VANGUARD DEFENCE ACADEMY

Always leading the path…

SCIENCE
1. Match the lists A. March, April B. May, June

I II C. October, November D. Any time

(a) Nitrosomonas (1) Denitrifying bacteria 7. Paddy cannot be grown in the winter season, because –

(b) Nitrobacter (2) Soil bacteria A. It needs a hot and humid climate.

(c) Pseudomonas (3) Nitrate bacteria B. It needs annual rainfall above 100 cm.

(d) Azotobacter (4) Nitrite bacteria C. It needs a levelled field of alluvial and clayey soil.

A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 D. All of these.

B. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 8. Wheat and gram belong to

C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 A. Rabi crops B. Kharif crops

D. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 C. Both of these D. None of these

2. The process of loosening and turning the soil is called 9. Which of the following is not a harvesting festival?

A. Broadcasting B. Irrigation A. Nuakhai B. Nabanya

C. Ploughing D. Levelling C. Bihu D. Navaratri

3. The organic substance obtained from dead plants and 10. Combines are used for:
animal wastes is –
A. Tilling & sowing
A. Manure B. Fertilizer
B. Weeding & harvesting
C. Weedicide D. Pesticide
C. Manuring & irrigation
4. The conversion of nitrogen into nitrates is known as
D. Harvesting & threshing
A. Nitrogen fixation B. Ammonification
11. Which of the following is not a fertilizer?
C. Nitrate Assimilation D. Nitrogen cycle
A. Ammonium sulphate
5. Horticulture is the study that includes
B. Super phosphate
A. Fruits, vegetables and flowers
C. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
B. All food crop
D. NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium)
C. Vegetable gardens and lawns near hotels only
12. Green revolution has been most successful in rotation
D. Some bush crops and apples for __________.

6. Kharif crops are sown in A. Wheat & Potato B. Barley & Rice

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C. Tea & Coffee D. Wheat & Rice D. Dried Mango leaves are used for storing grains at home
to prevent them from Pests & Microbes.
14. When plants of the same kind are cultivated at one
place on a large scale, it is called ____________. 21. The best time for the removal of weeds is –

A. Agriculture B. Cultivation A. before they produce flowers and seeds.

C. Jhumming D. Crop B. at the time of sowing seed.

15. People were nomadic & wandered in groups from C. at the time of harvesting.
place to place in search of food and shelter till ______.
D. No need to remove them.
A. 500 B.C. B. 1000 B.C.
22. Plants contain nearly ____ water.
C. 10000 B.C. D. 500 A.D.
A. 50% B. 90% C. 75% D. 25%
16. Crops which are grown from March to June are called
23. Which of the following statements is not true about
–
manure?
A. Rabi Crops B. Kharif Crops
A. It enhances the water holding capacity of the soil.
C. Zaid Crops D. Monsoon Crops
B. It makes the soil porous due to which exchange of
17. Which of the following is not an example of Rabi gases becomes easy.
crop?
C. It is very rich in plant nutrients like nitrogen,
A. Potato B. Coriander phosphorus and potassium.

C. Cotton D. Sunflower D. It increases the number of friendly microbes.

18. Loosening of soil is done because – 24. Which of the following precautions should be used at
the time of sowing of seed?
A. it allows the roots to penetrate deep into the soil.
A. There should be appropriate distance between the
B. helps in the growth of earthworms and microbes
seeds .
present in the soil.
B. Seeds should be sown at proper depth that they can
C. Both A & B
come out easily after germination.
D. None of these
C. Seeds should be covered by the soil after sowing.
19. Which of the following is not a traditional irrigation
D. All of these
method?
25. The process of obtaining food from animals by rearing
A. Pulley system B. Drip system
them at large scale is called –
C. Chain system D. Lever system
A. Domestication
20. Which of the following statements is false?
B. Animal husbandry
A. Freshly harvested grains should be stored after drying.
C. Cattle farming
B. Large scale storage of grains is done in silos and
D. Animal farming
granaries.
26. Which of the following pairs of diseases is caused by
C. The method of separating the unpleasant husk from
bacteria?
grains by air blow is called Winnowing.

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A. Herpes and influenza D. W- Protozoan, X- Bacteria, Y- Algae

B. Tetanus and mumps 32. Fungi reproduce by –

C. Typhoid and smallpox A. Multiple fission

D. Cholera and tetanus B. Binary fission

27. The motile zygote of Plasmodium is found in – C. Budding

A. human liver D. Spore formation

B. human RBCs 33. Algae are known as autotroph because –

C. salivary glands of female Anopheles A. form their own food.

D. the gut of female Anopheles B. carry out anaerobic respiration

28. Salmonella causes C. live in colonies

A. tetanus D. All of these

C. T.B. 34. What causes the dough to rise when yeast is added to
it?
C. polio
A. An increase in temperature.
D. typhoid
B. An increase in amount of substance.
29. Micro-organisms act upon the dead plants to produce
– C. An increase in the amount of released water by yeast
cells.
A. Mushrooms
D. The release of Carbon dioxide gas.
B. Roughage
35. Which process takes place when yeast added to grape
C. Humus
juice and left for a week?
D. Decomposers
A. Decomposition
30. Which of the following is the smallest
B. Fermentation
microorganism?
C. Distillation
A. Bacteria
D. Oxidation
B. Virus
36. Which of the following products is/are produced by
C. Protozoan
using bacteria?
D. Algae
A. Antibiotics
31. Identify W, X and Y ?
B. Yogurt

C. Cheese
A. W- Virus, X- Fungus, Y- Bacteria
D. All of these
B. W- Bacteria, X- Protozoan, Y- Virus
37. Micro-organism which causes diseases is called –
C. W- Virus, X- Fungus, Y- Protozoan
A. Vector
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B. Pathogen D. P- Bacillus, Q- Spirillum, R- Vibrio, S- Coccus

C. Carrier 43. Which of the following is represented by X in the

figure given below?
D. Antigen

38. Which of the following diseases is caused by

Protozoan? A. Protozoan

A. Cholera B. Bacteria

B. Malaria C. Virus

C. Jaundice D. Fungi

D. Hepatitis B 44. This process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is

known as –
39. Which of the following bacteria lives symbiotically in
pea plants? A. Distillation

A. Rhizobium B. Fermentation

B. Nitrosomonas C. Pasteurization

C. Azotobacter D. Centrifugation

D. Clostridium 45. When and by whom the first antibiotic was

discovered?
40. Which of the following fungi was used to form the
first antibiotic? A. In 1798 by Edward Jenner

A. Boletus B. In 1929 by Alexander Fleming

B. Bread mould C. In 1665 by Robert Hook

C. Penicillium D. In 1857 by Louis Pasteur

D. Aspergillus 46. Streptomycin is an example of –

41. Which of the following organisms can perform A. Virus

photosynthesis?
B. Antigen
A. Euglena
C. Antibiotic
B. Paramecium
D. Fungus
C. Mucor
47. Which of the following statements is not true about
D. Mushroom Antibiotic ?

42. Observe the given figure and identify P,Q,R and S? A. It should be taken only on the advice of a qualified
doctor.

B. Its unnecessary consumption may kill the beneficial

A. P- Coccus, Q- Bacillus, R- Vibrio, S- Spirillum
bacteria in the body.
B. P- Bacillus, Q- Coccus, R- Spirillum, S- Vibrio
C. It is effective against cold and flu.
C. P- Bacillus, Q- Vibrio, R- Coccus, S- Spirillum
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D. None of these. B. Protozoan

48. When a disease-carrying microbe enters our body, the C. Bacteria

body produces ______ to fight them.
D. Fungus
A. Hormones
54. Cyanobacteria is also known as –
B. Antigens
A. Bread mould
C. RBCs
B. Mosaic virus
D. Antibodies
C. Curd bacteria
49. The process of injecting weakened or dead disease-
D. Blue green algae
causing microbes in our body to trigger the production of
antibodies is called – 55. Bacteria which causes anthrax disease was discovered
by –
A. Pasteurization
A. Alexander Fleming (1929)
B. Transfusion
B. Robert Koch (1876)
C. Injection
C. A.V. Leeuwenhoek (1674)
D. Vaccination
D. Ian Wilmut (1996)
50. When and by whom the first Vaccine was discovered?
56. Which of the following plant Diseases caused by
A. In 1798 by Edward Jenner
bacteria?
B. In 1929 by Alexander Fleming
A. Rust of wheat
C. In 1665 by Robert Hook
B. Yellow vein mosaic of okra
D. In 1857 by Louis Pasteur
C. Citrus canker in citrus fruits
51. The first vaccine which was discovered for –
D. Bunchy top of banana
A. Polio
57. Rust of wheat is causes by –
B. Smallpox
A. Protozoan
C. Cholera
B. Fungus
D. Hepatitis
C. Virus
52. BCG vaccine is given for the prevention of –
D. Bacteria
A. Tuberculosis
58. Yellow vein mosaic is caused by –
B. SARS
A. Bacteria
C. Hepatitis
B. Algae
D. Pneumonia
C. Fungus
53. BCG vaccine is made from a weakened strain of –
D. Virus
A. Virus
59. The foot and mouth disease is caused by –

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A. Bacteria 65. Sodium benzoate and sodium metabisulphite are
examples of –
B. Virus
A. Antibiotics
C. Protozoa
B. Vaccines
D. Fungi
C. Fertilizers
60. Varicella-zoster is the pathogen of –
D. Preservatives
A. Kala Azar
66. Which of the following is not a method of preservation
B. Leprosy
of food?
C. Chickenpox
A. Preservation by salt and sugar
D. Measles
B. Preservation by putting into water
61. Leishmania Donovani is the pathogen of –
C. Preservation by oil and vinegar
A. Tuberculosis
D. Preservation by hot and cold treatments
B. Tetanus
67. In HTST method of pasteurization milk is heated to –
C. Plague
A. 61°C for 30-45 seconds
D. Kala Azar
B. 71°C for 15-30 seconds
62. Bordetella pertussis causes –
C. 85°C for 40-55 seconds
A. Sleeping sickness
D. 90°C for 10-20 seconds
B. Whooping cough
68. Which of the following is a denitrifying bacterium?
C. Dysentery
A. Azotobacter
D. Diarrhoea
B. Pseudomonas
63. Yersinia pestis causes –
C. Rhizobium
A. Plague
D. Streptococcus
B. Cancer
[Link] process of absorption of nitrogenous compounds
C. Chickungunya by the roots of plants from soil & use them to synthesize
proteins and other compounds is called –
D. Sleeping sickness
A. Assimilation
64. Which of the following is not a communicable
disease? B. Absorption

A. Tuberculosis C. Nitrification

B. AIDS D. Ammonification

C. Cancer 70. Which of the following processes doesn’t involve in

nitrogen cycle?
D. Cholera
A. Assimilation

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B. Ammonification 76. Which of the following compounds is necessary to
prepare nylon?
C. Denitrification
A. Coal
D. Absorption
B. Air
71. Which of the following features is true about the
endocrine glands? C. Water

A. They are ductless glands D. All of these

B. These glands secrete hormones 77. Nylon is useful because –

C. Hormones reach directly to the target regions A. It is soft, strong and light.

D. All of these B. it is transparent, light and easy to wash.

72. Which of the following features is true about the C. it is strong, elastic and light
exocrine glands?
D. it is soft, inexpensive and strong.
A. They are glands with the ducts
78. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for
B. These glands secrete sweat, sebum, mucus, and characteristic smells of fruits?
enzymes
A. Alcohol
C. Pancreas and liver are examples of exocrine glands
B. Ester
D. All of these
C. Yeast
73. Which of the following are types of endocrine glands?
D. Cellulose
A. Thyroid glands
79. PVC is an example of –
B. Adrenal glands
A. Thermosetting plastic
C. Parathyroid glands
B. Acrylic
D. All of these
C. Thermoplastic
74. From which part of sheep is wool is obtained?
D. Polyester
A. Skin
80. Polymer which made by a chain of large number of
B. Toes glucose units is called –

C. Fleece A. Acrylic

D. All of these B. Nylon

75. The process of taking out silk thread from the cocoon C. Cellulose
is known as –
D. Rayon
A. Rearing
81. Which of the following plastic products can be
B. Sorting remoulded?

C. Scouring A. Baseline

D. Reeling B. Melamine
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C. Polythene A. Acrylic

D. Polycot B. Nylon

82. Plastic is coated with melamine because – C. Polythene

A. It becomes good conductor of heat. D. PET

B. It becomes strong and flexible. 88. Which is known as artificial wool?

C. It becomes fire proof plastic. A. Terry wool

D. It is remouldable. B. Polycot

83. Which of the following is used for making Terylene C. Acrylic

Fibre?
D. Rayon
A. Wood pulp
89. To make cookwares stick resistance from oil and
B. Acrylic water, coated by –

C. Ester A. Melamine

D. Paper pulp B. Teflon

84. To which of the following 4R PRINCIPLE applies C. PVC

the most?
D. PET
A. Natural Fibres
990. A material which is not easily decomposed by natural
B. Plastic processes is termed as –

C. Metal A. Biodegradable

D. Synthetic fibres B. Non Biodegradable

85. Which of the following is an example of heavily cross C. Recyclable

linked polymer?
D. Non of these
A. Melamine
91. Which of the following is a liquid at room
B. Polythene temperature?

C. Polyester A. Iron

D. Nylon B. Bromine

86. Uniforms of firemen have a coating of – C. Iodine

A. Teflon D. Phosphorus

B. Melamine 92. The most reactive metal is –

C. Polyester A. copper

D. Nylon B. silver

87. Which of the following is used for making bottles, C. potassium

utensils, films, wires etc.?
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D. calcium B. hard and solid

93. The metal which is liquid at room temperature is – C. liquid

A. sodium D. generally liquid

B. bromine 99. Materials having qualities of both metals and non-

metals are –
C. calcium
A. alloys
D. mercury
B. metalloids
94. Which one of the following metals is the most ductile?
C. noble metals
A. Aluminium
D. none of these
B. Copper
100. The metal reacting readily with cold water is:
C. Silver
A. gold
D. Gold
B. mercury
95. Which one of the following metals is the most reactive
and stored in kerosene? C. sodium

A. Iron D. magnesium

B. Gold 101. The best electrical conductor is –

C. Copper A. gold

D. Sodium B. copper

96. Name the gas that evolved when magnesium reacts C. silver
with dilute hydrochloric acid.
D. aluminium
A. Chlorine
102. Iron is galvanised by coating it with –
B. Oxygen
A. chromium
C. hydrogen
B. sodium
D. Nitrogen
C. magnesium
97. The metal which is not corroded by air, water and acid
D. zinc
is –
103. A mineral from which metal can be extracted on the
A. copper
commercial scale, economically is called –
B. zinc
A. ore
C. aluminium
B. metalloid
D. gold
C. corrosion
98. Metals are –
D. metal
A. soft and brittle
104. Which of the following is a non-metal?

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A. Aluminium A. react with water

B. Oxygen B. do not react with water

C. Iron C both A and B

D. Silver D. none of these

105. Non-metals exist in which state? 111. In displacement reactions –

A. Solid A. a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal

B. Liquid B. a less reactive metal displaces a more reactive metal

C. Gas C. both A and B

D. All of the above D. none of these

106. Metal oxides are – 112. The property of metals by which they can be beaten
into thin sheets is called –
A. neutral
A. malleability
B. basic
B. ductility
C. acidic
C. conduction
D. all of these
D. expansion
107. Which substance is used for making pencil lead?
113. Which one of the following is a metal?
A. Sulphur
A. C
B. Silicon
B. N
C. Graphite
C. Mg
D. Aluminium
D. O
108. Which non-metal is used in making glass?
114. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into
A. Graphite
wires is called –
B. Sulphur
A. conductivity
C. Silica
B. malleability
D. None of these
C. ductility
109. Which metal is used in wrapping materials?
D. flexibility
A. Aluminium
115. Which of the following pairs of compounds undergo
B. Zinc displacement reaction when they react with each other?

C. Copper A. Cu and AgNO3 solution

D. None of these B. Ag and FeSO4 solution

110. Non-metals are – C. Cu and NaCl solution

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D. Mg and NaCl B. Liquefied Petroleum Gas

116. Minerals are – C. Long Pipe of Gas

A. natural resources D. Long Petroleum Gas

B. inexhaustible natural resources 122. A natural gas stored under high pressure is called –

C. exhaustible natural resources A. CNG

D. all of these B. LPG

117. Petroleum is mainly a mixture of which one of the C. KLG

following class?
D. PNP
A. Carbohydrates
123. Name the petroleum product used for surfacing of
B. Carbogens road –

C. Hydrocarbons A. Peat

D. Alcohols B. Lignite

C. Anthracite

D. Bitumen

118. Which one is not a coal product? 124. Products obtained by the process of destructive
distillation are –
A. Coal tar
A. coke, coal-tar, coal gas
B. Coal gas
B. petrol, diesel, kerosene
C. Lime
C. paraffin wax, bitumen
D. Petrol
D. compressed natural gas
119. Which one of the following is a petrochemical?
125. The mining of sand termed as –
A. Ammonia
A. distillation
B. Coke
B. Sand mining
C. Acetone
C. shore mining
D. Paraffin wax
D. destructive distillation
120. Conversion of dead vegetation into coal is called –
126. Main constituent of LPG is –
A. carbonisation
A. methane
B. distillation
B. butane
C. coal gas
C. ethane
D. natural gas
D. octane
121. Full form of LPG –
127. Petroleum is found under the –
A. Light Petroleum Gas
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A. sedimentary rocks 133. What percent of the carbon content is present in
Bituminous coal?
B. water
A. 90% to 95 %
C. sand
B. 70% to 90 %
D. coke
C. 40% to 60 %
128. In which of the following places natural gas has not
been formed in India? D 30% to 35 %

A. Tripura 134. Petroleum is also known as –

B. Jaisalmer A. coke

C. Mumbai B. black gold

D. Delhi C. tar

129. Pencil lead is made from – D. none of these

A. graphite 135. The brown variety of coal is –

B. iron A. Lignite

C. aluminium B. peat

D. nickel C. anthracite

130. Which of the following is a renewable source of D. bituminous

energy?
136. The petroleum product which is not used as fuel is –
A. Coal
A. petrol
B. Petroleum
B. kerosene
C. Water
C. diesel
D. Natural gas
D. Petroleum jelly
131. Plastic is a –
137. The HVJ pipeline starts from which state?
A. natural material
A. Gujarat
B. man-made material
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. both A & B
C. Haryana
D. none of these
D. Uttar Pradesh
132. Naphthalene balls are used as
138. Which of the following places has a network of
A. mosquito repellent pipelines which supply CNG?

B. moth repellent A. Kanpur

C. snake repellent B. Jhansi

D. Bee repellent C. Vadodara

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D. Bhopal B. Alcohol

139. In India petroleum deposit was first found in the state C. Natural gas
of –
D. Petroleum gas
A. Gujarat
145. Which gas helps in the process of combustion?
B. Maharashtra
A. Cooking gas
C. Assam
B. Nitrogen gas
D. West Bengal
C. Oxygen gas
140. PCRA stands for –
D. Producer gas
A. Petroleum conservation research association
146. The amount of heat energy produced on complete
B. Public conservations research association combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is called –

C. Public council of research association A. calorific value

D. Partial counting of remaining amendment B. significant value

141. The burning of LPG is an example of – C. heat value

A. rapid combustion D. internal energy

B. spontaneous combustion 147. Which zone represents the partial combustion in

candle flame?
C. slow combustion
A. Outer zone
D. explosion
B. Middle zone
142. A temperature at which the substance burns in
absence of a spark or flame is called – C. Inner zone

A. melting D. Lower zone

B. boiling temperature 148. Burning coal in a closed room will produce –

C. kindling temperature A. nitrogen oxides

D. evaporation B. carbon dioxide

143. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy C. carbon monoxide

source?
D. oxygen
A. Hydropower
149. Substances that catch fire are called –
B. Tidal power
A. acids B. bases
C. Geothermal energy
C. combustible
D. Nuclear energy
D. burners
144. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
150. Out of these, which is able to control fires?
A. Coal
A. NH3

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B. H2 A. Mango

C. CO2 B. Deodar

D. F2 C. Banyan

151. Which zone of a flame does a goldsmith use for D. Pine

melting gold and silver?
157. Which chemical is used in the rubbing surface
A. Outer zone provided for matchsticks?

B. Middle zone A. Sulphur

C. Inner zone B. Gold

D. Lower zone C. Red phosphorus

152. Which is a non-combustible substance? D. White phosphorus

A. Wood 158. Which of the following examples represents

explosion?
B. Paper
A. Burning of matchstick
C. Iron nails
B. Burning of cooking gas
D. Straw
C. Ignition of a cracker
153. Acid rain contains mainly –
D. Burning of phosphorus in air at room temperature
A. oxygen and nitrogen gas
159. A flame has –
B. fluorine and chlorine gas
A. one zone
C. magnesium oxide
B. two zones
D. nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide
C. three zones
154. Magnesium burns to form –
D. four zones
A. calcium carbonate
160. Unburnt carbon particles cause –
B. magnesium oxide
A. stomach infections
C. calcium oxide
B. respiratory problems
D. magnesium sulphate
C. brain infections
155. In the sun, light and heat are produced by
D. throat problems
A. chemical reactions
161. The suspended particles released by the combustion
B. nuclear reactions
of coal in the air may lead to a health disease. Select the
C burning reactions correct option.

D. Bunsen burner A. Goitre

156. Long, long ago, which of the following trees was B. Arthritis
used to produce matchsticks?
C. Asthma
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D. Bone cancer B. use of biological control

162. The colour of outer zone of candle flame is – C. preservation of species

A. orange D. use of biological fertilisers

B. blue 168. Identify the correctly matched pair from the

following.
C. red
A. Sunderban – Rhino
D. yellow
B. Ranthambore – Lion
163. Arrange the different regions of a flame in increasing
order of temperature. C. Gir – Lion

A. Middle region < inner region < outermost region D. Kaziranga – Sea turtle

B. Outermost region < inner region < middle region 169. The process of conversion of fertile lands into deserts
is known as:
C. Inner region < outermost region < middle region
A. Famine
D. Inner region < middle region < outermost region
B. Acid rain
164. Combustion is a _____ chemical reaction –
C. Drought
A. volatile
D. Desertification
B. exothermic
170. A group of the population that are capable of
C. endothermic
interbreeding is known as:
D. none of the above
A. Species
165. No external heat is required to start –
B. Flora
A. simultaneous combustion
C. Sal
B. spontaneous combustion
D. Fauna
C. splendid combustion
171. Re-establishment of forest on a land that was cleared
B. spreading fire combustion for commercial/personal purpose is:

166. Which one of the following species is not included A. Reforestation

under the ‘Red List’?
B. Deforestation
A. Vulnerable
C. Forestation
B. Endangered
D. Bi-forestation
C. Endemic
172. _______ is referred to as the variety of animals,
D. Extinct plants and microbes generally found in an area.

167. Creation of wildlife reserves and endorsement of A. Flora

laws are conservation measures that promote increased
B. Extinct species
A. exploitation of species
C. Biodiversity

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D. Fauna 178. Animals that are diminishing to a level of extinction
are called
173. Which amongst the following is not the consequence
of deforestation? A. endangered species

A. Biodiversity equilibrium B. extinct species

B. Flash floods C. endemic species

C. Droughts D. dangerous species

D. Soil erosion 179. Why do people visit national parks in well-protected

vehicles?
174. Animals are protected in their natural habitats in a
__________ . A. Animals move freely inside a national park

A. Garden B. There are well-built roads inside a national park

B. zoological park C. To enjoy the ride in a different vehicle

C. wildlife sanctuary D. The tourists are lazy to walk

D. aquarium 180. Which of the following is not responsible for causing

global warming?
175. Animal life occurring in a particular region or time
is known as A. Ozone layer

A. Flora B. Jet planes

B. Biota C. Methane

C. Fauna D. Carbon dioxide

D. species 181. Excessive combustion of fossil fuels leads to

__________ .
176. Birds that travel long distances to overcome harsh
conditions are known as _______ . A. Deforestation

A. travelling birds B. volcanic eruptions

B. flying birds C. global warming

C. endangered birds D. earthquakes

D. migratory birds 182. Which of the following is not the effects of global
warming?
177. Which act was aimed at the preservation and
conservation of natural forests in India? A. Soil erosion

A. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 B. Average rise in surface temperature

B. Forest Preservation Act, 1972 C. Melting of ice on the poles

C. Prevention act, 1985 D. Rise in sea level

D. Biodiversity Act, 1991 183. Uncontrolled deforestation leads to –

A. Destruction of habitats

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B. Soil erosion Reason (R): Chromosomes are present in the nucleus.

C. Flooding A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation

of A
A. A, B and C
B. A is true but R is false
B. B and C
C. A is false but R is true
C. A and B
D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
D. only A
explanation of A
184. Which organelle is called the “powerhouse of the
189. The fluid present between the cell membrane and the
cell”?
nucleus is called
A. Nucleus
A. Cytoplasm
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Nucleoplasm
C. Mitochondrion
C. Protoplasm
D. Golgi apparatus
D. Serum
185. Which among the following organelles synthesizes
190. Choose the correct statement(s):
lipids?
(i) Ribosomes are located on the chromosomes.
A. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
(ii) Cell is located in the nucleus.
B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
(iii) Chloroplasts are located in the nucleolus.
C. Golgi apparatus
(iv) Cell membrane surrounds the cell.
D. Lysosome
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
186. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
Endoplasmic Reticulum? B. (i) and (ii)

A. It is involved in lipid synthesis. C. (iii) and (iv)

B. It is involved in ribosome synthesis. D. Only (iv)

C. It is the post office of the cell. 191. I am a double-membraned cell organelle. I produce
energy-rich molecules called ATP. I have my own genetic
D. Involved in detoxifying chemicals.
material. Who am I?
187. Which among the following is not the function of
A. Cell membrane
lysosomes?
B. Plastid
A. Breaking down of food particles.
C. Nucleus
B. Protection against the pathogens.
D. Mitochondrion
C. Perform photosynthesis.
192. Which of the following is the non-living part of the
D. Digest worn-out cells.
cell?
188. Assertion (A): Chromosomes are responsible for the
A. Cell membrane
transfer of characteristics from parents to offspring.

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B. Cytoplasm D. Chromosomes

C. Mitochondrion 197. In an animal cell, which among the following

organelles has its own DNA?
D. Cell wall
A. Chloroplast
193. What are pseudopodia?
B. Chromoplast
A. Vacuole of amoeba
C. Leucoplast
B. False feet of amoeba
D. Mitochondria
C. Heart of amoeba
198. Which organelle is called the “suicide bag” of the
D. Eye of amoeba
cell?
194. Based on the following options, how does a plant cell
A. Golgi apparatus
differ from an animal cell?
B. Plastids
A. Cell wall
C. Lysosomes
B. Chloroplast
D. Mitochondria
C. Mitochondrion
199. Which of the following is not a postulate of cell
D. Both A and B
theory?
195. Based on the given statements, choose the correct
A. Cell is the basic unit of life.
option.
B. All cells develop from pre-existing cells.
Statement 1: Amoeba and WBCs use pseudopodia for
locomotion. C. All living cells have cell walls.

Statement 2: Amoeba and WBCs are both capable of D. All living organisms are composed of cells.
independent existence.
200. Who propounded Cell theory?
Statement 3: Amoeba and WBCs can change their shapes.
A. Matthias Schleiden
Statement 4: Amoeba and WBCs have cell membrane.
B. Theodor Schwann
A. Statement 3 is incorrect.
C. Robert Hook
B. Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D. Both A and B
C. Statement 1, 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect.
201. Living cells were first discovered by –
D. Statement 4 is incorrect
A. Leeuwenhoek
196. If your father has brown eyes, you may also have
B. Robert Hooke
brown eyes. If your mother has curly hair, you might also
end up having curly hair. This transfer of characteristics C. Schwann
is due to the transfer of ______.
D. None of the above
A. Mitochondria
202. Endoplasmic reticulum was discovered by –
B. Lysosomes
A. Albert Claude & Keith Porter
C. Chloroplasts
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B. Schleiden & Schwann A. Golgi Apparatus

C. George Palade B. Lysosomes

D. Albert von Kolliker C. Mitochondrion

203. The fluid inside the mitochondria is called – D. Ribosomes

A. Cristae 209. The largest membrane-bound organelle in a

eukaryotic cell is –
B. Protoplasm
A. Golgi apparatus
C. Matrix
B. Mitochondria
D. None of these
C. Nucleus
204. Plastid which stores starch is –
D. Vacuole
A. Amyloplast
210. Which of the following cell organelles does not
B. Elaioplast
contain DNA?
C. Aleuroplast
A. Nucleus
D. Chromoplasts:
B. Lysosomes
205. Roots absorb water from the soil through the process
C. Chloroplast
of –
D. Mitochondria
A. Diffusion
211. Which of the following cell organelles regulates the
B. Osmosis
entry and exit of molecules to and from the cell?
C. Capillarity
A. Lysosomes
D. All of these
B. Golgi bodies
206. Ribosomes were discovered by –
C. Cell membrane
A. Carl Benda
D. Mitochondria
B. Richard Altmann
212. Which of the following cell organelles is absent in
C. George Palade prokaryotic cells?

D. Leeuwenhoek A. Nucleus

207. _______ discovered cell nucleus in______. B. Lysosome

A. Robert Hook, 1665 C. Endoplasmic Reticulum

B. Robert Brown, 1833 D. All of the above

C. Christian de Duve, 1949 213. Which of the following cell organelles is involved in
the breakdown of organic matter?
D. Felice Fontana, 1774
A. Lysosomes
208. Which of the following is a membrane less
organelle? B. Cytoplasm

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C. Golgi bodies D. equal to external fertilisation

D. Mitochondria 219. Reproduction is essential for living organisms in

order to:
214. _____________ is involved in the synthesis of
phospholipids. A. Continue their species

A. Mitochondria B. Maintain growth

B. Cytoplasm C. Fulfil their energy requirement

C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Keep the individual organism alive

D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum 220. How many parents are involved in sexual
reproduction?
215. Which of the following statements is true about
chromosomes? A. 0

A. It is present within the nucleus B. 4

B. It carries genes and helps in inheritance C. 2

C. It is composed of DNA in the form of Chromatin and D. 1

protein
221. After fertilisation, the ________ divides repeatedly
D. All of the above to give rise to a ball of cells.

216. Which of the following is not a double membrane- A. Ovum

bound organelle?
B. Sperm
A. Chloroplast
C. Zygote
B. Mitochondria
D. Embryo
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
222. Budding is seen in ________ .
D. All of the above
A. Humans
217. Which of the following statements is true about the
B. Amoeba
Golgi bodies?
C. Hydra
A. It is a sac-like organelle
D. bacteria
B. It is located near the nucleus
223. Which of the following is not a part of the male
C. It helps in transporting the particles throughout the cell.
reproductive system?
D. All of the above
A. Vas deferens
218. The number of eggs produced in internal fertilisation
B. Ovary
is
C. Testes
A. more than external fertilization
D. Penis
B. less than external fertilization
224. A Paramecium reproduces by dividing itself into two
C. more or less than external fertilisation depending on
daughter cells. This process is called
the environmental conditions
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A. Budding B. Louis Pasteur

B. Regeneration C. Keith Porter

C. binary fission D. Robert Koch

D. vegetative propagation 230. Breeds of sheep which involved in the process of

cloning were –
225. Name the process in which tadpoles develop into
young frogs. A. Finn Dorsett

A. Budding B. Scottish blackface

B. Fertilisation C. Merino

C. Metamorphosis D. Both A and B

D. Embedding 231. From which part of Finn Dorset, cell was obtained?

226. The process by which organisms make copies of A. Uterus

themselves is called ________ .
B. Skin
A. reproduction
C. Mammary gland
B. transpiration
D. Brain
C. respiration
232. What was obtained from a Scottish blackface ewe?
D. photosynthesis
A. Sperm
227. Female reproductive system in human beings
B. Egg
contains __________ .
C. Blood
A. two pairs of ovaries
D. All of these
B. single ovary
233. The successfully cloned a sheep named –
C. a triplet of ovaries
A. Suzy
D. a pair of ovaries
B. Rosy
228. What is the advantage of sexual reproduction over
asexual reproduction? C. Dolly
A. There is no advantage – asexual reproduction is more D. Micky
advantageous
234. Part of the plant that take part in sexual reproduction
B. There are more variations is –
C. Less number of offspring are produced A. seed
D. Competition for food is less B. fruit
229. The first successful cloning of any animal was C. flower
performed by –
D. branch
A. Ian Wilmut
235. Vegetative propagation is a type of –

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A. asexual reproduction C. Ovary

B. sexual reproduction D. Stamen

C. binary fission 241. Which of the following should an adolescent choose

for his/her meal?
D. none of these
A. Chips, noodles and aerated beverages
236. Which of the following is the male reproductive
organ in plants? B. Vegetable cutlets, chips and lemonade

A. Pistil C. Rice, noodles and popcorn

B. Pollen grain D. Chapatti, dal and vegetables

C. Stamen 242. The reproductive phase of a woman lies between her

_____ and menopause.
D. Ovule
A. menstrual cycle
237. Reproduction through the vegetative parts of a plant
is called – B. menstruation

A. asexual reproduction C. menarche

B. sexual reproduction D. ovulation

C. vegetative propagation 243. Statement 1: Sweat glands, salivary glands and oil
glands do not release their secretions directly into the
D. pollination
blood.
238. Which of the following is the female reproductive
Statement 2: These glands do not have ducts.
organ in plants?
A. Both the statements are correct.
A. Pistil
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
B. Pollen grain
C. Both the statements are incorrect.
C. Stamen
D. Only statement 1 is correct.
D. Ovule
244. Number of sex chromosomes in a human kidney cell
239. The transfer of pollens from the anther to stigma of
is
a flower is called –
A. One pair
A. fragmentation
B. Two pairs
B. fertilisation
C. Three pairs
C. pollination
D. Four pairs
D. reproduction
245. A female gamete carries ________ chromosome(s).
240. Which of the following is not the part of female
reproductive system in plant? A. one Y

A. Stigma B. one X and one Y

B. Style C. two X

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D. one X

246. Which of the following will occur in females at A. Testosterone

puberty?
B. Insulin
(I) Ovulation (II) Enlargement of breasts (III) Broadening
C. Adrenaline
of hips
D. Progesterone
A. I, II and III
251. During menstrual bleeding, the fluid that comes out
B. II and III only
of the vagina contains _____ along with blood.
C. I and III only
A. Embryo
D. I and II only
B. ovum
247. Which of the following is the cause of the condition
C. sperm
shown in the below –
D. zygote
A. Lack of calcium in the bones
252. The time period when the body undergoes changes,
B. Excess of iron in the blood
leading to reproductive maturity is called______.
C. Lack of iodine in the diet
A. Growth
D. Lack of potassium in the diet
B. senescence
248. HIV virus will not be present in which of the
C. development
following?
D. adolescence
A. Blood
253. Which of the following viruses causes AIDS?
B. Sweat
A. H1N1 virus
C. Breast milk
B. Zika virus
D. Semen
C. HIV
249. Puberty in females begins at the age of _____.
D. Rhinovirus
A. 11 to 13 years
254. In girls, the ovaries and eggs become mature and
B. 16 to 18 years
ovaries begin to release ovum by the process of ______.
C. 14 to 16 years
A. Ovulation
D. 18 to 21 years
B. fertilisation
250. The information given below refers to which of the
C. oogamy
following hormone- (
D. oogenesis
i) Glands secreting the hormone are located on top of the
kidneys. 255. Which among the following is the change seen in
girls during puberty?
(ii) Converts glycogen into glucose.

(iii) Increases blood pressure.

A. Broader shoulders
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B. Cracking of voice C. Gigantism

C. Breast development D. Infertility

D. Growth of facial hair 261. Name the gland that is located at the base of the
throat, just inferior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's
256. A human gamete has ________ sex chromosome(s).
apple).
A. Four
A. Pituitary
B. Half
B. Pineal gland
C. Two
C. Hypothalamus
D. One
D. Thyroid
257. The pituitary gland is located below the ______.
262. The endocrine gland responsible for the body's
A. Thalamus circadian rhythm is the:

B. medulla oblongata A. Thymus gland

C. vas deferens B. Pineal gland

D. hypothalamus C. Parathyroid gland

258. What happens during menopause? D. Pituitary gland

A. No menstruation. 263. Which of these is not an endocrine gland?

B. No maturation of new follicles. A. Pancreas

C. The ovaries stop the secretion of oestrogen B. Testes

A. C only C. Salivary gland

B. A, B and C D. Parathyroid

C. B only 264. The secretions from which of these glands differs

between males and females?
D. A and B
A. Adrenal
259. Which of the following can spread AIDS?
B. Parathyroid
A. Eating food with an infected person
C. Gonadal
B. Hugging an infected person
D. Pancreas
C. Transfusion of infected blood
265. Which if the following gland which can be classified
D. Mosquito bites as an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
260. Deficiency of insulin formation leads to a condition A. Thyroid
called:
B. Thymus

C. Pancreas
A. Diabetes
D. Pituitary
B. Goitre
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266. Which part of a body secreted bile? C. Thyroxine

A. Liver D. Growth hormone

B. Spleen 272. Which of the given options is an Enzyme?

C. Pancreas A. Lipase

D. Gall bladder B. Oestrogen

267. Which of the given organs of the body stored bile? C. Lecithin

A. Appendix D. Polythene

B. Pancreas 273. Which hormone is responsible for the release of milk

from the mammary gland?
C. Gall bladder
A. Adrenaline
D. Spleen
B. Thyroxine
268. Which is the smallest gland in the human body?
C. Progesterone
A. Pituitary
D. Oxytocin
B. Pancreas
274. Which hormone increases heartbeat and produces a
C. Thyroid
feeling of excitement?
D. Adrenal
A. Adrenaline
269. Which of the following glands is known as the ”
B. Cortisone
Master gland”?
C. Insulin
A. Adrenal
D. Testosterone
B. Thyroid
275. Oestrogen is produced by which among the
C. Pancreas
following options?
D. Pituitary
A. Corpus luteum
270. Which one of the given is the largest gland in the
B. Egg
human body?
C. Ovaries
A. Pancreas
D. Uterus
B. Stomach
276. Which of the given hormones does not produce in
C. Liver
women?
D. Kidney
A. Testosterone
271. Which of the given hormones regulate blood calcium
B. Progesterone
and phosphate in the human body?
C. Oestrogen
A. Glucagon
D. None of the above
B. Parathyroid hormone
277. Endocrine glands are also known as—
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A. Acidic gland 283. Which among the following is the correct location of
Adrenal Glands in Human Body?
B. Ductless gland
A. Above kidney
C. Macro gland
B. Below liver
D. Ducted gland
C. In the middle of brain
278. Pituitary gland is situated in—
D. In Scrotum
A. Pancreas
284. Metabolic rate in mammals is controlled by
B. Kidney
A. Pancreas
C. Throat
B. Liver
D. Brain
C. Thyroid
279. Which of the following gland disappear during old
age? D. Pituitary

A. Thymus 285. Oxytocin stimulates –

B. Parathyroid A. expansion of lung

C. Thyroid B. contraction of Ovary

D. Pituitary C. pumping of Heart

280. Which of the following gland is responsible for D. enlargement of Uterus

dwarfism and gigantism?
286. Which of the following hormones is/are known as
A. Adrenal ‘happy hormone(s)’?

B. Pancreas A. Serotonin

C. Pituitary B. Endorphins

D. Thyroid C. Dopamine

281. Which of the following is called tear gland? D. All of these

A. Pancreas 287. Which of the following glands is known as

‘Emergency gland’ or ‘3F gland’?
B. Thyroid gland
A. Pituitary gland
C. Pituitary gland
B. Pineal gland
D. Lacrimal gland
C. Adrenal gland
282. Which of the following is not a gland?
D. Parathyroid gland
A. Pancreas
288. Which of the following hormones is known as
B. Liver
‘Emergency hormone’ or ‘3F hormone’?
C. Gastrine
A. Epinephrine
D. Thyroid
B. Dopamine
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C. Thyroxine A. Motion of body

D. Serotonin B. Speed of body

289. The pressure which is exerted by air around us is C. Shape of body

known as
D. All of these
A. Force
295. 1 kilogram weight is equal to
B. Atmospheric Pressure
A. 98 N
C. Muscular Force
B. 9.8 N
D. Friction
C. 0.98 N
290. Force acting on per unit area is called
D. 0.098 N
A. Non-contact forces
296. A spring balance is used for measuring
B. Contact forces
A. Mass
C. Force
B. Weight
D. Pressure
C. Pressure
291. A ___________ exerted by an object on another is
D. Speed
called force.
297. Two boys A and B are applying force on a block. If
A. Push or pull
the block moves towards the boy A, which one of the
B. Contact or non-contact force following statements is correct?

C. Pressure A. Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of

B.
D. Magnitude
B. Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of
292. Muscular force is also called ___________ force.
B.
A. Non-contact
C. Net force on the block is towards B.
B. Contact
D. Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.
C. Gravitational
298. When two forces act in opposite directions, then net
D. Magnetic force acting is the

293. The force exerted by a charged body on another A. Sum of two forces
charged body is called -
B. Difference between two forces
A. Gravitational force
C Both of these
B. Electrostatic force
D. None of these
C. Non-contact force
299. The strength of force is expressed by its
D. Contact force
A. Weight
294. Force changes the
B. Mass

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C. Magnitude B. Maximum in position C

D. Longitudinal force C. Maximum in position B

300. State of motion is described by D. Equal in all cases

A. Position of rest 305. Which of the following is proper example(s) to

explain that force on an object may change its shape
B. Position of motion
A. A ball of dough rolled into chapatti
C. Both by the state of rest or motion
B. Pressing a rubber ball kept on table
D. None of these
C. Making model using clay
301. During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes
we experience hair flying apart. The force responsible for D. All of the above
this is
306. A ball rolling on the ground slows down and finally
A. Force of gravity stops. This is because of

B. Force of friction A. Force

C. Electrostatic force B. Less force applied

D. Magnetic force C. Friction

302. A container is filled with water as shown in the given D. None of the above
figure. Which of the following statements is correct about
307. Force of friction always acts on moving objects and
pressure of water?
its direction shall be ____

A. On any direction
A. Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
B. Along the direction of motion
B. Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C
C. Perpendicular to the direction of motion
C. Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C
D. Opposite to the direction of motion
D. Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C
308. If In a tug-o-war, when two teams are pulling a rope,
303. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could and the rope does not move towards any team, it implies
be due to that

A. Frictional force only A. Equal force is being applied in the same direction

B. Electrostatic force only B. Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction

C. Magnetic force only C. No force is applied in any direction

D. Either a magnetic or an electrostatic force D. Cannot be explained

304. A brick is kept in three different ways on a table as 309. An example of a non- contact force is
shown in given figure. The pressure exerted by the brick
A. Force exerted by us to lift a bucket
on the table will be –
B. Push a stationary car

C. Force exerted by magnet

A. Maximum in position A
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D. Hit a cricket ball for a 6 run D. 2000 kgm-3

310. Pressure = 316. Dimensions of Pressure is –

A. Area / force on which it acts A. [M1 L1 T-2]

B. Force / area on which it acts B. [M1 L-1 T-2]

C. Volume / force on which it acts C. [M-1 L1 T-3]

D. Force / volume on which it acts D. [M1 L1 T2]

311. Gravity is 317. Dimensions of Force is –

A. Repulsive A. [M1 L1 T-2]

B. Attraction + Repulsive force B. [M1 L-1 T-2]

C. Attractive force C. [M-1 L1 T-3]

D. Not a force D. [M1 L1 T2]

312. A batsman hits the ball for a boundary after the 318. Dimensions of Density is –
bowler i.e. four runs. The batsman thus
A. [M1 L1 T-2]
A. Changes the direction & speed of the ball
B. [M1 L-1 T-2]
B. Does not change the direction but speed only
C. [M-1 L1 T-3]
C. Does not change the speed but direction only
D. [M1 L-3 T0]
D. Does not change either direction or speed
319. The pressure of the water at the bottom of the pond
313. Density of a substance is defined as - is _______ at the surface of the pond.

A. its mass per unit volume A. Higher than

B. its mass per unit area B. Lower than

C. its volume per unit mass C. Same

D. its weight per unit volume D. either lower or higher

314. SI unit for density is 320. A charged balloon attaches to a wall because of
______
A. kg cm-3
A. Electrostatic force
B. g cm-3
B. Gravitational force
C kg m-3
C. Muscular force
D. g m-3
D. Magnetic force
315. The density of water is
321. A dropper to fill ink works because of which of the
A. 100 kgm-3
following?
B. 10 kgm-3
A. Air pressure
C. 1000 kgm-3
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B. Electrostatic force 327. With increase of temperature, the frictional force
acting between two surfaces—
C. Friction
A. Increase
D. Magnetic force
B. Remain the same
322. The strength of a force is usually expressed by its
__________ C. Decreases

A. Magnitude D. Becomes zero

B. Density 328. A hydrogen filled balloon rises in air because—

C. Pressure A. The atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude

D. None of these B. The acceleration due to gravity decreases with altitude

323. The ratio of force, acting perpendicular to the area, C. The density of air decreases with altitude
on which it acts is known as ________.
D. The buoyant force exerted by the air on the balloon is
A. Pressure greater than the weight of the balloon

B. Friction 329. The ink of pen leaks out in an airplane because—

C. Force A. Atmospheric pressure increases

D. Density B. Pressure of ink inside is more than the ambient pressure

324. A body is said to be under balanced forces when the C. High speed of the aeroplane
resultant force applied on that body is_____
D. Temperature difference
A. Zero
330. A sprayer works on the principle expounded by—
B. Infinite
A. Newton
C. One
B. Archimedes
D. None of these
C. Boyle
325. Pick out the scalar quantity—
D. Pascal
A. Velocity

B. Angular momentum

C. Speed

D. Torque

326. Conservation of energy means that—

A. Energy can be created as well as destroyed

B. Energy can be created but not destroyed

C. Energy cannot be created but can be destroyed

D. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

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 | RIMC | RMS | SAINIK | NAVODAYA |
For Admission contact at 92578 – 84334, 92579 – 84334
ADDRESS: 10 – 11, Adarsh Vihar – B, Govindpura, Niwaru Link Road, Jhotwara, Jaipur (Rajasthan) - 302012