1. Two different forms of the same gene are located on homologous chromosomes.

Answer: D. Allele

A. DNA – The molecule that carries genetic information.

B. Genes – Segments of DNA that determine traits.

C. Chromatids – Identical halves of a replicated chromosome.

D. Allele – Different forms of the same gene found on homologous chromosomes.

2. If the Earth has completed three revolutions, how many rotations has it completed?

Answer: D. 1,095 ¼

The Earth completes one revolution around the Sun in 365 ¼ days, meaning that in three revolutions, it
completes 3 × 365 ¼ = 1,095 ¼ rotations.

A. 1,094 ¼, B. 1,094 ¾, C. 1,095 ¾ – Incorrect as they do not account for the exact calculation of
rotations.

3. A specialized DNA sequence that allows duplicated chromosomes to be separated during M phase. It
can be seen as the constricted region of a mitotic chromosome.

Answer: D. Centromere

A. Chromosome – A structure containing DNA and proteins.

B. Chromatin – The uncoiled form of chromosomes in the nucleus.

C. Chromatid – One half of a duplicated chromosome.

D. Centromere – The region where sister chromatids are attached.

4. Which type of tissue consists of cells that fit tightly together to form a sheet?

Answer: D. Epithelial tissue

A. Muscle tissue – Involved in movement.

B. Nervous tissue – Transmits signals.

C. Connective tissue – Provides support and structure.

D. Epithelial tissue – Covers body surfaces and lines organs.

5. Ambrosio spit out a watermelon seed, which moved in a curved path after leaving his mouth. In
physics, what is the special term for a watermelon seed?

Answer: B. Projectile

A. Direction – General term; not specific.

B. Projectile – An object moving through space under the influence of gravity.

C. Range – The horizontal distance covered by a projectile.

D. Trajectory – The curved path followed by a projectile.

6. If a piece of ribbon were tied to a stretched string carrying a transverse wave, how would the ribbon
be observed to oscillate?

Answer: A. Perpendicular to wave direction

A. Perpendicular to wave direction – In transverse waves, oscillations occur perpendicular to wave

motion.

B. Parallel to wave direction – True for longitudinal waves, not transverse.

C. Neither (a) nor (b) – Incorrect as transverse waves have perpendicular oscillations.

D. Both (a) and (b) – Contradictory as only one direction is correct.

7. Which property of a pure substance is similar to that of a solution?

Answer: B. It consists of a single phase

A. It has a definite composition – True for pure substances, but solutions can have variable
compositions.

B. It consists of a single phase – Solutions are homogeneous and exhibit a single phase.

C. It has a sharp boiling temperature – Pure substances do, but solutions do not.
D. It is purified by chemical means – Solutions are separated physically, not chemically.

8. What is the correct order of the stages in the metamorphosis of grasshoppers?

Answer: D. Egg, nymph, adult

A. Nymph, pupa, adult – Incorrect as grasshoppers do not have a pupal stage.

B. Larva, pupa, adult – Applies to butterflies, not grasshoppers.

C. Egg, pupa, adult – Incorrect as grasshoppers do not have a pupal stage.

D. Egg, nymph, adult – Correct as grasshoppers undergo incomplete metamorphosis.

9. Robin decided to test a solution using litmus paper. He noted that the red litmus paper turned blue.
This observation indicates that the solution is:

Answer: C. Basic

A. Acidic – Would turn blue litmus red.

B. Neutral – No color change in litmus paper.

C. Basic – Turns red litmus paper blue.

D. Organic – Not relevant to pH determination.

10. This is the process by which a DNA molecule is made.

Answer: A. DNA replication

A. DNA replication – The process of copying DNA.

B. Translation – Converting mRNA into protein.

C. Transcription – Copying DNA into RNA.

D. Synthesis – General term for making biomolecules.

11. Which of the following scientists proposed a set of guidelines to demonstrate that a specific
pathogen causes specific disease symptoms?
Answer: C. Koch

A. Leeuwenhoek – Discovered microorganisms but did not establish disease causation.

B. Pasteur – Developed germ theory but not specific disease guidelines.

C. Koch – Developed Koch’s postulates for linking pathogens to diseases.

D. Prusiner – Discovered prions but did not develop disease guidelines.

12. Which protist is a concern because of its ability to contaminate water supplies and cause diarrheal
illness?

Answer: C. Giardia lamblia

A. Plasmodium vivax – Causes malaria, not waterborne disease.

B. Toxoplasma gondii – Causes toxoplasmosis, not waterborne illness.

C. Giardia lamblia – Causes giardiasis, a diarrheal illness from contaminated water.

D. Trichomonas vaginalis – Causes an STD, not waterborne disease.

13. What is the correct name for the compound P4O6?

Answer: A. Tetraphosphorus hexoxide

A. Tetraphosphorus hexoxide – Correct IUPAC name.

B. Phosphorus(IV) oxide – Incorrect as oxidation states do not match.

C. Phosphoric acid – Incorrect; phosphoric acid is H₃PO₄.

D. Phosphorus oxide – Too vague.

14. It is built to reflect the journey of the sun in the sky, which helped keep track of time.

Answer: B. Stonehenge

A. Great Wall of China – Defensive structure, not related to astronomy.

B. Stonehenge – Ancient structure used for tracking celestial events.

C. Leaning Tower – Architectural wonder, not related to the sun.

D. Taj Mahal – Mausoleum, unrelated to timekeeping.

15. Copying of one strand of DNA into a complementary RNA sequence by the enzyme RNA polymerase.
RNA monomers are lined up and selected for polymerization on a template strand of DNA.

Answer: C. Transcription

A. DNA replication – Copies DNA, not RNA.

B. Translation – Converts mRNA into protein.

C. Transcription – The process of making RNA from DNA.

D. Synthesis – General term, not specific to RNA production.

16. The acoelomates, typified by the flatworms, are the most primitive bilaterally symmetrical animals.
Which is true of flatworms?

Answer: C. Lack a circulatory system, relying on diffusion for oxygen and nutrients

A. Have an open circulatory system – Incorrect; flatworms do not have a circulatory system.

B. Have a closed system with a heart – Incorrect; they do not have a heart.

C. Lack a circulatory system, relying on diffusion for oxygen and nutrients – Correct.

D. Lack a circulatory system, so all their cells must be within diffusion distance of oxygen and nutrients –
Similar to C but slightly misleading.

17. What is being established when the status of an organism is examined within a community and how
it fits in its total environment?

Answer: A. Ecological niche

A. Ecological niche – Role and position of an organism in an ecosystem.

B. Ecological succession – Gradual change in community composition over time.

C. Environment habitation – Not a standard term in ecology.

D. Environment succession – Incorrect terminology.

18. A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by?

Answer: B. A high-pressure air mass

A. Subcritical air pressure – Not relevant.

B. A high-pressure air mass – Causes descending air that traps cooler air below.

C. Radiative cooling – Can contribute but is not the primary cause.

D. Acid rain – Unrelated to temperature inversions.

19. Which of the following solids is most likely to dissolve in CCl₄?

Answer: B. Phosphorus pentachloride

A. Calcium chloride – Ionic compound; dissolves in water, not in nonpolar solvents.

B. Phosphorus pentachloride – Nonpolar, dissolves in nonpolar solvents like CCl₄.

C. Copper chloride – Ionic, dissolves in water.

D. Potassium chloride – Ionic, dissolves in water.

20. It is defined as the average translational kinetic energy of an object and a property that determines
whether an object is in thermal equilibrium with another object.

Answer: B. Temperature

A. Energy – Broad term; not specific to kinetic energy.

B. Temperature – Directly related to average kinetic energy.

C. Heat – Transfer of thermal energy, not a measure of kinetic energy.

D. Calorie – Unit of energy, not a property of an object.

21. Science education aims to develop ________ among learners to help them make informed decisions
about scientific applications.

Answer: A. Scientific literacy

A. Scientific literacy – Understanding science for informed decision-making.

B. Technological literacy – Understanding technology, not science broadly.

C. Numerical literacy – Related to math skills, not science literacy.

D. Basic literacy – Reading and writing skills, not specific to science.

22. What is the first recognized genetically modified organism (GMO) created through genetic
engineering?

Answer: C. Flavr Savr Tomato

A. Bt Cotton – Came later.

B. Roundup Ready Soybeans – Came after Flavr Savr.

C. Flavr Savr Tomato – First commercial GMO (1994).

D. Golden Rice – Developed after Flavr Savr.

23. Cell organelles filled with enzymes for digestion of lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins.

Answer: B. Lysosome

A. Ribosome – Produces proteins, not involved in digestion.

B. Lysosome – Contains digestive enzymes.

C. Mitochondria – Produces energy, not digestion.

D. Golgi Body – Packages proteins, not digestion.

24. In the year 1900, the German physicist _______ proposed that energy carried by electromagnetic
fields is quantized.

Answer: C. Max Planck

A. Werner Heisenberg – Developed uncertainty principle.

B. Niels Bohr – Developed atomic model.

C. Max Planck – Proposed quantum theory.

D. Albert Einstein – Explained the photoelectric effect.

25. The enzyme that facilitates fat digestion in the small intestine is:

Answer: D. Lipase

A. Proteases – Breaks down proteins.

B. Ptyalin – A salivary amylase for carbohydrate digestion.

C. Pepsin – Breaks down proteins in the stomach.

D. Lipase – Breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

26. The change in pitch due to the Doppler effect is caused by changes in:

Answer: B. Wave frequency

A. Wave speed – Remains constant in the same medium.

B. Wave frequency – Changes with relative motion, causing the Doppler effect.

C. Wavelength – Changes, but pitch is more directly related to frequency.

D. Amplitude – Affects loudness, not pitch.

27. A diagram of a pedigree shows:

Answer: D. The expression of genetic traits in family generations

A. Controlled breeding experiments – More relevant to Mendelian experiments.

B. Total genetic information – Describes a genome, not a pedigree.

C. DNA sequence comparison – Related to molecular genetics, not pedigrees.

D. Expression of traits in family generations – Correct.

28. Leaf fall, which occurs due to specialized cell layers near the petiole base, is called:

Answer: B. Abscission

A. Dormancy – Period of inactivity, not leaf drop.

B. Abscission – The process of leaf shedding.

C. Annual shed – Not a standard biological term.

D. Senescence – Aging process, not specifically leaf shedding.

29. The "world’s oldest star map" is called:

Answer: A. The Nebra Sky Disk

A. The Nebra Sky Disk – Oldest known depiction of the night sky.

B. The Lascaux Celestial Panel – Cave paintings; debated as a star map.

C. The Chauvet Star Diagram – No confirmed astronomical significance.

D. The Stonehenge Moon Chart – Stonehenge is an astronomical site but not a "star map."

30. It is the process of speeding up a chemical reaction by adding a compound that remains unchanged.

Answer: A. Catalysis

A. Catalysis – The acceleration of a chemical reaction by a catalyst.

B. Biosynthesis – Production of biomolecules, not a catalyst function.

C. Enzyme – A biological catalyst, but "catalysis" is the process.

D. Redox reaction – Involves electron transfer, not necessarily catalysis.

31. Which of the following metals melts at nearly room temperature and can melt in your hand?

Answer: A. Gallium

A. Gallium – Melts at 29.76°C, can melt in the hand.

B. Cesium – Melts at 28.5°C, but is highly reactive and dangerous.

C. Sodium – Melts at 97.8°C, too high to melt in hand.

D. Magnesium – Melts at 650°C, far from room temperature.

32. The wind speed in the area was about 100 km per hour. What is the weather disturbance called?

Answer: B. Storm

A. Typhoon – Winds > 118 km/h.

B. Storm – Covers winds of 62–117 km/h.

C. Hurricane – Same as a typhoon but in a different region.

D. Depression – Weaker system, winds < 62 km/h.

33. What is NOT an example of asexual reproduction through cellular division in plants?

Answer: A. Saprophytes generation

A. Saprophytes generation – Incorrect, as saprophytes decompose organic material.

B. Formation of a bud – A form of asexual reproduction.

C. Germination of runners in grasses – Another type of asexual propagation.

D. Stem cuttings – A widely used method of asexual reproduction.

34. The theory stating that atoms/molecules emit or absorb energy in discrete amounts is called:

Answer: A. Planck’s Quantum Theory

A. Planck’s Quantum Theory – Introduced the idea of quantized energy.

B. Bohr’s Atomic Model – Focused on electron orbits.

C. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle – Deals with the limits of measurement precision.

D. Einstein’s Theory of Relativity – Explains space-time, not quantum energy levels.

35. Who invented a device called the torsion balance to measure small electrical charges?

Answer: B. Charles-Augustin de Coulomb

A. Svante Arrhenius – Known for work in acids and bases.

B. Charles-Augustin de Coulomb – Measured electrostatic forces, leading to Coulomb’s law.

C. George Bednorz – Discovered high-temperature superconductors.

D. Gerd Binnig – Developed the scanning tunneling microscope.

36. Which of the following is true of gymnosperms?

Answer: C. They reproduce by seeds

A. They have flowers – Incorrect; gymnosperms lack flowers.

B. They are monocots – Monocots are a category of angiosperms.

C. They reproduce by seeds – Correct, but seeds are not enclosed in fruits.

D. They reproduce by spores – Incorrect; ferns and mosses reproduce by spores.

37. The most numerous fibers in connective tissue are:

Answer: C. Collagen

A. Reticular – Less abundant, provides support in soft tissues.

B. Myofibrils – Found in muscle cells, not connective tissue.

C. Collagen – Most abundant, provides tensile strength.

D. Elastic – Provides flexibility but is less common than collagen.

38. A red flower was crossed with a white flower, producing pink flowers. This follows the law of:

Answer: B. Incomplete dominance

A. Dominance – Would result in either red or white flowers.

B. Incomplete dominance – Blending of traits (pink flowers).

C. Segregation – Deals with separation of alleles, not blending.

D. Assortment – Concerns how different traits are inherited independently.

39. A root system with one large primary root and many secondary roots is called:
Answer: A. Taproot system

A. Taproot system – Features a dominant primary root (e.g., carrot).

B. Fibrous roots – Has many small, branching roots (e.g., grass).

C. Primary roots – A general term for the first root of a plant.

D. Secondary roots – Branches from a primary root but does not describe the system.

40. Group A elements in the periodic table are referred to as:

Answer: B. Representative elements

A. Transition metals – Found in groups 3–12, not Group A.

B. Representative elements – Includes metals, nonmetals, and metalloids (Groups 1, 2, and 13–18).

C. Metallic elements – General term, does not specify Group A.

D. Non-metallic elements – Only applies to nonmetals.

41. According to Planck’s Quantum Theory, the energy of radiation absorbed/emitted is:

Answer: C. Directly proportional

A. Inversely proportional – Incorrect; energy increases with frequency.

B. Constant measure – Not true; energy depends on frequency.

C. Directly proportional – Correct, according to

E=hν.

D. Always higher – Not necessarily true.

42. Stationary points in a standing wave are called:

Answer: A. Nodes

A. Nodes – Points where there is no displacement.

B. Zero points – Not a standard term.

C. Normal nodes – Unnecessary repetition.

D. Antinodes – Points of maximum displacement.

43. The names used for northeast and southwest monsoons in the Philippines are:

Answer: A. Amihan and Habagat

A. Amihan and Habagat – Northeast = Amihan, Southwest = Habagat.

B. Habagat & Kanluran – Incorrect terminology.

C. Habagat and Amihan – Order is reversed.

D. Amihan and Kanluran – Incorrect terminology.

44. Which is a characteristic of qualitative data analysis?

Answer: C. Coding and thematic analysis

A. Emphasis on statistical tests – More related to quantitative analysis.

B. Large sample sizes – Qualitative studies often use small, detailed samples.

C. Coding and thematic analysis – Correct, as qualitative data is categorized into themes.

D. Use of inferential statistics – More relevant to quantitative research.

45. A teaching method where students work on projects to apply science concepts is called:

Answer: D. Project-Based Method

A. Inquiry Method – Focuses on questioning and exploring.

B. Problem-Solving Approach – Involves structured problem-solving.

C. Demonstration Method – Teacher-led demonstrations.

D. Project-Based Method – Students create projects to solve problems.

46. Which is found in both gymnosperms and angiosperms (seed plants)?

Answer: D. I, II, and III

I. Retention of megagametophyte within the ovule – Correct; both gymnosperms and angiosperms
retain their female gametophytes inside the ovule.

II. Pollen grains replace flagellated sperms – Correct; seed plants use pollen instead of flagellated sperm,
unlike ferns and mosses.

III. Complete vascular tissue – Correct; both have xylem and phloem for transporting water and
nutrients.

Thus, all statements are true.

47. Using reactant-product relationships in a chemical reaction is called:

Answer: B. Stoichiometry

A. Chemical Equation – Represents a reaction but does not analyze reactant-product relationships.

B. Stoichiometry – Correct; studies the quantitative relationships in chemical reactions.

C. Catalyst – A substance that speeds up a reaction but does not describe reactant-product ratios.

D. Isomerization – A process where molecules rearrange without changing composition.

48. Early telescopes showed stars are only points of light, while planets appeared larger, proving:

Answer: A. Stars are much farther from Earth than planets

A. Stars are much farther from Earth than planets – Correct; their vast distance makes them appear as
points, unlike planets.

B. Travel in elliptical orbits like planets – Irrelevant to the observation.

C. Reflect much more light than planets – Stars emit their own light, while planets reflect light.
D. Be more plentiful in our solar system than planets – Incorrect, as there are far more stars in the
universe than planets in our solar system.

49. Aside from ADP, what is the end product of the dark reaction in photosynthesis?

Answer: B. Sugar

A. Carbon dioxide – Reactant, not a product.

B. Sugar – Correct; glucose is produced during the Calvin cycle in the dark reaction.

C. Carbon – Not produced as a separate element.

D. Starch – Starch is formed later by combining multiple glucose molecules.

50. What happens to the rest of the solar radiation that does not reach Earth's surface?

Answer: B. It is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere

A. It loses energy traveling through space – Some energy is lost, but most reaches Earth.

B. It is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere – Correct; gases, clouds, and dust absorb or reflect
about 50% of sunlight.

C. It loses energy overcoming the Sun’s gravity – Incorrect; solar energy is not significantly lost due to
gravity.

D. It is reflected off the Moon and back into space – Only a small fraction of sunlight reaches the Moon
and is reflected toward Earth.

51. It encourages students to ask questions and explore concepts through hands-on investigations. It
also fosters curiosity and the ability to design experiments to answer questions.

Answer: A. Inquiry-Based Learning

A. Inquiry-Based Learning – Correct; emphasizes hands-on exploration and questioning.

B. Active Engagement – Related but broader in scope, not just about inquiry.

C. Critical Thinking – A component but not the primary focus.

D. Application of Knowledge – More about using existing knowledge, not discovering new concepts.

52. Prions _______.

Answer: C. Appear to consist only of protein; no nucleic acid component has been found

A. Consist of a short strand of RNA with no protein coat – False; describes viroids, not prions.

B. Are deadly viruses that have caused several hundred deaths in Uganda and other parts of Africa –
False; prions are not viruses.

C. Appear to consist only of protein; no nucleic acid component has been found – Correct; prions are
misfolded proteins that cause disease.

D. Are not transmissible from human to human – False; some prion diseases can be transmitted (e.g., via
contaminated medical instruments).

53. Who developed the polio vaccine?

Answer: D. Jonas Salk

A. Edward Jenner – Developed the smallpox vaccine.

B. Louis Pasteur – Pioneered vaccines for rabies and anthrax.

C. Robert Koch – Known for germ theory and tuberculosis research.

D. Jonas Salk – Correct; developed the first effective polio vaccine.

54. A saturated hydrocarbon that contains only hydrogen (the maximum number) and carbon, and does
not contain a benzene ring.

Answer: A. Aliphatic hydrocarbon

A. Aliphatic hydrocarbon – Correct; includes alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes without aromatic rings.

B. Aromatic hydrocarbon – Contains benzene rings.

C. Synthetic hydrocarbon – Man-made but not a structural classification.

D. Natural hydrocarbon – Includes both aromatic and aliphatic types.

55. The following are the steps in conducting scientific research; arrange them in chronological order:
Answer: D. III V I IV VI II

III. Identification of the problem

V. Search for Related Literature

I. Formulate hypothesis

IV. Data gathering

VI. Analysis and Interpretation of data

II. Conclusion and Recommendation

56. The amount of heat necessary to raise one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit at normal
atmospheric pressure is called?

Answer: A. British thermal unit

A. British thermal unit – Correct; BTU measures heat energy.

B. Calorie – Raises 1 gram of water by 1°C.

C. Specific Heat – A property, not a unit of measure.

D. Kilocalorie – Equal to 1,000 calories, used in food energy.

57. True of a functional group:

Answer: A. Specific combination of bonded atoms that has consistent chemical properties

A. Specific combination of bonded atoms that has consistent chemical properties – Correct; defines how
molecules behave.

B. They are usually non-polar – False; many functional groups (e.g., hydroxyl, carboxyl) are polar.

C. Does not affect the reactivity of the organic molecule to which it is attached – False; functional groups
determine reactivity.

D. A particular functional group can react in varied forms depending on the carbon skeleton – Partially
true, but A is more accurate.
58. In the year 1913, who proposed that the energy levels of electrons scattered around atomic nuclei
are quantized?

Answer: C. Niels Bohr

A. Werner Heisenberg – Known for the Uncertainty Principle.

B. Max Planck – Developed quantum theory but not atomic energy levels.

C. Niels Bohr – Correct; introduced quantized orbits in his atomic model.

D. Albert Einstein – Worked on relativity, not electron energy levels.

59. What are the 3 main plant tissues?

Answer: A. Dermal, Vascular, Ground

A. Dermal, Vascular, Ground – Correct; these are the three primary plant tissues.

B. Xylem, Phloem, Epidermis – Xylem and phloem are part of vascular tissue, and epidermis is dermal
tissue.

C. Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma – These are types of ground tissue.

D. Stomata, Chloroplast, Root cap – These are plant structures, not tissues.

60. This assessment is designed to measure students' ability to apply scientific concepts and skills in real-
world situations.

Answer: D. Performance-Based Assessment

A. Observation – Can be used but is not the main method for real-world application.

B. Peer Assessment – Focuses on feedback, not application.

C. Self-Assessment – Reflective, but not a performance measure.

D. Performance-Based Assessment – Correct; includes experiments, lab reports, and projects.

61. What kind of organism is Schistosoma, which causes schistosomiasis?

Answer: B. Flatworm
A. Virus – Incorrect; Schistosoma is not a virus.

B. Flatworm – Correct; Schistosoma is a parasitic flatworm (fluke).

C. Fungus – Incorrect; fungi do not cause schistosomiasis.

D. Protist – Incorrect; Schistosoma is a worm, not a protist.

62. It occurs when an external force or vibrating system causes another system to vibrate at a greater
amplitude and a specific frequency.

Answer: A. Resonance

A. Resonance – Correct; occurs when an object's natural frequency is matched by another vibration.

B. Pitch – Describes the perceived frequency of sound.

C. Frequency – The number of vibrations per second, not the phenomenon described.

D. Echo – Reflection of sound, not amplification.

63. On methods of heat transfer, what is done by molecular collision?

Answer: A. Conduction

A. Conduction – Correct; heat transfer occurs via direct molecular contact.

B. Convection – Transfers heat through fluid movement.

C. Radiation – Transfers heat via electromagnetic waves.

D. Insulation – Reduces heat transfer, not a method itself.

64. What kind of rock is formed in the Bicol region, and how is it formed?

Answer: D. Igneous; solidification of magma

A. Shale; sedimentation – Incorrect; shale is sedimentary, but Bicol has volcanic activity.

B. Metamorphic; pressure – Incorrect; Bicol’s rocks form from cooling magma.

C. Sedimentary; deposition of skeletons – Incorrect; not common in volcanic regions.

D. Igneous; solidification of magma – Correct; Bicol’s rocks are mostly igneous from volcanic activity.

65. It is an explanation of how speed affects mass, time, and space.

Answer: A. Special Relativity

A. Special Relativity – Correct; describes how motion at high speeds affects time and space.

B. Quantum Mechanics – Deals with the behavior of subatomic particles.

C. Atomic Physics – Studies atomic structure, not relativity.

D. Nuclear Physics – Focuses on atomic nuclei, not relativity.

66. It is a reaction in photosynthesis that uses energy from light to produce ATP and NADPH.

Answer: B. Light-Dependent Reaction

A. Light-Independent Reaction – Occurs after the light-dependent phase.

B. Light-Dependent Reaction – Correct; captures solar energy for ATP and NADPH production.

C. Krebs Cycle – Occurs in cellular respiration, not photosynthesis.

D. Glycolysis – Breaks down glucose, unrelated to photosynthesis.

67. It is a term used to refer to an organism that has two identical alleles for the same trait (e.g., BB or
bb).

Answer: B. Homozygous

A. Heterozygous – Has two different alleles (e.g., Bb).

B. Homozygous – Correct; means identical alleles (BB or bb).

C. Dominant – Describes an allele, not an organism's genotype.

D. Recessive – Describes an allele, not an organism's genotype.

68. It states that space and time are relative, and all motion must be relative to a frame of reference.

Answer: A. Theory of Relativity

A. Theory of Relativity – Correct; Einstein’s theory explains space-time relationships.

B. Theory of Gravity – Deals with attraction between masses, not relativity.

C. Quantum Mechanics – Focuses on subatomic particles.

D. Electromagnetic Wave Propagation – Describes wave behavior, not relativity.

69. Junctions that permit the transfer of water, ions, and molecules between adjacent plant cells are:

Answer: D. Plasmodesmata

A. Adhering junctions – Found in animal cells.

B. Desmosomes – Found in animal cells, provide structural support.

C. Gap junctions – Allow communication in animal cells.

D. Plasmodesmata – Correct; channels between plant cells for transport.

70. Atoms of elements in a group on the periodic table have similar chemical properties. This similarity is
most closely related to the atoms':

Answer: D. Number of valence electrons

A. Atomic mass – Mass varies within a group.

B. Atomic numbers – Increases sequentially but does not determine reactivity.

C. Number of principal energy levels – Varies within a group.

D. Number of valence electrons – Correct; determines chemical behavior.

71. Which of the following is a solid/solid solution?

Answer: C. An alloy of gold and copper

A. A mixture of argon and krypton – Gas/gas solution.

B. A strongly electrolytic acid – Liquid solution, not solid/solid.

C. An alloy of gold and copper – Correct; alloys are solid/solid solutions.

D. A neutralized base – Chemical reaction product, not a solid solution.

72. It is caused by insertions and deletions that change the reading sequence, usually causing a change
in the amino acid sequence.

Answer: C. Frameshift Mutation

A. Missense Mutation – Single nucleotide change leading to a different amino acid.

B. Nonsense Mutation – Creates a premature stop codon.

C. Frameshift Mutation – Correct; shifts the reading frame, altering the sequence.

D. Chromosomal Mutation – Involves larger chromosome changes, not just a sequence shift.

73. The north pole of a bar magnet is brought near a coil of wire. What is the direction of the induced
current?

Answer: C. Counterclockwise

A. Away from the observer – Vague, depends on context.

B. Clockwise – Depends on Lenz's Law, but usually opposite.

C. Counterclockwise – Correct; follows Lenz’s Law to oppose magnetic change.

D. Towards the observer – Vague and not a standard answer.

74. A gardener discovered that fruits produced by a particular plant had no seeds. Which technique
would the gardener most likely use to grow additional plants with seedless fruits?

Answer: D. Vegetative Propagation

A. External fertilization – Occurs in animals, not plants.

B. Self-fertilization – Involves seeds, but the plant is seedless.

C. Cross-pollination – Still requires seeds.

D. Vegetative Propagation – Correct; clones the plant without seeds.

75. Who won the Nobel Prize for their work on metal-ligand binding?

Answer: C. Alfred Werner

A. Linus Pauling – Worked on chemical bonding but not metal-ligand binding.

B. Robert Hooke – Known for microscopy, not chemistry.

C. Alfred Werner – Correct; developed coordination chemistry.

D. Gilbert Newton Lewis – Studied chemical bonding but not metal-ligand interactions.

76. The domains included in Woese's 1990 classification are:

Answer: A. I, II, IV (Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya)

A. I, II, IV – Correct; Woese divided life into these three domains.

B. I, II, III, IV – Incorrect; "Chromista" is not a domain.

C. II, III, IV – Excludes Archaea, which is essential.

D. I, II, III – Incorrect; Eukarya must be included.

77. The field of physics that explains how extremely small objects simultaneously have the
characteristics of both particles and waves.

Answer: B. Quantum Mechanics

A. Planck's Quantum Theory – A foundation but not the full field.

B. Quantum Mechanics – Correct; describes wave-particle duality.

C. Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle – Part of quantum mechanics but not the entire field.

D. Einstein's Theory of Relativity – Deals with spacetime, not wave-particle duality.

78. Special terms are used to describe the surfaces of animals with radial symmetry. What do you call
the surface opposite the mouth?

Answer: A. Aboral Surface

A. Aboral Surface – Correct; the side opposite the mouth.

B. Abyssal Surface – Relates to deep-sea zones, not anatomy.

C. Oral Surface – The side with the mouth.

D. None of the above – Incorrect; the correct term is "aboral."

79. No two bodies can occupy the same space at the same time. Which property of matter is explained?

Answer: B. Impenetrability

A. Malleability – Ability to be shaped, unrelated.

B. Impenetrability – Correct; matter cannot share the same space.

C. Porosity – Related to material structure, not spatial occupancy.

D. Ductility – Ability to be stretched, unrelated.

80. Opposite poles are ________ to each other, while the same poles ________ each other.

Answer: A. Attracted, Repel

A. Attracted, Repel – Correct; opposite poles attract, like poles repel.

B. Repel, Attracted – Incorrect; reverses the concept.

C. Repel, Repel – Incorrect; opposites attract.

D. Attracted, Attracted – Incorrect; like poles do not attract.

81. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?

Answer: B. Arm of a human

A. Tail fin of a fish – Not homologous to wings.

B. Arm of a human – Correct; shares the same bone structure (homology).

C. Wings of a butterfly – Analogous but not homologous.

D. Dorsal fin of a shark – Not homologous to bat wings.

82. Four identical light bulbs are used in a circuit. When the current is measured, the reading is almost
the same for all bulbs. What kind of circuit is used?

Answer: D. Parallel Circuit

A. Short Circuit – Dangerous, not a functional setup.

B. Compound Circuit – No clear definition for this type.

C. Series Circuit – Current varies if resistance changes.

D. Parallel Circuit – Correct; equal current flow in each branch.

83. A large increase in the inductance of a coil can be achieved by using a core that is:

Answer: D. Ferromagnetic

A. Paramagnetic – Weak effect on inductance.

B. Polar – Does not apply to magnetic materials.

C. Diamagnetic – Repels magnetic fields, reducing inductance.

D. Ferromagnetic – Correct; enhances inductance significantly.

84. The atoms in sugar are bound by what type of bond?

Answer: C. Covalent

A. Ionic – Sugar does not form ionic bonds.

B. Hydrogen – Hydrogen bonds exist but do not form the primary structure.

C. Covalent – Correct; sugar molecules share electrons.

D. Van der Waals – Weak interactions, not primary bonds.

85. What happens when two waves meet and coincide in such a way that they amplify each other's
amplitude?

Answer: A. Constructive Interference

A. Constructive Interference – Correct; waves combine to increase amplitude.

B. Destructive Interference – Opposite effect (cancellation).

C. Wave Cancellation – A form of destructive interference.

D. Neutral Interference – No standard term in wave physics.

86. What 3-carbon sugar is formed during the dark reaction phase of photosynthesis?

Answer: D. PGAL

A. ADP – A molecule involved in energy transfer, not a sugar.

B. NADPH – Electron carrier, not a sugar.

C. ATP – Energy storage molecule, not a sugar.

D. PGAL (Phosphoglyceraldehyde) – Correct; a product of the Calvin cycle.

87. What matter is formed by particles made up of atoms, molecules, and/or ions which are well-
separated and without regular arrangement?

Answer: C. Gas

A. Plasma – Ionized gas with unique properties.

B. Liquid – Has definite volume but takes shape of its container.

C. Gas – Correct; particles are far apart and move freely.

D. Solid – Has a fixed shape and closely packed particles.

88. It is a point mutation in which a single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different
amino acid.

Answer: A. Missense Mutation

A. Missense Mutation – Correct; changes amino acid sequence.

B. Nonsense Mutation – Results in a premature stop codon.

C. Frameshift Mutation – Alters the reading frame, not a single substitution.

D. Chromosomal Mutation – Involves larger chromosome changes.

89. This law states that under constant temperature and amount of substance, pressure is inversely
proportional to volume.
Answer: D. Boyle's Law

A. Charles's Law – Deals with temperature and volume.

B. Gay-Lussac's Law – Relates temperature and pressure.

C. Avogadro's Law – Relates volume and moles of gas.

D. Boyle's Law – Correct;

P∝

when

T is constant.

90. The evolution of the cuticle in plants was a key adaptation to terrestrial living because it:

Answer: D. Helps plants to avoid drying up

A. Enhanced water loss – Incorrect; the cuticle prevents water loss.

B. Allowed for alternation of generations – Not directly related.

C. Enhanced absorption of nutrients from soil – Roots handle this function.

D. Helps plants to avoid drying up – Correct; the waxy cuticle retains water.
91. In the K-12 curriculum, concepts and skills in Life Sciences, Physics, Chemistry, and Earth Sciences are
presented with increasing levels of complexity from one grade level to another using what type of
curriculum approach?

Answer: B. Spiral Progression

A. Strand Approach – Organizes subjects separately.

B. Spiral Progression – Correct; revisits topics with increasing depth.

C. Concentric Approach – Less commonly used in K-12.

D. Integrated Approach – Merges subjects but does not necessarily increase complexity.

92. Which part of the peripheral nervous system connects the brain and spinal cord to internal organs
such as the heart, lungs, and liver?

Answer: B. Autonomic Nervous System

A. Somatic – Controls voluntary movements.

B. Autonomic – Correct; regulates involuntary organ functions.

C. Central – Includes brain and spinal cord, not peripheral organs.

D. Cranial – Refers to nerves from the brain, not the entire system.

93. When there is no heat transfer into or out of the system, this thermodynamic process is called?

Answer: D. Adiabatic

A. Isochoric – Constant volume.

B. Isothermal – Constant temperature.

C. Isobaric – Constant pressure.

D. Adiabatic – Correct; no heat exchange.

94. In its function in the circulatory system, ventricles:

Answer: C. Pump blood out of the heart

A. Receive blood from the lungs – Incorrect; the atria receive blood.

B. Keep blood moving in the proper direction – Valves perform this function.

C. Pump blood out of the heart – Correct; ventricles are responsible for this.

D. Receive blood from the heart – Does not specify the correct chamber.

95. Which of the following parts of the digestive system is CORRECTLY paired with its function?

Answer: A. Liver - Produces bile

A. Liver - Produces bile – Correct; bile helps digest fats.

B. Stomach - Digests fats – Incorrect; mostly digests proteins.

C. Small intestine - Absorbs water – Mostly absorbs nutrients, not water.

D. Esophagus - Digests carbohydrates – No digestion occurs in the esophagus.

96. This law states that traits are controlled by a single gene with more than two alleles.

Answer: D. Law of Multiple Alleles

A. Law of Dominance – Dominant traits are expressed but do not cover multiple alleles.

B. Law of Segregation – Deals with allele separation during meiosis.

C. Law of Incomplete Dominance – Blended traits, not multiple alleles.

D. Law of Multiple Alleles – Correct; examples include blood types (A, B, O).

97. A disk-shaped sac in the stroma of a chloroplast.

Answer: A. Thylakoid

A. Thylakoid – Correct; site of the light-dependent reactions.

B. Grana – Stack of thylakoids.

C. Matrix – Found in mitochondria, not chloroplasts.

D. Mitochondria – Entirely different organelle.

98. Which of the following states that in each species, the amount of adenine is equal to thymine, and
the amount of guanine is equal to cytosine?

Answer: D. Chargaff’s Law

A. Crick's Law – No such law.

B. Franklin's Theory – Rosalind Franklin helped discover DNA structure but did not state this law.

C. Watson’s Hypothesis – No known hypothesis with this name.

D. Chargaff’s Law – Correct; describes DNA base pairing.

99. What is the second most abundant element in the human body, accounting for 18% of the body?

Answer: A. Carbon

A. Carbon – Correct; a key element in organic molecules.

B. Hydrogen – Less abundant.

C. Nitrogen – Important but less abundant.

D. Oxygen – Most abundant (about 65%), not second.

100. The process of changing a gene to treat a medical disorder.

Answer: A. Gene Therapy

A. Gene Therapy – Correct; involves altering genes for medical treatment.

B. Gene Editing – A broader term that includes altering DNA.

C. Gene Splicing – Technique used in genetic engineering, not treatment.

D. Gene Sequencing – Determines genetic code but does not treat disorders.