Molecular Basis of Inheritance -PYQ’s - 1/28

AKSHARDHAM CENTRAL SCHOOL – VILLUPURAM

SENIOR SECONDARY - CBSE
(Affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Education - [Link])

GRADE – 12 : BIOLOGY

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

NAME : ___________________________________

NCERT PYQ’s from 2023 to 2025

Choose the best answer:

SQP-2025-26
1. What are minisatellites?
(A) 10–40 bp sized small sequences within the genes.
(B) Short coding repetitive sequences region on the eukaryotic genome.
(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequences forming a large portion of eukaryotic
genome.
(D) Regions of coding strand of DNA.

2. Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a :

(A) Polypeptide only (B) mRNAonly
(C) Polypeptide,tRNAandrRNA (D) mRNA,tRNAandrRNA

3. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in the
transcript will be :
(A) CAUCGAAU (B) UAAGCUAC
(C) AUUCGAUG (D) GUAGCUA
4. In a translational unit UTRs are present at :
(A) 5′end(afterstartcodon)and3′end(afterstopcodon).
(B) 5′end(beforestartcodon)and3′end(beforestopcodon).
(C) 5′end(afterstartcodon)and3′end(beforestopcodon).
(D) 5′end(beforestartcodon)and3′end(afterstopcodon).
5. The process of splicing in eukaryotes represents the dominance of the:
(A) DNA world (B) RNA world (C) Protein world (D) Lipid world
6. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as:
(A) Inducible regulation (B) Repressible regulation
(C) Negative regulation (D) Positive regulation
7. The histone core in a nucleosome of chromatin thread is a/an:
(A) Pentamer (B) Hexamer (C) Heptamer (D) Octamer
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8. What would happen if a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th Codon
(UAU) is mutated to “UAA”?
(A) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed.
(B) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed.
(C) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed.
(D) A polypeptide of 50 amino acids will be formed.
9. In its extended 'beads-on-string' form of chromatin, the 'beads' in the string represent:
(A) Linker DNA (B) Histone proteins (C) Nucleosomes (D) NHC proteins
10. During the process of transcription, after binding to a promoter, RNA polymerase
catalyses and makes the bases in the template strand of DNA available for base
pairing, with the bases of:
(A) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (B) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
(C) Ribonucleotide triphosphate (D) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
11. Use the given information to select the amino acid attached to the 3′ end of tRNA
during the process of translation, if the coding strand of the structural gene being
transcribed has the nucleotide sequence TAC.

(A) Isoleucine (B) Methionine

(C) Tyrosine (D) Valine

[Link] correct depiction of the experiment performed by Matthew Meselson and Franklin
Stahl to prove that DNA replicates semi-conservatively on separation of DNA by
centrifugation after 40 minutes is:

2025
1. During the process of transcription, after binding to a promoter, RNA polymerase
catalyses and makes the bases in the template strand of DNA available for base pairing,
with the bases of:
(A) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (B) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
(C) Ribonucleotide triphosphate (D) Ribonucleoside triphosphate
2. Select the statements that are true for a typical dicotyledonous embryo from the
given options.
(i) It consists of an embryonal axis and scutellum.
(ii) The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledon is epicotyl.
(iii) The portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledon is coleorhiza.
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(iv) The lower end of the embryo has radicle covered with a root cap.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)

3. Some flowers are unisexual, this property of unisexuality of flowers prevents

which kind of pollination?
(A) Both Autogamy and Geitonogamy
(B) Both Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
(C) Geitonogamy but not Xenogamy
(D) Autogamy but not Geitonogamy

4. Given below is a diagram of T.S. of a monocot seed with parts I, II \& III labelled :

Choose the option where parts I, II and III are identified correctly.

(A) I: Pericarp, II: Endosperm, III: Scutellum

(B) I: Pericarp, II: Endosperm, III: Coleorhiza
(C) I: Scutellum, II: Pericarp, III: Coleorhiza
(D) I: Coleorhiza, II: Scutellum, III: Pericarp

5. Flowers which have a single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are
usually pollinated by:
(A) Water (B) Bat (C) Bee (D) Wind

6. The diagram given below shows labelling of four parts of a dicot embryo during its
development as P, Q, R and S
Choose the option that indicates correct
labelling of ‘P’, ‘Q’, ‘R’ and ‘S’ of
embryo in different stages of its
development:

(A) Egg, Suspensor, Radicle, Cotyledon

(B) Zygote, Suspensor, Cotyledon, Plumule
(C) Egg, Radicle, Suspensor, Cotyledon
(D) Zygote, Suspensor, Cotyledon, Radicle

2024
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7. Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in which of the

following?
(A) Maize and Castor (B) Castor and Groundnut
(C) Maize and Pea (D) Pea and Groundnut

8. In which of the following plants are both male and female flowers born on the same
plant, and the mode of pollination can be geitonogamy or xenogamy?
(A)Papaya (B) Date Palm (C) Maize (D)Spinach

9. Long ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some :

(A) Aquatic plants (B) Wind-pollinated grasses
(C) Gymnosperms (D) Bird-pollinated flower

10. In a fertilized ovule of an angiosperm, the cells in which n, 2n, and 3n conditions
respectively occur are:
(A)antipodal, zygote, and endosperm (B) zygote, nucellus, and endosperm
(C)endosperm, nucellus, and zygote (D)antipodals, synergids, and integuments

11. Study the following diagram of Transverse Section of a young anther of an

angiosperm:

(A)A – Connective, B-Endothecium, C – Pollen

grain.
(B) A – Endothecium, B – Connective, C – Pollen
grain.
(C)A – Pollen grain, B – Connective, C –
Endothecium.
(D)A – Endothecium, B – Pollen grain, C – Connective.

12. An angiosperm embryo sac is located within the:

(A) Placenta (B) Megasporangium (C) Nucellus (D) Ovary

2023

13. Identify the correct labellings in the figure of a fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm
given below:
(A)A – zygote, B – degenerating synergids,
C – degenerating antipodals, D – PEN
(B)A – degenerating synergids, B – zygote,
C-PEN, D – degenerating antipodals
(C)A – degenerating antipodals, B – PEN,
C – degenerating synergids, D – zygote
(D)A – degenerating synergids, B – zygote,
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C – degenerating antipodals, D – PEN

14. Embryo formation without fertilization is observed in some species of:

(A)Maize (B)Rose (C)Mango (D)Rice

15. The ploidy of apomictic embryos developing from the nucellus and antipodal cells
respectively would be:

(A)2n, 3n (B)2n, n (C)3n, 2n (D) n, 2n

16. Which of the following structures is well-developed in a mature seed of black pepper?
(a) Perisperm (b) Thalamus (c) Sepals (d) Peduncle

17. Choose the option that gives the correct number of pollen grains that will be formed
after 325 microspore mother cells undergo microsporogenesis.
(a) 325 (b) 650 (c) 1300 (d) 975

2&3 MARKS
2025 SQP-2025-26

[Link] base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is: ‘TAGCATGAT

a)Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
b)How are these base pairs held together in DNA molecule?
c)Explain the base complementarity rule. Name the scientist who framed this rule.

2. Study the given molecular structure of double-stranded polynucleotide chain of DNA and
answer the questions that follow.
(a) How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
the given double-stranded polynucleotide chain?

(b) How many base pairs are there in each helical

turn of double helix structure of DNA? Also write
the distance between a base pair in a helix.

(c) In addition to H-bonds, what confers additional stability to the helical structure of DNA?

Given below are the diagrammatic representations of the replicating fork of DNA
in E. coli. Study the diagrams and answer the questions that follow.
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(a) Which one of the three diagrams (i), (ii) or (iii) is the correct representation of the
replicating fork of DNA replication? Explain your answer.

A. Write the number of embryo(s), embryo sac(s) and ovules in the ovary of seed X.
B. How multiples embryos are formed in citrus fruits?
C. What advantage will plants developed from seed Y have over seed X?

2023
6.(a) From which end of the ovule, and how does the pollen tube gain its entry
into the embryo sac of a Hibiscus flower?
(b) State the fate of the male nuclei present in the pollen tube.

[Link] between the following :

(i) Perisperm and Pericarp
(ii) Syncarpous pistil and Apocarpous pistil
(iii) Plumule and Radicle

Case-Based Questions (4)

1. Given below is a set of information about some fruits and seeds.
On the basis of the information
provided above, answer the
following questions with
justification for each answer.
A. How many embryo sacs
will be present in each ovule of
S before maturation and how
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many egg(s) will be present in each embryo sac when the embryo sac is developed
from a single megaspore? (1)
B. (i) Which of these fruits exhibits polyembryony? Will their embryos exhibit genetic
variation? Justify.
(ii) What will be ploidy of the embryonic cells in the above case? (2)
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. Which of these fruits can be considered as parthenocarpic? Give a reason. (1)
OR
D. Which of the fruits P, Q, R or S is a true fruit with seeds? Give reason.
2025
1. a) "Farmers prefer apomictic seeds to hybrid seeds." Justify giving two reasons.
The following question is based on pollination. Study the figures carefully and answer
the questions that follow

i)Give the scientific terms for the

processes taking place in Figures A
and B respectively.
ii)Mention two conditions necessary
for the process occurring in Figure B.
iii) State one advantage and
disadvantage of the process occurring
in Figure B.
OR
Name one plant where, in some flowers only, the process in Figure B takes place and
give the reason responsible for it.

4. Given below is a flower with its characteristic features specialised for the most
common type of abiotic pollination.
Answer the following questions based on the above
diagram:

(a) Name the mode of abiotic pollination that will be

adopted by the given plant species in the above picture.

(b) State the need of exposed large feathery stigmas for

the flower.

(c) What will be the two important adaptations in the pollen grains of the flowers
pollinated by the above mode of pollination?

(d) What could be the probable reason for the petals being small and non-green?

2024
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[Link] plants with hermaphrodite flowers have developed many reproductive strategies
to ensure cross-pollination. Study the given outbreeding devices adopted by certain flowering
plants and answer the questions that follow.

germination on stigma. ✓ - Pollen germination on stigma.

Note: All plants belong to the same species. × - No pollen tube growth/inhibition of pollen

(a) Name and define the outbreeding device described in the above table.
(b) Explain what would have been the disadvantage to the plant in the absence of the given
strategy
5 MARKS
2025
1. Name the two events ‘a’ and ‘c’ shown in the diagram below.

[(i)] Mention where in the cell these events take place.

[(ii)] Explain the changes taking place during event
‘b’ and mention why these are needed

2. What is meant by ‘right’ and ‘wrong’ type of pollen when pollen lands on the stigma?
A two-celled right type pollen has landed on the stigma. Explain the events taking
place till fertilization in angiosperms. Why is pollen pistil interaction said to be
dynamic?

3. Explain the structure of a mature embryo sac of a typical flowering plant.

2024
2 (a)(ii).:Why does the development of endosperm precede that of the embryo?
(b)(i) With the help of a labelled diagram only, show the different stages of embryo
development in a dicot plant.
(ii) Endosperm development precedes embryo development. Justify.

3. (a) (i) Describe the arrangement of nuclei and cells in a mature embryo sac of a typical
angiosperm.
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(ii) Explain the devices the flowering plants have developed to prevent the following
types of pollination : (1) Prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Prevents autogamy, but not geitonogamy

4. (a)(i):Explain any four devices that flowering plants have developed to encourage
cross-pollination.
(a)(ii):Why do plants discourage self-pollination? State any one reason.
2023

(i) The given diagram shows three methods of pollen transfer in plants. What are the
technical terms used for pollen transfer methods '1', '2' and '3'?
(ii) How do the following plants achieve pollination successfully?
(1) Water lily (2) Vallisneria (iii) Flowering plants have developed many devices to
avoid inbreeding depression. Explain one hereditary and one physiological device
which helps plants to achieve this target.
ASSERTION AND REASONING
2025
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

1. Assertion (A): Gene pairs present on the same chromosome may be tightly linked or
loosely linked.
Reason (R): Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on different
chromosomes as a measure of the distance between genes can be used for ‘mapping’
their position on the chromosomes.
.
2. Assertion (A): Perisperm is a diploid tissue.
Reason (R): Perisperm is the remains of nucellus which surrounds the embryo in
certain seeds.
SQP-2025-26
3. Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis.
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2024
4. Assertion (A) : Endosperm is completely consumed during the development of
embryo in ex-albuminous seeds.
Reason (R): Castor, pea and beans are all examples of ex-albuminous seeds.