R – r) = 3r or r = 2.4 R.
Final Answer: (4)

22)

I1 = 0

I2 =
I = I 1 + I2

23) As
(As r = constant)

⇒ g ' = 3g

24)

g' = g – ω2Re cos2λ

ω=
25)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks for the increase in the gravitational potential energy
when an object of mass m is lifted from the Earth's surface to a height equal to the Earth's
radius, meaning it is moved from a distance R to 2R from the Earth's center.
Underlying Concept: This problem involves the concept of gravitational potential energy in a
varying gravitational field. Unlike near the Earth's surface where gravity is approximated as
constant, here the distance from the Earth's center changes significantly, so the gravitational
potential energy formula involving the inverse of distance must be used.
Relevant Formulas: The gravitational potential energy of a mass m at a distance r from the
Earth's center is given by:
\[ U = -\frac{GMm}{r} \] where = universal gravitational constant, = mass of the Earth,
= mass of the object, = distance from the Earth's center.
Also, gravitational acceleration at the Earth's surface:
\[ g = \frac{GM}{R^2} \] where R is the Earth's radius.
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Calculate initial potential energy at Earth's surface (r = R):
\[ U_i = -\frac{GMm}{R} \]
2. Calculate final potential energy at height R above surface (r = 2R):
\[ U_f = -\frac{GMm}{2R} \]
3. Find the gain in potential energy ( ):
\[ \Delta U = U_f - U_i = -\frac{GMm}{2R} + \frac{GMm}{R} = \frac{GMm}{2R} \]
4. Substitute to express in terms of :
\[ \Delta U = \frac{gR^2 m}{2R} = \frac{1}{2} mgR \]
Thus, the gain in potential energy is .

Tips and Tricks: Use the relation to convert gravitational constant terms into
expressions involving g and R, which are usually easier to interpret.
Common Mistakes: 1. Treating gravity as constant over the height change and applying
directly. 2. Forgetting the negative sign in gravitational potential energy formula. 3.
Mixing up distances measured from surface instead of from Earth's center.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that involve incorrect powers or coefficients
(like or ) do not properly take into account the inverse dependence on radius in
gravitational potential energy. Also, the gain is positive, so negative or too small values are
inconsistent.

26)

4h = R + h

27) Escape velocity = = c = speed of light

⇒R=
= 10–2 m

28)

29)

30)

Concept Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of stress to strain:

• Y=Strain /Stress ​
• Stress (σ) = Force (F) / Area (A) Strain (ε) = Change in Length (ΔL) / Original Length (L)
• Young's modulus is an intrinsic property of the material. This means it depends on the type
of material itself and its structure. While stress and strain are related to force and changes in
dimension, Young's modulus itself describes the material's inherent resistance to this kind of
deformation.
• Analysis of Given Options
• Cross-sectional area – ❌ Incorrect. While stress does depend on cross-sectional area, Young's
modulus is the ratio of stress to strain. Strain also involves dimensions (change in length
relative to original length). The dimensional factors cancel out, meaning Y isn't directly
dependent on the cross-sectional area.
• Temperature – ✅ Correct. Temperature affects the material's properties at the atomic level,
including the strength of intermolecular bonds. This directly influences its stiffness and
therefore Young's modulus.
• Applied stress – ❌ Incorrect. Young's modulus describes how much a material deforms for a
given stress. It's the ratio. If you double the stress (within the elastic limit), you'll double the
strain, but Young's modulus (the ratio) stays the same.
• Strain developed in the material – ❌ Incorrect. Similar to stress, Young's modulus is the
relationship between stress and strain. It's not dependent o the specific strain value
Final Answer 2. Temperature
Level: Easy

31) Explanation of the Question:

A rubber ball is submerged in a lake. The question asks us to calculate the depth at which the
ball's volume decreases by 0.1% due to the water pressure.

Concept:
 The core concepts involved are bulk modulus (K) and hydrostatics pressure. Bulk modulus
relates the change in pressure to the change in volume of a material. Hydrostatic pressure
increases with depth in a fluid.

Formula:

A. Bulk Modulus :
B. Hydrostatic Pressure = P = ρgh

Where:

A. K : Bulk modulus
B. V : Original volume
C. ΔV : Change in volume
D. ΔP : Change in pressure (equal to hydrostatic pressure at depth h)
E. r : Density of the fluid (water) = 103 Kg/m3
F. g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2
G. h = Depth

Mathematical Calculation:
Volume Change: The volume decreases by 0.1%, so ΔV/V = -0.001 (Negative to cause volume
decreases)

Pressure Change: Using the bulk modulus formula: ΔP = . The pressure change is also equal
to the hydrostatic pressure at depth h i.e. ρgh = ΔP

∴ ρgh = ⇒h=

⇒h=
h = 108 × 0.001 × 10–3
h = 100 m

Correct Answer is option (2)

32)

acceleration =

Tension in wire =

=
Stress B.S

rmin = 1 mm

33) Work = Energy stored

 = × (Force) × (Δl)

&
Net Δl = Δl1 + Δl2 = 1mm = 10–3 m,

Elastic potential energy = × 500 × 10–3 = J

34)

35) Slope of the curve stress-strain represents young's Modulus. and Y depends upon temp. if
temp increases, Y decreases so Y2 > Y1 then T1 > T2

36)
PA = 10 × 105 – 103 × 10 × 3
= 106 – 104 × 3
= 104 (102 – 3)
= 97 × 104
= 9.7 × 105 Pa
= 9.7 atm

37) PA = PB
hwrw g = hHg rHg g
11.2 × 1 × g = (2x) × 13.6 × g

x=

38)

Fnos = mg – FB
Wapp = ρwVg – ρwVg = 0

39) from equation of continuity,

(A × 3) = (A × 1.5) + (1.5 A × V)
⇒ V = 1 m/s

40)

Using Bernoulli theorem,

⇒
 ⇒ P2 =

41)

R = 2r

v2 = 40 cm/s

42)

43) Force due to surface tension = T × 2ℓ

= 7 × 2 × 2.5
= 35 N

44) ΔSE = TΔA

= T (n4πr2 – 4πR2)

= 4πR2T
= 4p × (10–2) × 0.075 (4 – 1)
= 2.8 × 10–4 J

45) Let h be the height through which the liquid rises in the capillary tube of radius r.

Mass of the water in the first tube is

m = πr2hd = πr2 ×
m∝r

⇒ m2 = 2m1 = 2 × 5g = 10 g

CHEMISTRY
46)

Explanation
Concept
Common lon Effect: The addition of a common ion, to a weak acid solution suppresses the
ionization of the weak acid. Common lon Effect: The increased concentration of CH3COO– ions
The dilute acetic acid solution has a pH of 4.3. This indicates a certain concentration of H+
ions.
When sodium acetate is added, it dissociates into Na+ and CH3COO– ions.
shifts the equilibrium of the acetic acid dissociation to the left:
CH3COOH ⇌ H+ +CH3COO–
This shift reduces the concentration of H+ ions in the solution.
Since pH = –log[H+], a decrease in [ H+ ] results in an increase in pH.
Answer Option 2, (become more than 4.3).

49)

NCERT Page No. 152

51)

NCERT Page No. 153

52)

NCERT Page No. 154

53)

Extensive properties of a system depends upon quantity (size and Mass) present in the system.

54)

In a cyclic process, a system returns to its initial state after completing a cycle
From the first law of thermodynamics:
ΔU = Q – W
Since the internal energy (U) a state function, and the system returns to its original state,
the net change in internal energy over one complete cycle is zero:
ΔU = 0
This means:
Option: 2 ΔU =0(True)

55) Concept and theory.

57)

NCERT Page No. 176

 58)

NCERT Page No. 183

59)

Explain Question : Compare given equilibrium constants for oxide → elements reaction to
determine most stable oxide.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of reactant ∝ 1/K(c)

Solution :
Given K values:
Option 1: K = 6.7 × 1016
Option 2: K = 2.2 × 1030
Option 3: K = 1.2 × 1034
Option 4: K = 3.5 × 1033
Smallest K = 6.7 × 1016 → highest stability.

Final Answer : option (1)

60)

Explanation :-

A. Calculation the concentration of acetate ion in a solution of acetic acid.

Given Data :-

A. Concentration of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) = 1.0 M

B. Concentration of hydrochloric acid (HCl) = 0.1 M
C. Ka of acetic acid = 2 × 10⁻⁵

Concept :-

A. Acetic acid is a weak acid, and its ionization is suppressed by the presence of a strong acid
(HCl) due to the common ion effect (H⁺ ions).

Calculation :-

A. The ionization of acetic acid is: CH₃COOH ⇌ H⁺ + CH₃COO⁻

Ka = [H⁺][CH₃COO⁻] / [CH₃COOH]

A. HCl is a strong acid and completely ionizes: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻ So,

[H⁺] from HCl = 0.1 M.

A. Due to the common ion effect, the contribution of H⁺ from acetic acid ionization is negligible
compared to that from HCl. Therefore, the total [H⁺] ≈ 0.1 M.
B. Now, we can calculate the concentration of acetate ion [CH₃COO⁻]:
Ka = [H⁺][CH₃COO⁻] / [CH₃COOH]

2 × 10⁻⁵ = (0.1) [CH₃COO⁻] / (1.0) [CH₃COO⁻]

(2 × 10⁻⁵ × 1.0) / 0.1 [CH₃COO⁻] = 2 × 10⁻⁴ M

Answer option 2, (2 × 10⁻⁴ M).

62)

NCERT Page No. 186

64)

65)

NCERT Page No. 105

66)

NCERT Page No. 96

67) Ti+4, Sc+3 do not contain electron in d-orbital hence does not undergo d-d transition so do
not show colour.

68)

NCERT Page No. 106

69)

NCERT Page No. 111

70)

(1) Glycinato

(2) Ethylenediamine
 (3) Aqua H2O monodentate.
(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

71) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify the pair of ligands from the
given options where both ligands are ambidentate.
Concept : Types of ligand
Solution : The pair containing only ambidentate ligands is NO2−​ (nitrite) and SCN−
(thiocyanate), as each can coordinate through two different atoms.

72)

Metal with –ve ion shows more synergic bond.

73)

NCERT Page No. 124

74)

[Kd↓ ⇒ Stability of complex↑]

75)

Asking for: The correct order of crystal field splitting strength for different donor atoms.

Concept: Crystal field splitting is influenced by the nature of the ligands. The spectrochemical
series arranges ligands in order of their increasing field strength.

Formula: N/A (conceptual question based on the spectrochemical series)

Solution/Explanation:

A. The spectrochemical series is an experimentally determined series that ranks ligands based on
their ability to split d-orbital energies.
B. Carbon-donor ligands (like CN-) are strong-field ligands, causing large splitting.
C. Nitrogen-donor ligands (like NH3, en) are intermediate-field ligands.
D. Oxygen-donor ligands (like H2O, C2O42–) are weak-field ligands, causing small splitting.
E. Therefore, the correct order is C-donor > N-donor > O-donor.

Answer : Option : 1
76)

NCERT Page No. 125

77)

NCERT Page No. 127

78)

Asking for : To select the most stable complex.

Concept : Stability of complexes increases with the chelate effect, where multidentate
ligands form more stable rings.

Solution/Explanation : Ethylenediamine (en) is bidentate, forming more stable

complexes than monodentate NH3​.
3+
[Co(en)3​] has three en ligands, maximizing the chelate effect and thus its stability
compared to other complexes with fewer (en) ligands or no (en) ligands.

Answer : Option (4)

79)

All natural process are irreversible process and for irreversible process ΔSuniverse = +ve. Hence
Suniverse increases.

80) Explaination: Find the ΔG

Given Data: ΔH = 145.6 kJ mol–1 , ΔS = 116 JK–1 mol–1, T = 300 k
Concept: ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Calculation: ΔG =

Final Answer:-
Correct Option: 1

81) At constant pressure, ΔH = ΔU + P.ΔV

= 30 + 2 × 4 = 38 atm-L

82) Explaining Question:

Predict which of the given reactions has a negative entropy change (ΔS < 0).
Concept: This question is based on Predicting Sign of Entropy Change (ΔS) based on moles of
gas and phase changes.
Solution:
 Entropy decreases ( ΔS < 0 ) if disorder decreases (e.g., fewer gas moles, gas to liquid/solid).
I. CH4( g)+2O2( g)→CO2( g)+2H2O(l):
Moles of gas: Reactants =1 + 2 = 3 mol; Products = 1 mol.
Δng = 1 – 3= – 2. Also, gas ( O2 ) and gas ( CH4 ) form liquid ( H2O ). ΔS < 0.
II. NH3( g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s):
Moles of gas: Reactants = 1 + 1 = 2 mol; Products =0 mol.
Δng = 0 – 2 = – 2. Gases form a solid. ΔS < 0.
III. 2KClO4( s) → 2KClO3( s)+O2( g): Moles of gas: Reactants =0 mol ; Products =1 mol.
Δng = 1 – 0 =+1. Solid forms a gas. ΔS > 0.
Reactions I and II have a negative entropy change.
Final Answer
Reactions I and II have a negative entropy change. Option (3)

83)

84)

Ksp

Fe(OH)3 = AB3 type 27s4

Ag2CrO4 = A2B type 4s3

CH3COOAg = AB type s2

Ca3(PO4)2 = A3B2 type 108s5

85) A Explanation:
We are asked to find the molar solubility of BaSO4 in a 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution, given its Ksp
value.
B Given Data:

A. Ksp of BaSO4 = 1.5 × 10-9

B. Concentration of Ba(NO3)2 = 0.1 M

C Concept:
The solubility product (Ksp) is the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of a sparingly soluble salt.
The common ion effect will reduce the solubility of BaSO4 in the presence of Ba2+ ions from
Ba(NO3)2.
D Mathematical Calculation:
The dissolution of BaSO4 can be represented as:
Ksp = [Ba2+][SO42-]
Let's' be the molar solubility of BaSO4 in the 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution.
[Ba2+]=0.1 + s (from Ba(NO3)2) [SO42-] = s
Substituting the values into the Ksp expression: =
1.5 × 10-9 (0.1+s)(s)
Since s is very small compared to 0.1, we can approximate:
1.5 × 10-9 ≈ 0.1s
Solving for s:
S≈ 1.5 × 10-8 M
E Final Answer:
The molar solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is approximately 1.5 x 10-8 M.

86) Find solubility of each salt individually.

87) Explaining the question : The question asks what synergic bonding involves in the
context of coordination complexes.
Concept : Synergic bonding Solution : Synergic bonding involves σ donation from the ligand
to the metal and π back-bonding from filled metal orbitals to empty anti-bonding orbitals of the
ligand. The π back-bonding stabilizes the complex by enhancing metal-ligand interaction.

88) CFSE = Value for 3d4 (Tetrahedral complex)

⇒ Δt

89)

Asking for : Arranging the complexes in increasing order of magnetic moment.

Concept : Magnetic moment depends on unpaired electrons. Strong field ligands cause
pairing (low spin, low μ), weak field ligands do not cause pairing (high spin, high μ).

Solution:
(I) [Ni(CO)₄] (d8, configuration, strong field) = 0 unpaired electrons (μ=0).

(II) [Mn(CN)₆]⁴⁻ (d5, configuration, strong field) = 1 unpaired electron (μ≈1.73).

(III) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (d3 configuration, strong field) = 3 unpaired electrons (μ≈3.87).

(IV) [CoF₆]³⁻ (d6, configuration, weak field) = 4 unpaired electrons (μ≈4.9).

Correct order (μ) : I < II < III < IV

Answer : Option : 2

90) [PtCl4]2– dsp2, Diamagnetic , Square planar

[Co(CN)6]3– d2sp3, Diamagetic
BOTANY

91) NCERT XI Pg.# 32-33

92) NCERT (XI) (E & H) Pg. # 38, Para-3.3

93)

NCERT XI, Page No. 30, 3.1

94)

NCERT page # 36

95) NCERT Pg # 39

96) NCERT Page No. # 32,33

97) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

98) NCERT XI Pg 31,34

99) NCERT Pg # 34,35,36

100) NCERT Pg. # 36

101) NCERT-XI Pg. # 40, 41

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 63, 64

103) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 71

104) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 80

105) NCERT - XI, Pg. # 75, fig - 5.16(d),(b),(c), (e)

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67, Para-1

107)
 NCERT–XI, Pg. # 74

108) NCERT Pg. # 72, 5.5 2nd para

109) Hypogynous flowers are found in plants of mustard, muliathi, soyabean, ashwagandha,
Asparagus, brinjal, Allium, Trifolium, Indigofera, arhar, moong

110)

Solution-

Matching the columns:

(a) - (iii) Fabaceae

(b) - (iv) Solanaceae

(c) - (ii) Liliaceae

(d) - (i) Brassicaceae
the correct answer is - (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

111) The correct answer is (1) False fruits.

In some plants, the thalamus (or receptacle} contributes to the formation of the fruit, which is
then called a false fruit or accessory fruit. Examples of false fruits include apples and
strawberries, where the fleshy part of the fruit comes from the thalamus, rather than just the
ovary.
Here's a brief explanation of the other terms:

A. Aggregate fruits: These form from a single flower with multiple ovaries, such as strawberries
or blackberries.
B. True fruits: These develop solely from the ovary of a flower and are typical fruits formed after
fertilization.
C. Parthenocarpic Fruits: These are fruits that develop without fertilization, meaning they are
seedless, such as in bananas.

112) NCERT XI Page No. # 76

113) NCERT-XI [Link]. 69

114) NCERT-XI [Link]. 94

115) Module IV, Page 223

116) NCERT-XI, Page No. 89

117) NCERT-XI, Page No. 91

118) NCERT, Pg. # 93

119)

NCERT Pg. No. 72

120) NCERT XI Pg. 92

121) NCERT XI Pg. # 89

122)

NCERT-XI, Page # 74
Dicot root pith is Small or inconspicuous.

123) NCERT-XI, Page # 72

124) NCERT Pg # 207, para-1

125) NCERT (XI) (Eng.) Pg. # 219 (2nd para)

NCERT (XI) िहदी पे ज # 219 (अािखरी पे राग ाफ)

126) NCERT (XI) (Eng.) Pg. # 214 (2nd last para)

NCERT (XI) िहदी पे ज # 215 (पहला पे राग ाफ)

127)

One ATP molecule is required in the regeneration step of the Calvin cycle for the fixation of
one CO2 molecule.
Here's a breakdown:
• Calvin Cycle: This is a cyclic process that involves three main stages: carbon fixation,
reduction, and regeneration.1
• Regeneration Phase: The primary goal of this phase is to regenerate the RuBP
(ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate) molecule, which is the carbon acceptor in the cycle.
• ATP Usage: To achieve this regeneration, one ATP molecule is used to convert 3-
phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG).
Therefore, the correct answer is 1 ATP

128) NCERT-XI Page # 218 (1st Para)

129) Module-6, Pg. # 70

 130) NCERT Pg. # 215

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 223

132) NCERT XI Pg#232

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 208

134) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 215

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 222

ZOOLOGY

136) Question Explanation: Correctly matching animals to their common names.

Concept: Zoological Examples and Common Names.
Solution:

A. (a) Gorgonia (Phylum Cnidaria) is commonly known as the Sea fan (2).
B. (b) Ctenoplana (Phylum Ctenophora) is a type of Comb jelly (3).
C. (c) Taenia (Phylum Platyhelminthes) is commonly known as the Tapeworm (4).
D. (d) Euspongia (Phylum Porifera) is commonly known as the Bath sponge (1).

The correct match is: a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1.

Final Answer: a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

137) Question Explanation: Identifying three common sponge examples.

Concept: Porifera examples.
Solution: The figures show (a) Sycon (or Scypha), (b) Euspongia (Bath sponge), and (c)
Spongilla (Freshwater sponge).
Final Answer: 4

138) Question Explanation: Identifying the most primitive multicellular animals.

Concept: Primitive Multicellular Animals.
Solution: Porifera (sponges) are the most primitive multicellular animals. They have a
cellular level of organization, meaning cells are arranged in loose aggregates and don't form
true tissues. This makes them less complex than other phyla like Ctenophora, Coelenterata, or
Platyhelminthes, which have at least a tissue level of organization.
Final Answer: Porifera
139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

140) NCERT XII, Page # 48

141) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 53,54

142) NCERT XIth Pg.#54

143) NCERT Pg. # 49, Para-4.2.1

144) NCERT Pg. # 50,53

145) Module 8 Pg. # 138

146) Question Explanation : Identifying the incorrect statement related to movement and
muscle type.
Concept : Introduction
Solution :
Movement: Any change in position of body parts.
Locomotion: Movement of an entire organism from one place to another.
Cardiac muscle: Involuntary and striated, found in the heart.
Statement 2 — “All movements are locomotion but all locomotion are not movement” — is
incorrect, because locomotion is just a type of movement, not vice versa.
Final Answer : Option (2)

147)

Structure of contractile protein (Myosin monomer) Fig. (20.3)(b)

148)

Question Explanation : The question asks where the ATPase enzyme responsible for muscle
contraction is located.

Concept : The question is based on the structure of contractile proteins.

Solution : The ATPase enzyme is present in the head region of the myosin filament, which
hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction.

Final answer : Option (4)

149) NCERT XI Pg # 311

150)

NCERT XI - Pg# 312

151) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 311

152) NCERT XIth Pg # 311

153)

Question Explanation : The question is asking to correctly identify the labelled bones (A, B,
C, D) in a diagram of the human skull.
Concept : Human skull
Solution : A is the Sphenoid bone, B is the Zygomatic bone, C is the Occipital bone, and D is
the Frontal bone.
Final Answer : Option (3)

154) Explanation :
The autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle fatigue,
weakening, and paralysis of skeletal muscles is Myasthenia gravis.
This occurs due to antibodies disrupting communication between nerves and muscles at the
neuromuscular junction.

155)

NCERT XI - Pg# 305, 306

156) NCERT, Page#309

157)

NCERT (XI), Pg. # 224

158) Question Explanation:

The question asks where Nissl's granules, which are important components of nerve cells, are
absent.
Explanation:
Nissl's granules are present in the cyton (cell body) and dendrites but are absent in the
axon and axon hillock.
Correct Answer: (3) Axon

159)

Explain Question : The forebrain consists of

Concept : This question is based on forebrain
 Explanation : The forebrain is the largest part of the brain, including the cerebrum and
diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus).
Final answer : 4 – Thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebrum

160)

The correct answer is 3. Neither clearly sensory nor motor in function.

• Association areas are regions of the cerebral cortex that are not primarily involved in
direct sensory input or motor output. Instead, they play a crucial role in higher-level cognitive
functions such as:

A. Integrating information: They receive input from multiple sensory areas and combine it to
form a more complete understanding of the world.
B. Storing memories: They are involved in the formation and retrieval of memories.
C. Decision making and reasoning: They contribute to complex thought processes and
judgment.
D. Language processing: Some association areas are essential for understanding and producing
language.

161) Therefore, the correct option is 3.

162)

NCERT Pg. No. # 234

163)

Explain Question : Find out the correct match.

Concept : This question is based on human brain – functions of different parts
Explanation :
(a) Limbic system with hypothalamus → regulates sexual behaviour ,correct
(b) Thalamus → relays and coordinates sensory & motor signals ,correct
(c) Association areas → involved in intersensory association, memory & communication
,correct
(d) Pons → fibre tracts interconnecting different brain regions ,correct
All statements are correct.
Final answer : 4. All correct

164) NCERT Pg. # 319

165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 320, 321 fig.21.4

166)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
 • Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.

167) Explain Question:

Identify the factor that lowers blood pressure.
Concept: This question is based on Hormones of heart.
Solution: The correct answer is option 2, as ANF promotes vasodilation and fluid loss.

A. 1. Thyroxine – Increases metabolic rate → can raise blood pressure

B. 2. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) – Lowers blood pressure by causing vasodilation and
promoting sodium & water excretion
C. 3. Aldosterone – Promotes sodium and water retention → increases blood volume & pressure
D. 4. Nor-adrenaline – Causes vasoconstriction → raises blood pressure

Final answer: 2

168) Explain Question:

Question: Complete the sentences:
Adrenal cortex regulates .......
Thyroid gland regulates ........
Parathyroid regulates .......

Concept:
This question is based on Functions of endocrine glands.

Explanation :
Adrenal cortex → regulates electrolytic balance (via mineralocorticoids like aldosterone)
Thyroid gland → regulates BMR (basal metabolic rate via thyroxine)
Parathyroid → regulates Ca2+ metabolism (via parathormone)

Final answer : 4

169) NCERT Pg. # 332

170) Explain Question : Which one is group of protein hormone

Concept : This question is based on Classification of hormones
Explanation : Protein/peptide hormones → pituitary hormones (GH, FSH, LH, etc.), insulin,
glucagon, secretin, [Link] hormones (lipid soluble) → cortisol, aldosterone,
[Link] with cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen are wrong (they are steroids).Correct
group of protein hormones = pituitary hormones, insulin, glucagon.
Final answer : Option 2 (Pituitary hormones, insulin, glucagon)

171) NCERT Pg. No. # 331

172)

The correct answer is 3. Pineal gland

Solution:
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating
circadian rhythms, including the sleep-wake cycle.

173)

Explanation :
The correct answer is 4. ATP
Solution: IP3​ , Ca+2 , and cAMP are well-established secondary messengers in cell signaling
pathways. ATP is the primary energy currency of the cell, not a typical secondary messenger.

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 242, 244

175) NCERT 333, 335

176)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify which pair of hormones listed does not
have opposite (antagonistic) functions. In other words, the pair chosen should not work
against each other to regulate a physiological process.

Underlying Concept: Hormones often work in pairs that have opposite effects to maintain
balance in the body, known as antagonistic hormones. For example, insulin lowers blood
glucose levels, while glucagon raises them. Understanding which hormones have antagonistic
roles helps in identifying how body processes are regulated.

Tips and Tricks: Remember classic hormone pairs like insulin and glucagon or parathormone
and calcitonin, which control blood calcium and glucose levels oppositely. If the pair does not
involve opposing physiological actions, they are not antagonists.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all hormone pairs listed are antagonistic without reviewing
their actual roles. Some hormones do not oppose each other but have independent functions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - Insulin-Glucagon: They have antagonistic roles in
blood glucose regulation. - Parathormone-Calcitonin: They have opposite effects on calcium
levels in blood. - Melatonin-MSH: Melatonin regulates sleep-wake cycles, MSH influences skin
pigmentation, so they do not oppose each other directly, but they are unrelated rather than
antagonistic. - Thyroxine-Thymosin: Thyroxine regulates metabolism, while thymosin is
involved in immune system development. They do not act antagonistically.

177) NCERT Pg. # 337, 22.2.10

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 337, 22.2.10

179)

NCERT Pg. # 330, 22.1

180) NCERT Pg # 335, 22.2.7