07-09-2025

2701CMD303011250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ray is travelling parallel to principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. If the distance
between ray and principal axis is h, magnitude of deviation of incident ray is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, a concave lens of focal length 40 cm and a concave lens of
focal length 15 cm are placed in contact. The power of the combination in dioptre is :

(1) +1.5
(2) –1.5
(3) +6.67
(4) –6.67

3) When the distance of an object from a concave mirror is decreased from 15 cm to 9 cm, the image
gets magnified 3 times than that in first case. Calculate the focal length of the mirror.

(1) 3 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 7.2 cm

4) An optical instrument is placed along y–axis & principal axis is along x–axis as shown in the
figure. An object is placed in 2nd quadrant. Match the following possible combinations for various
locations of image I in list–I & optical instrument in list–II.
 List–I List–II

(P) I is in 1st quadrant (a) convex lens

(Q) I is in 2nd quadrant (b) concave mirror

(R) I is in 3rd quadrant (c) both convex & concave mirror

(S) I is in 4th quadrant (d) both convex & concave lens

Options :
P Q R S

(1) b c a d

(2) a b c d

(3) c d b a

(4) d c b a
(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)
3
(4) 4

5) Magnification produced by astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and length of

telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification when the image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (D
= 25 cm) is -

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 16
(4) 18

6) Assertion (A) :- If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens, the lens must be concave.
Reason (R) :- The convex lens can give diverging rays.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

7) Four lenses of focal length +10 cm, +50 cm, +100 cm and +200 cm are available for making an
astronomical telescope. To produce the largest magnification, the focal length of the eye piece
should be :

(1) +10 cm
(2) +50 cm
(3) +100 cm
(4) +200 cm
8) One face of a prism with a refracting angle of 30° is coated with silver. A ray incident on another
face at an angle of 45° is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face and retraces its path.

What is the refractive index of the prism ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror and going as A' and B'. The mirror :-

(1) is plane
(2) is convex
(3) is concave
(4) may be any spherical mirror

10) The graph shows how the inverse of magnification produced by a thin convex lens varies with

object distance u. What will be the focal length of the lens used ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Figure shows the multiple reflections of a light ray along a glass corridor where the walls are
either parallel or perpendicular to one another. If the angle of incidence at point a is 30°, then the
angles of reflections of light ray at points d, e and f respectively are :-

(1) 30°, 30°, 30°

(2) 30°, 60°, 60°
(3) 60°, 30°, 60°
(4) None of these

12) In young's double slit experiment with a source of light of wavelength 6320Å, the first maxima
will occur when :-

(1) Path difference is 9480 Å

(2) Phase difference is 3π radian
(3) Path difference is 6320 Å
(4) Phase difference is π radian

13) A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such
that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60° with respect to the preceding one. The
fraction of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Assertion (A) :- In Young's experiment, the fringe width for dark fringes is same as that of
bright fringes.
Reason (R) :- In Young's double slit experiment the fringes are formed with a source of white light,
then only black and white fringes are observed.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

15) In young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that amplitude of the
light from one slit is double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity, the resultant
intensity I when they interfere at phase difference ϕ is given by :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) In Fraunhofer diffraction at a single slit of width d with incident light of wavelength 5500 Å, the
first minimum is observed, at angle of 30°. The first maximum is observed at an angle θ, equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) When the angle of incidence on a material is 60°, the reflected light is completely polarized. The
velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is (in ms–1)

(1) 3×108

(2)

(3)
(4) 0.5 ×108

18) In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light coming from the first slit is double the
intensity from the second slit. The ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity on the
interference fringe pattern observed is :-

(1) 34
(2) 40
(3) 25
(4) 38

19) If AB is incident wavefront. Then, refracted wavefront is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Electrical force between two point charges is 200 N. If we increase 10% charge on one of the
charges and decrease 10% charge on the other, then electrical force between them for the same
distance becomes

(1) 99 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 200 N
(4) 198 N

21) A solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. The electrostatic potential V is plotted as a
function of distance r from the centre of the sphere. Which of the following best represents the
resulting curve?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. The positively charged plate is at
x = 0 and negatively charged plates is at x = d. Two slabs one of conductor and the other of a
dielectric of same thickness d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential (V)

versus distance x graph will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) A thin semicircular ring of radius ‘r’ has a positive charge distributed uniformly over it. The net

field E at the centre ‘O’ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Electric field on the axis of a small electric dipole at a distance r is at a distance of 2r
on a line of perpendicular bisector. Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Two identical positive charges are fixed on the y-axis, at equal distance from the origin O, A
particle with a negative charge starts on the negative x-axis at a large distance from O, moves along
the x-axis passed through O and moves far away from O. Its acceleration a is taken as positive along
its direction of motion. The particle’s acceleration a is plotted against its x-coordinate. Which of the
following best represents the plot?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of side ‘a’ each. Work done is
removing a charge –Q from its centre to infinity is

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

27) A pendulum bob of mass m carrying a charge q is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field of
intensity E. The tension in the thread is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) T = mg + Eq

28) The breakdown electric intensity for air is 3 × 106 V/m. The maximum charge that can be held by
a sphere of radius 1 mm is

(1) 0.33 C
(2) 3.3 C
(3) 0.33 nC
(4)

29) Two identical conducting very large plates P1 and P2 having charges +4Q and +6Q are placed
very closed to each other at separation d. The plate area of either face of the plate is A. The potential
difference between plates P1 and P2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) An non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries of total charge of 1.11 × 10-10 c distributed non-
uniformly on its circumference producing an electric field E everywhere in space. The value of the

integra (1 = 0 being centre of the ring) in volts is

(1) -1
(2) +2
(3) -2
(4) zERO

31) Two points charges and are placed at distances b = 1cm and a = 2 cm from
the origin on the y and x-axis as shown in figure. The electric field vector at point (a, b) will subtend
an angle with the x-axis given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) A point charge q is a distance r from the centre O of an uncharged spherical conducting layer,
whose inner and outer radii equal to a and b respectively. The potential at the point O if r < a is

times

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Two point charges q and –q are separated by a distance 2a. Find the flux of the electric field

vector aross the circle of radius r is shown.

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

34) Two concentric sphere of radii a1 and a2 carry charges q1 and q2 respectively. If the surface
charge density is same for both spheres, the electric potential at the common centre will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In a uniform electric field find the total flux associated with the given surfaces (R is radius)

(1)
(2) a = 0, b = 0, c = 0
(3)
(4)

36) AB and PQ are two resistance wires of same length and same material. The cross section area of

PQ is double of AB.

Statement-A:- Current in both wires is same.

Statement-B:- Electric field inside both wires in same

Statement-C:- Drift speed of free electrons in both wires are same.

Statement-D:- Resistivity of both wires are same

Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect?

(1) A, BC
(2) A, D
(3) B, C
(4) Only A

37) A capacitor of capacitance C when connected across a battery has a charge of 100 µC. When a
dielectric of dielectric constant k, is introduced completely in the space between the plats of
capacitor a charge of 700 µC flows through the battery. What is the value of k ?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 3
38) The electric current in branch BD will be

(1) 5 ampere form D to B

(2) 2 ampere from D to B
(3) 2 ampere from B to D
(4) 5 ampere from B to d

39)

Figure shows a circuit containing a battery and three parallel plate capacitors with identical plate
separation (filled with air). The capacitors lie along x-axis and a graph of the electric potential V
along that axis is shown.

If the area of the plates of capacitors are A1, A2 & A3 respectively,

then
(1) A1 < A2 > A3
(2) A1 > A3 > A2
(3) A1 = A2 = A3
(4) A1 > A2 > A3

40) In the circuit shown in the figure C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C, C4 = 4C. Then select correct option :

(1) Maximum potential difference is across C1.

(2) Minimum potential difference is across C2.
(3) Maximum potential energy is in C2.
(4) Minimum potential energy is in C2.
41) A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field 100Vm–1 in the space between two plates.
If the distance between the plates is 1mm and area of each plate is 10 cm2, then the energy stored in
the condenser is.

(1) 4.4 × 10–14 J

(2) 8.8 × 10–14 J
(3) 2.2 × 10–4 J
(4) 1.1 × 10–14 J

42) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C, and it is connected to a battery of emf V. The
battery is disconnected and the plates of the capacitor are pulled apart until the separation between
the plates is doubled. What is the work done by the agent pulling the plates apart, in this process ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CV2

43) In the circuit shown, capacitors A and B have identical geometry, but a material of dielectric
constant 3 is present between the plates of B. The potential differences across A and B are

respectively :-

(1) 2.5 V, 7.5 V

(2) 2 V, 8 V
(3) 7.5 V, 2.5 V
(4) 8 V, 2 V

44)

When switch S is open then current in is I1 and when switch S is closed then current is I2.
The value of I1/I2 will be

(1) 0.5
(2) 1.5
(3) 2/3
(4) 1

45)

Equivalent capacitance between A and B is nC. The value of n is :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

CHEMISTRY

1) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 2-methylbut-2-enoic acid

(2) 3-methylbut-3-enoic acid
(3) 3-methybut-2-enoic acid
(4) 2-methylbut-3-enoic acid

2) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

3) How many total possible stereo isomer of given compound :

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 6

4) Wrong statement regarding methyl carbonium ion .

(1) It is sp2 hybridised

(2) Vacant orbital is sp2 hybridised
(3) Vacant orbital is perpendicular to molecular planar and is pure p-orbital
(4) It is electrophile with sextet of electron

5) Correct order of stability of carbocation :-

(1) III > I > II

(2) II > I > III
(3) II > III > I
(4) I > II > III

6) Which of the following cation is aromatic :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) Only D
(4) B, D

7) Which of the following compound has maximum Ka ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) Identify the strongest base from the given compounds :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following does not show keto enol tautomerism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) Which of the following is most reactive towards Acidic Dehydration ?

(1) PhCH(OH)CH3
(2) PhCH2CH2OH
(3) Ph – OH
(4)

11) The reaction of C6H5CH=CHCH3 with HBr produces:

(1)

(2) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br

(3)

(4)

12)

A
A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Match the following columns-

Column-II
Column-I
(Name of
(Reaction)
reaction)
 Reimer-
A P Tiemann
Reaction

Gatterman-
B Q Koch
Reaction

Clemenson
C R
Reduction

Etard
D S
Reaction

(1) (A–R), (B–Q), (C–P), (D–S)

(2) (A–P), (B–Q), (C–R), (D–S)
(3) (A–R), (B–Q), (C–S), (D–P)
(4) (A–Q), (B–R), (C–S), (D–P)

14) Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing rate of hydrolysis for SN1 reaction:

(1) II > III > IV > I

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > II > I
(4) I > II > III > I

15)

The incorrect reaction is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following alcohol is least reactive with Lucas reagent at room temperature ?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following will not give ether as product :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

18) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 reacts with hot and excess HI, then formed product is :-

(1) CH3CH2I and CH3CH2OH

(2) CH3CH2OH (2 moles)
(3) CH3CH2I (2 moles)
(4) None of above

19) (A) Product (A) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) CH3–C≡N A B,
Compound 'B' will be :-

(1) CH3–COOH

(2)

(3)
(4)

21) Which of the following compound on reaction with HCN gives Racemic mixture ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
Compound X will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) For the reaction :-

The major cross product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In the given reaction:

[X] and [Y] will respectively be:

(1) C6H5COOH and CH3OH

(2) C6H5CH2OH and HCOOH
(3) Only C6H5COOH
(4) Only CH3OH

25) Gabriel pthalamide synthesis can be used to prepare

(1) Only primary aromatic amine

(2) Only primary aliphatic amine
(3) Only primary and secondary amine
(4) All types of amine

26) Which of the following amides will give ethylamine on reaction with sodium hypobromite ?

(1) Butanamide
(2) Propanamide
(3) Acetamide
(4) Benzamide

27)
P is-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following compounds after reacting with benzene suphonyl chloride is soluble in
alkali solution :-

(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 – NH2

(2) CH3CH2–NH–CH3
(3) CH3CH2–OH
(4) (CH3)3N

29) The main product of following reaction will be -

A Product

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which method is used for separation of volatile liquid from non volatile impurities ?

(1) Crystallisation
(2) Distillation
(3) Chromatography
(4) Sublimation

31) The latest technique used for purification of organic compounds is

(1) Chromatography
(2) Vacuum distillation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Crystallisation

32) Which of the following will give lassaigne's test for nitrogen :

(1) NH2–NH2
(2) NH4Cl
(3) CH3NH2
(4) NaNO2

33) In which method nitrogen present in organic compound is converted into ammonium sulphate ?

(1) Dumas method

(2) Kjeldahl method
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the (1) & (2)

34) Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of their boiling point :-
(i) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(ii) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(iii) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CHO
(iv) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3

(1) i > iii > iv > ii

(2) i > iv > ii > iii
(3) iii > iv > ii > i
(4) iv > iii > i > ii
35) Find the major mono halo product in given reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Match the terms of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the codes given
below.

Column II
Column I
(Hybridisation
(Compound)
of carbon)

(A) CH3Cl (1) sp3 and sp2

(B) (CH3)2CO (2) sp2

(C) CH3CN (3) sp3

(D) HCONH2 (4) sp3 and sp

(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
37)
Above reaction follows :

(1) Markovnikov rule

(2) Anti Markovnikov rule
(3) Saytzeff's rule
(4) Hoffmann's rule

38)
C will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) CH≡CH

(4)

39) Which of the following is not a controlled oxidation :

(1)
CH4 + O2 2CH3OH

(2)
CH4 + O2 HCHO + H2O

(3)
2CH3CH3 + 3O2 2CH3COOH

(4) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O

40) When HBr react with Hex–1–ene in the presence of peroxide then major product will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following is not meta directing group :

(1) –NO2
(2) –CN
(3) –OCH3
(4) –CHO

42) Which of the following is vinylic halide :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
Major Product

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Statement I : Glucose or Sucrose are soluble in water.

Statement II : Cyclohexane or benzene are insoluble in water.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

45) Statement I : Amino acids are usually colourless, crystalline solids.

Statement II : Amino acids are water insoluble.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

BIOLOGY

1) Name the blank space A, B, C & D given in the following table :-

Commerical
Microbes Name
product

A Butyric acid

B Cyclosporin-A

Penicillium notatum C

Curd D
A-Clostridium butylicum, B-Trichoderma,
(1)
C-Penicillin, D-Statin
 A-Trichoderma, B-Statins,
(2)
C-Penicillin, D-Statins
A-Clostridium butylicum, B-Trichoderma,
(3)
C-Penicillin, D-Lactobacillus
A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma,
(4)
C-Penicillin, D-Streptococcus

2) Assertion: Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd.
Reason: The LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Secondary treatment of sewage does not include :-

(1) Activity of heterotrophic bacteria

(2) Activity of anaerobic bacteria
(3) Biogas production
(4) Chemical treatment of sewage to reduce its BOD

4) Who started 'Lab to Land' program?

(1) Chandrashekar Rao

(2) J.C. Bose
(3) M.S. Swaminathan
(4) Norman Borlaug

5) (a) Microbes are also used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo shoot to make foods :-
(b) Large hole in swiss cheese are due to lactic acid bacteria.
(c) Brandy and rum produce by distillation
(d) Lactic acid is known as clot buster.
How many statement are correct :-

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

6) Statins are
(a) Commercial blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
(b) Produced by yeast.
(c) Competitive inhibitors of enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.
Choose the correct one(s).

(1) a & b only

(2) b & c only
(3) a & c only
(4) All a, b & c

7) Which of the following is true for mycorrhiza :-

(1) Symbiotic association between fungi and algae

(2) Fungal symbiont in these association absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant
(3) Fungal symbiont in these association provide resistance to insect pathogen
(4) It is an example of parasitism

8) Assertion : Retro viruses in the animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous
cells.
Reason : Disarmed retro viruses are now used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) In the following diagram A,B and C are restriction sites and same DNA molecule is cut by
restriction endonucleases

If both samples are loaded in a single well of agarose gel after restriction digestion then find out
correct band pattern in gel electrophoresis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) How many of following enzymes are useful for enzymatic isolation of DNA from plant tissue ?
Chitinase, Pectinase, Cellulase, Lysozyme, Hemicellulase, RNase, Protease.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 4

11)

Recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin resistance gene is transferred in E. coli and later are spread on
agar plates containing ampicillin. Then :

(1) Both transformed and untransformed cell die.

(2) Both transformed and untransformed cells grow.
(3) Transformed recipient cells grow and untransformed cells die.
(4) Transformed recipient cells die and untransformed cells grow.

12) EcoR I cuts the DNA between the same two bases on the opposite strands when following
sequence is present in the DNA.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In recombinant technology, if the bacterial colonies produce colour in the presence of
chromogenic substrate it confirms :
(a) Insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase enzyme
(b) Recombinant stage
(c) Presence of β-galactosidase enzyme
(d) Non recombinant stage

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) c & d

14) Which is incorrect match ?

(1) DNA ligase – Molecular glue

(2) DNA polymerase – Require RNA primer for replication
(3) ECoRI – Cut DNA molecule at palindrome between nucleotide G & C
(4) RNA polymerase - 3 type in eukaryote

15) Read the following statements with respect to biotech.

(A) PCR means photosynthetic chain reaction which is utilised for amplification of carbohydrate.
(B) Multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) synthesized in vivo by using PCR.
(C) 30 cycle of PCR result into synthesis of 1 trillion copies of DNA.

(1) All are correct statement

(2) All are incorrect statement
(3) Only A & B incorrect
(4) Only C is correct

16) Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Molecular scissor (i) Large scale production of products

(b) Plasmid (ii) Recombinant protein

(c) Bioreactors (iii) pBR 322

(d) Heterologous host (iv) Eco RI

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

17)

It is advantageous to use a vector having multiple cloning site as it-

(1) Contains many copy of a desired gene.

(2) Contains many copy of the same restriction enzyme site.
(3) Allow flexibility in the choice of restriction gene.
(4) Allow flexibility in the choice of restriction enzyme.

18) Assertion : Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra
(foreign) gene are known as transgenic animals.
Reason : Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them less sensitive to toxic
substances than non-transgenic animals.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

19) Bt toxin protein that can kill many insects, doesn't kill the Bacillus because:

(1) Bacillus has protective mechanism against it.

In Bacillus, it is present in an inactive state and once insect ingests it, it is converted to active
(2)
form.
(3) The protoxin requires protein conjugate for its activation.
(4) Bt toxin requires acidic pH for activation

20) Which of the following is not a critical research area in biotechnology?

(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
(2) Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
(3) Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound.
(4) Gene transfer technology using artifical vectors in strains of E. coli.

21) A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to
hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
It will help studying diseases by getting following results :-

(1) The clone having the mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film.
(2) The clone having normal gene will hence not appear on the photographic film.
(3) The clone having the mutated gene will hence appear on the photographic film.
The clone having the mutated gene doesn't appear on photographic film as the probe has
(4)
complementarity with it.

22) cry IAc and cry IAb produce toxins that control?

(1) Nematodes and corn borer, respectively.

(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms, respectively.
(3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes, respectively.
(4) Cotton bollworms and cornborer respectively.

23) Match column-I with Column-II and select the answer from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

Effort to correct the non-

(A) Biopiracy (i)
functional gene

(B) Biopatent (ii) Gene silencing

 Illegal exploitation of
(C) Gene therapy (iii)
biological materials

Right granted for

(D) RNAi (iv)
biological entities
(1) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (ii)
(2) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

24) Statement-I :- ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

Statement-II :- In 1997, the first transgenic cow Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

25) Which of the following is correct regarding the genetic modification of crops?

(1) It enhances nutritional value of food.

(2) It helps to increase post harvest losses.
(3) It results in decreased efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
(4) It makes crop less tolerant to abiotic stresses.

26) How many of the following can be killed by Bt-toxin ?

Tobacco budworm, Armyworm, Beetles, Flies, Mosquitoes, Nematodes, Methanogens

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

27) In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus.
This phenomenon may be called as:

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Development
(3) Senescence
(4) Differentiation

28) An undifferentiated mass of cell is obtained by culturing called :-

(1) Callus
(2) Explant
(3) Embryo
(4) Plantlet

29) Somatic hybrids are produced by:-

(1) Fusion of two germ cells

(2) Fusion of two complete somatic plant cell
(3) Fusion of isolated naked protoplast
(4) Fusion of two hybrid protoplast with cell wall

30) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a Micropropagation i To obtain virus free plants

b Meristem culture ii Production of large number of plants

Capacity to generate a whole plant from

c Totipotency iiii
explant

d Somatic hybridization iv Protoplast fusion

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

31) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(1) Active immunity - By vaccination

(2) Passive immunity - Antiserum
(3) Humoral immunity - T-lymphocytes
(4) Cell-mediated immunity - Graft rejection

32) Ravi was bitten by a stray dog while playing in his neighborhood. He was rushed to the hospital,
where the doctors administered anti-rabies serum immediately. A few weeks later, Ravi also
received the rabies vaccine to ensure long-term protection against the virus
Based on the case above, answer the following :
Which of the following statements correctly identifies the types of immunity Ravi received?
(a) Anti-rabies serum provides passive immunity
(b) Rabies vaccine provides active immunity
(c) Anti-rabies serum leads to memory cell formation
(d) Rabies vaccine stimulates antibody production by B-cells
Choose the correct option :

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b, and d
(3) b and c only
(4) All of the above
33) Statement A: Natural passive immunity is acquired when antibodies are transferred
from mother to infant through breast milk.
Statement B: Artificial passive immunity involves activation of the immune system to produce
antibodies after vaccination.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

34) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) Natural active immunity is acquired when a person develops immunity after recovering from
typhoid.
(b) Artificial active immunity is acquired by transfer of antibodies through vaccination
(c) Natural passive immunity is provided to the newborn through colostrum
(d) Artificial passive immunity is given by injecting antiserum after a snake bite
Choose the correct option :

(1) Only a and c are incorrect

(2) Only a, c and d are incorrect
(3) Only b and d are incorrect
(4) Only b is incorrect

35) Assertion (A) : In some deadly microbial infections, quick immune response is required, so pre-
formed antibodies are directly injected into the patient.
Reason (R) : Passive immunity involves administration of ready-made antibodies that act
immediately without activating the host's immune system.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

36) __A__ is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced,
while __B__ is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breast bone. Fill the blanks with
the most suitable options :

(1) A-Thymus, B-Bone marrow

(2) A-Bone marrow, B-Thymus
(3) A-Bone marrow, B-Spleen
(4) A-Spleen, B-Thymus

37) Match column-I and II with the correct options given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) MALT (i) Secondary lymphoid organ

 (b) Bone marrow (ii) Cells of immune system

(c) Monocytes (iii) Lymphoid tissue

(d) Glyco-protein molecules (iv) Primary lymphoid organ

Peyer's patches of small

(e) (v) Immunity providing molecules.
intestine
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-v, e-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v, e-i

38) AIDS is a venereal disease which can transmit through :

(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person.
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only

39) Which of the following statements are not correct regarding immune system of higher
vertebrates ?
(A) The human immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissue, cells and insoluble fat molecules
like antibodies.
(B) Memory based acquired immunity is characteristic of higher vertebrates.
(C) The antibodies are found in blood and they generate humoral immune response.
(D) The primary lymphoid organs are organs which provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes
with the antigen.
(E) Lymph nodes serve to trap the micro-organism or antigen which are present in tissue fluid.

(1) D and E
(2) Only D
(3) A and D
(4) A, D and E

40) Choose the correct statements regarding the structure given in the below diagram.
 (A) The given structure is of a glycoprotein molecule.
(B) The molecule represented as H2L2 molecule
(C) The given molecule comprises major part of our innate immunity.
(D) The molecule is synthesized by T-lymphocytes in our body.
(E) The response generated by this molecule is called as humoral immune response.

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, B, C and E
(3) A, B, D and E
(4) A, B and E

41) Observe the following table very carefully contain source of drug, biological name and their
uses. Choose the correct option :

Papaver Stimulant action

(1)
somniferum on body

Claviceps
(2) Hallacination
purpura

Papaver Depressant
(3)
somniferum action on body

Cannabis Relieving
(4)
sativa pain

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
42) Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Techniques like radiography and computed tomography uses X-rays to detect
cancers.
Statement II : MRI uses strong magnetic fields and ionising radiations to detect pathological and
physiological changes in the living tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

43) How are antibodies utilized in the detection of certain cancers?

(1) By directly targeting cancer cells for destruction

(2) By binding to cancer-specific antigens for identification
(3) By stimulating immune responses against cancerous tumors
(4) By inhibiting the spread of cancer cells through the blood stream

44) Which of the following is not related to alcoholism:-

(i) Amnesia (ii) Gastritis
(iii) Lung Cancer (iv) Liver Cirrhosis
(v) Fatty liver syndrome (vi) Bronchitis

(1) iii, iv, v, vi

(2) i, ii, iv, v, vi
(3) iii, vi
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi

45) Site of formation of gametes and fertilization in the life cycle of Plasmodium is :

(1) Human blood and liver

(2) Gut of mosquito
(3) Salivary glands of mosquito
(4) RBCs of human

46) Select the correctly matched pair of disease and its mode of transmission:

(1) Malaria - Contaminated food and water

(2) Pneumonia - Droplets/aerosols from infected person
(3) Ascariasis - Bite of female Anopheles mosquito
(4) Ringworm - Through blood transfusion

47) Read the following statements regarding different human diseases and select the correct one:

(1) Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and spreads through inhalation of aerosols.
(2) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of female Culex mosquito and affects the alveoli of lungs.
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and spreads through the bite of female culex
(3)
mosquito.
(4) Ringworm is a viral infection that spreads through contaminated food and water.

48) Identify the incorrectly matched pair of disease, its causative organism, and associated
symptoms:

(1) Typhoid - Salmonella typhi - High fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation
(2) Pneumonia - Haemophilus influenzae- Fever, chills, lips turning bluish in severe cases
(3) Filariasis - Wuchereria bancrofti - Chronic inflammation of limbs, gross deformities
(4) Ringworm - Plasmodium vivax - Dry, scaly lesions with itching on skin

49) Read the following statements about a disease and identify it

(A) It is caused by bacteria and primarily affects the lungs.
(B) The alveoli fill with fluid, causing breathing difficulty.
(C) Symptoms include fever, chills, cough, headache.
(D) It spreads through infected droplets or contaminated items.
Which disease is being described?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Ringworm
(4) Filariasis

50) Assertion (A): Pneumonia is caused by a protozoan and spreads through mosquito bites.
Reason (R): Pneumonia affects the alveoli of lungs, which get filled with fluid, leading to breathing
difficulty.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

51) Assertion (A) :- Net primary productivity is often lower in aquatic ecosystems than terrestrial
ones. Reason (R) :- Light penetration and nutrient availability are both limiting in aquatic habitats.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

52) A population of butterflies has 800 individuals. During summer, 120 individuals die, 150 are
born, 60 immigrate, and 40 emigrate. What is the net population size after summer?

(1) 850
(2) 830
(3) 790
(4) 780

53) Fill with correct terms :

1. Fragmentation is carried out by _____.
2. Catabolism is performed by _____.
3. Humification produces _____.
4. Mineralisation releases _____.

(1) Detritivores; Bacteria/Fungi; Dark amorphous matter; Inorganic nutrients

(2) Autotrophs; Saprotrophs; Enzymes; Organic matter
(3) Parasites; Fungi; Humus; Vitamins
(4) Scavengers; Protozoa; Biomass; Carbon dioxide

54) Statement-I : In general, Herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by
competition than carnivores.
Statement-II : Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a common characteristic - the
interacting species live closely together.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.

55) In an ecosystem, as a macro consumer who receives the least energy from producers:

(1) Primary consumer

(2) Secondary consumer
(3) Tertiary consumer
(4) Decomposer

56) Assertion (A) :- Predators help to maintain species diversity in a community.

Reason (R) :- Predation prevents a single prey species from becoming dominant.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

57) Statement-I : Darwin observed that when resources are unlimited in a habitat, each species has
ability to realise fully its innate potential to grow in number.
Statement-II : Darwin was convinced that interspecific competition is potent force in organic
evolution.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

58) Read following statements and choose correct option -

(i) Nearly 25% of all insects are phytophagous.
(ii) Among animals, insects are most species-rich taxonomic group.
(iii) Most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating examples of mutualism are found in plant-Animal
relationship.
(iv) Total number of individuals is generally the most appropriate measure of population density.

(1) All statements are correct.

(2) All statements are incorrect.
(3) Only (i) is incorrect.
(4) Only (iii) is incorrect.

59) The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, potassium and calcium present in the soil at
any given time is referred to as :

(1) Standing state

(2) Standing crop
(3) Humus
(4) Detritus

60) Which of the following is not a valid assumption of exponential growth model?

(1) Unlimited resource availability

(2) Constant environmental resistance
(3) Enormous population density in short time
(4) Ideal environmental conditions

61) Assertion (A) :- Two species competing for the same limiting resource cannot coexist
indefinitely.
Reason (R) :- Competitive exclusion principle explains this phenomenon.

(1) A and R are true; R explains A

(2) A and R are true; R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

62) According to David Tilman’s experiments, grassland plots with more species had ______
productivity and ______ resilience.

(1) Less; less

(2) More; more
(3) More; less
(4) Same; more
63) Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic importance is
called

(1) Biodiversity
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Bioprospecting
(4) Bioremediation

64) Annual NPP of whole biosphere is -

(1) 115 billion tons

(2) 170 billion tons
(3) 55 billion tons
(4) 10 billion tons

65) The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

(1)
dN/dt = rN

(2)
dt/dN=Nr

(3)
dN/dt = rN
(4) dN/dt = rN

66) Assertion (A) : Logistic growth is more realistic in natural ecosystems.

Reason (R) : Resources are finite and environmental resistance increases with population size.

(1) Both A and R are true; R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(3) A is true; R is false
(4) A is false; R is true

67) If Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of a lake is 1500 kcal/m²/year and the energy used in
respiration is 600 kcal/m²/year, what is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP)?

(1) 2100 kcal/m²/year

(2) 900 kcal/m²/year
(3) 600 kcal/m²/year
(4) 1500 kcal/m²/year

68) Which of the following is an example of broadly utilitarian value of biodiversity?

(1) Anti-cancer drug from Rauwolfia

(2) Pollination of plant flowers by pollinators
(3) Food from maize and rice
(4) Timber for fuel

69) Which of the following is incorrect about parasitism?

(1) Parasite is host-specific and derives nutrition from host

(2) Parasites often reduce host reproductive fitness
(3) Parasites kill host immediately for rapid transmission
(4) Tapeworm shows high reproductive capacity

70) Why does energy flow in an ecosystem follow the "10% law" between trophic levels?

(1) Only 10% of the solar energy is absorbed by producers

(2) 90% energy is lost as heat, movement, or metabolism
(3) Decomposers remove 90% energy at each level
(4) Only autotrophs can utilize energy efficiently

71) Assertion (A) :- Carrying capacity is the population size which a habitat can support
sustainably.
Reason (R) :- At carrying capacity, birth rate equals death rate and growth rate becomes zero.

(1) Both A and R are true; R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true; R doesn’t explain A
(3) A is true; R is false
(4) A is false; R is true

72) What would be the consequence if humification is impaired in a terrestrial ecosystem?

(1) Rapid nutrient turnover

(2) Accumulation of inorganic nutrients
(3) Decrease in soil fertility
(4) Excessive leaching

73) Which statement is incorrect about parasitic adaptations?

(1) Parasites develop adhesive organs

(2) Digestive system is well-developed
(3) Reproductive system is highly developed
(4) They often lose unnecessary sense organs

74) Assertion (A) :- The pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason (R) :- Energy transfer is always 100% efficient.

(1) A and R are true; R explains A

(2) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are true; R doesn't explain A
(4) Both A and R are false
75) What does the J-shaped curve in population growth indicate?

(1) Constant population

(2) Logistic growth with carrying capacity
(3) Exponential growth without resistance
(4) Zero net reproductive rate

76) What is the most likely effect of reduced species diversity in a tropical forest?

(1) Increased food web complexity

(2) Higher resilience to alien-species invasion
(3) Reduced ecosystem productivity
(4) Enhanced carbon fixation

77) Assertion (A) :- Warm and moist climate accelerates decomposition rate.
Reason (R) :- Microbial activity is enhanced in such conditions.

(1) Both A and R are true, R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) Both A and R are false

78) Which of the following is not a cause of biodiversity loss ?

(1) Habitat fragmentation

(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Afforestation
(4) Alien species invasion

79) Vertical stratification in a tropical rainforest allows :

(1) Reduction of soil erosion

(2) Uniform temperature in all layers
(3) Minimization of competition for sunlight
(4) Same humidity in all layers

80) Identify incorrect match :

(1) Lichen - Fungus and cyanobacteria

(2) Mycorrhiza - Fungi and Roots of higher plants
(3) Oviposition site - Orchid ophrys and Bees
(4) Co-evolution- Plant and pollinator relationship

81) Which conservation strategy combines on-site protection and sustainable use as described?

(1) Sacred groves – ex-situ conservation

(2) Biosphere reserve – in-situ approach
(3) Cryopreservation – in-situ
(4) Botanical gardens – in-situ

82) Observe the following flow of decomposition :

Dead Leaves → Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralisation
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Detritivores (e.g. earthworm) accumulates humus in soil.

(2) Mineralisation produces dark amorphous material
(3) In leaching water soluble substances move down to the bottom layer of the soil
(4) Humification is faster in dry, low microbial environments

83) Match the given column:-

Column I Column II Column III Column IV

(Interaction) (Example) (Feature) (Effect)

(A) Commensalism (1) Cattle egret + cow (i) One benefits α +/0

(B) Parasitism (2) Cuscuta on hedge (ii) Host exploited β –/+

(C) Mutualism (3) Mycorrhizae (iii) Both benefit γ +/+

(D) Predation (4) Snake eating frog (iv) One kills other δ +/–
(1) A-1-i-α; B-2-ii-β; C-3-iii-γ; D-4-iv-δ
(2) A-2-ii-β; B-1-iii-γ; C-3-i-α; D-4-iv-δ
(3) A-3-iii-γ; B-4-iv-α; C-2-ii-β; D-1-i-δ
(4) A-1-ii-γ; B-3-i-α; C-2-iii-β; D-4-iv-δ

84) Due to efforts of Ramdev Misra, government of India established the NCEPC (1972) which
stands for -

(1) National committee for environmental protection and coordination.

(2) National committee for environmental planning and coordination.
(3) National committee for environmental protection and conservation.
(4) National committee for environmental planning and conservation.

85) Tropical rainforests harbor the highest biodiversity due to their age, stability, productivity, and
constant climate. However, human-driven activities like deforestation, habitat fragmentation,
introduction of alien species, and overexploitation have led to biodiversity loss. The "Rivet popper
hypothesis" illustrates how the extinction of some species may weaken ecosystem stability. This
makes the conservation of biodiversity a global priority, ensuring ecosystem resilience and
productivity.
Based on the paragraph, which statement is logically correct?

(1) Introduction of alien species improves biodiversity resilience

(2) The loss of even 'redundant' species can reduce ecosystem stability
(3) Rivet popper hypothesis supports ex-situ conservation
(4) Tropical forests are least diverse due to harsh conditions

86) Which of the following ecological pyramids is always upright?

(1) Pyramid of number in forest

(2) Pyramid of biomass in lake
(3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem

87) Identify the correct statements:

A. Producers occupy the first trophic level.
B. Energy transfer is 100% efficient in food chain.
C. Secondary consumers feed directly on producers.
D. Food chains help in the movement of energy across the ecosystem.

(1) A and D are true

(2) B and C are true
(3) A and C are true
(4) A, B, and D are true

88)

Given below is one of the types of ecolgical pyramids. This type represents

(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland

(2) Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a lake
(4) Energy pyramid in a spring

89) Fill in the blank:

In a terrestrial ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is generally ______, while in an aquatic ecosystem,
it is often ______ due to the shorter life span and rapid turnover of phytoplankton.

(1) Upright; Upright

(2) Upright; Inverted
(3) Inverted; Upright
(4) Inverted; Inverted

90) Fill in the blank:

In an ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is always upright because energy at each trophic level is lost
as ______, through multiple processes like respiration, heat loss, and excretion.

(1) ATP
(2) Light energy
(3) Chemical energy
(4) Heat
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 3 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 3 4 2 4 3 3 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

θ~

2)

For equivalent focal length,

⇒
Since, power i.e., P (in D)

= –6.67 D

3) m = In first case

u = –15 cm ; m =
In second case

u = –9 ; m' =
But m' = 3m

or = or f + 15 = 3f + 27
f = –6 cm

4)

I is in 1st quadrant
• could be formed by a convex mirror (virtual image)
• could be formed by a concave mirror (virtual image)
I is in 2nd quadrant
• could be formed by a concave lens (virtual image)
• could be formed by convex lens (virtual image)
I is in 3rd quadrant
• could be formed by a concave mirror (real image)
I is is 4th quadrant
• could be formed by a convex lens (real image)

0
5) ; f + fe = 1.1 m = 110 cm
10 fe + fe = 110 cm
fe = 10 cm
f0 = 10fe = 100cm

MP=

6)

The assertion is incorrect because a lens that diverges rays is not always concave; a convex
lens can also diverge rays if the object is within its focal length.
The reason is correct because a convex lens may give diverging rays under certain conditions.

0
7) To achieve the largest magnification f should be as large as possible and fe should
be as small as possible from given lenses fe = +10.

8)

Given A = 30°, i1 = 45° and r2 = 0

Since, r1 + r2 = A
∴ r1 = A = 30°
Now refractive index of the prism,

µ=

9)

After reflection reflected rays are also parallel from plane mirror.

10)

y = mx + c
 ∴f=

11)

According to laws of reflection.

Angle of reflections of light ray a point d, e and f are

60°, 30° and 60° respectively.

12) Path difference for first maxima

Δx = nλ
n=1
λ = 6320 Å
than Δx = 6320 Å

13)

14) In Young's experiment fringe width for dark and white fringes are same while in Young's
double slit experiment when a white light as a source is used, the central fringe is white
around which few coloured fringes are observed on either side.

15)

amplitude A1 = A, then given that A2 = 2A

∴ I1 = I (ray) and I2 = 4I (∵ I∝A2)
Imax = I1 + I2 + = Im (given)
 ⇒ I + 4I + 4I = Im ⇒ I =
Now, when phase differenc is ϕ, then
I' =
=

= 5I + 4I

16)

d sin θ = λ (for 1st minima)

d= = 2λ

d sin θ = (for 1st maxima)

2λ × sin θ =

sin θ =

17)

i = 60° = θB = tan–1(μ) reflected light is completely polarized.

So, tan60° = μ ⇒

Now,

18) ; (given I1 = 2I2)

19)

When ABC wavefront passes through glass, its velocity is reduced

vglass =
 As, points A and C remain in glass for a short duration, they move for a larger distance and
B covers a small distance as it remains in glass for a longer duration (middle portion of glass is
thick) and finally A'B'C' is position of new wavefront. it is concave in shape.

20)

198 N

21)

22)

23)

24)

25)
26)

27)

28) 0.33 nC

29)

30) +2

31)

32)

33) Zero

34)

35) a = 0, b = 0, c = 0

36) Only A

37) Initially we have

Qold = CV
After introduction of dielectric,
Qnew = CnewV = kCV
Qold = 100 µC
Qnew = (700 + 100) µC = 800 µC
∴k=8

38)

2 ampere from D to B

39)

If V1, V2 and V3 are P.D. across capacitor C1, C2, C3 respectively,

V2 > V3 > V1
As. q = CV = constant, therefore,
C1 > C3 > C2

⇒ > >
⇒ A1 > A3 > A2

40) q → same in series combination of C1, C2 & (C3 || C4)

Umax in C1

41) Energy stored =

= 4.4 × 10–14 J

42) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

C= ....(i)
where A is the area of each plate and d is the distance between the plates Initial energy
shorted in the capacitor,

Ui = CV2 ....(ii)
When the separation between the plates is doubled, its capacitance becomes

C' = [Using (i)] ....(iii)

As the battery is disconnected, so charged capacitor becomes isolated and charge on it will
remain constant,
∴ Q' = Q
C'V' = CV (As Q = CV)

.....(iv)
Final energy stored in the capacitor

Uf = C'V'2 = (2V)2 = CV2 .....(v)

(Using (iii) and (iv))
Required work done,

W = Uf – Ui = CV2 – CV2 = CV2

Alternate solution: work done = Uf – Ui

= =

43) and

44)

When switch S is open then current in is I1 and when switch S is closed then current
is I2. The value of I1/I2 will be

Answer is 1
 45) E and D are at same potential so,

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

In the conformer dihedral angle will change, both bond angle & bond length remains same.

48)
n=2
2n ⇒ 4

49) Question is Asking About:

Wrong statement
Concept:
Vacant orbital is unhybridised pure orbital.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Methyl carbocation has vacant pure p-orbital.

Vacant orbital is unhybridised pure p-orbital hence is can't be sp2 hybridised.
Hence, option (2) is correct.

50) Explanation :
∴ Overall stability = II > I > III
Final Answer: option (2)

51)

Species have planar geometry with continuous cyclic resonance & follow (4n + 2)π electron
rule will be aromatic.

52)

Sulphonic acid is stronger acid than carboxylic acid.

53) Nitrogen having localised lone pair.

54) sp3 alpha carbon containing hydrogen is not present

55) ∝ stability of carbocation

Ph – CH(OH)CH3 →

Ph – CH2CH2OH →

Ph – OH →

→
56)

57)

58)

Reimer – Tiemen reaction

Gatterman – Koch reaction

Clemenson Reduction

Etard reaction

59) Rate SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation

(I)

(II)
(III)

(IV)

60)

Correct reaction will be

61) 3° and benzyl alcohol are more reactive than 1° alcohol.

62)

63)

CH3CH2–O–CH2–CH3 CH3CH2OH + CH3CH2I

↓ HI
CH3CH2I

64) NCERT (XIIth) Part II, Pg. # 325

65)

CH3–C ≡ N CH3–CHO
66)

67)

Also known as DNP Test

68)

69) C6H5CH2OH and HCOOH

70) It is use to prepare only primary aliphatic amine.

71)

CH3CH2CONH2 CH3CH2NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O

72)

73)

Primary amine gives alkali soluble complex on reaction with benzene sulphonyl chloride.
 74)

75)

Distilation is used for separation of volatile liquid from non volatile impurities.

76)

Question Explanation

The question asks about the latest technique used for the purification of organic compounds.
While all the options listed are used for purification, the question implies that there's a more
recent or advanced technique among them.

Concept

A. Chromatography:
B. Vacuum distillation:
C. Fractional distillation:
D. Crystallisation:

Answer Explanation - While all the options are purification techniques, chromatography is
the latest technique

Final Answer - The correct answer is 1. Chromatography

77)

Test is given by nitrogen containing org. compound.

78)

In Kjeldahl method
organic compound + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4

79) Asking About :- Order of boiling point

Concept :- Compounds having greater inter molecular attraction forces have higher boiling
pints. Alcohols have higher boiling due to hydrogen bond.
Formula :- Boiling point of compound with similar molecular weight is Alcohol > Aldehyde >
ether > Alkane
Soln / Explanation :- Hence correct order is (i) > (iii) > (iv) > ii

80)

81) NCERT XI Pg # 36

82)

83)

84)

It is combustion reaction

85)

CH2=CH–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3

86)

87)
 88)

89)

Glucose/sucrose can form H-bond with water but Cyclohexane/benzene can not form H-bond
with water.

90)

Amino acids are water soluble.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XII Pg. # 151, 152, 153

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151

93)

NCERT Pg # 154

94) NCERT Pg. # 128

95) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151

96)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 153

Explanation:
(a) Statins are commercial blood-cholesterol lowering agents, used to reduce cholesterol
levels in the blood and help prevent heart diseases.
(b) Statins are produced by yeast or other microorganisms during fermentation processes.
The most common statin, lovastatin, was originally derived from the fungus Aspergillus
terreus.
(c) Statins act as competitive inhibitors of the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is
crucial for the biosynthesis of cholesterol in the liver. Thus, all the statements are correct.
The correct answer is 4. All a, b & c.

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 157

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 170

99) correct band pattern in gel electrophoresis would be:

40kb band
20kb band

100)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 171

101)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 169

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 167

EcoRI is a restriction enzyme that recognizes a specific DNA sequence.
This specific sequence is palindromic, meaning it reads the same backward on the
complementary strand.
The EcoRI recognition sequence is 5' GAATTC 3'.

103)

NCERT XII, Pg # 170

104)

NCERT XII, Pg # 166, 167

105)

NCERT XII, Pg # 172

106)

(a) Molecular scissor - (iv) Eco RI

(b) Plasmid - (iii) pBR 322
(c) Bioreactors - (i) Large scale production of products
(d) Heterologous host - (ii) Recombinant protein

107)

NCERT XII Page # 169

108)

NCERT XII Pg.# 153

The Assertion is true: Transgenic animals are indeed those whose DNA has been
manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene.
The Reason is false: While transgenic animals can be engineered for various purposes,
including resistance to toxins, not all transgenic animals are specifically made to be less
sensitive to toxic substances.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 179

Explanation :
Why the Bt toxin protein harmful to many insects, does not harm Bacillus bacteria that
produce it.
Concept :
Application of Biotechnology
Solution :
The Bacillus bacteria itself is not harmed because Bt toxin is produced in an inactive form
(Protoxin) within the becteria.
Final Answer :
Option (2)

110) NCERT XII Pg # 177

111)

NCERT Page # 183

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 180

Explaining Question:
The question asks which pests are controlled by the toxins produced by the cry IIAb and cry
IAb genes from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)
Concept: This question is based on Genetically modified crops
Solution:
Bt genes like cry IAb and cry IIAb are used in genetically modified crops to produce
insecticidal proteins.
• cry IAb is effective against corn borers.

113)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
(A) Biopiracy: This refers to the unauthorized and illegal exploitation of biological resources,
often by multinational companies, without proper compensation or consent. This matches with
(iii) Illegal exploitation of biological materials.
(B) Biopatent: This is a patent granted for an invention related to biological materials or
 processes, giving the patent holder exclusive rights. This matches with (iv) Right granted for
biological entities.
(C) Gene therapy: This involves introducing genetic material into cells to correct genetic
disorders or to treat diseases, essentially an effort to correct a non-functional gene. This
matches with (i) Effort to correct the non-functional gene.
(D) RNAi (RNA interference): This is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit
gene expression, leading to gene silencing. This matches with (ii) Gene silencing.
E. Final Answer:
A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 183, 184

The correct answer is option (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
Solution/Explanation:

A. Statement I: ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is indeed based on the principle

of antigen-antibody interaction. It uses antibodies to detect the presence and quantity of an
antigen in a sample.
B. Statement II: In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, was produced. Rosie's milk was
enriched with human alpha-lactalbumin, making it nutritionally more similar to human milk.

Hence, option (1) is correct.

115) NCERT Pg # 188

116) NCERT Pg # 188

117) NCERT XII Pg # 178 (E)

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 178

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

121) NCERT, Pg, # 135,136(E)

NCERT, Pg, # 148,149(H)

122) NCERT, Pg, # 135,136(E)

NCERT, Pg. # 148, 149 (H)

123) NCERT, Pg, # 135,136(E)

NCERT, Pg. # 148, 149 (H)

124) NCERT, Pg, # 135,136(E)

NCERT, Pg. # 148,149 (H)

125) NCERT, Pg, # 135,136(E)

NCERT, Pg. # 148, 149 (H)

126)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#137,138

127)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#137,138

128)

NCERT, Pg, # 138,139, 140 (E)

129)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#137,138

130)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#135, fig. 7.4

131) NCERT, Pg. # 142-143

132)

NCERT, Pg, # 141 (E)

133)

NCERT, Pg, # 141,142 (E)

134)

NCERT, Pg, # 144 (E)

135)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 132, Fig.7.1

136) NCERT, Pg, # 131,132, 133 (E)

NCERT, Pg. # 143 to 146 (H)

137) NCERT, Pg, # 131,132, 133 (E)

NCERT, Pg. # 143 to 146 (H)

138) NCERT, Pg, # 131,132, 133 (E)

NCERT, Pg. # 143 to 146 (H)

139) NCERT, Pg, # 131,132, 133 (E)

NCERT, Pg. # 143 to146 (H)

140) NCERT, Pg, # 131,132, 133 (E)

NCERT, Pg. # 143 to 146 (H)

141) NCERT, Pg # 250

142) NCERT, Pg # 243

Nt+1 = Nt + (B + I) – (D + E)
800 + (150 + 60) – (120 + 40)
800 + 210 – 160
1010 – 160
= 850

143) NCERT, Pg # 251

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197, 199

145) NCERT, Pg # 248

146) NCERT, Pg # 245

147) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 194, 198

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198, 192, 202, 218

149)

NCERT Pg # 251
 Asking about: The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, potassium, and calcium
present in the soil at any given time.

Concept:

A. The amount of nutrients like carbon, nitrogen, potassium, and calcium present in the soil
is referred to the nutrient pool in the soil, which includes both organic and inorganic
forms of these nutrients.

B. Standing state: Refers to the amount of specific nutrients in the ecosystem at any given
time, such as in the soil or vegetation.

C. Standing crop: Refers to the total biomass of living organisms (plants, animals, etc.) in
an ecosystem at a specific time.

D. Humus: The organic matter in the soil that has decomposed from plant and animal
matter, enriching the soil with nutrients.

E. Detritus: Dead organic material, including plant and animal matter, that is broken down
by decomposers.

Solution or Explanation:

A. The term standing state is the most appropriate term here, as it refers to the total
quantity of nutrients (like carbon, nitrogen, etc.) in the soil at a given time. It refers to
the nutrient pool available in the soil.

150) NCERT, Pg # 238

151) NCERT, Pg # 246

152) NCERT, Pg # 255

153)

NCERT Pg#223

154) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 207

155) Question is Asking About:

The equation that expresses logistic population growth.
Concept:
The logistic growth model describes a population that grows rapidly at first but slows as the
population sizes approaches the caring capacity of the environment.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The correct equation for logistic growth is

Hence, option (3) is correct.

156) NCERT, Pg # 244

157) NCERT, Pg # 250

since NPP = GPP – R

158) NCERT, Pg # 253

159) NCERT, Pg # 246

160) NCERT, Pg # 247

161) NCERT, Pg # 244

162) NCERT, Pg # 251

163) NCERT, Pg # 246

164) NCERT, Pg # 250

165) NCERT, Pg # 243

166) NCERT, Pg # 255

167) NCERT, Pg # 251

168) NCERT, Pg # 256

169) NCERT, Pg # 243

170) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 201, 202

171)
NCERT, Pg. # 224

172) NCERT, Pg # 251

173) NCERT Page No.: 244–246

174) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 189

175) NCERT Page No.: 255–256

176) NCERT Page No.: 246

177) NCERT Page No.: 245

178) Solution:

The ecological pyramid represents pyramid of biomass in lake

The correct option is (3)

179) NCERT Page No.: 245

180) NCERT Page No.: 245