College Entrance Exam Practice

Questions
Computer Science & Computer Hardware (334 Questions)
Programming Fundamentals (50 Questions)

1.​ Q: What is the time complexity of binary search? A: O(log n)​

2.​ Q: Which data structure uses LIFO (Last In First Out) principle? A: Stack​

3.​ Q: What is the difference between compiler and interpreter? A: A compiler translates
entire program at once before execution, while an interpreter translates and executes
line by line.​

4.​ Q: What is a pointer in programming? A: A variable that stores the memory address of
another variable.​

5.​ Q: What does OOP stand for? A: Object-Oriented Programming​

6.​ Q: Name the four pillars of OOP. A: Encapsulation, Inheritance, Polymorphism, and
Abstraction​

7.​ Q: What is recursion? A: A function that calls itself to solve a problem by breaking it into
smaller instances.​

8.​ Q: What is the purpose of a constructor? A: To initialize objects when they are created.​

9.​ Q: What is the difference between array and linked list? A: Arrays have fixed size with
contiguous memory; linked lists are dynamic with non-contiguous memory connected by
pointers.​

10.​Q: What is a hash table? A: A data structure that maps keys to values using a hash
function for fast lookup.​

11.​Q: What is the time complexity of accessing an array element by index? A: O(1)​

12.​Q: What is a queue data structure? A: A linear data structure following FIFO (First In
First Out) principle.​
13.​Q: What is inheritance in OOP? A: A mechanism where a new class derives properties
and methods from an existing class.​

14.​Q: What is polymorphism? A: The ability of objects to take multiple forms, allowing
methods to behave differently based on the object.​

15.​Q: What is encapsulation? A: Bundling data and methods that operate on that data
within a single unit and restricting access to some components.​

16.​Q: What is a destructor? A: A special method called when an object is destroyed to free
resources.​

17.​Q: What is the difference between public and private access modifiers? A: Public
members are accessible from anywhere; private members are only accessible within the
class.​

18.​Q: What is a binary tree? A: A tree data structure where each node has at most two
children.​

19.​Q: What is a variable? A: A named storage location that holds a value which can change
during program execution.​

20.​Q: What is type casting? A: Converting a variable from one data type to another.​

21.​Q: What is an algorithm? A: A step-by-step procedure to solve a problem or perform a

task.​

22.​Q: What is Big O notation used for? A: To describe the time or space complexity of an
algorithm.​

23.​Q: What is a loop? A: A control structure that repeats a block of code multiple times.​

24.​Q: What is the difference between while and do-while loop? A: While loop checks
condition first; do-while executes at least once before checking condition.​

25.​Q: What is a function? A: A reusable block of code that performs a specific task.​

26.​Q: What is pass by value? A: Passing a copy of the variable's value to a function.​

27.​Q: What is pass by reference? A: Passing the memory address of the variable to a
function.​

28.​Q: What is a string? A: A sequence of characters.​

29.​Q: What is concatenation? A: Joining two or more strings together.​

30.​Q: What is an exception? A: An error or unexpected event that occurs during program
execution.​

31.​Q: What is exception handling? A: Managing errors using try-catch blocks to prevent
program crashes.​

32.​Q: What is a class? A: A blueprint or template for creating objects.​

33.​Q: What is an object? A: An instance of a class containing data and methods.​

34.​Q: What is method overloading? A: Having multiple methods with the same name but
different parameters.​

35.​Q: What is method overriding? A: Redefining a parent class method in a child class.​

36.​Q: What is abstraction? A: Hiding complex implementation details and showing only
essential features.​

37.​Q: What is an interface? A: A contract that specifies methods a class must implement,
containing only method signatures.​

38.​Q: What is a constant? A: A variable whose value cannot be changed after initialization.​

39.​Q: What is scope of a variable? A: The region of code where a variable is accessible.​

40.​Q: What is a static variable? A: A variable that belongs to the class rather than
instances, shared among all objects.​

41.​Q: What is dynamic memory allocation? A: Allocating memory during runtime using
functions like malloc() or new.​

42.​Q: What is a memory leak? A: Memory that is allocated but not freed, causing wasted
memory resources.​

43.​Q: What is the difference between stack and heap memory? A: Stack is automatic,
faster, limited; heap is manual, slower, larger for dynamic allocation.​

44.​Q: What is a null pointer? A: A pointer that doesn't point to any valid memory location.​

45.​Q: What is a dangling pointer? A: A pointer that points to memory that has been freed or
deleted.​
 46.​Q: What is an array index? A: The position of an element in an array, typically starting
from 0.​

47.​Q: What is a 2D array? A: An array of arrays, representing data in rows and columns.​

48.​Q: What is sorting? A: Arranging data elements in a specific order (ascending or

descending).​

49.​Q: What is searching? A: Finding the location of a specific element in a data structure.​

50.​Q: What is debugging? A: The process of identifying and fixing errors in code.​

Data Structures & Algorithms (50 Questions)

51.​Q: What is the time complexity of bubble sort? A: O(n²)​

52.​Q: What is the best case time complexity of quick sort? A: O(n log n)​

53.​Q: What is a graph? A: A non-linear data structure consisting of vertices (nodes)

connected by edges.​

54.​Q: What is DFS (Depth First Search)? A: A graph traversal algorithm that explores as far
as possible along each branch before backtracking.​

55.​Q: What is BFS (Breadth First Search)? A: A graph traversal algorithm that explores all
neighbors at the present depth before moving to nodes at the next depth.​

56.​Q: What is a priority queue? A: A queue where elements are served based on priority
rather than order of arrival.​

57.​Q: What is a heap? A: A complete binary tree where parent nodes have specific
ordering with respect to children (min-heap or max-heap).​

58.​Q: What is a BST (Binary Search Tree)? A: A binary tree where left child is smaller and
right child is larger than parent node.​

59.​Q: What is tree traversal? A: Visiting all nodes in a tree in a specific order.​

60.​Q: Name three types of tree traversal. A: Inorder, Preorder, and Postorder.​

61.​Q: What is inorder traversal sequence? A: Left subtree, Root, Right subtree.​
62.​Q: What is preorder traversal sequence? A: Root, Left subtree, Right subtree.​

63.​Q: What is postorder traversal sequence? A: Left subtree, Right subtree, Root.​

64.​Q: What is a balanced tree? A: A tree where the height difference between left and right
subtrees is at most 1 for all nodes.​

65.​Q: What is an AVL tree? A: A self-balancing binary search tree where heights of
subtrees differ by at most 1.​

66.​Q: What is a collision in hashing? A: When two different keys produce the same hash
value.​

67.​Q: What is chaining in hash tables? A: Resolving collisions by storing multiple values at
the same index using a linked list.​

68.​Q: What is linear probing? A: A collision resolution technique that searches for the next
available slot sequentially.​

69.​Q: What is merge sort? A: A divide-and-conquer sorting algorithm that splits array into
halves, sorts them, and merges.​

70.​Q: What is the time complexity of merge sort? A: O(n log n)​

71.​Q: What is insertion sort? A: A sorting algorithm that builds final sorted array one
element at a time by inserting elements in proper position.​

72.​Q: What is selection sort? A: A sorting algorithm that repeatedly selects the minimum
element and places it at the beginning.​

73.​Q: What is a circular linked list? A: A linked list where the last node points back to the
first node.​

74.​Q: What is a doubly linked list? A: A linked list where each node has pointers to both
next and previous nodes.​

75.​Q: What is a deque? A: A double-ended queue allowing insertion and deletion at both
ends.​

76.​Q: What is dynamic programming? A: An optimization technique that solves problems by

breaking them into overlapping subproblems and storing results.​
77.​Q: What is memoization? A: Storing results of expensive function calls to avoid
redundant computations.​

78.​Q: What is a greedy algorithm? A: An algorithm that makes locally optimal choices at
each step hoping to find a global optimum.​

79.​Q: What is backtracking? A: A technique that tries different solutions and abandons
those that fail to satisfy constraints.​

80.​Q: What is the traveling salesman problem? A: Finding the shortest possible route that
visits each city exactly once and returns to origin.​

81.​Q: What is Dijkstra's algorithm? A: An algorithm to find shortest path from source to all
vertices in weighted graph.​

82.​Q: What is a spanning tree? A: A subset of graph edges that connects all vertices
without forming cycles.​

83.​Q: What is a minimum spanning tree? A: A spanning tree with minimum total edge
weight.​

84.​Q: What is Kruskal's algorithm? A: An algorithm to find minimum spanning tree by

selecting edges in increasing order of weight.​

85.​Q: What is Prim's algorithm? A: An algorithm to find minimum spanning tree by growing
the tree from a starting vertex.​

86.​Q: What is a directed graph? A: A graph where edges have direction from one vertex to
another.​

87.​Q: What is an undirected graph? A: A graph where edges have no direction and connect
vertices bidirectionally.​

88.​Q: What is a weighted graph? A: A graph where edges have associated numerical
values (weights).​

89.​Q: What is a cycle in a graph? A: A path that starts and ends at the same vertex.​

90.​Q: What is topological sorting? A: Linear ordering of vertices in a directed acyclic graph
such that for every edge u→v, u comes before v.​

91.​Q: What is space complexity? A: The amount of memory an algorithm uses relative to
input size.​
 92.​Q: What is the best sorting algorithm for large datasets? A: Merge sort or heap sort for
guaranteed O(n log n) performance.​

93.​Q: What is radix sort? A: A non-comparative sorting algorithm that sorts by processing
digits.​

94.​Q: What is counting sort? A: A sorting algorithm that counts occurrences of each value.​

95.​Q: What is bucket sort? A: A sorting algorithm that distributes elements into buckets and
sorts each bucket.​

96.​Q: What is an adjacency matrix? A: A 2D array representation of a graph showing

connections between vertices.​

97.​Q: What is an adjacency list? A: A collection of lists representing graph connections,

where each vertex has a list of adjacent vertices.​

98.​Q: What is the difference between linear and binary search? A: Linear search checks
each element sequentially O(n); binary search divides sorted array O(log n).​

99.​Q: What is in-place sorting? A: Sorting that requires only constant O(1) extra space.​

100.​ Q: What is stable sorting? A: Sorting that maintains relative order of equal elements.​

Computer Hardware (50 Questions)

101.​ Q: What is a CPU? A: Central Processing Unit, the brain of the computer that
executes instructions.​

102.​ Q: What is RAM? A: Random Access Memory, volatile memory used for temporary
data storage during operation.​

103.​ Q: What is ROM? A: Read-Only Memory, non-volatile memory containing permanent

instructions.​

104.​ Q: What is the difference between RAM and ROM? A: RAM is volatile, writable, fast;
ROM is non-volatile, read-only, contains firmware.​

105.​ Q: What is a motherboard? A: The main circuit board connecting all computer
components.​
106.​ Q: What is a hard disk drive (HDD)? A: A magnetic storage device with rotating
platters for permanent data storage.​

107.​ Q: What is an SSD? A: Solid State Drive, a storage device using flash memory with
no moving parts.​

108.​ Q: What is the difference between HDD and SSD? A: HDDs use magnetic platters
(slower, cheaper); SSDs use flash memory (faster, more expensive).​

109.​ Q: What is a GPU? A: Graphics Processing Unit, specialized processor for rendering
graphics and parallel computations.​

110.​ Q: What is cache memory? A: Small, fast memory located close to CPU storing
frequently accessed data.​

111.​ Q: What are the levels of cache memory? A: L1 (fastest, smallest), L2 (medium), L3
(slowest, largest).​

112.​ Q: What is a processor core? A: An independent processing unit within a CPU

capable of executing instructions.​

113.​ Q: What is clock speed? A: The number of cycles a CPU executes per second,
measured in GHz.​

114.​ Q: What is a bus in computer architecture? A: A communication pathway that

transfers data between components.​

115.​ Q: What is the system bus? A: The main pathway connecting CPU, memory, and I/O
devices.​

116.​ Q: What is the address bus? A: A bus that carries memory addresses from CPU to
other components.​

117.​ Q: What is the data bus? A: A bus that carries actual data between components.​

118.​ Q: What is the control bus? A: A bus that carries control signals for coordinating
operations.​

119.​ Q: What is bus width? A: The number of bits that can be transmitted simultaneously.​

120.​ Q: What is a register? A: Small, fast storage location within the CPU for immediate
data access.​
121.​ Q: What is the ALU? A: Arithmetic Logic Unit, the part of CPU that performs
arithmetic and logical operations.​

122.​ Q: What is the Control Unit? A: The part of CPU that directs operations by
interpreting instructions.​

123.​ Q: What is the fetch-decode-execute cycle? A: The basic operational process of a

CPU: fetch instruction, decode it, execute it.​

124.​ Q: What is a heat sink? A: A device that dissipates heat from components like CPU
or GPU.​

125.​ Q: What is thermal paste? A: A compound applied between CPU and heat sink to
improve heat transfer.​

126.​ Q: What is overclocking? A: Running a component at higher clock speed than

manufacturer specifications.​

127.​ Q: What is BIOS? A: Basic Input/Output System, firmware that initializes hardware
during boot.​

128.​ Q: What is UEFI? A: Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, modern replacement for
BIOS with more features.​

129.​ Q: What is a power supply unit (PSU)? A: A device that converts AC power to DC
power for computer components.​

130.​ Q: What is wattage in PSU? A: The maximum power output the PSU can deliver,
measured in watts.​

131.​ Q: What is a USB port? A: Universal Serial Bus port for connecting peripheral
devices.​

132.​ Q: What is HDMI? A: High-Definition Multimedia Interface for transmitting video and
audio.​

133.​ Q: What is DisplayPort? A: A digital display interface for connecting monitors with
high bandwidth.​

134.​ Q: What is PCIe? A: Peripheral Component Interconnect Express, high-speed

interface for expansion cards.​
135.​ Q: What is SATA? A: Serial ATA, interface for connecting storage devices like HDDs
and SSDs.​

136.​ Q: What is M.2? A: A form factor for SSDs connecting directly to motherboard with
high speeds.​

137.​ Q: What is NVMe? A: Non-Volatile Memory Express, protocol for accessing SSDs
through PCIe for maximum speed.​

138.​ Q: What is dual-channel memory? A: Using two RAM sticks in parallel to double
memory bandwidth.​

139.​ Q: What is ECC memory? A: Error-Correcting Code memory that detects and
corrects data corruption.​

140.​ Q: What is memory latency? A: The time delay between requesting data from
memory and receiving it.​

141.​ Q: What is CAS latency? A: Column Address Strobe latency, the delay in clock
cycles before memory responds.​

142.​ Q: What is VRAM? A: Video RAM, dedicated memory on graphics cards for storing
image data.​

143.​ Q: What is integrated graphics? A: Graphics processing built into the CPU, sharing
system memory.​

144.​ Q: What is dedicated graphics? A: Separate graphics card with its own GPU and
VRAM.​

145.​ Q: What is a chipset? A: A set of chips on motherboard managing data flow between
CPU, memory, and peripherals.​

146.​ Q: What is the Northbridge? A: Chip managing high-speed components like CPU,
RAM, and GPU (often integrated into CPU now).​

147.​ Q: What is the Southbridge? A: Chip managing lower-speed peripherals like USB,
SATA, and audio.​

148.​ Q: What is a socket? A: The physical interface on motherboard where CPU is

installed.​
 149.​ Q: What is form factor? A: The physical size and layout specification of components
(ATX, Micro-ATX, Mini-ITX).​

150.​ Q: What is POST? A: Power-On Self-Test, diagnostic testing sequence run during
boot.​

Operating Systems (50 Questions)

151.​ Q: What is an operating system? A: System software that manages hardware

resources and provides services for applications.​

152.​ Q: Name three popular operating systems. A: Windows, Linux, macOS.​

153.​ Q: What is a kernel? A: The core component of an OS managing system resources

and hardware communication.​

154.​ Q: What is a process? A: An instance of a program in execution.​

155.​ Q: What is a thread? A: The smallest unit of execution within a process.​

156.​ Q: What is the difference between process and thread? A: Processes have separate
memory spaces; threads share memory within a process.​

157.​ Q: What is multitasking? A: Running multiple processes or threads concurrently.​

158.​ Q: What is multithreading? A: Executing multiple threads within a single process

simultaneously.​

159.​ Q: What is context switching? A: Saving and restoring process state when switching
between processes.​

160.​ Q: What is a deadlock? A: A situation where processes wait indefinitely for

resources held by each other.​

161.​ Q: What are the four conditions for deadlock? A: Mutual exclusion, hold and wait, no
preemption, circular wait.​

162.​ Q: What is virtual memory? A: Memory management technique using disk space as
extension of RAM.​

163.​ Q: What is paging? A: Dividing memory into fixed-size blocks (pages) for efficient
management.​
164.​ Q: What is a page fault? A: An interrupt occurring when a program accesses a page
not in physical memory.​

165.​ Q: What is segmentation? A: Dividing memory into variable-sized logical units based
on program structure.​

166.​ Q: What is thrashing? A: Excessive paging activity causing performance

degradation.​

167.​ Q: What is a file system? A: The method OS uses to organize and store files on
storage devices.​

168.​ Q: What is FAT32? A: File Allocation Table 32-bit, an older file system with 4GB file
size limit.​

169.​ Q: What is NTFS? A: New Technology File System, Windows file system with
security features and large file support.​

170.​ Q: What is ext4? A: Fourth extended file system, commonly used in Linux.​

171.​ Q: What is a directory? A: A file system structure containing files and other
directories.​

172.​ Q: What is a path? A: The location of a file or directory in the file system hierarchy.​

173.​ Q: What is absolute path? A: Complete path from root directory to the file.​

174.​ Q: What is relative path? A: Path from current directory to the file.​

175.​ Q: What is a device driver? A: Software that allows OS to communicate with

hardware devices.​

176.​ Q: What is scheduling? A: Determining which process gets CPU time and for how
long.​

177.​ Q: What is FCFS scheduling? A: First-Come, First-Served, processes are executed

in arrival order.​

178.​ Q: What is SJF scheduling? A: Shortest Job First, executes process with shortest
execution time first.​

179.​ Q: What is Round Robin scheduling? A: Each process gets a fixed time slice in
circular order.​
180.​ Q: What is priority scheduling? A: Processes are executed based on assigned
priorities.​

181.​ Q: What is a semaphore? A: A synchronization tool to control access to shared

resources.​

182.​ Q: What is a mutex? A: Mutual exclusion lock allowing only one thread to access a
resource.​

183.​ Q: What is a critical section? A: Code segment where shared resources are
accessed, requiring mutual exclusion.​

184.​ Q: What is race condition? A: When multiple processes access shared data
concurrently causing unpredictable results.​

185.​ Q: What is starvation? A: When a process waits indefinitely because other

processes keep getting priority.​

186.​ Q: What is spooling? A: Simultaneous Peripheral Operations On-Line, buffering data

for devices like printers.​

187.​ Q: What is buffering? A: Temporarily storing data in memory to compensate for

speed differences between devices.​

188.​ Q: What is caching? A: Storing frequently accessed data in faster memory for quick
retrieval.​

189.​ Q: What is a daemon? A: Background process running continuously to handle

system tasks.​

190.​ Q: What is a shell? A: Command-line interface for interacting with the operating
system.​

191.​ Q: What is a GUI? A: Graphical User Interface, visual way to interact with OS using
windows and icons.​

192.​ Q: What is booting? A: The process of starting up a computer and loading the
operating system.​

193.​ Q: What is cold boot? A: Starting computer from completely powered-off state.​

194.​ Q: What is warm boot? A: Restarting computer without turning off power.​
 195.​ Q: What is interrupt? A: A signal to CPU indicating an event requiring immediate
attention.​

196.​ Q: What is interrupt handler? A: Routine that processes specific interrupts.​

197.​ Q: What is DMA? A: Direct Memory Access, allowing devices to access memory
without CPU intervention.​

198.​ Q: What is IPC? A: Inter-Process Communication, methods for processes to

exchange data.​

199.​ Q: What is a pipe? A: A unidirectional communication channel between processes.​

200.​ Q: What is a socket? A: An endpoint for network communication between processes.​

Networks & Internet (50 Questions)

201.​ Q: What is a computer network? A: Interconnected computers sharing resources

and information.​

202.​ Q: What is the Internet? A: Global network of networks using TCP/IP protocols.​

203.​ Q: What is a protocol? A: A set of rules governing data communication.​

204.​ Q: What is TCP? A: Transmission Control Protocol, connection-oriented protocol

ensuring reliable data delivery.​

205.​ Q: What is UDP? A: User Datagram Protocol, connectionless protocol for fast,
unreliable transmission.​

206.​ Q: What is IP address? A: Unique numerical identifier for devices on a network.​

207.​ Q: What is IPv4? A: Internet Protocol version 4, using 32-bit addresses (e.g.,
[Link]).​

208.​ Q: What is IPv6? A: Internet Protocol version 6, using 128-bit addresses for
expanded address space.​

209.​ Q: What is a MAC address? A: Media Access Control address, unique hardware
identifier for network interfaces.​

210.​ Q: What is a router? A: Device that forwards data packets between networks.​
211.​ Q: What is a switch? A: Device connecting devices within a network and directing
data to specific destinations.​

212.​ Q: What is a hub? A: Basic device broadcasting data to all connected devices.​

213.​ Q: What is a modem? A: Device converting digital signals to analog and vice versa
for internet connectivity.​

214.​ Q: What is bandwidth? A: Maximum data transfer rate of a network connection.​

215.​ Q: What is latency? A: Time delay in data transmission from source to destination.​

216.​ Q: What is DNS? A: Domain Name System, translating domain names to IP

addresses.​

217.​ Q: What is HTTP? A: HyperText Transfer Protocol, protocol for transferring web
pages.​

218.​ Q: What is HTTPS? A: Secure version of HTTP using encryption.​

219.​ Q: What is FTP? A: File Transfer Protocol, for transferring files between computers.​

220.​ Q: What is SSH? A: Secure Shell, encrypted protocol for remote login and command
execution.​

221.​ Q: What is a firewall? A: Security system monitoring and controlling network traffic
based on rules.​

222.​ Q: What is a VPN? A: Virtual Private Network, creating encrypted connection over
public network.​

223.​ Q: What is a subnet? A: Subdivision of an IP network.​

224.​ Q: What is subnet mask? A: Number defining which part of IP address is network
and which is host.​

225.​ Q: What is NAT? A: Network Address Translation, mapping private IPs to public IPs.​

226.​ Q: What is DHCP? A: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, automatically assigning

IP addresses.​

227.​ Q: What is a port number? A: Identifier for specific processes or services on a device
(0-65535).​
228.​ Q: What is port 80 used for? A: HTTP web traffic.​

229.​ Q: What is port 443 used for? A: HTTPS secure web traffic.​

230.​ Q: What is the OSI model? A: Open Systems Interconnection, 7-layer model for
network communication.​

231.​ Q: Name the 7 layers of OSI model. A: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport,
Session, Presentation, Application.​

232.​ Q: What is the TCP/IP model? A: 4-layer networking model: Network Access,
Internet, Transport, Application.​

233.​ Q: What is a packet? A: Unit of data transmitted over a network.​

234.​ Q: What is packet switching? A: Breaking data into packets and sending them
independently through network.​

235.​ Q: What is circuit switching? A: Establishing dedicated communication path for entire
transmission duration.​

236.​ Q: What is LAN? A: Local Area Network, network covering small geographical area.​

237.​ Q: What is WAN? A: Wide Area Network, network covering large geographical area.​

238.​ Q: What is MAN? A: Metropolitan Area Network, network covering a city or large
campus.​

239.​ Q: What is topology? A: Physical or logical arrangement of network devices.​

240.​ Q: What is star topology? A: All devices connected to central hub/switch.​

241.​ Q: What is bus topology? A: All devices connected to a single cable.​

242.​ Q: What is ring topology? A: Devices connected in circular fashion.​

243.​ Q: What is mesh topology? A: Every device connected to every other device.​

244.​ Q: What is Ethernet? A: Wired networking technology for LANs.​

245.​ Q: What is Wi-Fi? A: Wireless networking technology using radio waves.​

246.​ Q: What is Bluetooth? A: Short-range wireless technology for connecting devices.​

 247.​ Q: What is a gateway? A: Device connecting networks using different protocols.​

248.​ Q: What is throughput? A: Actual data transfer rate achieved in practice.​

249.​ Q: What is URL? A: Uniform Resource Locator, web address specifying resource
location.​

250.​ Q: What is a proxy server? A: Intermediary server between client and destination
server.​

Database & SQL (50 Questions)

251.​ Q: What is a database? A: Organized collection of structured data stored

electronically.​

252.​ Q: What is SQL? A: Structured Query Language, standard language for managing
relational databases.​

253.​ Q: What is a table? A: Collection of related data organized in rows and columns.​

254.​ Q: What is a row/record? A: Single entry in a table containing related data.​

255.​ Q: What is a column/field? A: Attribute or property of data in a table.​

256.​ Q: What is a primary key? A: Unique identifier for each record in a table.​

257.​ Q: What is a foreign key? A: Field referencing primary key in another table,
establishing relationships.​

258.​ Q: What is normalization? A: Organizing database to reduce redundancy and

improve data integrity.​

259.​ Q: What is First Normal Form (1NF)? A: Each cell contains atomic values, no
repeating groups.​

260.​ Q: What is a query? A: Request for data from a database.​

261.​ Q: What does SELECT statement do? A: Retrieves data from database tables.​

262.​ Q: What does INSERT statement do? A: Adds new records to a table.​

263.​ Q: What does UPDATE statement do? A: Modifies existing records in a table.​
264.​ Q: What does DELETE statement do? A: Removes records from a table.​

265.​ Q: What is WHERE clause? A: Filters records based on specified conditions.​

266.​ Q: What is JOIN? A: Combines rows from two or more tables based on related
columns.​

267.​ Q: What is INNER JOIN? A: Returns records with matching values in both tables.​

268.​ Q: What is LEFT JOIN? A: Returns all records from left table and matched records
from right table.​

269.​ Q: What is RIGHT JOIN? A: Returns all records from right table and matched
records from left table.​

270.​ Q: What is an index? A: Database structure improving speed of data retrieval

operations.​

271.​ Q: What is a view? A: Virtual table based on result of SQL query.​

272.​ Q: What is a transaction? A: Sequence of database operations treated as single unit.​

273.​ Q: What are ACID properties? A: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability -

properties ensuring reliable transactions.​

274.​ Q: What is a stored procedure? A: Precompiled SQL code stored in database for
reuse.​

275.​ Q: What is a trigger? A: Automatic action executed when specific database event
occurs.​

276.​ Q: What is NULL? A: Special marker indicating absence of value.​

277.​ Q: What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE? A: DELETE removes
rows one by one and can be rolled back; TRUNCATE removes all rows quickly and
cannot be rolled back.​

278.​ Q: What is GROUP BY? A: Groups rows with same values in specified columns.​

279.​ Q: What is HAVING clause? A: Filters groups created by GROUP BY.​

280.​ Q: What is ORDER BY? A: Sorts query results in ascending or descending order.​
281.​ Q: What is COUNT()? A: Returns number of rows matching criteria.​

282.​ Q: What is SUM()? A: Returns total sum of numeric column.​

283.​ Q: What is AVG()? A: Returns average value of numeric column.​

284.​ Q: What is MAX()? A: Returns largest value in column.​

285.​ Q: What is MIN()? A: Returns smallest value in column.​

286.​ Q: What is DISTINCT? A: Returns only unique values, eliminating duplicates.​

287.​ Q: What is a composite key? A: Primary key consisting of multiple columns.​

288.​ Q: What is referential integrity? A: Ensuring foreign key values match primary key
values in referenced table.​

289.​ Q: What is denormalization? A: Intentionally adding redundancy to improve query

performance.​

290.​ Q: What is NoSQL? A: Non-relational databases for unstructured or semi-structured

data.​

291.​ Q: What is MongoDB? A: Popular document-oriented NoSQL database.​

292.​ Q: What is a schema? A: Structure defining organization of database.​

293.​ Q: What is data redundancy? A: Unnecessary duplication of data.​

294.​ Q: What is data integrity? A: Accuracy and consistency of data throughout its
lifecycle.​

295.​ Q: What is a constraint? A: Rule enforced on data columns to ensure validity.​

296.​ Q: What is UNIQUE constraint? A: Ensures all values in column are different.​

297.​ Q: What is NOT NULL constraint? A: Ensures column cannot have NULL values.​

298.​ Q: What is CHECK constraint? A: Ensures values in column satisfy specific

condition.​

299.​ Q: What is CASCADE in foreign keys? A: Automatically updates or deletes related

records when parent record changes.​
 300.​ Q: What is a cursor? A: Database object for traversing result set row by row.​

Web Development & Cybersecurity (34 Questions)

301.​ Q: What is HTML? A: HyperText Markup Language, standard for creating web
pages.​

302.​ Q: What is CSS? A: Cascading Style Sheets, language for styling web pages.​

303.​ Q: What is JavaScript? A: Programming language for interactive web content.​

304.​ Q: What is the DOM? A: Document Object Model, programming interface for HTML
documents.​

305.​ Q: What is a cookie? A: Small text file stored on user's computer by websites.​

306.​ Q: What is session? A: Temporary storage of user data during website visit.​

307.​ Q: What is AJAX? A: Asynchronous JavaScript and XML, technique for updating
web pages without reloading.​

308.​ Q: What is JSON? A: JavaScript Object Notation, lightweight data interchange

format.​

309.​ Q: What is XML? A: eXtensible Markup Language, for storing and transporting data.​

310.​ Q: What is an API? A: Application Programming Interface, set of protocols for

building software.​

311.​ Q: What is REST API? A: Representational State Transfer, architectural style for
web services.​

312.​ Q: What is encryption? A: Converting data into coded form to prevent unauthorized
access.​

313.​ Q: What is decryption? A: Converting encrypted data back to original form.​

314.​ Q: What is symmetric encryption? A: Using same key for encryption and decryption.​

315.​ Q: What is asymmetric encryption? A: Using public key for encryption and private
key for decryption.​
316.​ Q: What is a hash function? A: Algorithm converting data into fixed-size string of
characters.​

317.​ Q: What is SSL/TLS? A: Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security, protocols

for secure communication.​

318.​ Q: What is a virus? A: Malicious code that replicates by attaching to other programs.​

319.​ Q: What is malware? A: Malicious software designed to harm or exploit systems.​

320.​ Q: What is ransomware? A: Malware that encrypts data and demands payment for
decryption.​

321.​ Q: What is phishing? A: Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by

disguising as trustworthy entity.​

322.​ Q: What is SQL injection? A: Attack inserting malicious SQL code to manipulate
database.​

323.​ Q: What is cross-site scripting (XSS)? A: Injection attack inserting malicious scripts
into web pages.​

324.​ Q: What is DDoS attack? A: Distributed Denial of Service, overwhelming system with
traffic to make it unavailable.​

325.​ Q: What is two-factor authentication? A: Security requiring two different forms of

identification.​

326.​ Q: What is a brute force attack? A: Trying all possible combinations to crack
password or key.​

327.​ Q: What is penetration testing? A: Authorized simulated attack to identify security

vulnerabilities.​

328.​ Q: What is white hat hacking? A: Ethical hacking to identify security weaknesses.​

329.​ Q: What is black hat hacking? A: Malicious hacking for illegal purposes.​

330.​ Q: What is social engineering? A: Manipulating people to divulge confidential

information.​

331.​ Q: What is a certificate authority? A: Entity issuing digital certificates for secure
communications.​
 332.​ Q: What is a digital signature? A: Cryptographic technique verifying authenticity of
digital message.​

333.​ Q: What is a security audit? A: Systematic evaluation of security measures.​

334.​ Q: What is zero-day vulnerability? A: Security flaw unknown to software vendor and
unpatched.​

Physics (333 Questions)

Mechanics (70 Questions)

335.​ Q: What is Newton's First Law of Motion? A: An object remains at rest or in uniform
motion unless acted upon by external force.​

336.​ Q: What is Newton's Second Law of Motion? A: Force equals mass times
acceleration (F = ma).​

337.​ Q: What is Newton's Third Law of Motion? A: For every action, there is an equal and
opposite reaction.​

338.​ Q: What is velocity? A: Rate of change of displacement with respect to time (vector
quantity).​

339.​ Q: What is speed? A: Rate of change of distance with respect to time (scalar
quantity).​

340.​ Q: What is acceleration? A: Rate of change of velocity with respect to time.​

341.​ Q: What is uniform motion? A: Motion with constant velocity (zero acceleration).​

342.​ Q: What is the formula for displacement in uniformly accelerated motion? A: s = ut +

½at²​

343.​ Q: What is the third equation of motion? A: v² = u² + 2as​

344.​ Q: What is momentum? A: Product of mass and velocity (p = mv).​

345.​ Q: What is impulse? A: Change in momentum or product of force and time (J = FΔt).​
346.​ Q: What is the law of conservation of momentum? A: Total momentum of isolated
system remains constant.​

347.​ Q: What is friction? A: Force opposing relative motion between surfaces in contact.​

348.​ Q: What is static friction? A: Friction preventing motion between stationary surfaces.​

349.​ Q: What is kinetic friction? A: Friction between moving surfaces.​

350.​ Q: What is coefficient of friction? A: Ratio of frictional force to normal force (μ = F/N).​

351.​ Q: What is work in physics? A: Product of force and displacement in direction of

force (W = Fs cos θ).​

352.​ Q: What is the SI unit of work? A: Joule (J)​

353.​ Q: What is energy? A: Capacity to do work.​

354.​ Q: What is kinetic energy? A: Energy possessed by virtue of motion (KE = ½mv²).​

355.​ Q: What is potential energy? A: Energy possessed by virtue of position or

configuration.​

356.​ Q: What is gravitational potential energy? A: Energy due to position in gravitational

field (PE = mgh).​

357.​ Q: What is the law of conservation of energy? A: Energy cannot be created or

destroyed, only transformed.​

358.​ Q: What is power? A: Rate of doing work (P = W/t).​

359.​ Q: What is the SI unit of power? A: Watt (W)​

360.​ Q: What is projectile motion? A: Motion of object thrown into air under gravity's
influence.​

361.​ Q: What is the trajectory of a projectile? A: Parabolic path.​

362.​ Q: What is the time of flight formula for projectile? A: T = (2u sin θ)/g​

363.​ Q: What is the maximum height formula for projectile? A: H = (u² sin² θ)/(2g)​

364.​ Q: What is the range formula for projectile? A: R = (u² sin 2θ)/g​
365.​ Q: At what angle is projectile range maximum? A: 45 degrees​

366.​ Q: What is circular motion? A: Motion along a circular path.​

367.​ Q: What is centripetal force? A: Force directed toward center keeping object in
circular motion (F = mv²/r).​

368.​ Q: What is centrifugal force? A: Apparent outward force in rotating reference frame
(pseudo force).​

369.​ Q: What is angular velocity? A: Rate of change of angular displacement (ω = θ/t).​

370.​ Q: What is the relation between linear and angular velocity? A: v = rω​

371.​ Q: What is torque? A: Rotational effect of force (τ = r × F).​

372.​ Q: What is moment of inertia? A: Rotational analog of mass, resistance to rotational

motion.​

373.​ Q: What is angular momentum? A: Product of moment of inertia and angular velocity
(L = Iω).​

374.​ Q: What is the law of conservation of angular momentum? A: Angular momentum of

isolated system remains constant.​

375.​ Q: What is rotational kinetic energy? A: Energy due to rotation (KE = ½Iω²).​

376.​ Q: What is equilibrium? A: State where net force and net torque are zero.​

377.​ Q: What is stable equilibrium? A: System returns to original position after small
displacement.​

378.​ Q: What is unstable equilibrium? A: System moves away from original position after
small displacement.​

379.​ Q: What is neutral equilibrium? A: System remains in new position after

displacement.​

380.​ Q: What is center of mass? A: Point where entire mass of system can be considered
concentrated.​

381.​ Q: What is center of gravity? A: Point where entire weight of body acts.​
382.​ Q: What is simple harmonic motion (SHM)? A: Periodic motion where restoring force
is proportional to displacement.​

383.​ Q: What is the formula for time period of simple pendulum? A: T = 2π√(L/g)​

384.​ Q: What is the time period of spring-mass system? A: T = 2π√(m/k)​

385.​ Q: What is amplitude? A: Maximum displacement from mean position in SHM.​

386.​ Q: What is frequency? A: Number of oscillations per unit time.​

387.​ Q: What is the relation between frequency and time period? A: f = 1/T​

388.​ Q: What is elastic collision? A: Collision where kinetic energy is conserved.​

389.​ Q: What is inelastic collision? A: Collision where kinetic energy is not conserved.​

390.​ Q: What is coefficient of restitution? A: Ratio of relative velocity after collision to

relative velocity before collision.​

391.​ Q: What is escape velocity? A: Minimum velocity needed to escape gravitational

field (v = √(2GM/R)).​

392.​ Q: What is orbital velocity? A: Velocity required to orbit around a body (v = √(GM/r)).​

393.​ Q: What is gravitational field strength? A: Force per unit mass in gravitational field (g
= GM/r²).​

394.​ Q: What is Newton's law of gravitation? A: F = G(m₁m₂)/r²​

395.​ Q: What is the value of gravitational constant G? A: 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg²​

396.​ Q: What is weight? A: Gravitational force acting on an object (W = mg).​

397.​ Q: What is mass? A: Amount of matter in an object (scalar quantity).​

398.​ Q: What is free fall? A: Motion under gravity alone with no other forces.​

399.​ Q: What is terminal velocity? A: Maximum constant velocity reached by falling object
when drag equals weight.​

400.​ Q: What is Hooke's Law? A: Force in spring is proportional to extension (F = -kx).​

 401.​ Q: What is Young's modulus? A: Ratio of stress to strain in elastic region.​

402.​ Q: What is stress? A: Force per unit area (σ = F/A).​

403.​ Q: What is strain? A: Change in length divided by original length (ε = ΔL/L).​

404.​ Q: What is elastic limit? A: Maximum stress material can withstand while remaining
elastic.​

Heat and Thermodynamics (50 Questions)

405.​ Q: What is temperature? A: Measure of average kinetic energy of particles.​

406.​ Q: What is heat? A: Energy transferred due to temperature difference.​

407.​ Q: What is the SI unit of temperature? A: Kelvin (K)​

408.​ Q: What is the relation between Celsius and Kelvin? A: K = °C + 273.15​

409.​ Q: What is thermal expansion? A: Increase in size of material when heated.​

410.​ Q: What is coefficient of linear expansion? A: Fractional change in length per degree
temperature change.​

411.​ Q: What is specific heat capacity? A: Heat required to raise temperature of 1 kg

substance by 1°C (Q = mcΔT).​

412.​ Q: What is latent heat? A: Heat required to change state without temperature
change.​

413.​ Q: What is latent heat of fusion? A: Heat required to convert solid to liquid at melting
point.​

414.​ Q: What is latent heat of vaporization? A: Heat required to convert liquid to gas at
boiling point.​

415.​ Q: What is conduction? A: Heat transfer through direct contact without material
movement.​

416.​ Q: What is convection? A: Heat transfer through fluid movement.​

417.​ Q: What is radiation? A: Heat transfer through electromagnetic waves.​

418.​ Q: What is thermal conductivity? A: Measure of material's ability to conduct heat.​

419.​ Q: What is the First Law of Thermodynamics? A: Energy cannot be created or

destroyed (ΔU = Q - W).​

420.​ Q: What is the Second Law of Thermodynamics? A: Entropy of isolated system

always increases; heat cannot spontaneously flow from cold to hot.​

421.​ Q: What is entropy? A: Measure of disorder or randomness in system.​

422.​ Q: What is internal energy? A: Total energy contained in system due to molecular
motion and interactions.​

423.​ Q: What is an isothermal process? A: Process occurring at constant temperature.​

424.​ Q: What is an adiabatic process? A: Process with no heat exchange with

surroundings (Q = 0).​

425.​ Q: What is an isobaric process? A: Process occurring at constant pressure.​

426.​ Q: What is an isochoric process? A: Process occurring at constant volume.​

427.​ Q: What is the ideal gas equation? A: PV = nRT​

428.​ Q: What is Boyle's Law? A: At constant temperature, pressure is inversely

proportional to volume (P ∝ 1/V).​

429.​ Q: What is Charles's Law? A: At constant pressure, volume is proportional to

temperature (V ∝ T).​

430.​ Q: What is Gay-Lussac's Law? A: At constant volume, pressure is proportional to

temperature (P ∝ T).​

431.​ Q: What is Avogadro's Law? A: Equal volumes of gases at same temperature and
pressure contain equal number of molecules.​

432.​ Q: What is one mole? A: Amount of substance containing Avogadro's number (6.022
× 10²³) of particles.​

433.​ Q: What is Carnot engine? A: Theoretical heat engine with maximum possible
efficiency.​
434.​ Q: What is efficiency of heat engine? A: Ratio of work output to heat input (η = W/Q₁
= 1 - Q₂/Q₁).​

435.​ Q: What is Carnot efficiency? A: η = 1 - T₂/T₁ (for reversible engine)​

436.​ Q: What is a refrigerator? A: Device that transfers heat from cold to hot reservoir
using work.​

437.​ Q: What is coefficient of performance (COP)? A: For refrigerator: COP = Q₂/W​

438.​ Q: What is absolute zero? A: Lowest possible temperature (0 K or -273.15°C).​

439.​ Q: What is thermal equilibrium? A: State where no net heat flows between objects at
same temperature.​

440.​ Q: What is Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics? A: If A and B are in thermal equilibrium

with C, then A and B are in thermal equilibrium.​

441.​ Q: What is blackbody radiation? A: Electromagnetic radiation emitted by perfect

absorber/emitter.​

442.​ Q: What is Stefan-Boltzmann Law? A: Power radiated is proportional to fourth power

of temperature (P = σAT⁴).​

443.​ Q: What is Wien's displacement law? A: λmax T = constant (peak wavelength

inversely proportional to temperature).​

444.​ Q: What is greenhouse effect? A: Trapping of heat by atmospheric gases raising

Earth's temperature.​

445.​ Q: What is heat capacity? A: Heat required to raise temperature of entire object by
1°C.​

446.​ Q: What is calorimetry? A: Measurement of heat changes in physical and chemical

processes.​

447.​ Q: What is triple point? A: Unique temperature and pressure where all three phases
coexist.​

448.​ Q: What is critical temperature? A: Temperature above which gas cannot be

liquefied by pressure alone.​
 449.​ Q: What is sublimation? A: Direct transition from solid to gas without passing through
liquid.​

450.​ Q: What is condensation? A: Transition from gas to liquid phase.​

451.​ Q: What is evaporation? A: Surface phenomenon where liquid converts to vapor

below boiling point.​

452.​ Q: What is boiling? A: Bulk phenomenon where liquid converts to vapor at boiling
point.​

453.​ Q: What is humidity? A: Amount of water vapor in air.​

454.​ Q: What is dew point? A: Temperature at which air becomes saturated and dew
forms.​

Waves and Sound (40 Questions)

455.​ Q: What is a wave? A: Disturbance that transfers energy through space or medium.​

456.​ Q: What is a mechanical wave? A: Wave requiring medium for propagation.​

457.​ Q: What is an electromagnetic wave? A: Wave that can propagate through vacuum
(doesn't need medium).​

458.​ Q: What is a transverse wave? A: Wave where particle motion is perpendicular to

wave direction.​

459.​ Q: What is a longitudinal wave? A: Wave where particle motion is parallel to wave
direction.​

460.​ Q: What is wavelength? A: Distance between two consecutive crests or troughs (λ).​

461.​ Q: What is the wave equation? A: v = fλ (velocity = frequency × wavelength)​

462.​ Q: What is the speed of light in vacuum? A: 3 × 10⁸ m/s​

463.​ Q: What is refraction? A: Bending of wave when it passes from one medium to
another.​

464.​ Q: What is Snell's Law? A: n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂​

465.​ Q: What is refractive index? A: Ratio of speed of light in vacuum to speed in medium
(n = c/v).​

466.​ Q: What is reflection? A: Bouncing back of wave when it hits a boundary.​

467.​ Q: What is the law of reflection? A: Angle of incidence equals angle of reflection.​

468.​ Q: What is diffraction? A: Bending of waves around obstacles or through openings.​

469.​ Q: What is interference? A: Superposition of two or more waves resulting in new

wave pattern.​

470.​ Q: What is constructive interference? A: Waves combine to produce larger

amplitude.​

471.​ Q: What is destructive interference? A: Waves combine to produce smaller or zero

amplitude.​

472.​ Q: What is the principle of superposition? A: When two waves overlap, resultant
displacement is sum of individual displacements.​

473.​ Q: What is resonance? A: Large amplitude oscillations when driving frequency

matches natural frequency.​

474.​ Q: What is the Doppler effect? A: Change in frequency due to relative motion
between source and observer.​

475.​ Q: What is sound? A: Mechanical longitudinal wave in elastic medium.​

476.​ Q: What is the speed of sound in air? A: Approximately 343 m/s at 20°C.​

477.​ Q: What is pitch? A: Perception of frequency of sound.​

478.​ Q: What is loudness? A: Perception of intensity of sound.​

479.​ Q: What is intensity of sound? A: Power per unit area (I = P/A).​

480.​ Q: What is the decibel scale? A: Logarithmic scale for measuring sound intensity
level.​

481.​ Q: What is ultrasound? A: Sound waves with frequency above 20,000 Hz.​

482.​ Q: What is infrasound? A: Sound waves with frequency below 20 Hz.​

 483.​ Q: What is the audible range for humans? A: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.​

484.​ Q: What is echo? A: Reflected sound heard after original sound.​

485.​ Q: What is the minimum distance for echo? A: 17 meters (approximately).​

486.​ Q: What is reverberation? A: Persistence of sound due to multiple reflections.​

487.​ Q: What is a standing wave? A: Wave pattern formed by interference of two waves
traveling in opposite directions.​

488.​ Q: What is a node? A: Point of zero amplitude in standing wave.​

489.​ Q: What is an antinode? A: Point of maximum amplitude in standing wave.​

490.​ Q: What is fundamental frequency? A: Lowest natural frequency of vibration.​

491.​ Q: What are harmonics? A: Integer multiples of fundamental frequency.​

492.​ Q: What is beats? A: Periodic variation in loudness when two close frequencies
interfere.​

493.​ Q: What is beat frequency? A: Difference between two interfering frequencies (fb =
|f₁ - f₂|).​

494.​ Q: What is amplitude modulation (AM)? A: Varying amplitude of carrier wave

according to signal.​

Optics (40 Questions)

495.​ Q: What is light? A: Electromagnetic radiation visible to human eye.​

496.​ Q: What is the speed of light? A: 3 × 10⁸ m/s in vacuum.​

497.​ Q: What is a ray of light? A: Path along which light energy travels.​

498.​ Q: What is a beam of light? A: Collection of rays.​

499.​ Q: What is a plane mirror? A: Flat reflecting surface.​

500.​ Q: What are characteristics of image in plane mirror? A: Virtual, erect, same size,
laterally inverted, at same distance behind mirror.​
501.​ Q: What is a concave mirror? A: Mirror curved inward (converging mirror).​

502.​ Q: What is a convex mirror? A: Mirror curved outward (diverging mirror).​

503.​ Q: What is focal length? A: Distance from mirror/lens to focal point.​

504.​ Q: What is the mirror formula? A: 1/f = 1/v + 1/u​

505.​ Q: What is magnification? A: Ratio of image size to object size (m = -v/u = h'/h).​

506.​ Q: What is a real image? A: Image formed by actual convergence of light rays, can
be projected.​

507.​ Q: What is a virtual image? A: Image formed by apparent divergence of rays, cannot
be projected.​

508.​ Q: What is a lens? A: Transparent curved optical device that refracts light.​

509.​ Q: What is a convex lens? A: Lens thicker at center, converges light rays.​

510.​ Q: What is a concave lens? A: Lens thinner at center, diverges light rays.​

511.​ Q: What is the lens formula? A: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u​

512.​ Q: What is lens maker's formula? A: 1/f = (n-1)(1/R₁ - 1/R₂)​

513.​ Q: What is power of lens? A: Reciprocal of focal length in meters (P = 1/f).​

514.​ Q: What is the SI unit of lens power? A: Diopter (D)​

515.​ Q: What is dispersion? A: Splitting of white light into constituent colors.​

516.​ Q: What is a spectrum? A: Band of colors produced by dispersion.​

517.​ Q: What are the colors in visible spectrum? A: Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow,
Orange, Red (VIBGYOR).​

518.​ Q: What is a prism? A: Transparent optical element with flat polished surfaces that
refract light.​

519.​ Q: What is total internal reflection? A: Complete reflection of light at boundary when
angle exceeds critical angle.​
520.​ Q: What is critical angle? A: Angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is 90°.​

521.​ Q: What is optical fiber? A: Thin flexible fiber using total internal reflection to transmit
light.​

522.​ Q: What is a rainbow? A: Natural spectrum formed by dispersion and internal

reflection in water droplets.​

523.​ Q: What is scattering? A: Redirection of light by particles in medium.​

524.​ Q: Why is sky blue? A: Rayleigh scattering of sunlight by atmosphere scatters blue
light more.​

525.​ Q: Why is sunset red? A: Blue light scattered away, red light (least scattered)
reaches observer.​

526.​ Q: What is the human eye? A: Natural optical instrument with adjustable lens
system.​

527.​ Q: What is the function of cornea? A: Transparent front part that refracts light
entering eye.​

528.​ Q: What is the function of iris? A: Controls amount of light entering eye by adjusting
pupil size.​

529.​ Q: What is the function of lens in eye? A: Fine-tunes focus by changing curvature
(accommodation).​

530.​ Q: What is the function of retina? A: Contains photoreceptors that convert light into
electrical signals.​

531.​ Q: What is accommodation? A: Eye's ability to adjust focal length to focus on objects
at varying distances.​

532.​ Q: What is near point? A: Closest distance for clear vision (25 cm for normal eye).​

533.​ Q: What is far point? A: Farthest distance for clear vision (infinity for normal eye).​

534.​ Q: What is myopia? A: Near-sightedness, cannot see distant objects clearly.​

535.​ Q: How is myopia corrected? A: Using concave lens.​

536.​ Q: What is hypermetropia? A: Far-sightedness, cannot see nearby objects clearly.​

 537.​ Q: How is hypermetropia corrected? A: Using convex lens.​

538.​ Q: What is presbyopia? A: Age-related loss of accommodation ability.​

539.​ Q: What is astigmatism? A: Defect due to non-spherical curvature of cornea or lens.​

540.​ Q: What is a telescope? A: Optical instrument for viewing distant objects.​

541.​ Q: What is a microscope? A: Optical instrument for viewing very small objects.​

542.​ Q: What is a simple microscope? A: Single convex lens used as magnifying glass.​

543.​ Q: What is a compound microscope? A: Two lens system (objective + eyepiece) for
higher magnification.​

544.​ Q: What is polarization? A: Restricting vibrations of light to single plane.​

Electricity and Magnetism (70 Questions)

545.​ Q: What is electric charge? A: Fundamental property of matter causing

electromagnetic interactions.​

546.​ Q: What are the two types of charges? A: Positive and negative.​

547.​ Q: What is Coulomb's Law? A: F = k(q₁q₂)/r² - force between two charges.​

548.​ Q: What is the value of Coulomb's constant k? A: 9 × 10⁹ N·m²/C²​

549.​ Q: What is the SI unit of charge? A: Coulomb (C)​

550.​ Q: What is an electric field? A: Region around charge where force is exerted on
other charges.​

551.​ Q: What is electric field intensity? A: Force per unit charge (E = F/q).​

552.​ Q: What is electric potential? A: Work done per unit charge to bring charge from
infinity (V = W/q).​

553.​ Q: What is the SI unit of electric potential? A: Volt (V)​

554.​ Q: What is potential difference? A: Work done to move unit charge between two
points.​
555.​ Q: What is electric current? A: Rate of flow of electric charge (I = Q/t).​

556.​ Q: What is the SI unit of current? A: Ampere (A)​

557.​ Q: What is resistance? A: Opposition to flow of current.​

558.​ Q: What is Ohm's Law? A: V = IR (voltage = current × resistance)​

559.​ Q: What is the SI unit of resistance? A: Ohm (Ω)​

560.​ Q: What factors affect resistance? A: Length, cross-sectional area, material

(resistivity), temperature.​

561.​ Q: What is the formula for resistance? A: R = ρL/A​

562.​ Q: What is resistivity? A: Material property measuring resistance (ρ).​

563.​ Q: What is a conductor? A: Material allowing easy flow of current (low resistance).​

564.​ Q: What is an insulator? A: Material preventing flow of current (high resistance).​

565.​ Q: What is a semiconductor? A: Material with conductivity between conductor and

insulator.​

566.​ Q: What is a series circuit? A: Components connected end-to-end with single path
for current.​

567.​ Q: What is total resistance in series? A: Rs = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ + ...​

568.​ Q: What is a parallel circuit? A: Components connected across same two points with
multiple current paths.​

569.​ Q: What is total resistance in parallel? A: 1/Rp = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ + 1/R₃ + ...​

570.​ Q: What is electric power? A: Rate of electrical energy consumption (P = VI = I²R =

V²/R).​

571.​ Q: What is the SI unit of power? A: Watt (W)​

572.​ Q: What is electrical energy? A: E = Pt = VIt (in joules)​

573.​ Q: What is a kilowatt-hour? A: Unit of electrical energy equal to 3.6 × 10⁶ joules.​
574.​ Q: What is Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL)? A: Sum of currents entering a junction
equals sum leaving.​

575.​ Q: What is Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL)? A: Sum of voltage drops in closed loop
equals sum of voltage sources.​

576.​ Q: What is an ammeter? A: Instrument measuring current, connected in series.​

577.​ Q: What is a voltmeter? A: Instrument measuring potential difference, connected in

parallel.​

578.​ Q: What is a galvanometer? A: Instrument detecting small currents.​

579.​ Q: What is a battery? A: Device converting chemical energy to electrical energy.​

580.​ Q: What is EMF? A: Electromotive force, maximum potential difference when no

current flows.​

581.​ Q: What is terminal voltage? A: Potential difference across battery terminals when
current flows.​

582.​ Q: What is internal resistance? A: Resistance within battery/cell.​

583.​ Q: What is a capacitor? A: Device storing electrical charge and energy.​

584.​ Q: What is capacitance? A: Charge stored per unit voltage (C = Q/V).​

585.​ Q: What is the SI unit of capacitance? A: Farad (F)​

586.​ Q: What is capacitance of parallel plate capacitor? A: C = ε₀A/d​

587.​ Q: What is a dielectric? A: Insulating material between capacitor plates increasing

capacitance.​

588.​ Q: What is energy stored in capacitor? A: E = ½CV² = ½Q²/C​

589.​ Q: What is a magnetic field? A: Region around magnet where magnetic force is
exerted.​

590.​ Q: What is a magnetic field line? A: Path along which north pole would move in
magnetic field.​

591.​ Q: What is magnetic flux? A: Product of magnetic field and area (Φ = BA cos θ).​
592.​ Q: What is the SI unit of magnetic flux? A: Weber (Wb)​

593.​ Q: What is magnetic field strength? A: Measure of magnetic field intensity (B), unit is
Tesla (T).​

594.​ Q: What is Oersted's experiment? A: Demonstrated that current-carrying wire

produces magnetic field.​

595.​ Q: What is the right-hand thumb rule? A: Thumb shows current direction, fingers curl
in magnetic field direction.​

596.​ Q: What is magnetic force on current-carrying conductor? A: F = BIL sin θ​

597.​ Q: What is Fleming's Left-Hand Rule? A: First finger: field, second: current, thumb:
force (for motor).​

598.​ Q: What is electromagnetic induction? A: Production of EMF due to change in

magnetic flux.​

599.​ Q: What is Faraday's Law? A: Induced EMF is proportional to rate of change of

magnetic flux.​

600.​ Q: What is Lenz's Law? A: Induced current opposes the change causing it.​

601.​ Q: What is Fleming's Right-Hand Rule? A: First finger: field, thumb: motion, second:
induced current (for generator).​

602.​ Q: What is self-induction? A: EMF induced in coil due to change in its own current.​

603.​ Q: What is inductance? A: Property opposing change in current.​

604.​ Q: What is the SI unit of inductance? A: Henry (H)​

605.​ Q: What is mutual induction? A: EMF induced in one coil due to current change in
nearby coil.​

606.​ Q: What is a transformer? A: Device changing AC voltage using mutual induction.​

607.​ Q: What is transformer equation? A: Vs/Vp = Ns/Np = Ip/Is​

608.​ Q: What is a step-up transformer? A: Increases voltage (Ns > Np).​

609.​ Q: What is a step-down transformer? A: Decreases voltage (Ns < Np).​

 610.​ Q: What is an AC generator? A: Device converting mechanical energy to AC
electrical energy.​

611.​ Q: What is a DC motor? A: Device converting electrical energy to mechanical energy

using DC.​

612.​ Q: What is alternating current (AC)? A: Current that periodically reverses direction.​

613.​ Q: What is direct current (DC)? A: Current flowing in one direction only.​

614.​ Q: What is the frequency of AC in most countries? A: 50 Hz or 60 Hz​

Modern Physics (63 Questions)

615.​ Q: What is the photoelectric effect? A: Emission of electrons from metal surface
when light strikes it.​

616.​ Q: Who explained the photoelectric effect? A: Albert Einstein (1905)​

617.​ Q: What is Einstein's photoelectric equation? A: KE = hf - φ (kinetic energy = photon

energy - work function)​

618.​ Q: What is work function? A: Minimum energy required to remove electron from
metal surface.​

619.​ Q: What is threshold frequency? A: Minimum frequency of light to cause

photoelectric emission.​

620.​ Q: What is a photon? A: Quantum of electromagnetic radiation with energy E = hf.​

621.​ Q: What is Planck's constant? A: h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s​

622.​ Q: What is de Broglie wavelength? A: λ = h/p (wavelength associated with matter

particle).​

623.​ Q: What is wave-particle duality? A: Matter exhibits both wave and particle
properties.​

624.​ Q: What is an atom? A: Smallest unit of element retaining its properties.​

625.​ Q: What is Rutherford's atomic model? A: Positive nucleus surrounded by orbiting

electrons.​
626.​ Q: What is Bohr's atomic model? A: Electrons in fixed orbits with quantized energy
levels.​

627.​ Q: What is Bohr's postulate for angular momentum? A: L = nh/2π (angular

momentum is quantized)​

628.​ Q: What is an energy level? A: Allowed energy state for electron in atom.​

629.​ Q: What is ground state? A: Lowest energy state of atom.​

630.​ Q: What is excited state? A: Higher energy state when electron absorbs energy.​

631.​ Q: What is an emission spectrum? A: Set of wavelengths emitted when excited

atoms return to lower states.​

632.​ Q: What is an absorption spectrum? A: Dark lines in continuous spectrum where

specific wavelengths are absorbed.​

633.​ Q: What is ionization energy? A: Energy required to completely remove electron

from atom.​

634.​ Q: What is X-ray? A: High-energy electromagnetic radiation.​

635.​ Q: What produces X-rays? A: Rapid deceleration of high-speed electrons hitting

target.​

636.​ Q: What is radioactivity? A: Spontaneous emission of radiation by unstable nuclei.​

637.​ Q: Who discovered radioactivity? A: Henri Becquerel (1896)​

638.​ Q: What are the three types of radioactive emissions? A: Alpha (α), Beta (β), and
Gamma (γ) radiation.​

639.​ Q: What is alpha radiation? A: Emission of helium nucleus (2 protons, 2 neutrons).​

640.​ Q: What is beta radiation? A: Emission of electron or positron from nucleus.​

641.​ Q: What is gamma radiation? A: High-energy electromagnetic radiation from

nucleus.​

642.​ Q: Which radiation has highest penetrating power? A: Gamma radiation.​

643.​ Q: Which radiation has lowest penetrating power? A: Alpha radiation.​

644.​ Q: What is half-life? A: Time for half of radioactive sample to decay.​

645.​ Q: What is the half-life formula? A: N = N₀(½)^(t/t₁/₂)​

646.​ Q: What is nuclear fission? A: Splitting heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei releasing
energy.​

647.​ Q: What is nuclear fusion? A: Combining light nuclei into heavier nucleus releasing
energy.​

648.​ Q: Which process powers the Sun? A: Nuclear fusion (hydrogen to helium).​

649.​ Q: What is a chain reaction? A: Self-sustaining fission where neutrons from one
fission cause more fissions.​

650.​ Q: What is critical mass? A: Minimum mass of fissile material for sustained chain
reaction.​

651.​ Q: What is binding energy? A: Energy required to separate nucleus into constituent
nucleons.​

652.​ Q: What is mass defect? A: Difference between mass of separated nucleons and
nucleus.​

653.​ Q: What is Einstein's mass-energy relation? A: E = mc²​

654.​ Q: What is a semiconductor? A: Material with conductivity between conductor and

insulator.​

655.​ Q: What are the two types of semiconductors? A: Intrinsic and extrinsic.​

656.​ Q: What is an intrinsic semiconductor? A: Pure semiconductor (like Si or Ge).​

657.​ Q: What is an extrinsic semiconductor? A: Doped semiconductor with impurities.​

658.​ Q: What is a p-type semiconductor? A: Doped with acceptor impurities creating

holes (positive carriers).​

659.​ Q: What is an n-type semiconductor? A: Doped with donor impurities providing extra
electrons (negative carriers).​

660.​ Q: What is a p-n junction? A: Boundary between p-type and n-type semiconductors.​
661.​ Q: What is a diode? A: Semiconductor device allowing current in one direction only.​

662.​ Q: What is forward bias? A: Applying positive voltage to p-side, allowing current flow.​

663.​ Q: What is reverse bias? A: Applying positive voltage to n-side, blocking current flow.​

664.​ Q: What is a transistor? A: Semiconductor device for amplification and switching.​

665.​ Q: What are the three regions of transistor? A: Emitter, base, and collector.​

666.​ Q: What is a LED? A: Light Emitting Diode, emits light when forward biased.​

667.​ Q: What is a solar cell? A: Converts light energy directly to electrical energy.​

668.​ Q: What is Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle? A: Cannot simultaneously measure

position and momentum with arbitrary precision (Δx·Δp ≥ h/4π).​

669.​ Q: What is quantum mechanics? A: Theory describing physical properties at atomic

and subatomic scales.​

670.​ Q: What is the Compton effect? A: Increase in wavelength when photon scatters off
electron.​

671.​ Q: What is electron volt (eV)? A: Energy gained by electron through 1 volt potential
difference (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J).​

672.​ Q: What is the Rydberg constant? A: Constant in formula for hydrogen spectrum
wavelengths (1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹).​

673.​ Q: What is pair production? A: Creation of particle-antiparticle pair from photon.​

674.​ Q: What is annihilation? A: Particle and antiparticle colliding and converting to

photons.​

675.​ Q: What is an antimatter? A: Material composed of antiparticles (opposite charge to

normal matter).​

676.​ Q: What is special relativity? A: Einstein's theory about space and time at high
velocities.​

677.​ Q: What is time dilation? A: Time passes slower for moving objects relative to
stationary observer.​
Mathematics (333 Questions)
Algebra (80 Questions)

678.​ Q: What is a variable? A: Symbol representing unknown or changeable value.​

679.​ Q: What is a constant? A: Fixed value that doesn't change.​

680.​ Q: What is an expression? A: Combination of numbers, variables, and operators.​

681.​ Q: What is an equation? A: Mathematical statement with equal sign showing two
expressions are equal.​

682.​ Q: What is a linear equation? A: Equation of degree 1 (highest power is 1).​

683.​ Q: What is the standard form of linear equation in one variable? A: ax + b = 0​

684.​ Q: What is the standard form of linear equation in two variables? A: ax + by + c = 0​

685.​ Q: What is the slope-intercept form? A: y = mx + c (m is slope, c is y-intercept)​

686.​ Q: What is slope? A: Measure of steepness of line (m = (y₂-y₁)/(x₂-x₁))​

687.​ Q: What is y-intercept? A: Point where line crosses y-axis.​

688.​ Q: What is x-intercept? A: Point where line crosses x-axis.​

689.​ Q: What are parallel lines? A: Lines with equal slopes that never intersect.​

690.​ Q: What are perpendicular lines? A: Lines whose slopes multiply to -1 (m₁ × m₂ = -1).​

691.​ Q: What is a quadratic equation? A: Equation of degree 2 (ax² + bx + c = 0).​

692.​ Q: What is the quadratic formula? A: x = [-b ± √(b² - 4ac)] / 2a​

693.​ Q: What is the discriminant? A: b² - 4ac (determines nature of roots)​

694.​ Q: If discriminant > 0, what are the roots? A: Two distinct real roots.​

695.​ Q: If discriminant = 0, what are the roots? A: Two equal real roots.​
696.​ Q: If discriminant < 0, what are the roots? A: No real roots (complex roots).​

697.​ Q: What is factorization? A: Writing expression as product of its factors.​

698.​ Q: What is (a + b)²? A: a² + 2ab + b²​

699.​ Q: What is (a - b)²? A: a² - 2ab + b²​

700.​ Q: What is a² - b²? A: (a + b)(a - b)​

701.​ Q: What is (a + b)³? A: a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³​

702.​ Q: What is (a - b)³? A: a³ - 3a²b + 3ab² - b³​

703.​ Q: What is a³ + b³? A: (a + b)(a² - ab + b²)​

704.​ Q: What is a³ - b³? A: (a - b)(a² + ab + b²)​

705.​ Q: What is an arithmetic progression (AP)? A: Sequence where difference between

consecutive terms is constant.​

706.​ Q: What is the common difference in AP? A: d = a - a ₋₁​

707.​ Q: What is the nth term of AP? A: a = a + (n-1)d​

708.​ Q: What is the sum of n terms in AP? A: S = n/2[2a + (n-1)d] or S = n/2(a + l)​

709.​ Q: What is a geometric progression (GP)? A: Sequence where ratio between

consecutive terms is constant.​

710.​ Q: What is the common ratio in GP? A: r = a /a ₋₁​

711.​ Q: What is the nth term of GP? A: a = arⁿ⁻¹​

712.​ Q: What is the sum of n terms in GP? A: S = a(rⁿ - 1)/(r - 1) for r ≠ 1​

713.​ Q: What is the sum of infinite GP when |r| < 1? A: S∞ = a/(1 - r)​

714.​ Q: What is an exponent? A: Number indicating how many times base is multiplied by
itself.​

715.​ Q: What is a⁰? A: 1 (for a ≠ 0)​

716.​ Q: What is aᵐ × aⁿ? A: aᵐ⁺ⁿ​

717.​ Q: What is aᵐ / aⁿ? A: aᵐ⁻ⁿ​

718.​ Q: What is (aᵐ)ⁿ? A: aᵐⁿ​

719.​ Q: What is a⁻ⁿ? A: 1/aⁿ​

720.​ Q: What is (ab)ⁿ? A: aⁿbⁿ​

721.​ Q: What is a logarithm? A: Inverse of exponentiation (logₐ b = x means aˣ = b).​

722.​ Q: What is ln(x)? A: Natural logarithm (base e).​

723.​ Q: What is log(xy)? A: log x + log y​

724.​ Q: What is log(x/y)? A: log x - log y​

725.​ Q: What is log(xⁿ)? A: n log x​

726.​ Q: What is logₐ a? A: 1​

727.​ Q: What is logₐ 1? A: 0​

728.​ Q: What is a polynomial? A: Expression with variables and coefficients using only
addition, subtraction, multiplication, and non-negative integer exponents.​

729.​ Q: What is degree of polynomial? A: Highest power of variable.​

730.​ Q: What is a binomial? A: Polynomial with two terms.​

731.​ Q: What is a trinomial? A: Polynomial with three terms.​

732.​ Q: What is the remainder theorem? A: When p(x) is divided by (x-a), remainder is
p(a).​

733.​ Q: What is the factor theorem? A: (x-a) is factor of p(x) if p(a) = 0.​

734.​ Q: What is a rational expression? A: Ratio of two polynomials.​

735.​ Q: What is a root of equation? A: Value that satisfies the equation.​

736.​ Q: What are complex numbers? A: Numbers of form a + bi where i² = -1.​

737.​ Q: What is the imaginary unit? A: i = √(-1)​

738.​ Q: What is the modulus of complex number? A: |z| = √(a² + b²) for z = a + bi​

739.​ Q: What is the conjugate of a + bi? A: a - bi​

740.​ Q: What is a function? A: Relation where each input has exactly one output.​

741.​ Q: What is domain? A: Set of all possible input values.​

742.​ Q: What is range? A: Set of all possible output values.​

743.​ Q: What is a one-to-one function? A: Function where each output corresponds to

exactly one input.​

744.​ Q: What is an inverse function? A: Function that reverses another function (f⁻¹(f(x)) =
x).​

745.​ Q: What is composition of functions? A: (f ∘ g)(x) = f(g(x))​

746.​ Q: What is an even function? A: f(-x) = f(x)​

747.​ Q: What is an odd function? A: f(-x) = -f(x)​

748.​ Q: What is absolute value? A: Distance from zero (|x| = x if x ≥ 0, |x| = -x if x < 0)​

749.​ Q: What is an inequality? A: Statement comparing expressions using <, >, ≤, or ≥.​

750.​ Q: What happens when multiplying inequality by negative number? A: Inequality sign
reverses.​

751.​ Q: What is the triangle inequality? A: |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b|​

752.​ Q: What is a matrix? A: Rectangular array of numbers arranged in rows and

columns.​

753.​ Q: What is order of matrix? A: m × n where m is rows and n is columns.​

754.​ Q: What is a square matrix? A: Matrix with equal rows and columns.​

755.​ Q: What is identity matrix? A: Square matrix with 1s on diagonal and 0s elsewhere.​
 756.​ Q: What is transpose of matrix? A: Matrix obtained by interchanging rows and
columns.​

757.​ Q: What is determinant? A: Scalar value associated with square matrix.​

Geometry (60 Questions)

758.​ Q: What is a point? A: Exact location with no dimensions.​

759.​ Q: What is a line? A: Straight one-dimensional figure extending infinitely in both

directions.​

760.​ Q: What is a line segment? A: Part of line between two endpoints.​

761.​ Q: What is a ray? A: Part of line starting at one point and extending infinitely in one
direction.​

762.​ Q: What is an angle? A: Figure formed by two rays sharing common endpoint.​

763.​ Q: What is an acute angle? A: Angle less than 90°.​

764.​ Q: What is a right angle? A: Angle equal to 90°.​

765.​ Q: What is an obtuse angle? A: Angle greater than 90° but less than 180°.​

766.​ Q: What is a straight angle? A: Angle equal to 180°.​

767.​ Q: What is a reflex angle? A: Angle greater than 180° but less than 360°.​

768.​ Q: What are complementary angles? A: Two angles whose sum is 90°.​

769.​ Q: What are supplementary angles? A: Two angles whose sum is 180°.​

770.​ Q: What are vertically opposite angles? A: Equal angles formed when two lines
intersect.​

771.​ Q: What is a triangle? A: Polygon with three sides and three angles.​

772.​ Q: What is the sum of angles in triangle? A: 180°​

773.​ Q: What is an equilateral triangle? A: Triangle with all sides equal (all angles 60°).​
774.​ Q: What is an isosceles triangle? A: Triangle with two equal sides.​

775.​ Q: What is a scalene triangle? A: Triangle with all sides of different lengths.​

776.​ Q: What is a right triangle? A: Triangle with one 90° angle.​

777.​ Q: What is the Pythagorean theorem? A: In right triangle: a² + b² = c² (c is

hypotenuse).​

778.​ Q: What is the area of triangle? A: A = ½ × base × height​

779.​ Q: What is Heron's formula? A: A = √[s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)] where s = (a+b+c)/2​

780.​ Q: What is a quadrilateral? A: Polygon with four sides.​

781.​ Q: What is the sum of angles in quadrilateral? A: 360°​

782.​ Q: What is a rectangle? A: Quadrilateral with all angles 90° and opposite sides
equal.​

783.​ Q: What is area of rectangle? A: A = length × width​

784.​ Q: What is perimeter of rectangle? A: P = 2(length + width)​

785.​ Q: What is a square? A: Rectangle with all sides equal.​

786.​ Q: What is area of square? A: A = side²​

787.​ Q: What is a parallelogram? A: Quadrilateral with opposite sides parallel and equal.​

788.​ Q: What is area of parallelogram? A: A = base × height​

789.​ Q: What is a rhombus? A: Parallelogram with all sides equal.​

790.​ Q: What is area of rhombus? A: A = ½ × d₁ × d₂ (diagonals)​

791.​ Q: What is a trapezium? A: Quadrilateral with one pair of parallel sides.​

792.​ Q: What is area of trapezium? A: A = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × height​

793.​ Q: What is a circle? A: Set of points equidistant from center.​

794.​ Q: What is radius? A: Distance from center to any point on circle.​

795.​ Q: What is diameter? A: Line segment through center connecting two points on
circle (d = 2r).​

796.​ Q: What is circumference? A: Perimeter of circle (C = 2πr = πd).​

797.​ Q: What is area of circle? A: A = πr²​

798.​ Q: What is a chord? A: Line segment joining two points on circle.​

799.​ Q: What is an arc? A: Part of circle's circumference.​

800.​ Q: What is a sector? A: Region bounded by two radii and an arc.​

801.​ Q: What is area of sector? A: A = (θ/360°) × πr²​

802.​ Q: What is a tangent to circle? A: Line touching circle at exactly one point.​

803.​ Q: What is the angle between tangent and radius at point of contact? A: 90°​

804.​ Q: What is a polygon? A: Closed figure with straight sides.​

805.​ Q: What is a regular polygon? A: Polygon with all sides and angles equal.​

806.​ Q: What is sum of interior angles of n-sided polygon? A: (n - 2) × 180°​

807.​ Q: What is each interior angle of regular polygon? A: [(n - 2) × 180°] / n​

808.​ Q: What is sum of exterior angles of any polygon? A: 360°​

809.​ Q: What is congruence? A: Figures with same shape and size.​

810.​ Q: What is similarity? A: Figures with same shape but different sizes.​

811.​ Q: What is the basic proportionality theorem (Thales' theorem)? A: Line parallel to
one side of triangle divides other sides proportionally.​

812.​ Q: What is a cube? A: Three-dimensional figure with six square faces.​

813.​ Q: What is volume of cube? A: V = side³​

814.​ Q: What is surface area of cube? A: SA = 6 × side²​

815.​ Q: What is a cuboid? A: Three-dimensional figure with six rectangular faces.​

 816.​ Q: What is volume of cuboid? A: V = length × width × height​

817.​ Q: What is surface area of cuboid? A: SA = 2(lb + bh + hl)​

Trigonometry (50 Questions)

818.​ Q: What is trigonometry? A: Study of relationships between angles and sides of

triangles.​

819.​ Q: What is sine (sin)? A: Opposite side / Hypotenuse​

820.​ Q: What is cosine (cos)? A: Adjacent side / Hypotenuse​

821.​ Q: What is tangent (tan)? A: Opposite side / Adjacent side​

822.​ Q: What is sin 0°? A: 0​

823.​ Q: What is sin 30°? A: 1/2​

824.​ Q: What is sin 45°? A: 1/√2​

825.​ Q: What is sin 60°? A: √3/2​

826.​ Q: What is sin 90°? A: 1​

827.​ Q: What is cos 0°? A: 1​

828.​ Q: What is cos 30°? A: √3/2​

829.​ Q: What is cos 45°? A: 1/√2​

830.​ Q: What is cos 60°? A: 1/2​

831.​ Q: What is cos 90°? A: 0​

832.​ Q: What is tan 0°? A: 0​

833.​ Q: What is tan 30°? A: 1/√3​

834.​ Q: What is tan 45°? A: 1​

835.​ Q: What is tan 60°? A: √3​

836.​ Q: What is tan 90°? A: Undefined​

837.​ Q: What is the Pythagorean identity? A: sin²θ + cos²θ = 1​

838.​ Q: What is tan θ in terms of sin and cos? A: tan θ = sin θ / cos θ​

839.​ Q: What is cosecant (cosec)? A: 1 / sin θ​

840.​ Q: What is secant (sec)? A: 1 / cos θ​

841.​ Q: What is cotangent (cot)? A: 1 / tan θ​

842.​ Q: What is 1 + tan²θ? A: sec²θ​

843.​ Q: What is 1 + cot²θ? A: cosec²θ​

844.​ Q: What is sin(90° - θ)? A: cos θ​

845.​ Q: What is cos(90° - θ)? A: sin θ​

846.​ Q: What is tan(90° - θ)? A: cot θ​

847.​ Q: What is sin(-θ)? A: -sin θ​

848.​ Q: What is cos(-θ)? A: cos θ​

849.​ Q: What is sin(A + B)? A: sin A cos B + cos A sin B​

850.​ Q: What is sin(A - B)? A: sin A cos B - cos A sin B​

851.​ Q: What is cos(A + B)? A: cos A cos B - sin A sin B​

852.​ Q: What is cos(A - B)? A: cos A cos B + sin A sin B​

853.​ Q: What is sin 2θ? A: 2 sin θ cos θ​

854.​ Q: What is cos 2θ? A: cos²θ - sin²θ = 2cos²θ - 1 = 1 - 2sin²θ​

855.​ Q: What is tan 2θ? A: 2 tan θ / (1 - tan²θ)​

856.​ Q: What is the sine rule? A: a/sin A = b/sin B = c/sin C​

857.​ Q: What is the cosine rule? A: c² = a² + b² - 2ab cos C​

 858.​ Q: What is radian? A: Angle subtended at center by arc equal to radius.​

859.​ Q: How many radians in 180°? A: π radians​

860.​ Q: How to convert degrees to radians? A: Radians = Degrees × π/180​

861.​ Q: How to convert radians to degrees? A: Degrees = Radians × 180/π​

862.​ Q: What is the period of sin x? A: 2π​

863.​ Q: What is the period of cos x? A: 2π​

864.​ Q: What is the period of tan x? A: π​

865.​ Q: What is the range of sin x? A: [-1, 1]​

866.​ Q: What is the range of cos x? A: [-1, 1]​

867.​ Q: What is the domain of tan x? A: All real numbers except π/2 + nπ​

Calculus (60 Questions)

868.​ Q: What is a limit? A: Value that function approaches as input approaches some
value.​

869.​ Q: What is continuity? A: Function is continuous if lim(x→a) f(x) = f(a).​

870.​ Q: What is a derivative? A: Rate of change of function with respect to variable.​

871.​ Q: What is the notation for derivative? A: f'(x), dy/dx, or df/dx​

872.​ Q: What is the derivative of constant? A: 0​

873.​ Q: What is the derivative of x? A: 1​

874.​ Q: What is the derivative of xⁿ? A: nxⁿ⁻¹​

875.​ Q: What is the derivative of sin x? A: cos x​

876.​ Q: What is the derivative of cos x? A: -sin x​

877.​ Q: What is the derivative of tan x? A: sec²x​

878.​ Q: What is the derivative of eˣ? A: eˣ​

879.​ Q: What is the derivative of ln x? A: 1/x​

880.​ Q: What is the product rule? A: (uv)' = u'v + uv'​

881.​ Q: What is the quotient rule? A: (u/v)' = (u'v - uv')/v²​

882.​ Q: What is the chain rule? A: d/dx[f(g(x))] = f'(g(x)) × g'(x)​

883.​ Q: What is the power rule for functions? A: d/dx[f(x)]ⁿ = n[f(x)]ⁿ⁻¹ × f'(x)​

884.​ Q: What does f'(x) = 0 indicate? A: Possible maximum, minimum, or point of

inflection.​

885.​ Q: What is a critical point? A: Point where f'(x) = 0 or undefined.​

886.​ Q: What is a local maximum? A: Point where function value is highest in

neighborhood.​

887.​ Q: What is a local minimum? A: Point where function value is lowest in

neighborhood.​

888.​ Q: What is the second derivative? A: Derivative of the derivative (f''(x) or d²y/dx²).​

889.​ Q: What does f''(x) > 0 indicate? A: Function is concave up (minimum).​

890.​ Q: What does f''(x) < 0 indicate? A: Function is concave down (maximum).​

891.​ Q: What is a point of inflection? A: Point where concavity changes (f''(x) = 0).​

892.​ Q: What is integration? A: Reverse process of differentiation; finding area under

curve.​

893.​ Q: What is an indefinite integral? A: General antiderivative (includes constant C).​

894.​ Q: What is a definite integral? A: Integral with limits giving specific numerical value.​

895.​ Q: What is ∫ dx? A: x + C​

896.​ Q: What is ∫ xⁿ dx? A: xⁿ⁺¹/(n+1) + C (n ≠ -1)​

897.​ Q: What is ∫ 1/x dx? A: ln|x| + C​

898.​ Q: What is ∫ eˣ dx? A: eˣ + C​

899.​ Q: What is ∫ sin x dx? A: -cos x + C​

900.​ Q: What is ∫ cos x dx? A: sin x + C​

901.​ Q: What is the fundamental theorem of calculus? A: ∫[a to b] f(x)dx = F(b) - F(a)
where F'(x) = f(x)​

902.​ Q: What is ∫[a to b] f(x)dx if a = b? A: 0​

903.​ Q: What is the property ∫[a to b] f(x)dx? A: -∫[b to a] f(x)dx​

904.​ Q: What is integration by parts formula? A: ∫ u dv = uv - ∫ v du​

905.​ Q: What is the area under curve y = f(x) from a to b? A: ∫[a to b] f(x)dx​

906.​ Q: What is the mean value theorem? A: If f is continuous on [a,b], there exists c
where f'(c) = [f(b)-f(a)]/(b-a)​

907.​ Q: What is Rolle's theorem? A: If f(a) = f(b) and f is differentiable, there exists c
where f'(c) = 0​

908.​ Q: What is L'Hôpital's rule? A: For indeterminate forms, lim f(x)/g(x) = lim f'(x)/g'(x)​

909.​ Q: What is the derivative of a constant times a function? A: d/dx[cf(x)] = c × f'(x)​

910.​ Q: What is the sum rule for derivatives? A: (f + g)' = f' + g'​

911.​ Q: What is implicit differentiation? A: Differentiating both sides with respect to x when
y is implicit.​

912.​ Q: What is partial differentiation? A: Differentiation with respect to one variable,

treating others as constants.​

913.​ Q: What is the gradient? A: Vector of partial derivatives.​

914.​ Q: What is a differential equation? A: Equation involving derivatives of function.​

915.​ Q: What is a separable differential equation? A: Equation that can be written as

f(y)dy = g(x)dx​

916.​ Q: What is the slope of tangent line at point? A: Value of derivative at that point.​
 917.​ Q: What is the equation of tangent line? A: y - y₁ = f'(x₁)(x - x₁)​

918.​ Q: What is the normal line? A: Line perpendicular to tangent at point of contact.​

919.​ Q: What is velocity in calculus? A: First derivative of position with respect to time (v =
dx/dt)​

920.​ Q: What is acceleration in calculus? A: First derivative of velocity or second

derivative of position (a = dv/dt = d²x/dt²)​

921.​ Q: What is the area between two curves? A: ∫[a to b] |f(x) - g(x)|dx​

922.​ Q: What is volume of solid of revolution (disk method)? A: V = π∫[a to b] [f(x)]²dx​

923.​ Q: What is arc length formula? A: L = ∫[a to b] √[1 + (dy/dx)²]dx​

924.​ Q: What is surface area of revolution? A: SA = 2π∫[a to b] y√[1 + (dy/dx)²]dx​

925.​ Q: What is a Taylor series? A: Representation of function as infinite sum of terms

based on derivatives at a point.​

926.​ Q: What is a Maclaurin series? A: Taylor series centered at x = 0.​

927.​ Q: What is convergence of series? A: When partial sums approach finite limit.​

Statistics & Probability (48 Questions)

928.​ Q: What is statistics? A: Science of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data.​

929.​ Q: What is data? A: Collection of facts, numbers, or information.​

930.​ Q: What is population? A: Entire group being studied.​

931.​ Q: What is a sample? A: Subset of population.​

932.​ Q: What is mean (average)? A: Sum of values divided by number of values (x̄ =
Σx/n).​

933.​ Q: What is median? A: Middle value when data is arranged in order.​

934.​ Q: What is mode? A: Most frequently occurring value.​

935.​ Q: What is range? A: Difference between maximum and minimum values.​

936.​ Q: What is variance? A: Average of squared deviations from mean (σ² = Σ(x-μ)²/n).​

937.​ Q: What is standard deviation? A: Square root of variance (σ = √variance).​

938.​ Q: What is a frequency distribution? A: Table showing how often each value occurs.​

939.​ Q: What is a histogram? A: Bar graph representing frequency distribution.​

940.​ Q: What is cumulative frequency? A: Running total of frequencies.​

941.​ Q: What is a percentile? A: Value below which a percentage of data falls.​

942.​ Q: What is a quartile? A: Values dividing data into four equal parts.​

943.​ Q: What is the interquartile range (IQR)? A: Q₃ - Q₁ (middle 50% of data).​

944.​ Q: What is an outlier? A: Data point significantly different from others.​

945.​ Q: What is correlation? A: Measure of relationship between two variables.​

946.​ Q: What is positive correlation? A: Both variables increase together.​

947.​ Q: What is negative correlation? A: One variable increases as other decreases.​

948.​ Q: What is the correlation coefficient (r)? A: Numerical measure of linear relationship
(-1 ≤ r ≤ 1).​

949.​ Q: What is probability? A: Measure of likelihood of event occurring.​

950.​ Q: What is the range of probability? A: 0 ≤ P(E) ≤ 1​

951.​ Q: What is P(certain event)? A: 1​

952.​ Q: What is P(impossible event)? A: 0​

953.​ Q: What is the probability formula? A: P(E) = Number of favorable outcomes / Total
number of outcomes​

954.​ Q: What is complementary probability? A: P(E') = 1 - P(E)​

955.​ Q: What is the addition rule for mutually exclusive events? A: P(A or B) = P(A) +
P(B)​

956.​ Q: What is the general addition rule? A: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B)​

957.​ Q: What is the multiplication rule for independent events? A: P(A and B) = P(A) ×
P(B)​

958.​ Q: What are independent events? A: Events where occurrence of one doesn't affect
the other.​

959.​ Q: What are dependent events? A: Events where occurrence of one affects
probability of the other.​

960.​ Q: What is conditional probability? A: P(A|B) = P(A and B) / P(B)​

961.​ Q: What is Bayes' theorem? A: P(A|B) = [P(B|A) × P(A)] / P(B)​

962.​ Q: What is a random variable? A: Variable whose value is determined by outcome of

random phenomenon.​

963.​ Q: What is expected value? A: Average value expected over many trials (E(X) = Σx
P(x)).​

964.​ Q: What is a permutation? A: Arrangement where order matters (ⁿPᵣ = n!/(n-r)!).​

965.​ Q: What is a combination? A: Selection where order doesn't matter (ⁿCᵣ =

n!/[r!(n-r)!]).​

966.​ Q: What is n factorial (n!)? A: Product of all positive integers up to n.​

967.​ Q: What is 0!? A: 1​

968.​ Q: What is a binomial distribution? A: Probability distribution for n independent trials

with two outcomes.​

969.​ Q: What is the binomial probability formula? A: P(X=r) = ⁿCᵣ × pʳ × (1-p)ⁿ⁻ʳ​

970.​ Q: What is a normal distribution? A: Bell-shaped symmetric probability distribution.​

971.​ Q: What is the standard normal distribution? A: Normal distribution with mean 0 and
standard deviation 1.​
 972.​ Q: What is a z-score? A: Number of standard deviations from mean (z = (x-μ)/σ).​

973.​ Q: What is the empirical rule (68-95-99.7)? A: In normal distribution, 68% within 1σ,
95% within 2σ, 99.7% within 3σ.​

974.​ Q: What is sampling distribution? A: Distribution of sample statistics from all possible
samples.​

975.​ Q: What is the central limit theorem? A: Distribution of sample means approaches
normal distribution as sample size increases.​

Number Theory & Miscellaneous (35 Questions)

976.​ Q: What is a prime number? A: Natural number greater than 1 with only 1 and itself
as divisors.​

977.​ Q: What is a composite number? A: Natural number greater than 1 that is not prime.​

978.​ Q: What is 1? A: Neither prime nor composite.​

979.​ Q: What is a factor? A: Number that divides another number evenly.​

980.​ Q: What is a multiple? A: Product of a number and an integer.​

981.​ Q: What is HCF (GCD)? A: Highest Common Factor, largest number dividing two or
more numbers.​

982.​ Q: What is LCM? A: Least Common Multiple, smallest number divisible by two or
more numbers.​

983.​ Q: What is the relationship between HCF and LCM? A: For two numbers: HCF ×
LCM = Product of numbers​

984.​ Q: What is a rational number? A: Number expressible as p/q where p, q are integers
and q ≠ 0.​

985.​ Q: What is an irrational number? A: Number that cannot be expressed as p/q

(non-repeating, non-terminating decimal).​

986.​ Q: What is a real number? A: Any rational or irrational number.​

987.​ Q: What is an integer? A: Whole number (positive, negative, or zero).​

 988.​ Q: What is a natural number? A: Positive integers (1, 2, 3, ...).​

989.​ Q: What is a whole number? A: Natural numbers plus zero (0, 1, 2, 3, ...).​

990.​ Q: What is the value of π? A: Approximately 3.14159 (ratio of circumference to

diameter).​

991.​ Q: What is the value of e? A: Approximately 2.71828 (base of natural logarithm).​

992.​ Q: What is √2? A: Approximately 1.414 (irrational number).​

993.​ Q: What is the golden ratio? A: φ ≈ 1.618 (appears in nature and art).​

994.​ Q: What is a perfect square? A: Number that is square of an integer.​

995.​ Q: What is a perfect cube? A: Number that is cube of an integer.​

996.​ Q: What is modular arithmetic? A: Arithmetic system for integers where numbers
wrap around after reaching modulus.​

997.​ Q: What is the Fibonacci sequence? A: Sequence where each term is sum of two
preceding terms (0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ...).​

998.​ Q: What is set theory? A: Study of collections of objects.​

999.​ Q: What is a Venn diagram? A: Visual representation of set relationships using

overlapping circles.​

1000.​ Q: What is coordinate geometry? A: Study of geometry using coordinate system

(also called analytic geometry).​

End of Practice Questions

Study Tips:

●​ Review questions by category to identify weak areas

●​ Practice writing out full solutions, not just memorizing answers
●​ Time yourself on sections to simulate exam conditions
●​ Focus on understanding concepts, not just memorizing formulas
●​ Work through similar problems from your textbooks
●​ Form study groups to discuss challenging topics
**Good luck with your college entrance exam!