07-12-2025

0999DMD363161250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Assertion (A) : If potential of a point is zero. Then electric field must be zero at that point.
Reason (R) : Electric field intensity is equal to negative of potential gradient.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2) (A) : On the sharp edges of charge conductor, air may get ionized.
(B) : Electric field is higher at the sharp edges of conductor.

(1) A and B both are correct

(2) A and B both are false
(3) A is correct but B is false
(4) B is correct but A is false

3) The total electric flux associate from a closed surface enclosing an α-particle (e-electronic charge)
is :

(1)

(2)

(3) e∈o

(4)

4) If x < < R (where x → displacement) w.r.t. the given diagram. For charge q0, select correct

statement(s) :- Q → Charge on ring

q0 → Point charge
(a) Motion → S.H.M.
(b) Centre point (C) of ring is stable equilibrium point.
(c) Motion is on Straight line path.
(d) Centre point (C) of ring is neutral equilibrium point.

(1) a & b
(2) a & d
(3) b & c
(4) only a

5) A point charge of 25 μC is located in X-Y plane at the point of position vector . What

is the electric potential at the point of position vector .

(1) 4500 volt

(2) 450 K volt
(3) 9 × 103 volt
(4) 45 K volt

6) Three point charges +2μC, –4μC and +2μC are placed at points (x = 0, y = a), (x = 0, y = 0) and
(x = a, y = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this
charge assembly is : (Given : )

(1)
4 × 10–8 C - m along

(2)
2 × 10–8 C - m along
(3) 4 × 10–8 C - m along + x direction
(4) 2 × 10–8 C - m along + y direction

7) Two concentric spheres are of radii 'R' and 2R. The outer sphere is given a charge 'Q'. The charge

Q' on the inner sphere will be (inner sphere is grounded)

(1) Q
(2) –Q

(3)

(4) Zero

8) Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii 'R' and '4R' hold charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Given
that surface charge densities of the concentric spheres are equal the potential difference V1 – V2 is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is released from rest in a uniform electric field. If there is no
other force on the particle. The dependence of its speed with time taken 't' by it will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A sphere of radius 'R' carries charge density proportional to the distance from the centre δ = Ar,

where 'A' is a positive constant. What is charge enclosed in concentric sphere of radius is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential at these points are

and VC respectively, then

(1) VA > VC > VB

(2) VB > VC > VA
(3) VA = VB = VC
(4) VA > VB = VC

12) Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and –Q face each other at a certain distance 'd'
between then. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank. The electric potential difference
between the plates will :

(1) becomes zero

(2) increases
(3) decreases
(4) remain same

13) As per the diagram a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another
point charge –Q from the point A to C is W1 and from C to B is W2. Along the straight path AB.
Coordinates of point 'A' are (0, a) and that of 'B' are (a, 0), point 'C' is mid point between 'A' and 'B'

then

(1) W1 and W2 both are positive

(2) W1 and W2 both are negative
(3) W1 = –W2
(4) W1 is greater than W2 in magnitude

14) A straight wire of infinite length produces electric field of strength 9 × 104 N/C at a distance of
10 cm. Linear charge density of the wire is
(1) 0.1 μC/m
(2) 0.5 μC/m
(3) 50 μC/m
(4) 10 μC/m

15) A cell having an emf E and internal resistance 'r' is connected across a variable resistance R. As
resistance 'R' is increased the plot of power loss 'p' across 'R' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two batteries are connected as shown in figure. Then the reading of voltmeter (V) is :-
(1) 0.8 V
(2) 1.6 V
(3) 0.4 V
(4) 0.2 V

17) For the given circuit, the value of I is :-

(1) 2.25 A
(2) 3.6 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 6 A

18) Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected first in series than in parallel combination. Then
incorrect relation is :-

(1) RS > R1
(2) RP < R2

(3)

(4) RS > R1 + 2R2 > RP

19) For the circuit shown in figure. Which one of the following equation is correct.
(1) E1 – i2x + E2 + i1y = 0
(2) E1 – i2x – i1​z​ = 0
(3) E1 + i2y – i1z = 0
(4) –E2 + (i1 + i2)z + i1y = 0

20) An electric kettle takes 2A current at 200 V. Then how much time will it take to boil 2 kg of
water from temperature 40°C. The temperature or boiling water is 100°C :-

(1) 7 min
(2) 14 min
(3) 21 min
(4) 35 min

21) The product of resistivity and conductivity of material is :

(1) Zero
(2) Infinity
(3) Unity
(4) None

22) An ammeter reads upto 1A. Its internal resistance is 0.81Ω. To increase the range of 10A. The
value of the required shunt is :

(1) 0.03 Ω
(2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω
(4) 0.09 Ω

23) The resistance of bulb filament is 100 Ω at a temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient
of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its resistance will become 200 Ω at a temperature of

(1) 350°C
(2) 400°C
(3) 500°C
(4) 200°C

24) In a meter bridge experiment null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when
resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y then where will be the new position of
the null point from the same end. If one decides to balance a resistance of 4X against Y :-

(1) 50 cm
(2) 80 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 70 cm

25) Find the current in the 10Ω resistance

(1) 0.27 amp A to B

(2) 0.03 amp A to B
(3) 0.45 amp A to B
(4) 0.27 amp B to A

26) The current in the resistance 'R' will be zero if :-

(1) ε1r1 = ε2r2

(2)

(3) (ε1 + ε2)r1 = ε1r2

(4) (ε1 – ε2)r1 = ε2r1

27) What is the reading of voltmeter in the following figure.

(1) 3V
(2) 2V
(3) 5V
(4) 4V
28) Infinite number of cells having emf and internal resistance

are connected in series in same manner across an external resistance of . Current flowing
through the external resistance is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A wire of resistance 10Ω is compressed to its half length. The resistance of compressed wire is :-

(1) 2.5 Ω
(2) 5 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 20 Ω

30) Assertion :- When an external resistor of resistance R connected across a cell of internal
resistance r. When external resistance R is varied, then power consumed by resistance R is
maximum when R = r.
Reason :- Power consumed by a resistor of constant resistance R is maximum when current through
it is maximum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

31) Energy stored per unit volume for a parallel plate capacitor having plate area 'A' is :
(F is electrostatic force between two plates)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A capacitor of capacity 10μF is charged by 5 volt and then connected to an uncharged capacitor
of capacitance 40μf. The charge of both capacitor will be
(1) 10μC, 40μC
(2) 25μC, 25μC
(3) 40μC, 10μC
(4) 1μC, 1μC

33) Two identical parallel plate capacitor are connected as shown in the circuit. The key K is
unplugged and identical dielectric material is filled in both capacitors. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Both capacitor will have same charge

(2) Both capacitor will have same potential difference
(3) Both capacitor will have same energy stored
(4) The ratio of energy stored in capacitors will be 1 : K2

34) A parallel plate capacitor of area A. Plate separation 'd' and capacitance 'C' is filled with three
dielectric material having dielectric constant K1·K2 and K3 as shown in figure. If a single dielectric
material is to be used to have the same capacitance in this capacitor then its dielectric constant 'K'

is given by

(1)

(2)

(3) K = (K1 + K3) + 2K3

(4)

35) The plates of a parellel plate capacitor are seperated by 'd'. Two slabs of different dielectric

constant K1 and K2 with thickness and respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this the
capacitance becomes two times of when there is nothing between the plates (If K1 = 1.25 K2). The
value of K1 is :-

(1) 2.66
(2) 2.87
(3) 1.60
(4) 1.33

36) Three plates A, B, C each of area 50 cm2 have seperation 2 mm between A and B and 2 mm
between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are full charged is :-

(1) 2 μJ
(2) 1.6 μJ
(3) 1.07 μJ
(4) 7 μJ

37) In the given circuit switch S1 is closed and S2 is open. After long time S1 is opened and S2 is
closed. Charge on each capacitor will be (initially both capacitors are uncharged)

(1) 10μC, 20μC

(2) 5μC, 10μC
(3) 5μC, 20μC
(4) 10μC, 20μC

38) When switch is closed then amount of charge flow through the battery :-

(1) 90μC
(2) 60μC
(3) 120μC
(4) 30μC

39) The potential difference (VA – VB) between points A and B for the circuit segment shown in figure

at the given instant is :-

(1) –6V
(2) –14V
(3) +14V
(4) +6V

40)

The energy stored in 2μF capacitor in steady state is :-

(1) 6 μJ
(2) 3 μJ
(3) 12 μJ
(4) 9 μJ

41) A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal division. Its current sensitivity is 10 division per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 division per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1 volt,
the resistance in ohm needed to be connected in series with the coil will be :-

(1) 99995 Ω
(2) 9995 Ω
(3) 103 Ω
(4) 9990 Ω

42) For the circuit shown in figure the ratio of energy stored in capacitor (1) to that of in capacitor

(2) is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) The bulbs A, B and C are connected as shown in figure. The bulbs B and C are identical. If the

bulb 'C' is fused.

(1) Both A and B will glow more brightly

(2) Both A and B will glow less brightly
(3) A will glow less brightly and B will glow more brightly
(4) A will glow more brightly and B will glow less brightly

44) The potential difference (VA – VB) between points A and B in the given figure is :-

(1) 7 V
(2) 21 V
(3) 12 V
(4) 28 V

45) If voltage across a bulb rated 220 V and 50 W drops by 3.5% of its rated value, the percentage of
the rated value by which the power would decreases is :-

(1) 3.5%
(2) 7%
(3) 10.5%
(4) 14%

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following shows half filled configuration :-

(1) Cr+2(aq)
(2) Mn+2(aq)
(3) Fe+3(aq)
(4) (2) & (3) both

2) Synergic bonding is not present in :-

(1) CN–
(2) F–
(3) CO
(4) NO+

3) Ammonia acts as a ligand but ammonium ion does not act as ligand because :

+
(1) NH3 is a gas while NH4 is in liquid form
3 + 3
(2) NH3 undergoes sp hybridisation while NH4 undergoes sp d hybridisation
+
(3) NH4 ion does not have any lone pair
+
(4) NH4 ion has one unpaired electron while NH3 has two unpaired electrons.

4)

Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?

(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

5) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

6) Which is correct :-

Complex No. of Chilate rings

(1) [Co(ox)2Cl2]–3 4

(2) [Ni(dmg)2] 4

(3) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 6

(4) Brown ring complex 1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) In which of the following pair, the EAN of central metal atom is not same :-
 –3 +3
(1) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(NH3)6]
+3 –3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
–3 –3
(3) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
–2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]

8) Correct sequence of CO bond order in given compounds is :-

(P) Fe(CO)5 (Q) CO
(R) H3B ← CO (S) [Mn(CO)5]–

(1) P > R > S > Q

(2) S > P > R > Q
(3) Q > S > P > R
(4) R > Q > P > S

9) The IUPAC name for

[Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)(Cl)]Cl is :-

(1) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride

(2) Triamminebromidochloridonitrito-N platinum(IV) chloride
(3) Triamminechlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
(4) Triamminechloronitrobromoplatiunum (IV) chloride

10) IUPAC Name of K3[Al(C2O4)3] is :-

(1) Potassium alumino-oxalato

(2) Potassium aluminium (III) trioxalato
(3) Potassium trioxalato aluminium (III)
(4) Potassiumtris(oxalato)aluminate(III)

11)

Compound Total stereoisomers

(A) [Co(en)2Br2]+ (M) 2
(B) K3[Co(OX)3] (N) 3
(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (O) 4
(D) [Pt(NH3)3Br3]+ (P) 5
Correct is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 O M O O

2 N M M M

3 M O M M

4 N N M M
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which of the following is correct order of cyrstal field splitting.

(1) C–donor > N–donor > O–donor

(2) N–donor > O–donor > C–donor
(3) C–donor > O–donor > N–donor
(4) O–donor > N–donor > C–donor

13) Hybridisation of which complex is correctly Matched ?

– 3
(1) AuCl4 – sp
–3 3 2
(2) [Co(oxalato)3] –sp d
2
(3) RhCl(pph3)3 – dsp
+2 2 3
(4) [Fe(NH3)6] – d sp

14) Match the complexes in column-I with number of unpaired electrons in column-II.

Column-II
Column-I
Number of
Complexes
unpaired electron

A [CrF6]4– P 5

B [MnF6]4– Q 2

C [Cr(CN)6]4– R 1

D [Mn(CN)6]4– S 4
(1) A – P, B – R, C – S, D – Q
(2) A – S, B – P, C – Q, D – R
(3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – S, C – R, D – P

15) Incorrect statement regarding [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is :-

(1) d2sp3 Hybridisation & octahedral geometry

(2) Paramagnetic complex
(3) Outer orbital complex
(4) Gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution

16) Which of following has highest paramagnetism :-

+3
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]
+3
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
 +2
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]
+2
(4) [Zn(H2O)6]

17) The magnetic moment of complexes gives below are in the order :-
(i) [Ni(CO)4] (ii) [Mn(CN)6]–4
(iii) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (iv) [CoF6]–3

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv > ii > i > iii
(4) iv > ii > iii > i

18) Assertion : Geometrical isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes having two different
types of unidentate ligands coordinated with central metal ion
Reason :Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism because the relative positions of
the unidentate ligands attached to the central metal atom are the same with respect to each other.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

19) In which of the following molecule orbital of different principle quantum number are used in the
hybridization :-

(1) IF7
(2) [Ni(CO)4]
–2
(3) [PtCl4]
(4) K4[Fe(F6)]

20) Consider the following statements

S1 : [Cr (NH3)6]3+ is a inner orbital complex with crystal field stabilization energy equal to – 1.2 Δ0
S2 : The complex formed by joining the CN– ligands to Fe3+ ion has theoretical value of ‘spin only’
magnetic moment equal to 1.73 B.M.
S3 : Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] → Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS],
In reactant and product the oxidation states of iron are same
arrange in the order of true/false.

(1) F T F
(2) T T F
(3) T T T
(4) F F F

21) Three electron donar ligand is :-

(1) NO
(2) NO+
(3) CO
(4) CN–

22) Fac and Mer isomerism is associated with which of the following general formula :-

(1) [M(AA)2]
(2) [M(AA)3]
(3) [M ABCD]
(4) [M A3B3]

23) Isomerism exhibited by [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]+ are :-

(1) Ionisation, optical

(2) Hydrate, optical
(3) Geometrical, optical
(4) Coordinate, geometrical

24) Consider the following statements and select the correct option using the codes given.
(i) [Cr(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2]
[Cr(NH3)2(CN)4] are coordination isomers.
(ii) [Cr(py)2(H2O)2Cl2]Cl and
[Cr(py)2(H2O)Cl3]H2O are linkage isomers.
(iii) [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 and [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 are linkage isomers.
(iv) [NiCl2(PPh3)2] (tetrahedral) exhibits geometrical isomerism.

(1) (i) only

(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only

25) Assertion :- N2O5 exists whereas NCl5 does not.

Reason :- The maximum covalency of nitrogen in its compounds can not be more than four.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

26) Which of the following can follow of octet rule :-

(1) ClF3
(2) BeCl2(s)
(3) B2H6
(4) Both (1) and (2)
27) N–N bond not present in :-

(1) N2O4
(2) N2O5
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O

28) Which of the following halogen form only one oxyacids (HOX)

(1) F
(2) Br
(3) I
(4) Cl

29) Correct increasing order of number of π bonds in the following is:-

I. H2S2O7 II. H2SO3 III. H2SO4

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, I
(3) II, I, III
(4) I, III, II

30) Consider the following statements.

S1 : Fluorine does not form any polyhalide because it does not have d-orbitals in valence shell.
S2 : In ClF3, the three lone pairs of electrons occupy the equatorial position.
S3 : B2Cl6 does not exist.
Of these statements.

(1) S1, S2 and S3 are correct

(2) S1 and S2 are correct
(3) S1 and S3 are correct
(4) S2 and S3 are correct

31) Select the incorrect statement about graphite ?

(1) The bond order of C–C bond = 1.33

(2) Graphite is a electricity conductor
(3) All C atoms are sp2 hybridised
(4) It is harder than diamond

32) In which of the following reaction hydridisation of central atom is not change

(1) PCl5 + 5H2O

SF4 + 4H2O
(2)
(3) XeF6 + 6H2O

(4) SiCl4 + 4H2O

33) Which of the following has linear geometry around N atom :-

(1) CH3–N=C=O
(2) H3Si–N=C=O
(3) H3Ge–N=C=O
(4) (CH3)3N

34)

For molecule S3O9 calculate the value of p ÷ q.

where p – total no. of pπ-dπ bonds in molecule

q – total no. sp3 hybridised atoms in molecules

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

35) Which is correct :

Compound Type of bond length
(1) PCl5 1
2–
(2) Cr2O7 3
(3) SF6 2
(4) B2H6 2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Which compound is not a monobasic acid ?

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3BO3
(3) HCl
(4) H3PO3

37) Back bonding in BF3 does not effect :-

(1) Planarity, lewis acidic strength and bond angle

(2) Bond length, hybridisation and bond strength
(3) Bond angle, planarity and geometry
(4) Lewis acidity, bond length, bond order (B-F)

38) From SO2 to TeO2 reducing property of these oxides will be :-

(1) Same
(2) Increasing
(3) Decreasing
(4) Can not predicted

39) A + H2O → B (colourless explossive oxide) So A may be ?

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF6
(4) (2) & (3) both

40) The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements is :

(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O

(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) H2S < H2Te < H2Se < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2S < H2Te < H2O

41) Heating white phosphorus (P4) with conc. NaOH solution gives mainly:

(1) Na3P and H2O

(2) H3PO and NaH
(3) P(OH)3 and NaH2PO4
(4) PH3 and NaH2PO2

42) Match list I and II.

List-I (oxide) List-II (Nature)

A. Cl2O7 i. Amphoteric

B. Na2O ii. Basic

C. Al2O3 iii. Neutral

D. N2O iv. Acidic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A - iv; B - iii; C - i; D - ii
(2) A - iv; B - ii; C - i; D - iii
(3) A - ii; B - iv; C - iii; D - i
(4) A - i; B - ii; C - iii; D - iv
43) How many six membered and five membered rings are present in fullerene :

(1) Six membered = 20, five membered = 10

(2) Six membered = 20, five membered =12
(3) Six membered =25, five membered =10
(4) Six membered =12, five membered =25

44)

Determine the correct order of stability :-

(1) Al+1 > Al+3

(2) Sn+2 > Sn+4
(3) Pb+2 > Pb+4
(4) Bi+3 < Bi+5

45) Number of peroxide linkage in CrO5, H2SO5, H2S2O8 are respectively :-

(1) 2, 1, 2
(2) 2, 2, 2
(3) 1, 1, 1
(4) 2, 1, 1

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements :-

Statement-1 : Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence. Once it
finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to DNA and cut only one of strand of double helix
at specific point.
Statement-2 : In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it needs to be in pure form, free
from other macro-molecules.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true.

2) Fill in the blanks :-

In order to force bacteria to take up plasmid, bacteria first be made _____A_____ to take up DNA,
done by treating with _____B_____, which increases efficiency with which DNA enters through pores
in its cell wall. By incubating cells on _____C_____, following placing them briefly at _____D_____ and
then back on ice.

(1) A-Active, B-Chilled ethanol, C-Ice, D-42°C

(2) A-Recombinant, B-Ca2+, C-Agar-Agar, D-Hot water
(3) A-Competent, B-Lysozyme, C-Ice, D-42°C
(4) A-Competent, B-Ca2+, C-Ice, D-42°C

3) A → Restriction enzymes cut the vector DNA at sites, enabling the insertion of foreign DNA.
R → In order to link the alien DNA, vector needs to have single site for commonly used restriction
enzyme.

(1) Both A and R are correct, R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect, R is correct.

4) Read the following statements :-

Statement-1 : Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has been modified into a cloning vector
which is still pathogenic to plants and able to deliver gene of interest into variety of plants.
Statement-2 : A. tumifaciens deliver T-DNA to transform plant cells into tumor and direct these
tumor cells to produce chemicals required by pathogen.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(3) Statements 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statements 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

5) Identify incorrect statements :-

(a) Plasmids and bacteriophages have ability to replicate within bacterial cells dependent of the
control of chromosomal DNA.
(b) Some plasmids may have only one or two copies per cell whereas others may have 15-100 copies
per cell.
(c) Linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector become possible with the enzyme
restriction endonuclease.
(d) Disarmed pathogen vectors when allowed to infect the cell, transfer r-DNA into host.
(e) If plasmid in bacteria does not have an insert, are identified as recombinant colonies.

(1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, e
(4) c, d, e

6) Select appropriate definition of bioprocess engineering.

(1) Technique to alter the chemistry of genetic material.

(2) Introduction of identified DNA into host.
Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering process to enable growth of only
(3)
desired organism.
(4) Technique is employed to check the progession of restriction enzyme digestion.

7) Using Agrobacterium vectors nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant. The
introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells.
These two RNA's being complementary to each other formed a ds RNA that initiated RNAi, and thus
silenced the specific mRNA of nematode.
Based on the above paragraph, choose correct answer.

(1) RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as cellular defense.

(2) ds RNA prevents transcription of mRNA (silencing).
Method involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary ds RNA that binds to and
(3)
prevents translation of mRNA.
(4) Parasite could survive in transgenic host plant.

8) How many of them are bacterial products ?

Cyclosporin-A, Streptokinase, Penicillium, Butyric acid, Citric acid, Swiss cheese, Bread, Curd,
Statins, Roquefort cheese, Alcoholic drink, Acetic acid, Lactic acid

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

9) Choose correct option w.r.t. sewage treatment.

(1) Treatment of waste water is done by the autotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage.
(2) In secondary treatment, sewage water is treated till the BOD is increased.
(3) Only small part of activated sludge is pumped back into anaerobic sludge digesters.
Primary effluent is constantly agitated mechanically which allows vigorous growth of aerobic
(4)
microbes into flocs.

10)

What is not true about Bt toxin ?

(1) The inactive protoxin get converted in to active form in the insect gut.
(2) Bt protein exists as inactive toxin in the Bacillus
The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
(3)
multiplication
(4) It is produced by some strains of Bacillus thuringinesis

11) Assertion :- [Link] is used to form human insulin through genetic engineering.
Reason :- Insulin from an animal source, caused some patients to develop allergy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) From the list of statements below identify the events that form a part of RNA interference (RNAi)
(A) Agrobacterium vectors are used to genetically modify the plant
(B) Double stranded RNA (dsRNA) is formed in plant cells
(C) Gut pH activates RNAi in the pest
(D) RNAi mutates genes in the pest leading to its eventual death
Choose Answer.

(1) A & B are correct

(2) B & C are correct
(3) C & A are correct
(4) D & A are correct

13) Assertion : Most of the industrialised nations are rich financially but poor in biodiversity &
traditional knowledge. Reason : In contrast the developing & the underdeveloped world is poor in
biodiversity & traditional knowledge related to bio resources.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Statement-I : The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred
to as downstream processing.
Statement-II : The product has to be subjected through a series of processes before it is ready for
marketing as a finished product.

(1) Both I and II are correct.

(2) I correct, II incorrect.
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct.
(4) Both incorrect.

15)

Read the following sentences :-

(I) [Link] cloning vector pBR322 have restriction sites, ori, antibiotic resistance genes and rop.
(II) Competent bacterial cells can not take up the plasmid.
(III) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece.
(IV) The down stream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.

(1) All senstences are correct

(2) (I) and (III) are correct
(3) Except (II), all are correct
(4) Only (III) is correct

16) Match the column I and II and select correctly matched option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) EcoRI (i) Chromogenic substrate

(B) PEG (ii) Restriction endonuclease

 (C) X-Gal (iii) Direct Gene transfer

(D) Retrovirus (iv) Virus vector

Options :-
A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Which of the DNA sequence could be possible recognition sequence of a restriction
endonuclease?

(1) 5′ G C G C G C 3′ 3′ C G C G C G 5′
(2) 5′ G T T C A T 3′ 3′ C A A G T A 5′
(3) 5′ C A A T G 3′ 3′ G T T A C 5′
(4) 5′ G C A T T A 3′ 3′ C G T A A T 5′

18) Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Aspergillus niger (a) Ethanol

(ii) Clostridum butylicum (b) Citric acid

(iii) Saccharomyces cereviase (c) Cyclosporin-A

(iv) Trichoderma polysporum (d) Butyric acid

(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

19) Assertion :- DNA fragments can be forced to move towards the anode under the electric field
through a matrix.
Reason :- The most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea
weeds.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Bacterial colonies that have a foreign DNA fragment inserted in to the plasmid will appear white
because-

(1) X-gal can be cleaved by β-galactosidase

(2) Lac-Z gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA
(3) Lac-Z gene is active
(4) X-gal can be cleaved by permease

21) Which structure involved in genetic engineering :-

(1) Plastid
(2) Plasmid
(3) Codon
(4) None

22) How many restriction endonuclease, given below produce sticky ends ?
ECoRI, Hind III, Bam I, Hae III, ECoR V

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) All five

23) Assertion : In plant tissue culture somatic embryos can be induced from any plant cell.
Reason : Any viable plant cell has totipotency and can differentiate into somatic embryos.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.

24)

Which one is lysing enzyme for fungi ?

(1) Chitinase
(2) Cellulase
(3) Hind-II
(4) DNA ligase

25)

EcoRI always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of ___ base
pairs.
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8

26) Which of the following is not used in PCR process:-

(1) Taq polymerase

(2) Template DNA
(3) DNA primer
(4) Ribonucleotide triphosphates

27) Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA
respectively with :

(1) Hind III, Hind III

(2) Hind II, Alu I
(3) Hind II, EcoR I
(4) Hind II, BamH I

28) Cotton bollworms are controlled by the proteins coded by :-

(1) Cry IAC only

(2) Cry IAb only
(3) Cry IAb and Cry IAC
(4) Cry IAC and Cry II Ab

29) Which human protein is used to treat emphysema ?

(1) α-1-antitrypsin
(2) α-1-lactalbumin
(3) α-amylase
(4) β-galactosidase

30) Assertion :- PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Reason :- PCR is being used to detect mutation in genes in suspected cancer patients.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Which of the following statement is true regarding Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis ?

(1) Alkaline pH of gut of insects can convert active Bt toxin into prototoxin
(2) Acidic pH of stomach of insects can convert inactive prototoxin into active Bt toxin
(3) B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals during any phase of their growth
(4) Bt toxins are insect-group specific

32) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cry-I Ab (i) Transgenic animal

(b) Urine analysis (ii) Corn borer

(c) Rosie (iii) Cotton bollworms

(d) Cry-II Ab (iv) Conventional method of diagnosis

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

33) Which statement is wrong about transgenic animals?

(1) Transgenic mice are being used to test safety of polio vaccine
(2) Milk of Rosie cow contains human alpha lactalbumin
(3) ELISA is based on principle of antigen antibody reaction
(4) They are designed to allow study of how gene affects normal functions of body

34) Statement-I : The bacterium responsible for biogas production are collectively called
methanogens.
Statement-II : methanogens are also found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment.

(1) Both I and II are correct.

(2) I correct, II incorrect.
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct.
(4) Both incorrect.

35) The enzyme used in detergent formulation to remove oily stains is

(1) Lipase
(2) Pectinase
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Cellulase

36) The microbe usually used for making bread is

(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Penicillium notatum
37) Select the correct option -
(a) Bio control refer to use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests
(b) Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack insects & birds
(c) Fungi form symbiotic association with algal knowns as mycorrhiza
(d) Anabaena a heterotrophic microbe can fix atmospheric nitrogen
How many statement are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

38) Callus can form plantlets through altering concentration of

(1) Hormones
(2) Amino acids
(3) Vitamins
(4) Sugars

39) Which of the following is an example of somatic hybridisation ?

(1) Pomato
(2) Atlas-66
(3) Golden rice
(4) Both 1 and 2

40) Which of the statements given is incorrect ?

In microinjection method, foreign DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell by
(1)
using micro needles
(2) Microinjection method is used in oocytes, eggs and embryo
Electroporation is the formation of temporary pores in the plasma membrane of host cell by
(3)
using lysozyme or calcium chloride
In chemical mediated gene transfer method, certain chemicals such as Ca phosphate help
(4)
foreign DNA to enter the host cell

41) Statement-I : The first restriction endonuclease - EcoRI, whose functioning depended on a
specific DNA nucleotide was isolated and characterised five years after 1963.
Statement-II : Restriction endonuclease enzyme are responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteria phase in Escherichia coli.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct.

(2) Only Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement are correct.
(4) Both Statement are incorrect.

42) Which of the following is/are used in recombinant DNA technology ?

(A) Agarose gel
(B) Ethidium bromide
(C) Plasmid
(D) Restriction endonuclease

(1) only A and B

(2) only B and C
(3) only C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

43) How many of following enzymes are useful for enzymatic isolation of DNA from plant tissue ?
Chitinase, Pectinase, Cellulase, Lysozyme, Hemicellulase, RNase, Protease.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 4

44) Assertion : Both passenger and vehicle DNAs are cleaved by using the same restriction
endonuclease enzyme.
Reason : If we use same restriction enzyme on both passenger and vehicle DNAs, they produce
complementary sticky ends.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) 'Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:-

(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bonds in DNA

(2) Cutting of DNA at any site
(3) Prevention of multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
(4) All of the above

46) Find the correct match for PCR :-

(1) Denaturation - use of taq polymerase

(2) Annealing - attachment of primers
(3) Extension - at a temperature of 94°C
(4) Denaturation-breakdown of phosphodiester bonds

47) Assertion : Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.
Reason : Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas Endonuclease make
cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

(1) Assertion and Reason both correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason both correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

48) Given below are some sequence of action of EcoRI :-

A. EcoRI produce overhanging stretches called sticky ends on each strand
B. EcoRI 'inspecting' the length of a DNA sequence.
C. EcoRI cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points.
D. EcoRI finds its specific palindromic sequence
Choose the correct sequence from the options given below :-

(1) C-D-A-B
(2) B-D-A-C
(3) B-D-C-A
(4) C-A-D-B

49) Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR.

A. Annealing at 54°C
B. Denaturation at 94°C
C. Amplification (~1 billion times)
D. Extension of primer
E. Treatment with taq polymerase and deoxyribonucleotides
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the option given below :-

(1) B → A → E → D → C
(2) B → E → D → A → C
(3) A → B → C → D → E
(4) B → E → A → D → C

50) Which type of bond is formed by the sticky ends with their complementary counterparts ?

(1) Glycosidic bond

(2) Phospho-diester bond
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Disulphide bond

51) Find the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) LSD (a) Lungs

(ii) Morphine (b) Liver cirrhosis

(iii) Alcohol (c) Analgesic

(iv) Pneumonia (d) Hallucinogen

(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–d, iv–c
(2) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
(3) i–d, ii–b, iii–a, iv–c
(4) i–d, ii–c, iii–a, iv–b

52)

Find the correct statement about tobacco smoking–

(A) Nicotine inhibits secretion of adrenal medulla.
(B) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of cancer of lungs and throat.
(C)Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and decreases the concentration of
haembound oxygen.
(D) Smoking decreases blood pressure.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

53) Identify the plants (A), (B) and (C) shown below and select the right option giving their function
& site of action :-

Plants Function Site of Action

(1) (A) Cannabinoids Hallucinogen Central nervous system

(2) (B) Datura Stimulant Circulatory system

(3) (B) Coca plant Stimulant Gastrointes tinal tract

(4) (A) Opium plant Depressant Central nervous system

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
54) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.
Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) How many of the below are correct about given diagram :-
(a) Provides cell mediated immunity
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help
B-cell to produce them.
(c) Disulphide bond present
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glyco protein molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving

correct identification

(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with intregase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

57) Statement-I : Disease can be broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious.
Statement-II : AIDS is infectious disease.
Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

58) Statement-I : Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many peoples in our society is an allergic
disease.
Statement-II : The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

59) Assertion :- Auto - immune diseases occur when the body mistakenly attacks its own tissue.
Reason :- In auto-immune disease, the immune system fails to recognize self-cells and targets them
as if they were foreign invaders.

(1) both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true

60) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- The vaccines generate memory - B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly
on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
Reason (R) :- The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of 'memory' of
the immune system.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

61) Transmission of HIV infection does not occur by :-

(1) Sharing needle with infected person

(2) From infected mother to her child
(3) Touch or physical contact
(4) Sexual contact with infected person

62) Non-ionizing radiations which are carcinogen, includes?

(1) X-Rays
(2) Gamma rays
(3) UV-Rays
(4) All of the above

63) A opioid drug which is white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound is synthesized by-

(1) Glycosylation of morphine

(2) Acetylation of morphine
(3) Methylation of morphine
(4) Phosphorylation of morphine

64) Identify the correct pair representing the disease and their vector.

(1) Malaria/Aedes aegypti

(2) Dengue/culex mosquito
(3) Filariasis/culex mosquito
(4) Chikungunya/anopheles mosquito

65) Which of the plant is used to obtain the "Heroin" drug?

(1) Papaver somniferum
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(3) Cannabis sativa
(4) Atropa belladona

66) Which of the pathogen causes slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs?

(1) Filarial worms

(2) Ascaris
(3) Microsporum
(4) Epidermophyton

67) Which of the following muscular disorder is autoimmune ?

(1) Tetany
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Botulism

68) Performed antibodies are injected as anti-venom injection on the other hand polio drops
contain :-

(1) Harvested antibodies

(2) Activated Pathogens
(3) Attenuated Pathogens
(4) Gamma - Globulins

69) Immune system of higher vertebrates have property of discrimination between self and non self.
Due to genetic abnormality if this property is lost and it attack own cells, the condition is known as:

(1) Allergic response

(2) Active immunity
(3) Graft rejection
(4) Auto - Immune disease

70) Which of the following is termed as 'HIV-factory' ?

(1) T-Helper
(2) T-Killer
(3) B-Lyphocytes
(4) Macrophage

71) Which of the following is responsible for formation of pathogen specific immunity ?

(1) Natural killer cells

(2) T and B-cells
(3) PMNL
(4) Interferons

72) When a female anopheles mosquito bites an infected person. Which stage of plasmodium enters
the mosquito's body ?

(1) Sporozoites
(2) Trophozoites
(3) Gametocytes
(4) Sporocyst

73) Choose the correct option of drugs which are obtained by Cannabis sativa.

(1) Charas, Heroin

(2) Ganja, Cocaine
(3) Hashish, Marijuana.
(4) Atropa, Datura

74) Which disease is characterised by symptoms like constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stool
with excess mucous and blood clots ?

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworm disease
(4) Amoebiasis

75) Which of the following act as cytokine barriers ?

(1) Natural killer cells

(2) Interferons
(3) Saliva in the mouth
(4) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory tract

76) HIV is a member of group of viruses called -

(1) Pox virus

(2) Retro virus
(3) Adeno virus
(4) Reo virus

77) Which of the following is not a bacterial disease-

(1) Tetanus
(2) Plague
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Malaria

78) Sustained high fever (39 to 40°C), constipation and loss of appetite are the common symptoms of
which disease ?

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Dysentery

79) Which one of the following symptom is not related with pneumonia ?

(1) Infection in Alveoli

(2) Fever
(3) Chills
(4) Constipation

80) In which disease lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour in severe condition -

(1) Ascariasis
(2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Plague

81) In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

Saliva in mouth and Tears
(1) Physical barriers
in eyes
Mucus coating of
epithelium lining the
(2) Physiological barriers
urinogenital tract and the
HCl in stomach
Polymorpho nuclear
(3) Cellular barriers
leukocytes and monocytes
Anti-tetanus and anti-snake
(4) Active immunity
bite injections
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Match the following column :-

Column-I Column-II
Infects the nose and
1 Pneumonia a respiratory passage but not
lungs.
 Common Blockage of Intestinal
2 b
cold passage
Infects the lungs (air filled
3 Amoebiasis c
sacs)
Stool with excess mucous
4 Ascariasis d
and blood clots

1 2 3 4

(1) a c d b

(2) c a b d

(3) c a d b

(4) a b c d
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :

(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus

(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin

(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria

(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Odd one out regarding side effects of using anabolic steroids in female sportspersons

(1) Breast enlargement

(2) Excessive hair growth on face and body
(3) Deeping of voice
(4) Masculinisation
85) Which scientist disapproved the "Good Humor Hypothesis" ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) (1) and (2)

86) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) IgM is the oldest antibody

(2) IgG can cross the placenta
(3) IgA is the secretory antibody
(4) IgE is the largest antibody

87) Which of the following statement is correct about benign tumor ?

(1) It usually spreads to other parts of body

(2) It causes huge damage to the tissues concerned
(3) Normally remain confined to its original location
(4) It is characterised by metastasis

88) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

89) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

90) Which provide micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?

(1) Bone-marrow
(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 1 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (A)
M → Mid point

E = E+q + E–q ≠ 0

(R)

2) Based on facts

3)

4)

We know :-
E.F due to uniformely charged ring :-

E=
At x = 0 [Center of ring]

Direction of displacement →
← Fnet
θ = 180° ⇒ Stable equilibrium
Given (x << R)
Particle will exicute SHM.

5)
V = 45 × 103 Volt

6)

p=q×a

= 4 × 10–8 C - m

7) Vinner = 0

8)

9) :
V = at
10)

11) In the direction of electric field potential is decreases.

12) ΔV = Ed :

13)

=0
WAB = 0

= W1 + W2
W1 + W2 = 0 ⇒ W1 = – W2

14)

= 0.5 μC/m
15)

......(1)
put R = 0 in equation (1) then P = 0
&R→∞⇒P→0

for

16)

17)

I = 3.6 A

18)

Rseries = R1 + R2 So RS > R1 and RS > R2

Rparallel So RP < R1 and RP < R2

19) KVL in upper loop

E1 – i2x + E2 + i1y = 0

20) VIt = MSΔθ

200 × 2 × t = 2 × 4200 × (100 – 40)
21) σ × ρ = 1

22)

23) Rt = Ro(1 + αΔt)

100 = Ro [1 + α(100 – 0)] .......(1)
200 = Ro [1 + α(t – 0)] .......(2)

24)
80X = 20Y Yℓ = 4x·(100 – ℓ)
Y = 4x 4x × ℓ = 4x × (100 – ℓ)
2ℓ = 100
ℓ = 50 cm

25)

x + 5 (x + 5) + 5(x + 5) = 0
11x + 50 = 0

Ans. 0.45 amp. A to B

26)
27)

VAB = I × R

Reading of voltmeter = 4 Volt

28) In series ENet =

29)

30)

For maximum power

Reason :
P = I2Rconstant

31)

Put in (1)

so

32)

33)
after unplugged the key capacitor-1 remain connected with battery so it P.d. remain same
capacitor-2 disconnected from battery so its charge remain same.

(∴ QFinal = Qini = CV For Cap-2)

34)
CNet = CS + C3

35) C' = 2C (given)

(given )

36)

U = CV2

= 1.07 µJ

37)

VC = 5 Volt
QA = 1 × 5 = 5μC
QB = 2 × 5 = 10μC

38) Qi = Ceq × V

= 60 µC
QF = (4 + 2) × 15 = 90 μC
ΔQ = QF – Qi = 90 – 60 = 30 μC

39)
VA – 8 – 6 + 4 – 4 = VB
VA – VB = +14 Volt​

40)

41)

Rg = 5Ω

1 div reads = 1 volt

150 div = 150 volt
so V = 150 volt
∵ V = Ig (Rg + R)
150 = 15 × 10–3 [5 + R]
 42)

V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2

43)
∵ I1 > I2 so brightness of 'A' decreases & brightness of 'B' increases.

44)
VA – 4 – 5 – 3 = VB
VA – VB = 12 V

45)

= 2(3.5)

CHEMISTRY
 46)

Configuration

47)

CO, NO+, CN– can accept e– pair from metal, so these ligands can show synergic bonding.

48)

Pyridine is a monodentali ligand.

49) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

50) Monodentate ligands do not show chelation.

51)

[Ni(dmg)2] having 4 rings

52)

EAN
Ni(CO)4 36

[Ni(CN)4]–2 34

53)

Synergic Bonding

54)

IUPAC naming rules.

55)

IUPAC

56)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg # 251,252

57)

Asking for: The correct order of crystal field splitting strength for different donor atoms.
 Concept: Crystal field splitting is influenced by the nature of the ligands. The spectrochemical
series arranges ligands in order of their increasing field strength.

Formula: N/A (conceptual question based on the spectrochemical series)

Solution/Explanation:

A. The spectrochemical series is an experimentally determined series that ranks ligands based on
their ability to split d-orbital energies.
B. Carbon-donor ligands (like CN-) are strong-field ligands, causing large splitting.
C. Nitrogen-donor ligands (like NH3, en) are intermediate-field ligands.
D. Oxygen-donor ligands (like H2O, C2O42–) are weak-field ligands, causing small splitting.
E. Therefore, the correct order is C-donor > N-donor > O-donor.

Answer : Option : 1

58)

Explanation:
The question asks you to identify the complex where the given hybridization matches the
actual hybridization of that complex.

Concept: (Hybridization & Geometry of complex)

AuCl4– is square planar, requiring dsp² hybridization, not sp .
3

[Co(oxalato)3]3– is an inner orbital complex, hence d2sp3, not sp d .

3 2

RhCl(PPh3)3, Wilkinson's catalyst, exhibits square planar geometry and dsp² hybridization.
[Fe(NH3)6]2+ is a high spin complex, thus sp d not d sp .
3 2 2 3

Therefore, only RhCl(PPh3)3 – dsp is correctly matched.

2

Final Answer: Option (3)

59)

60)

Question Explanation – The question asks to identify the incorrect statement regarding
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3.
Concept – The incorrect statement regarding [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is "Outer orbital complex".
Explanation: [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is actually an inner orbital complex due to the strong field ligand
NH3 causing pairing of electrons in the lower energy d orbitals, leading to d2sp3 hybridisation
and octahedral geometry.

Key points about [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3:

 A. Hybridisation: d2sp3
B. Geometry: Octahedral
C. Magnetic property: Paramagnetic (due to unpaired electrons)
D. Reaction with AgNO3: Gives white precipitate of AgCl

Final Answer : (3)

61)

[Cr(H2O)6]+3 → Cr+3 → 3d3

3 unpaired electron
[Fe(H2O)6] → Fe+3 → 3d5
+3

5 unpaired electron
[Cu(H2O)6] → Cu+2 → 3d9
+2

1 unpaired electron
[Zn(H2O)6] → Zn+2 → 3d10
+2

0 unpaired electron

62)
On increasing number of unpaired electron magnetic moment increases.

63)

NCERT , Class-12th , Part-I , [Link] : 126,

Edition-2023-2024.

64) [PtCl4]–2

Pt+2 = 5d8 =

65)

S1 → [Cr(NH3)6]+3 O.N. of Cr = +3 | & CN = 6

Cr+3 = 3d3 Hyb. d2sp3 (inner orbital complex)

CFSE =
= –0.4 × 3 + 0 + 0
= –1.2 Δ0 → True
S2 → ligand CN⊖ C.M.I. → Fe+3
Fe+3 → 3d5 → Ligand is strong field (SFL) then pairing occur.
 unpair e– = 1
magnetic moment = 1.73 B.M. True.
S3 →
Na2S + Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO] → Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
O.S. of Fe in both side will be same.
* Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
+2 + x – 5 + 1 = 0
x = +2
* Na4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]
= +4 + x – 5 – 1 = 0
x–2=0
x = +2 True.

66)

NO is 3e– donor ligand because it has both lone pair and a unpaired e– in its HOMO that it can
donate to C.M.I.

67)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which general formula for a coordination complex exhibits fac-mer
isomerism, a specific type of geometric isomerism.

Concept: (General formula, fac/mer isomerism, ligand type)

Geometrical isomerism in complex compounds.
The compounds of the formula [MA3B3] exhibit fac and mer isomerism.
The fac isomer is also known as facial isomer or cis isomer.
Three A ligands are present on one triangular face and three B ligands are present on opposite
triangular face.
The mer isomer is also known as meridional isomer or trans isomer

Final Answer: Option (4) [M A3B3]

68)

Ma2b2c2 types compound show 5 G.I. and 2 O.I.

69)

Fact
70)

N2O5 → Exist, due to oxygen forms multiple bond.

NCl5 → Not exist, due to absence of vacant d-orbital in nitrogen.
N can form max. 4 covalent bond.

71) Asking for: Identify the molecule(s) that can follow the octet rule.
Concept: Octet rule, exceptions to the octet rule, electron deficiency, and expanded octets.
Formula: N/A
Solution/explanation:
1. Octet Rule: The octet rule states that atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve
a full valence shell of eight electrons.
2. CIF3 (Chlorine Trifluoride):
- Chlorine in ClF3 has 10 electrons in its valence shell ( 3 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs).
- ClF3 has an expanded octet, so it does not follow the octet rule.
3. BeCl2(s) (Solid Beryllium Chloride):
- In the solid state, BeCl2 forms a polymeric structure where Be achieves an octet through
coordinate covalent bonds.
- In the gaseous state, BeCl2 is electron-deficient.
- However, the question asks about the solid form.
- So BeCl2 in solid form does follow octet rule.
4. B2H6 (Diborane):
- Boron in B2H6 has only 6 electrons in its valence shell. It has 3-center-2-electron bonds.
- B2H6 is electron-deficient and does not follow the octet rule.
Therefore, only BeCl2(s) follows the octet rule.
Answer:
Option : 2

72)

Asking for: Identify the nitrogen oxide that does not contain an N-N bond.
Concept: Structure of nitrogen oxides, bonding in nitrogen oxides.
Formula: N/A
Solution/explanation:
1. N2O4 (Dinitrogen Tetroxide):
- Structure: O2N-NO2
- Contains an N-N bond.
2. N2O5 (Dinitrogen Pentoxide):
- Structure: O2N-O-NO2
- Contains an N-O-N linkage, not a direct N-N bond.
3. N2O3 (Dinitrogen Trioxide):
- Structure: ON-NO2
- Contains an N-N bond.
4. N2O (Nitrous Oxide):
- Structure: N=N=O
- Contains an N-N bond.
Therefore, N2O5 does not contain a direct N-N bond.
Answer:
Option : 2
73)

Explanation -
The question asks to identify the halogen (F, Br, I, Cl) that exclusively forms only one oxyacid
with the general formula HOX (hypohalous acid).

Concept - Oxy acids

Solution –

Fluorine (F) is the halogen that forms only one oxyacid of the type HOX, which is hypofluorous
acid (HOF). Its high electronegativity and small size restrict it from forming other oxy acids
with higher oxidation states, unlike chlorine, bromine, and iodine.

Final Answer - Option (1)

74)
(I) (II) (III)

75)

Explain Question: Decide which of S1, S2 and S3 are correct statements.

Concept: Valence, geometry
Solution:
S 1 true: Fluorine lacks d - orbitals, preventing octet expansion necessary for polyhalide
formation.
S 2 true: ClF has only two lone pairs, which occupy the equatorial positions (T-shaped
geometry).
S3 true: B₂Cl₆ does not exist due to steric hindrance; Cl atoms are too large to bridge.
Final Answer: Option (3)

76)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect property among the given statements about
graphite.
Concept: Graphite properties.
Solution: Diamond is the hardest known material due to its strong tetrahedral bonding.
Graphite is very soft and slippery because its layers are held by weak forces and can slide
easily.
Final Answer: Option (4)

77)

Explanation – The question asks you to identify the chemical reaction where the central
atom's hybridization state remains unchanged from reactants to products.
 Concept (Hybridization & Hydrolysis reaction)

PCl5 (sp3d) + 5H2O → H3PO4 (sp3) + 5HCl (Hybridization change)

SF4 (sp3d) + 4H2O → H2SO3 (sp3) + 4HF (Hybridization change)

XeF6 (sp3d3) + 6H2O → XeO3 (sp3) + 6HF (Hybridization change)

SiCl4 (sp3) + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 (sp3) + 4HCl (No hybridization change)

Final Answer – Option(4)

78)

Fact

79)

S3O9 Cyclic Structure

p = pπ-d π-bond = 6
q = sp3 = 6. so p ÷ q = 1
Ans. (3)

80)

Geometry

81)

Explanation:
This question asks you to identify which of the given acids cannot donate only one proton (H+),
i.e., which of them is not a monobasic acid.

Concept:
The compound that is not a monobasic acid is (4). H3PO3.

A. Monobasic acids have only one ionizable hydrogen atom (proton).

B. H3PO2 (Hypophosphorous acid): Has only one acidic hydrogen atom directly bonded to the
phosphorus atom. The other two hydrogens are bonded to the phosphorus atom through
oxygen and are not easily ionized. It is monobasic.

A. H3BO3 (Boric acid): While it has three hydrogen atoms, it acts as a Lewis acid, not a Bronsted
acid. It accepts a hydroxide ion rather than donating a proton. Although it has three
hydrogens, it's considered monobasic.
 A. HCl (Hydrochloric acid): Has one ionizable hydrogen atom. It is monobasic.
B. H3PO3 (Phosphorous acid): Has two ionizable hydrogen atoms.
C. It is dibasic, not monobasic. The hydrogen directly bonded to the phosphorus is not easily
ionized, but the two hydrogens attached to oxygen are acidic.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

82)

BF3 after B.B.

Same Hyb., Same shape,
Same Bond angle, B.O. increases
B.L. decreases

83)

From SO2 to TeO2 reducing property decreases SO2 is reducing agent.

TeO2 is oxidising agent.

84)

Hydrolysis

85) Explanation:
The correct order of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements.
Concept:
Melting point.
Solution:
Down the group (H2S to H2 Te), increasing size and molar mass strengthen van der Waals
forces, raising melting points. Water (H2O) exhibits an exceptionally high melting point due to
strong hydrogen bonding.
Thus, the correct order is H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
Answer: 1

86)

Hydrolysis
 87)

Nature of oxide

88)

Allotrope

89)

Inert pair effect

90) CrO5 : No. of peroxy linkage = 2

H2SO5 :
No. of peroxy linkage =1

number of peroxy linkage = 1

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Page No.# 166

92) NCERT Page No.# 170

93) NCERT Page No.# 169

94) NCERT Page No.# 170

95) NCERT Page No.# 164, 168

96) NCERT Page No.# 164

97)
NCERT Page No.# 180

98) NCERT Page No.# 151, 152, 153

99) NCERT Page No.# 153, 154

100)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 208

101) NCERT XII Pg # 211(E), 231(H)

102)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 180

103) NCERT Page No. # 214 / 234

104) NCERT XII Pg # 205

105)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 168, 169, 174

106)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 166, 170

107) NCERT XII Page No. 196

108)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 153

109) NCERT XII Pg # 198(E), 217(H)

110)

NCERT XII, Pg # 170

111)
 NCERT-XII Pg. # 169

Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules found in bacteria and are commonly used in genetic
engineering. They can carry foreign genes and be introduced into a host cell to express the desired
trait.

112)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 166, 168

113)

NCERT Pg. # 177

114)

Module-10 Pg. # 5

115)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 195

116)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 172, 173

117)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 166

118) NCERT XII Pg # 209(E), 227(H)

119) NCERT XII, Pg. # 213

120) NCERT XII Pg # 212(E), 232(H)

121) NCERT-XII, Pg # 208 & 209

122)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 180

Question Explanation: Match different Cry genes and Urine analysis with their
uses/classification.
Concept: Bt toxin and Diagnostic methods
Solution:
 A. Cry-I Ab protein controls the Corn borer (ii).
B. Urine analysis is a Conventional method of diagnosis (iv).
C. Rosie is a Transgenic animal (i) (a cow) that produced human protein-enriched milk.
D. Cry-II Ab protein controls the Cotton bollworms (iii).

Final Answer: a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

123) NCERT Pg # 212, 213

124) NCERT Pg. # 185

125)

NCERT XII, Pg # 153

126)

NCERT XII, Pg # 151

127) NCERT XII, Pg.# 156,157,158

128)

NCERT XII, Pg # 183

129)

NCERT XII Pg. # 177

130) NCERT, Pg # 170,171

131) NCERT Pg. # 165

132) Agarose gel (A): Used for gel electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments based on size.
Ethidium bromide (B): A dye used to stain DNA, making it visible under UV light during gel
electrophoresis.
Plasmid (C): A type of vector used to insert and propagate foreign DNA in host cells.
Restriction endonuclease (D): Enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences, crucial for
cloning and gene manipulation.

133)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 171

134) NCERT Pg.# 196

 135)

Question Explanation: Meaning of 'Restriction' in enzymes.

Concept: Restriction Enzymes

Solution:

A. REASON: Restriction enzymes were discovered in bacteria and are a key part of their defense
mechanism against viruses called bacteriophages.
B. REASON: The name 'restriction' comes from their natural function: they cut up the invading
viral DNA, which restricts the multiplication and growth of the bacteriophage inside the
bacterial cell.

Final Answer: The correct option is 3.

136) Denaturation: The DNA template is heated to separate the double strands
Annealing: The primers bind (attach) to DNA
Extension: Taq polymerase synthesizes the new DNA strand

137) NCERT Pg. # 165

138) NCERT Pg. # 166, 167

139) NCERT Pg. # 173

140)

Sticky ends are single-stranded overhangs of DNA that can form complementary base pairs
with each other. These base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds between the
complementary nitrogenous bases (adenine-thymine or guanine-cytosine).

141) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 158,159, Para-8.5

142) Explanation:

A. (B) Smoking is indeed associated with an increased incidence of cancer of the lungs and
throat.
B. (C) Smoking increases the carbon monoxide content in the blood, which decreases the
concentration of hemoglobin-bound oxygen because carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin
more effectively than oxygen.

The correct statement about tobacco smoking is: Option 4: B and C

143)

NCERT Pg. No. 142 to 143

144) Question Explanation: identify A, B, C, D.

Concept : Protozoal disease

Solution :
(A) → Sporozoit
(B) → Liver
(C) → Salivary gland
(D) → Gametocyte

Final Answer : option (3).

145)

Explain Question : To identify the total number of correct statements about the given
diagram.

Concept : This question is based on Acquired immunity -Antibody.

Solution :
This is a diagram of an antibody molecule
(a) Provides cell mediated immunity Incorrect
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help
B-cell to produce them. correct
(c) Disulphide bond present correct
(d) H2L2 molecule correct
(e) Glyco protein molecule correct
So,4 statements are correct

Final Answer : option (4)

146)

Question explanation: The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus.
Select the option giving correct identification

Concept: AIDS

Solution:

B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with integrase enzyme

Final answer: 1

147) NCERT Pg. # 146

148) NCERT XII Page No. # 153 (Para-8.2.5, 8.2.6) (E),165 (Para-8.2.5, 8.2.6) (H)
 149) NCERT XII Pg # 137

150) NCERT, Pg. # 136

151)

Question explanation: This question asks about modes of HIV transmission and which one
does not lead to infection.

Concept: AIDS

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3) Touch or physical contact.

HIV spreads through:

A. Blood (e.g., sharing needles)

B. Sexual contact
C. Mother-to-child (during pregnancy, delivery, or breastfeeding)

It does NOT spread through casual physical contact like touching, hugging, or shaking hands.

Final Answer: Touch or physical contact

152)

Question explanation: This question asks which non-ionizing radiations act as carcinogens.

Concept: Cancer - Carcinogens

Solution: UV-rays are non-ionizing radiations that can cause DNA damage and lead to cancer,
such as skin cancer. X-rays and gamma rays are ionizing radiations, not non-ionizing.

Final answer: UV-Rays

153) NCERT Pg.# 158

154) NCERT Pg.# 149

155) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 143

156) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 133

157) NCERT Pg.#227

158) NCERT Pg. No. # 136

159) NCERT Pg. No. #137

160) NCERT Pg. No. # 156

161) NCERT Pg#134-136

162) NCERT, Pg. # 147,148

163) NCERT Pg # 143

164) NCERT Pg. # 132

165) NCERT Pg. # 150

166) NCERT Pg : 154

167) NCERT Pg # 147

168)

Explain Question : Sustained high fever (39 to 40°C). constipation and loss of appetite are
the common symptoms of ?

Concept : This question is based on Bacterial diseases.

Solution : All These are symptoms of 'Typhoid'

Final Answer : option (3)

169) NCERT Pg # 147

170) NCERT Pg # 147

171)

NCERT - XII, Pg. # 134, 135

172)

NCERT Pg # 147, 148, 149

173)
From Allen Module # Types of vaccine

174) NCERT Pg. No. 169

175) Explaining the Question :-The question is asking about which scientist disproved the
"Good Humor Hypothesis"?
Concept:- Good Humor Hypothesis and It Disproof
Solution :-The "Good Humor Hypothesis" related to bodily fluids was disproved by William
Harvey, who discovered the circulation of blood, showing the old theory of humors was
incorrect.
Final Answer :- (3) William Harvey

176)

IgE is the largest antibody

177)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct characteristic of a benign tumor.

Concept: Cancer

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3 — Normally remain confined to its original location.

A. Benign tumors grow slowly and do not invade other tissues.

B. Malignant tumors are the ones that metastasize and cause severe tissue damage.

Final Answer: Option 3 Normally remain confined to its original location

178)

Explain Question :
Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity?

Concept :
This question is based on Innate immunity.

Solution : The correct answer is option (4)

• Skin: Physical barrier – innate immunity
• Phagocytes: Cellular barrier – innate immunity
• Interferons: Cytokine barrier – innate immunity
• Antibodies: Produced by B-lymphocytes during an immune response – adaptive immunity

Final Answer :
Option (4) : Antibodies
179)

NCERT Pg. # 136

180) Explanation: B-lymphocytes, or B cells, develop and mature in the bone marrow. This is
where they acquire their ability to recognize specific antigens and produce antibodies.

Correct Answer: 1. Bone-marrow