Module- III: Environmental Pollution: Air pollution (Sources, Impacts,

Preventive measures and Public Health Aspects.

Sources of Air Pollution

1. Which of the following gases is the primary contributor to photochemical smog

formation?
A) CO₂
B) SO₂
C) NO₂
D) CH₄
Answer: C) NO₂
Explanation: Nitrogen dioxide participates in photochemical reactions forming ozone and
peroxyacetyl nitrates (PAN), the major components of smog.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013), Environmental Studies – From Crisis to Cure

2. Which industrial process is the major anthropogenic source of sulfur dioxide?

A) Textile dyeing
B) Cement manufacturing
C) Metal smelting
D) Fertilizer blending
Answer: C) Metal smelting
Explanation: Smelting sulfide ores like pyrite releases large quantities of SO₂ gas.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006), Environmental Science – Working with the Earth

3. Which of the following pollutants primarily results from incomplete combustion?

A) CO
B) CO₂
C) NO₂
D) O₃
Answer: A) CO
Explanation: Carbon monoxide forms during incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels due
to limited oxygen.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005), Environmental Studies

4. Which is a mobile source of air pollution?

A) Thermal power plant
B) Cement kiln
C) Automobiles
D) Refinery
Answer: C) Automobiles
Explanation: Mobile sources are vehicles that move and emit pollutants like CO, NOx, and

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hydrocarbons.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004), Environmental Studies for UG Students

5. Which pollutant is most associated with indoor air pollution in rural India?
A) O₃
B) Particulate matter
C) CO
D) Smoke from biomass burning
Answer: D) Smoke from biomass burning
Explanation: Use of wood, dung, and crop residues for cooking emits PM, CO, and hydrocarbons
indoors.
Source: Dr. Pratiba Singh et al. (2010), Textbook of Environmental and Ecology

6. Which of the following is not a natural source of air pollution?

A) Volcanic eruptions
B) Pollen grains
C) Forest fires
D) Petroleum refining
Answer: D) Petroleum refining
Explanation: Refining is an anthropogenic industrial activity. The others are natural sources.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006), Elements of Environmental Science and Engineering

7. The largest source of carbon monoxide globally is from:

A) Automobiles
B) Industrial furnaces
C) Biomass burning
D) Volcanoes
Answer: C) Biomass burning
Explanation: On a global scale, open biomass burning produces more CO than transport.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

8. Which pollutant is most responsible for acid rain formation?

A) NH₃
B) CO
C) SO₂
D) O₃
Answer: C) SO₂
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide oxidizes to sulfuric acid in the atmosphere, leading to acid rain.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

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9. The main source of nitrogen oxides (NOx) in the atmosphere is:
A) Chemical fertilizers
B) High-temperature combustion
C) Volcanic emissions
D) Ozone reactions
Answer: B) High-temperature combustion
Explanation: NOx forms when nitrogen and oxygen combine at high temperatures in engines and
furnaces.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

10. In urban areas, the largest contributor to suspended particulate matter (SPM) is:
A) Road dust and vehicle exhaust
B) Sea spray
C) Volcanoes
D) Lightning
Answer: A) Road dust and vehicle exhaust
Explanation: Unpaved roads and diesel exhaust are major SPM sources in cities.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

11. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

A) CO
B) SO₂
C) O₃
D) Pb
Answer: C) O₃
Explanation: Ozone is formed secondarily through photochemical reactions involving NOx and
hydrocarbons.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

12. The chief pollutant emitted by petrol vehicles is:

A) SO₂
B) Lead
C) CO₂
D) CO
Answer: D) CO
Explanation: Incomplete combustion of petrol releases carbon monoxide as a major emission.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

13. Which is a non-combustion source of air pollution?

A) Incineration
B) Road dust re-suspension
C) Coal power plants

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D) Automobiles
Answer: B) Road dust re-suspension
Explanation: Dust particles become airborne mechanically without combustion.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

14. Lead in ambient air primarily arises from:

A) Diesel exhaust
B) Smelting and battery recycling
C) Forest fires
D) Agricultural fields
Answer: B) Smelting and battery recycling
Explanation: Lead-based industrial processes and recycling are major emission sources.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

15. The process of photochemical smog formation was first observed in:
A) London
B) Los Angeles
C) Beijing
D) Tokyo
Answer: B) Los Angeles
Explanation: Los Angeles experiences intense sunlight and vehicle emissions, leading to smog
formation.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

16. Which air pollutant has both natural and anthropogenic origins and causes haze
formation?
A) Ozone
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Aerosols
D) Lead
Answer: C) Aerosols
Explanation: Aerosols originate from dust, sea salt, and industrial emissions and scatter sunlight.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

17. The most common hydrocarbon pollutant emitted by vehicles is:

A) Methane
B) Ethane
C) Benzene
D) Formaldehyde
Answer: A) Methane
Explanation: Methane and non-methane hydrocarbons are released due to incomplete
combustion.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)
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18. Which gas acts as a precursor for ground-level ozone?
A) SO₂
B) NOx
C) NH₃
D) CO₂
Answer: B) NOx
Explanation: Nitrogen oxides react with hydrocarbons under sunlight to form ozone.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

19. Which activity releases the highest PM₂.₅ concentration in households?

A) LPG cooking
B) Charcoal burning
C) Kerosene lamps
D) Electric stoves
Answer: B) Charcoal burning
Explanation: Charcoal emits ultrafine particles during incomplete combustion.
Source: Dr. Pratiba Singh et al. (2010)

20. Which pollutant is colorless and odorless, but highly toxic?

A) SO₂
B) CO
C) NO₂
D) H₂S
Answer: B) CO
Explanation: Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin, leading to
hypoxia.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

21. The burning of which fuel produces the largest amount of particulate matter per unit
energy?
A) LPG
B) Diesel
C) Coal
D) Natural gas
Answer: C) Coal
Explanation: Coal combustion produces large ash and soot particles compared to gaseous fuels.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

22. A major source of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in urban air is:
A) Dry cleaning and paint solvents
B) Power plants
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C) Soil bacteria
D) Sea salt spray
Answer: A) Dry cleaning and paint solvents
Explanation: VOCs evaporate from industrial solvents, contributing to photochemical smog.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

23. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) mainly originate from:

A) Fertilizer production
B) Refrigeration and aerosol sprays
C) Vehicle exhaust
D) Waste incineration
Answer: B) Refrigeration and aerosol sprays
Explanation: CFCs are used as coolants and propellants and later diffuse into the atmosphere.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

24. The main source of ammonia in the atmosphere is:

A) Combustion
B) Livestock waste and fertilizers
C) Vehicle exhaust
D) Mining
Answer: B) Livestock waste and fertilizers
Explanation: Ammonia volatilizes from manure and agricultural nitrogen fertilizers.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

25. The chief pollutant from thermal power plants is:

A) O₃
B) CO
C) SO₂
D) CH₄
Answer: C) SO₂
Explanation: Coal combustion releases sulfur dioxide due to sulfur content in coal.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

26. Which of the following sources contributes most to black carbon emissions?
A) LPG use
B) Biomass burning
C) Power plants
D) Natural gas combustion
Answer: B) Biomass burning
Explanation: Incomplete combustion of biomass produces soot or black carbon.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

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27. The “brown cloud” phenomenon in Asian cities is primarily due to:
A) Ozone
B) Dust and black carbon
C) Sulfur oxides
D) CO₂
Answer: B) Dust and black carbon
Explanation: Combination of dust, smoke, and soot forms the persistent brown haze.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

28. Which heavy metal is emitted from coal combustion?

A) Lead
B) Mercury
C) Arsenic
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
Explanation: Trace elements like mercury and arsenic volatilize during coal burning.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

29. Which source category contributes most to global methane emissions?

A) Wetlands
B) Vehicles
C) Forest fires
D) Landfills
Answer: A) Wetlands
Explanation: Anaerobic decomposition in wetlands is the largest natural CH₄ source.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

30. Among the following, which activity contributes to both primary and secondary air
pollution?
A) Burning fossil fuels
B) Wind erosion
C) Volcanic eruption
D) Photosynthesis
Answer: A) Burning fossil fuels
Explanation: It releases primary pollutants (CO, SO₂, NOx) and leads to secondary ones like
ozone and acid rain.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

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Part 2 – Impacts of Air Pollution

1. Which air pollutant is primarily responsible for the corrosion of marble structures like the
Taj Mahal?
A) O₃
B) CO
C) SO₂
D) NO₂
Answer: C) SO₂
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide reacts with rainwater to form sulfuric acid, which corrodes calcium
carbonate in marble.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013), Environmental Studies – From Crisis to Cure

2. Photochemical smog primarily affects which organ system in humans?

A) Digestive system
B) Respiratory system
C) Nervous system
D) Circulatory system
Answer: B) Respiratory system
Explanation: Smog components like ozone and PAN irritate the respiratory tract and reduce lung
function.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005), Environmental Studies

3. Which of the following combinations is most responsible for acid rain formation?
A) CO and O₃
B) SO₂ and NOx
C) CO₂ and CH₄
D) NH₃ and VOCs
Answer: B) SO₂ and NOx
Explanation: Both gases form sulfuric and nitric acids when oxidized in the atmosphere.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

4. Ground-level ozone causes damage to:

A) Plant chlorophyll and crop yield
B) Soil microorganisms
C) Aquatic organisms
D) Geologic structures
Answer: A) Plant chlorophyll and crop yield
Explanation: Ozone oxidizes plant tissues, reducing photosynthesis and agricultural productivity.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)
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5. Which pollutant causes “black lung disease” in coal miners?
A) CO
B) SPM
C) NO₂
D) H₂S
Answer: B) SPM
Explanation: Inhalation of coal dust particles leads to pneumoconiosis or black lung disease.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

6. Which of the following gases causes the “greenhouse effect”?

A) O₃
B) N₂
C) CO₂
D) SO₂
Answer: C) CO₂
Explanation: Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation, contributing to global warming.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

7. Which pollutant is most associated with neurological damage in children?

A) NO₂
B) Pb (Lead)
C) CO
D) O₃
Answer: B) Pb (Lead)
Explanation: Lead interferes with nerve cell development, lowering IQ and causing behavioral
disorders.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

8. Which condition is directly caused by prolonged exposure to sulfur dioxide?

A) Asthma
B) Anemia
C) Cancer
D) Jaundice
Answer: A) Asthma
Explanation: SO₂ is a strong irritant that triggers asthma attacks and bronchial inflammation.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

9. Which pollutant contributes most to the depletion of the ozone layer?

A) CO₂
B) CFCs
C) SO₂
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D) NO₂
Answer: B) CFCs
Explanation: CFCs release chlorine radicals in the stratosphere that destroy ozone molecules.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

10. Acid rain typically has a pH range of:

A) 6.5–7.0
B) 5.6 or below
C) 8.0–9.0
D) Above 7.5
Answer: B) 5.6 or below
Explanation: Natural rainwater is slightly acidic due to dissolved CO₂, but acid rain has a lower
pH due to SO₂ and NOx.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

11. Carbon monoxide affects the human body primarily by:

A) Stimulating the nervous system
B) Reacting with hemoglobin
C) Causing lung fibrosis
D) Blocking nerve transmission
Answer: B) Reacting with hemoglobin
Explanation: CO forms carboxyhemoglobin, reducing oxygen transport in the blood.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

12. Long-term exposure to high levels of particulate matter (PM₂.₅) can cause:
A) Cardiac and respiratory diseases
B) Kidney failure
C) Eye infections
D) Thyroid disorders
Answer: A) Cardiac and respiratory diseases
Explanation: Fine particles penetrate deep into lungs and bloodstream, leading to chronic health
issues.
Source: Dr. Pratiba Singh et al. (2010)

13. Which atmospheric layer experiences ozone depletion?

A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Answer: B) Stratosphere
Explanation: Ozone concentration peaks in the stratosphere and is destroyed by CFCs.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

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14. The “London Smog” of 1952 was primarily caused by:
A) Photochemical smog
B) Coal combustion and SO₂
C) Volcanic ash
D) Vehicle emissions
Answer: B) Coal combustion and SO₂
Explanation: Cold weather, high humidity, and coal burning caused sulfurous smog, killing
thousands.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

15. Acid deposition can lead to:

A) Neutralization of soils
B) Loss of aquatic biodiversity
C) Increase in soil fertility
D) Growth of algal blooms only
Answer: B) Loss of aquatic biodiversity
Explanation: Acidic water bodies lower pH, affecting fish and amphibians.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

16. Which pollutant leads to methemoglobinemia (“blue baby syndrome”) in infants?

A) NO₂
B) Nitrate (NO₃⁻)
C) SO₂
D) Pb
Answer: B) Nitrate (NO₃⁻)
Explanation: Ingested nitrate converts hemoglobin into methemoglobin, reducing oxygen
delivery.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

17. The greenhouse gas with the highest global warming potential (GWP) is:
A) CO₂
B) CH₄
C) N₂O
D) SF₆
Answer: D) SF₆
Explanation: Sulfur hexafluoride has a GWP about 23,000 times greater than CO₂.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

18. High concentrations of ozone at ground level cause:

A) Respiratory distress
B) Cooling effect
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C) Improved photosynthesis
D) No effect on health
Answer: A) Respiratory distress
Explanation: Ground-level ozone is a strong oxidant that damages lung tissue.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

19. The term “acid fog” refers to:

A) Fog containing sulfuric acid droplets
B) Fog caused by CFCs
C) Fog produced by nitrogen dioxide
D) Fog with high CO₂ levels
Answer: A) Fog containing sulfuric acid droplets
Explanation: Acid fog forms when SO₂ reacts with moisture under cold conditions.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

20. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) mainly affects:

A) Heart tissues
B) Plant leaves
C) Bones
D) Blood cells
Answer: B) Plant leaves
Explanation: PAN damages chloroplasts, reducing photosynthesis and causing leaf bronzing.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

21. The depletion of ozone leads to an increase in:

A) Ultraviolet radiation
B) Infrared radiation
C) Visible light
D) Cosmic rays
Answer: A) Ultraviolet radiation
Explanation: The ozone layer blocks UV-B radiation; its depletion allows more to reach the
Earth.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

22. “Sick building syndrome” is mainly caused by:

A) Poor sanitation
B) Indoor air pollutants like formaldehyde and VOCs
C) Noise pollution
D) Poor lighting
Answer: B) Indoor air pollutants like formaldehyde and VOCs
Explanation: Poor ventilation and off-gassing from materials cause irritation, fatigue, and nausea.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

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23. Which air pollutant is most responsible for visibility reduction in urban areas?
A) NO₂
B) SO₂
C) PM₂.₅
D) CO
Answer: C) PM₂.₅
Explanation: Fine particulates scatter sunlight, causing haze and reducing visibility.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

24. A serious consequence of ozone layer depletion is:

A) Increased skin cancer
B) Reduced rainfall
C) Soil salinity
D) Earthquakes
Answer: A) Increased skin cancer
Explanation: Excess UV-B exposure increases risk of melanoma and cataracts.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

25. Which ecosystem component is most sensitive to acid deposition?

A) Marine life
B) Forest soil
C) Limestone rocks
D) Coral reefs
Answer: B) Forest soil
Explanation: Acid rain leaches essential nutrients from soil and mobilizes toxic metals.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

26. Air pollution can indirectly cause eutrophication by:

A) Reducing soil erosion
B) Deposition of atmospheric nitrogen compounds
C) Blocking sunlight
D) Cooling the atmosphere
Answer: B) Deposition of atmospheric nitrogen compounds
Explanation: NOx from the air deposits in water bodies, stimulating algal growth.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

27. Which pollutant is linked with lung cancer among non-smokers?

A) Radon gas
B) CO
C) NO₂
D) SO₂
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Answer: A) Radon gas
Explanation: Radon is a radioactive gas that decays into carcinogenic isotopes inside homes.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

28. Which major organ is first affected by inhaled carbon monoxide?

A) Lungs
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidneys
Answer: B) Brain
Explanation: CO deprives the brain of oxygen, leading to headaches and confusion.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

29. Which of the following is a regional-scale air pollution impact?

A) Acid rain
B) Ozone hole
C) Photochemical smog
D) Sick building syndrome
Answer: A) Acid rain
Explanation: Acid rain spreads across large regions, affecting ecosystems and monuments.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

30. Long-term air pollution exposure in cities can lead to:

A) Improved immunity
B) Increased cardiovascular mortality
C) Enhanced oxygen capacity
D) Reduced lung clearance only
Answer: B) Increased cardiovascular mortality
Explanation: Chronic exposure to fine particulates and gases accelerates heart disease.
Source: Dr. Pratiba Singh et al. (2010)

Part 3 – Preventive and Control Measures of Air Pollution

1. The most effective way to reduce automobile pollution is to:

A) Increase road width
B) Ban diesel vehicles
C) Promote public transport and electric vehicles
D) Improve parking space availability
Answer: C) Promote public transport and electric vehicles
Explanation: Switching to non-fossil fuel vehicles and efficient mass transport reduces CO, NOx,
and PM emissions.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013), Environmental Studies – From Crisis to Cure
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2. The device used to remove particulate matter from industrial emissions is:
A) Catalytic converter
B) Electrostatic precipitator
C) Wet scrubber
D) Bag filter
Answer: B) Electrostatic precipitator
Explanation: Electrostatic precipitators use electrical charges to remove fine dust from flue gas.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006), Elements of Environmental Science and Engineering

3. The Clean Air Act in India was enacted in:

A) 1974
B) 1981
C) 1992
D) 2000
Answer: B) 1981
Explanation: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in 1981 to control air
pollution.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

4. The primary function of a catalytic converter is to:

A) Cool exhaust gases
B) Remove sulfur oxides
C) Convert CO and NOx into less harmful gases
D) Trap particulate matter
Answer: C) Convert CO and NOx into less harmful gases
Explanation: Catalytic converters oxidize CO to CO₂ and reduce NOx to N₂.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

5. Which of the following is a source-oriented control measure?

A) Urban tree planting
B) Use of low-sulfur fuels
C) Population relocation
D) Air quality monitoring
Answer: B) Use of low-sulfur fuels
Explanation: Controlling pollutants at their source, like using cleaner fuels, minimizes emissions.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

6. Green belts are developed around industrial areas mainly to:

A) Beautify surroundings
B) Increase humidity
C) Absorb pollutants and reduce noise
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D) Prevent floods
Answer: C) Absorb pollutants and reduce noise
Explanation: Plants act as biological filters for air pollutants and serve as noise barriers.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

7. Which of the following is a fuel substitution measure?

A) Using natural gas instead of coal
B) Installing scrubbers
C) Banning old vehicles
D) Increasing stack height
Answer: A) Using natural gas instead of coal
Explanation: Cleaner fuels like CNG and LNG emit less CO₂, SO₂, and particulates.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

8. Which of these devices removes gaseous pollutants from industrial exhaust?

A) Bag filter
B) Cyclone separator
C) Wet scrubber
D) Electrostatic precipitator
Answer: C) Wet scrubber
Explanation: Scrubbers use liquid to absorb gaseous contaminants like SO₂ and NH₃.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

9. What is the main principle of a cyclone separator?

A) Centrifugal force
B) Electrostatic charge
C) Adsorption
D) Catalysis
Answer: A) Centrifugal force
Explanation: Cyclones spin air rapidly, forcing heavier particles to move outward and settle.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

10. Which plant is most effective in absorbing SO₂ and particulate matter?
A) Neem
B) Peepal
C) Ashoka
D) Ficus
Answer: B) Peepal
Explanation: Peepal has a large leaf area and waxy surface that traps dust and absorbs gases.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

11. In industrial emissions, flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is mainly used to remove:
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A) NOx
B) SO₂
C) CO
D) Hydrocarbons
Answer: B) SO₂
Explanation: FGD systems use lime or limestone slurry to neutralize sulfur dioxide.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

12. What does “AQI” stand for?

A) Air Quality Index
B) Air Quantity Indicator
C) Air Quality Indicator
D) Atmospheric Quality Input
Answer: A) Air Quality Index
Explanation: AQI measures the health impact of air pollutants like PM, CO, NO₂, and O₃.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

13. The “polluter pays” principle was introduced under which act?
A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
B) Water Act, 1974
C) Air Act, 1981
D) Forest Act, 1980
Answer: A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Explanation: This principle makes polluters responsible for covering the cost of pollution
control.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

14. The main function of tall chimneys in industries is to:

A) Increase draft
B) Reduce emission concentration at ground level
C) Cool the gases
D) Store heat energy
Answer: B) Reduce emission concentration at ground level
Explanation: Tall stacks disperse pollutants over a wider area, reducing local concentrations.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

15. The device used to measure air pollutant concentration is called:

A) Manometer
B) Hygrometer
C) Gas analyzer
D) Barometer
Answer: C) Gas analyzer

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Explanation: Gas analyzers detect pollutants like CO, NOx, SO₂ in ambient air.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

16. Which of the following is the most effective long-term measure to control air pollution?
A) Relocation of industries
B) Energy conservation and efficiency improvement
C) Ban on specific pollutants
D) Plantation
Answer: B) Energy conservation and efficiency improvement
Explanation: Reducing energy use directly lowers fossil fuel combustion and emissions.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

17. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in India are notified by:
A) Ministry of Health
B) CPCB
C) NITI Aayog
D) Indian Meteorological Department
Answer: B) CPCB
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board defines permissible pollutant limits.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

18. Which fuel emits no sulfur dioxide on combustion?

A) LPG
B) Diesel
C) Coal
D) Furnace oil
Answer: A) LPG
Explanation: Liquefied petroleum gas is a hydrocarbon fuel with negligible sulfur content.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

19. Which of these is an example of dispersion technique in pollution control?

A) Electrostatic precipitator
B) Tall chimney
C) Scrubber
D) Catalytic converter
Answer: B) Tall chimney
Explanation: Dispersion methods dilute pollutants without reducing their quantity.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

20. Which law provides legal powers to close polluting industries in India?

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A) Air Act 1981
B) Water Act 1974
C) Environment Protection Act 1986
D) Wildlife Protection Act 1972
Answer: C) Environment Protection Act 1986
Explanation: The EPA grants central authority to enforce environmental protection measures.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

21. The use of unleaded petrol was introduced mainly to reduce:

A) NOx
B) CO₂
C) Pb emissions
D) Hydrocarbons
Answer: C) Pb emissions
Explanation: Leaded petrol released lead oxides, which were phased out by using unleaded
petrol.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

22. The term “decoking” in petroleum refineries refers to:

A) Removal of carbon deposits from furnaces
B) Removal of sulfur compounds
C) Cooling exhaust gases
D) Adsorption of hydrocarbons
Answer: A) Removal of carbon deposits from furnaces
Explanation: Decoking prevents incomplete combustion and minimizes smoke emissions.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

23. Which metal-based catalyst is used in automobile catalytic converters?

A) Nickel
B) Platinum
C) Iron
D) Copper
Answer: B) Platinum
Explanation: Platinum group metals catalyze oxidation of CO and hydrocarbons.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

24. Which air pollutant is best controlled by adsorption using activated carbon?
A) CO
B) Hydrocarbons
C) SO₂
D) NO₂
Answer: B) Hydrocarbons

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Explanation: Activated carbon traps VOCs and organic vapors through adsorption.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

25. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) aims to:

A) Reduce global CO₂ and greenhouse gas emissions
B) Eliminate CFCs
C) Prevent acid rain
D) Conserve biodiversity
Answer: A) Reduce global CO₂ and greenhouse gas emissions
Explanation: It set emission reduction targets for developed nations under UNFCCC.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

26. Which of the following is a personal-level measure to reduce air pollution?

A) Using bicycles for short trips
B) Increasing speed limits
C) Using air fresheners
D) Using diesel cars
Answer: A) Using bicycles for short trips
Explanation: Reduces fossil fuel combustion and CO₂ emissions.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

27. The process of carbon capture and storage (CCS) is mainly used for:
A) Capturing CO₂ from industrial exhaust
B) Removing NO₂
C) Extracting methane
D) Cleaning wastewater
Answer: A) Capturing CO₂ from industrial exhaust
Explanation: CCS traps CO₂ before it reaches the atmosphere, mitigating climate change.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

28. “Odd-Even” vehicle policy was implemented in Delhi to:

A) Reduce traffic accidents
B) Control vehicular emissions
C) Conserve fuel
D) Reduce noise
Answer: B) Control vehicular emissions
Explanation: The policy alternated car usage to cut down peak-time air pollution.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

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29. The most suitable control method for dust from cement plants is:
A) Wet scrubbers
B) Cyclone separators
C) Electrostatic precipitators
D) Bag filters
Answer: D) Bag filters
Explanation: Fabric filters trap fine dust efficiently in cement industries.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

30. The Montreal Protocol (1987) deals with the control of:
A) Greenhouse gases
B) Ozone-depleting substances
C) Particulate matter
D) Acid rain
Answer: B) Ozone-depleting substances
Explanation: It mandated phase-out of CFCs and halons to protect the ozone layer.
Source: Erach Barucha (2004)

31. The Air Quality Index (AQI) category “Severe” indicates:

A) Good air quality
B) Minimal health risk
C) Serious health effects on all people
D) Only sensitive groups affected
Answer: C) Serious health effects on all people
Explanation: AQI > 400 represents emergency conditions harmful to everyone.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

32. The most suitable biological control for air pollution is:
A) Planting trees with high APTI value
B) Spraying water on dust
C) Using tall chimneys
D) Installing filters
Answer: A) Planting trees with high APTI value
Explanation: APTI (Air Pollution Tolerance Index) indicates plants’ pollution absorption
capacity.
Source: Dr. Pratiba Singh et al. (2010)

33. Which policy introduced National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) in
India?
A) Environment Protection Act
B) Air Act
C) National Environment Policy

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D) Kyoto Protocol
Answer: B) Air Act
Explanation: Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, CPCB initiated NAMP in
1984.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

34. “Flue gas conditioning” improves:

A) Combustion efficiency
B) Particulate removal in ESPs
C) Boiler temperature
D) Noise reduction
Answer: B) Particulate removal in ESPs
Explanation: Moisture or ammonia is added to improve dust particle charge collection.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

35. Which of the following is an administrative control measure?

A) Emission standard regulation
B) Scrubber installation
C) Fuel change
D) Catalytic converter usage
Answer: A) Emission standard regulation
Explanation: Administrative measures involve setting and enforcing pollution limits.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

36. The APC device most efficient for very fine dust (<1 μm) is:
A) Cyclone separator
B) Bag filter
C) Electrostatic precipitator
D) Scrubber
Answer: C) Electrostatic precipitator
Explanation: ESPs remove over 99% of fine particulate matter through electric charging.
Source: P. Meenakshi (2006)

37. Vehicle emission testing centers check:

A) Engine oil quality
B) CO and hydrocarbon levels in exhaust
C) Vehicle weight
D) Fuel color
Answer: B) CO and hydrocarbon levels in exhaust
Explanation: Tests ensure compliance with permissible emission norms.
Source: R. Rajagopalan (2013)

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38. Which type of pollution control is achieved by “adsorption”?
A) Noise
B) Water
C) Air (gas-phase)
D) Solid waste
Answer: C) Air (gas-phase)
Explanation: Adsorption removes VOCs and organic vapors using activated carbon.
Source: Raman Sivakumar (2005)

39. “Vehicular Pollution Control Certificate (PUC)” ensures:

A) Roadworthiness
B) Exhaust emission within legal limits
C) Valid insurance
D) Proper tire pressure
Answer: B) Exhaust emission within legal limits
Explanation: PUC certificate verifies CO, HC, and smoke levels are acceptable.
Source: Benny Joseph (2005)

40. Which global organization monitors transboundary air pollution issues?

A) WHO
B) UNEP
C) IPCC
D) CPCB
Answer: B) UNEP
Explanation: The United Nations Environment Programme coordinates global environmental
efforts.
Source: G. Tyler Miller Jr. (2006)

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