1.

Which of the following Information systems are aimed at

improving the routine business activities on which all
organizations depend?

(a) Management Information systems

(b) Decision support systems
(c) Transaction processing systems
(d) Management support systems
(e) Transaction Information systems.

2. Which of the following strategies are adopted if

information requirements are not well-defined?

(a) Rapid application development method

(b) Structured analysis development method
(c) Systems development life cycle method
(d) Prototyping method
(e) Spiral method.

[Link] Programming involves:

(a) functional modularization

(b) localization of errors
(c) decentralized programming
(d) stress on analysis
(e) stress on requirements gathering.

[Link] of the following is not a fact-finding technique?

(a) Third party enquiry

(b) Interview
(c) Questionnaire
(d) Record reviews
(e) Observation.

5. Which of the following questions are useful in evaluating

data flow diagrams?
(a) Are there any unnamed components in the data flow diagram?
(b) Are there any processes that do not receive input?
(c) Are there any data stores that are input but never referenced?
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) All (a), (b) and (c) above.

6. In system design and development field what does

spaghetti code mean?

(a) programs written in unstructured languages.

(b) well structured and well documented code.
(c) program code that has many GOTO statements.
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.

7. Which of the following statements is false with respect to

a Data Dictionary?

(a) It is a repository of the elements in a system.

(b) data dictionary and data store both are same
(c) It manages detail
(d) It communicates the common meanings for system elements
and activities.
(e) It documents system features.

8. Match the following and select the correct options given

under

i) physical design A) Documentation

ii) interview B) Type of output
iii) Input design C) defines design specifications that are to be
coded
iv) Installation procedure D) a data gathering technique
v) report E) Identification and design of interfaces to enter data

(a) i-D, ii – A, iii-B, iv – C, v- E

(b) i-C, ii – D, iii-E, iv – A, v- B
(c) i-A, ii – D, iii-B, iv – C, v- E
(d) i-D, ii – A, iii-E, iv – B, v- C
(e) i-B, ii – A, iii-D, iv – C, v- E.

9. Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during

(a) Analysis phase
(b) Design phase
(c) Feasibility study phase
(d) Implementation phase
(e) Maintenance phase.

11. Which of the following technique detects transposition errors?

(a) check digit
(b) automatic correction
(c) existence test
(d) duplicate processing
(e) limit and range test.
12. The structure chart derived by studying the flow through the system
supports the activity of
(a) File design
(b) Program design
(c) Database design
(d) Internal controls design
(e) Output design.
13. Which of the following suggests phased implementation of the system?

(a) introduce a new system gradually either by functions or by

organizational units.
(b) procure resources in stages and then introduce the system at once
(c) Withdraw the existing system gradually
(d) allow the new system and old system to run parallel for sometime
(e) train the users first and then introduce the new system.
14. Class is analogous to
(a) object
(b) blue print
(c) instance
(d) record
(e) entity.
15. Which of the following represents the condition of an object at a specific
moment in time?
(a) behavior
(b) properties
(c) instance
 (d) state
(e) method.
16. Some object-oriented systems permit a class to inherit its
state(attributes) and behaviors from more than one super class. This is
called
(a) multiple inheritance
(b) inheritance
(c) hybrid inheritance
(d) specialization
(e) aggregation.
17. Identify the following who presented the object modeling technique
(OMT).
(a) Booch
(b) Jim Rumbaugh ET AL
(c) Jacobson ET AL
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above
18. Which of the following statements is false with respect to a use case?
(a) A use case is a scenario for understanding the requirements
(b) It is an interaction between the users and the system
(c) It captures the responsibility of the system to its users
(d) It is used for the requirements analysis
(e) It represents the flow of activities of various processes in the
system.
19. Which type of association does the following diagram depict?

(a) aggregation
(b) composition
(c) specialization
(d) generalization
(e) simple association.
20. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the diagram
given below?

(a) The building is composed of one or more rooms

(b) An aggregation relationship exists between the building and the
room
(c) A room can have many rooms
 (d) There is a recursive composition in the above diagram
(e) A room can have 0 or more rooms.

21. Which of the following relationships are used in a use-case diagram?

(a) Communication (b) Uses (c) Extends
(d) Both (b) and (c) above (e) All (a), (b) and (c) above.

22. Which of the following are UML interaction diagrams?

(a) Activity diagram
(b) sequence
diagram (c) collaboration
diagram
(d) class diagram
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.

23. The vertical dimension of a sequence diagram represents

(a) time (b) objects (c) lines (d) messages (e) methods.

24. Which of the following component is used to clarify which actor performs which activity
in an activity diagram?
(a) forks (b) joins (c) swimlanes (d) state (e) note.

25. Which of the following statements is not true regarding activity diagram?
(a) A solid filled circle represents the final state
(b) The final state is shown using so called bull’s eye symbol
(c) Transitions can branch and merge (diamond) – alternative computation threads
(d) Transitions can fork and re-join (bar line) –concurrent (parallel) computation
threads
(e) Activity diagram without concurrent processes resembles a conventional
flowchart.

26. Which of the following diagrams model the physical components of the system?
(a) use case diagram (b) collaboration diagram
(c) class diagram (d) component diagram
(e) deployment diagram.

27. Which of the following represent the built-in extensibility mechanism of the UML?
(a) associations (b) relationships (c) stereotypes
 (d) comments (e) notations.

28. Noun-Phrase Approach and CRC Approach are used to identify

(a) classes (b) Use cases (c) objects (d) collaborators (e) Actors.

29. The testing of software without the knowledge of source code is called
(a) white box testing (b) black box testing (c) gray box testing
(d) glass box testing (e) blue box testing.

30. The largest percentage of total life cycle cost of software is

(a) analysis costs (b) design costs (c) maintenance costs
(d) coding costs (e) testing costs.

31. What category of information system determines the sale of an item and a withdrawal
from an ATM?

(a) Management Information System

(b) Executive Information System
(c) Decision Support System
(d) Communication Support System
(e) Transaction Processing System.
32. Which of the following is not true regarding the waterfall method?

(a) Fairly rigid approach

(b) Can easily go back to previous phases
(c) Good for traditional type of projects
(d) Not as good for many of the new types of interactive and highly complex
applications
(e) This approach is less used now.
33. Which feasibility determines the availability of team and support staff?

(a) Economic Feasibility

(b) Cultural Feasibility
(c) Technological Feasibility
(d) Schedule feasibility
(e) Resource Feasibility.
34. Which among the following is an intangible benefit?

(a) Maintaining constant staff

(b) Decreasing operating expenses
(c) Survival
(d) Reducing error rates
(e) Ensuring quicker processing and turnabout.
35. Which chart is represented by vertical bars?

(a) PERT
(b) ROI
 (c) GANTT
(d) NPV
(e) CPM.
36. Which of the model is used for system components?

(a) PERT chart

(b) Gantt chart
(c) Organizational hierarchy chart
(d) CPM
(e) DFD.
37. Which is not used in context level diagram?

(a) Source
(b) Destination
(c) Data flow
(d) Data Store
(e) Process.
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
I. Program modules should be loosly coupled.
II. Program modules should be highly cohesive.
III. Program modules should be highly coupled.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (I) and (III) above.
39. Which of the following is not a resource for setting JAD sessions?

(a) Overhead projector

(b) Black or white board
(c) Flip chart
(d) Adequate work space
(e) All of the above.
40. What will help the system analyst to work with users to determine system usage?

(a) Use case

(b) Actor
(c) Class
(d) Component
(e) Package.
41. Which UML diagram provides a variety of symbols and encompasses a number of
ideas, all to model the changes which just one object goes through?

(a) Package
(b) Object
(c) State
 (d) Class
(e) Use Case.
42. Which relationship specifies an optional behavior?

(a) A generalization
(b) An inheritance
(c) An include
(d) An aggregation
(e) An extend.
43. Which among the following literally means ‘many forms’, the concept that different
objects can respond to the same message in different ways?

(a) Composition
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Aggregation
(e) Inheritance.
44. What do you call, “where the Objects hide their inner workings of their operations from
the outside world and from other objects”?

(a) Composition
(b) Encapsulation
(c) Generalization
(d) Polymorphism
(e) An object.
45. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Object Oriented
Methodologies?

(a) Gane and Sarson, Shlaer Mellor and Extreme Programming are object
oriented
methodologies
(b) RUP activities emphasize the creation and maintenance of models rather
than paper
documents
(c) Establishment of the project plan and the architecture is done during the
Elaboration phase of RUP
(d) During the Elaboration phase, the focus turns towards analysis and design
(e) During inception, it is common to create an executable prototype that
serves as a proof of concept.
46. Which of the statement(s) is/are true in relation to Object Oriented concepts?
I. Encapsulation states that when designing an object, one should separate what he
knows about theobject according to the following:
The minimum information needed to use the object.
The information required to make the object work properly.
 II. In polymorphism an operation can have the same name in different classes, and
proceed differently in each class.
III. Objects communicate with each other through message interactions.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
47. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct related to UML 2.0.?
I. Composite Structure Diagram, Interaction Overview Diagram and Timing Diagram
are new in UML 2.0.
II. A composite structure diagram shows the components of a class as a diagram
nested inside a large class rectangle.
III. UML 2.0 takes the interface concept a step further by allowing one to model the
connection between an interface and a class.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
48. Which of the following is not correct regarding diagrams in UML 2.0?

(a) A Sequence diagram is called a communication diagram in UML 2.0

(b) Component diagrams are implementation-type diagrams which are used to
graphicallyshow the physical architecture of the software of the system
(c) One can frame a sequence diagram by surrounding it with a border and
adding a compartment in the upper left corner to contain information that
identifies the diagram.
(d) Framing gives one a quick and easy way to reuse a part of a sequence
diagram in another
(e) A sequence diagram shows the sequence of messages exchanged
between the objectsneeded to carry out the functionality of the scenario.
49. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct related to UML 2.0.?
I. Time is represented in a sequence diagram in the vertical direction starting at the
top and progressing towards the bottom.
II. A Communication diagram is another way of presenting the information in a
sequence diagram.
III. The Communication diagram shows the associations among objects as well as the
messages which pass from one object to another.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above
 (c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to role names in
associations between two classes?
I. Role names have to be used with association names.
II. If there is a relationship between Company and Person then one could use
Employee or Employer as role names to convey an employment relationship.
III. The role name is placed on the association near the class that it modifies.

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
51. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct related to role/rolenames in associations?
I. When one class associates with another, each one usually plays a role within that
association.
II. A Role name may be placed on one or both ends of an association line.
III. If Company and Person are two classes in a class diagram that has an association
relationship, One could use an association name called “employs” or the role names of
“Employer” and “Employee” to convey an employment relationship.

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
52. Some questions related to UML followed by possible answers are given below.
I. What does it mean for a Use Case to include another Use Case? Including a Use
Case means that one Use Case incorporates the steps of another Use Case.
II. How do you represent an object’s lifeline in a sequence diagram? The lifeline is a
dashed line descending from an object that represents the existence over time of An
object.
III. Which of the following UML diagrams give a static view of a system? Class, Object,
Use Case, State, Sequence Only Class, Object and Use Case Diagrams.
Which of the above question-answer combinations is/are valid?

(a) Only (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
 (e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
53. Which of the following shows the top level function defined to cover the scope of the
application?

(a) Context diagram

(b) Decision table
(c) Data flow diagram
(d) Flow charting
(e) Psuedocode.
54. Which of the following is/are not considered as benefit(s) of prototyping?

(a) Provide rapid feedback from the user to the designer

(b) Help validate requirements with fewer errors
(c) Enhance designer and user understanding of what system should accomplish
(d) System testing can be automated
(e) All of the above.
55. A data store is represented in data flow diagram as

(a) Rectangle
(b) Square
(c) Open rectangle
(d) Open square
(e) Ellipse.
56. the symbol represents

(a) Aggregation
(b) Generalization
(c) Dependency
(d) Composition
(e) Association.
57. Whole Part or Composition relationship represents

(a) Aggregation
(b) Inheritance
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Stereotype
(e) Association.
58. Which of the following represents a person or palce or thing about which some
information is gathered?

(a) Entity
(b) Attribute
(c) Data Store
(d) Data flow
(e) Data dictionary.
59. Who is not involved in Requirements definition?

(a) Client managers

(b) System end-users
 (c) Client engineers
(d) Contractor managers
(e) Software developers.
60. Which cohesion operates on the same input or output data?

(a) Communicational
(b) Temporal
(c) Procedural
(d) Functional
(e) Object.
61. The problem solving approach usually incorporates the following general steps
I. Design and implement the ‘best solution’.
II. Analyze and understand the problem.
III. Identify alternative solutions and decide on a course of action.
IV. Identify the problem.
V. Identify solution requirements or expectations.
VI. Evaluate the results.
Select order in which the above mentioned steps should be performed
(a) (II), (IV), (III), (I), (V), (VI) (b) (IV), (III), (II), (VI), (V), (I)
(c) (III), (IV), (V), (II), (I), (VI) (d) (IV), (II), (V), (III), (I), (VI)
(e) (III), (II), (I), (VI), (IV), (V).

62. Technical feasibility is an evaluation to determine whether

(a) The system can provide the right information for the organization’s personnel
(b) The existing system can be upgraded to use the new technology
(c) Any restructuring of jobs will be acceptable to the current users
(d) The organization has the expertise to use the new technology
(e) The technology needed for the proposed system is available.

63. When requirements go wrong, what could happen from among the following?
(a) The system may cost more than projected
(b) The system may be delivered later than promised
(c) The system will become unreliable and prone to errors
(d) The system may not meet user requirements
(e) All of the above.
64. Which of the following is a fact-finding technique?
(a) Systems requirement specification
(b) Quality assurance
(c) Sampling of existing documents
(d) Rapid application development
(e) Prototyping.

65. The data dictionary in SDLC contains descriptions of

(a) DFD elements (b) E-R Diagram (c) Use case
(d) Class Diagram (e) Decision table.

66. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module?

(a) Can be written more compactly
(b) Is connected to other modules and the outside world
(c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) Focuses on just one thing
(e) None of the above.

67. A_____ is a tabular form of presentation that specifies a set of conditions and their
corresponding actions.
(a) Decision
Table (b) Deci
sion Tree (c) Structured English
(d) Data Flow diagram (e) E-R diagram.

68. UML graphical notations can be used not only to describe the system’s components but
also to describe a model itself; this is known as a ___________
(a) Model (b) Stereotypes
(c) Model dependency
(d) Meta-Model (e) Multiplicity.

69. The requirement definition document is intended for

(a) System end-
users (b) C
lient engineers (c) Software developers
(d) System architects (e) Client managers.

70. Prototyping
 (a) Is most practical for large scale projects
(b) Emphasizes getting the design right the first time
(c) Is the execution of the standard systems development cycle using CASE tools
(d) Involves an iterative and interactive development process with extensive end use
involvement
(e) Cannot be used when the requirements are not clear.

71. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of testing activities?
(a) Unit testing, system testing, module testing, integration testing, acceptance testing
(b) Unit testing, volume testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing
(c) Unit testing, integration testing, system testing, module testing, acceptance testing
(d) Unit testing, module testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing
(e) Unit testing, system testing, integration testing, volume testing, acceptance
testing.

72. Which of the following is not a component of CASE Tool?

(a) Diagramming Tools
(b) Code Generators (c) Information Repository
(d) Debugging Tools (e) All of the above.

73. The process of converting a new or revised system design into an operational one is
known as _______________________.
(a) Testing (b) Implementation
(c) Quality Assurance
(d) Design (e) Mainteance.

74. Which one the following is not a form of Decision Table?

(a) Limited-
Entry (b) Ext
ended-Entry (c) Mixed-Entry
(d) Double-Entry (e) All of the above.

75. Which of the following tool is not used during system analysis?
(a) Data Flow
Diagram (b) Structu
red English (c) Structured Chart
(d) Decision Table (e) Decision Tree.
76. Application prototyping follows an organized process or steps that begins with
____________.
(a) Use
prototype (b)
Review prototype (c) Develop working model
(d) Identify known requirements (e) None of the above.

77. The requirements model consists of four parts:

(a) Use cases, interface descriptions, class diagram, project scope
(b) Project scope, use cases, class diagram, context diagram
(c) Interface descriptions, data model, context diagram, class diagram
(d) Project scope, use cases, interface descriptions, context diagram
(e) Project scope, use cases, interface descriptions, class diagram.

78. ____________ are used to group classes together for ease of use, maintainability, and
reusability.
(a) Objects (b) Use
Cases (c) States
(d) Packages (e) None of the above.

79. An association must

(a) Be described by nouns (b) Have attributes
(c) Be described by a verb or nouns (d) Have a 1:M component
(e) Be based on events.

80. A data dictionary

(a) Is a book used by programmers to find the definitions of technical terms
(b) Is the central place where the components of a system are defined
(c) Helps to avoid ambiguities among different development team members
(d) Is a computer software tool
(e) Includes a range of acceptable values for data.

81. Unified modelling language

(a) Is an object oriented programming language
(b) Is useful in describing object oriented design models graphically
(c) Allows to represent multiple views of a system
 (d) Is an object oriented system development methodology
(e) Is not used to describe the system requirements.

82. ______________ consists of objects with which the user interacts as well as the objects
needed to manage.
(a) Business Layer (b) View
Layer (c) Physical Layer
(d) Network Layer (e) Access Layer.

83. The process of looking for patterns to document is called

(a) Pattern (b) Antipattern
(c) Frameworks
(d) Pattern Template (e) Pattern mining.

84. An entity class is a class that

(a) Does not appear in the class diagram
(b) Relates to the class diagram
(c) Exists in the real world and in the class diagram
(d) Exists in the real world but not in the class diagram
(e) Exists in the data world but not in the real model.

85. ________identifies functionality (actors and use cases) of the system based on user
requirements.
(a) Software
Architect (b) Syste
m Analyst (c) Designer
(d) End-user (e) Tester.

86. Design patterns are

(a) Generic problems (b) Generic solutions to recurring problems
(c) Common mistakes (d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) None of the above.

87. ________represent a built-in extensibility mechanism of the UML.

(a) Note (b) Meta model (c) Stereotype
(d) Class (e) Model constraints.

88. Creating an object model from an existing relational database layout is referred to as
 (a) Forward engineering (b) Backward engineering
(c) Reverse engineering (d) Top-down engineering
(e) Bottom-up engineering.

89. The most important thing about a class card(CRC card) is that it be
(a) Measured in centimeters
(b) Used in portrait orientation to enhance its capacity
(c) Carefully filled
(d) Used to record responsibilities and collaborations
(e) 10 × 15 cm.

90. A state machine is

(a) The execution of a particular specified instance
(b) The execution of a particular class of statechart diagram
(c) The execution ofa policy by a government behemoth
(d) The execution of a particular specified statechart diagram
(e) The execution of a statechart diagram by a specified instance.

91. Which of the following statements accurately describe an Information System?

(a) An Information System is an arrangement of people, data processes,

information representation and information technology that interact to
support day-to-day operations in a business
(b) An Information System is a contemporary term that describes the
combination of computer technology with telecommunication technology
(c) An Information System is an arrangement of information representation and
information technology that interacts to support day-to-day operations in a
business
(d) An Information System is an arrangement of data processes, information
representation and information technology that interacts to support day-to-
day operations in a business
(e) An Information System is a contemporary term that describes the
combination of information technology with telecommunication technology.
92. Which of the following skills is not required by a systems analyst?

(a) Programming Language skills

(b) Communication skills
(c) Technical skills
(d) Business process re-engineering skills
(e) Management skills.
93. The statements given below are associated with the activity of outsourcing. Identify
the correct statement from among them:

(a) Ownership of IT assets is not transferred to the outsourcer

(b) Outsourcing is the act of contracting with the outside vendor to assume
responsibility for IT Functions
(c) Outsourcers do not assume responsibility for an organization’s information
systems development
(d) Outsourcing is done by the organization for which the system is developed
(e) Outsourcers do not require a systems analyst.
94. Which of the following is not a step in the linear system development cycle?

(a) Testing design

(b) Prototyping
(c) Requirements definition
(d) Development
(e) Post-installation.
95. Given below are some statements associated with the problem definition phase of the
linear model. Identify the correct statement from among them.

(a) The problem definition phase produces a document written using technical
terminology of the system analyst
(b) The problem statement is a document that contains the problems faced by
the organization
(c) The problem definition phase produces a document that is a broad
statement of user requirements
(d) The problem definition phase does not specify the resources allocated to the
project
(e) The direction of the project is set by the problem definition phase.
96. Which of the following is not considered as feasibility factor when developing an
information system?

(a) Economic
(b) Application
(c) Schedule
(d) Technical
(e) Operational.
97. The four phases of the Systems Development Life Cycle are _____.

(a) Analysis, gathering, modeling and diagramming

(b) Construction, installation, testing and converting
(c) Designing, charting, formatting and structuring
(d) Planning, analysis, design and implementation
(e) System request, feasibility, planning and staffing.
98. The _____ is generated by the department or person that has an idea for a new
information system.

(a) Feasibility analysis

(b) Gradual refinement
 (c) Project sponsor
(d) System request
(e) Work plan.
99. In which phase of the SDLC is the system proposal developed?

(a) Analysis
(b) Design
(c) Implementation
(d) Planning
(e) System delivery.
10 The primary advantage of the Waterfall Development methodology is _____.
0.
(a) A version of the system is quickly delivered into the users' hands
(b) Requirements evolve through users' feedback about the system
(c) Features and functionality of the system are explored through simple models
(d) Requirements are completely specified and held relatively constant prior to
programming
(e) There is a long time lapse prior to completion.
10 ____ is the process of examining the technical, economic, and organizational pros and
1. cons of developing a new system.

(a) Committee approval

(b) Feasibility analysis
(c) Functionality determination
(d) Risk analysis
(e) System request.
10 The functionality of the system or what the information system will do is called the
2. _____ of the system.

(a) Business need

(b) Intangibles
(c) Requirements
(d) Sponsors
(e) Tangibles.
10 The four elements commonly found on a system request are _____.
3.
(a) Economic, organizational, technical and operational feasibility
(b) Project sponsor, business need, requirements and business value
(c) Risk analysis, familiarity, project size and cost-benefit analysis
(d) Training, software, installation and equipment
(e) Upgrades, licensing fees, repairs and charges.
10 Each use case describes how the system reacts to a(n) _____ that occurs to trigger the
4. system.

(a) External entity

(b) Data flow
(c) Process
(d) Data store
(e) Event. event
10 Outputs from a use case are described on the use case form along with their
5. corresponding _____.

(a) Data models

(b) Destination (destination)
(c) Inputs
(d) Source
(e) Viewpoint.
10 When developing use cases, the project team first identifies the _____.
6.
(a) Managers that supervise the use case department
(b) Place where the use case occurs
(c) Time the use case begins
(d) Triggering event that causes the use case to occur
(e) Users who perform the use case.
10 When identifying the major Use Cases, the information needed to identify the Use
7. Cases is contained in the _____.

(a) External entity

(b) JAD session classification
(c) Major steps for each use case
(d) Observation form
(e) Requirements definition.
10 The …………. is a construct that helps analysts to work with users to determine system
8. usage.

(a) Use case (use case)

(b) Actor
(c) Class
(d) Component
(e) Package.
10 The UML …………. diagram provides a variety of symbols and encompasses a number
9. of ideas, all to model the changes which just one object goes through.

(a) Package
(b) Object
(c) State state
(d) Class
(e) Use Case.
11 ………….relationship specifies an optional behavior.
0.
(a) A generalization
(b) An inheritance
(c) An include
(d) An aggregation
(e) An extend.
 11 …………. literally means ‘many forms’, the concept that different objects can respond to
1. the same message in different ways.

(a) Composition
(b) Aggregation
(c) Inheritance
(d) Encapsulation
(e) Polymorphism. (polymorphism)
11 Objects hide their inner workings of their operations from the outside world and from
2. other objects. This is called ………………..

(a) Composition
(b) Encapsulation (encapsulation)
(c) Generalization
(d) Polymorphism
(e) An object.
11 Given below are some statements associated with data flow diagrams. Identify
3. the correct statement from among them.

(a) Data flows in a DFD may be bidirectional

(b) The level 0 DFD only consists of the main process
(c) The level 0 DFD is the same as the context diagram
(d) Data can flow directly from a data store to an external agent
(e) Every process in a DFD must connect to two other processes.
11 Consider the following statements related to UML 2.0.
4.
I. Composite Structure Diagram, Interaction Overview Diagram and Timing Diagram
are new in UML 2.0.
II. A composite structure diagram shows the components of a class as a diagram
nested inside a large class rectangle.
III. UML 2.0 takes the interface concept a step further by allowing one to model the
connection between an interface and a class.
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (II) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
11 Consider the following statements in relation to Role names in associations between
5. two classes:
I. Role names have to be used with association names.
II. If there is a relationship between Company and Person then one could
use Employee or Employer as role names to convey an employment relationship.
 III. The role name is placed on the association near the class that it modifies.
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Both (I) and (III) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above
(d) Only (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
11 The following statements are related to Role/Role names in associations.
6.
I. When one class associates with another, each one usually plays a role within that
association.
II. A Role name may be placed on one or both ends of an association line.
III. If Company and Person are two classes in a class diagram that has an association
relationship, one could use an association name called “employs” or the role names of
“Employer” and “Employee” to convey an employment relationship.
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
11 Multiplicity indicators and their meanings.
7.
I. 0..* Zero or More
II. 1..* One or More
III. 0..1 Zero or One
IV. 4..7,9 4,5,6,7 or 9
V. 1-2 1 or 2
Which of the following is correct?

(a) (I), (II) and (III) above

(b) Both (II) and (III) above
(c) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(e) Both (I) and (V) above.
11 RAD Stands for
8.
(a) Rapid application development tool
(b) Raid application development tool
(c) Research application Development
(d) Research aid design tool
(e) Rapid analysis and design tool.
11 Which of the following are not CASE facilities?
9.
(a) Diagramming tools
(b) Prototyping tools
(c) Quality management tools
(d) Description tools
(e) System analysing tools.
12 The ………… is a group of attributes used to identify a single entity instance.
0.
(a) Candidate key
(b) Concatenated key
(c) Alternate key
(d) Primary key
(e) Subsetting criteria.
12 Traditionally, the only phase of software development where a formal approach is used
1. is

(a) Programming
(b) Design
(c) Requirements
(d) Planning
(e) Testing.
12 Which of the following statements is/are true?
2.
(a) There is no restriction on multiple associations between the same two
classes
(b) There can be multiple associations between the same two classes, but
they should represent different roles
(c) Multiple associations between the same two classes is not allowed
(d) Multiple associations between the same two classes must be aggregated
to one
(e) All of the above.
12 Which of the following statements accurately describes an Information System?
3.
(a) An Information System is an arrangement of people, data processes,
information representation and information technology that interact to
support day-to-day operations in a business
(b) An Information System is a contemporary term that describes the
combination of computer technology with telecommunication technology
(c) An Information System is an arrangement of information representation
and information technology that interacts to support day-to-day operations
in a business
(d) An Information System is an arrangement of data processes, information
representation and information technology that interacts to support day-to-
day operations in a business
(e) An Information System is a contemporary term that describes the
combination of information technology with telecommunication technology.
12 Which of the following is not a step in the linear system development cycle?
4.
(a) Testing design
(b) Prototyping
(c) Requirements definition
(d) Development
(e) Post-installation.
12 Which of the following statement is true?
5.
(a) The problem definition phase produces a document written using technical
terminology of the system analyst
(b) The problem statement is a document that contains the problems faced by
the organization
(c) The problem definition phase produces a document that is a broad
statement of user requirements
(d) The problem definition phase does not specify the resources allocated to
the project
(e) The direction of the project is set by the problem definition phase.
12 Which of the following is not considered during the cost-benefit analysis of an
6. information system development project?

(a) Personnel costs

(b) Computer usage
(c) Training costs
(d) Clients staff costs
(e) Cost of new computer hardware and software.
12 Which of the following is not a fact finding method?
7.
(a) Site visits
(b) Prototyping
(c) Study of similar systems
(d) Business analysis
(e) Joint requirement planning.
12 Which of the following skill may not be required by a systems analyst?
8.
(a) Programming Language skills
(b) Communication skills
(c) Technical skills
(d) Business process re-engineering skills
(e) Management skills.
12 How data store is represented in a data flow diagram?
9.
(a) Circle
(b) Full Open rectangle
(c) Half open rectangle
(d) Full open triangle
(e) Half open triangle.
13 Which of the following statements associated with data flow diagrams is true?
0.
(a) Data flows in a DFD may be bidirectional
(b) The level 0 DFD only consists of the main process
(c) The level 0 DFD is the same as the level 1 diagram
(d) Data can flow directly from a data store to an external agent
(e) Every process in a DFD must connect to two other processes.
13 The objectives for software testing is to
1.
(a) Determine the productivity of programmers
(b) Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
(c) Eliminate every error prior to release
(d) Uncover software errors
(e) Determine the capacity of programmers.
13 The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each
2. program function is operational is called

(a) Black-box testing

(b) Glass-box testing
(c) Grey-box testing
(d) White-box testing
(e) Green box testing.
13 The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a
3. software module is called

(a) Behavioral testing

(b) Black-box testing
(c) Grey-box testing
(d) White-box testing
(e) Red box testing.
13 Black box testing is also called
4.
(a) Specification-based testing
(b) Structural testing
(c) Verification
(d) Unit testing
(e) Stress testing.
13 The four principles of Object-Orientation are
5.
(a) Abstraction, encapsulation, polymorphism and modularity
(b) Abstraction, polymorphism, modularity and hierarchy
(c) Encapsulation, polymorphism, hierarchy and modularity
(d) Abstraction, encapsulation, modularity and hierarchy
(e) Abstraction, generalization, modularity and hierarchy.
13 What is UML language?
6.
(a) Visualizing, specifying, constructing, documenting the artifacts of a
software system
 (b) Visualizing, modeling, constructing, documenting the artifacts of a software
system
(c) Visualizing, documenting, modeling, encapsulating the artifacts of a
software system
(d) Visualizing, modeling, constructing, encapsulating the artifacts of a
software system
(e) Visualizing, aggregation, constructing and polymorphism are the artifacts
of a software system.
13 Which of the followings is not a UML diagram?
7.
(a) Component diagram
(b) State-chart diagram
(c) Deployment diagram
(d) Broadcast diagram
(e) Use case diagram.
13 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an object?
8.
(a) Identity
(b) Behavior
(c) Action
(d) State
(e) Method.
13 What is the other name for Encapsulation?
9.
(a) Information hiding
(b) Interface management
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Aggregation
(e) Generalization.
14 What does a class share?
0.
(a) Attributes, behavior and operations
(b) Identity, behavior and state
(c) Attributes, operations and relationships
(d) Relationships, operations and multiplicity
(e) Identity, mannerism and state.
14 Business use-cases and actors together describe
1.
(a) The static elements of the work in progress
(b) The dynamic elements of the work in progress
(c) The logical view of the work in progress
(d) The business processes that the organization supports
(e) The physical view of the work in progress.
14 Business object models describe
2.
(a) The structure of the business
(b) How the structural elements are used to fulfill the business use cases
 (c) Both the structure of the business and how those structural elements are used to
fulfill the business use cases
(d) The business view that the organization supports
(e) The logical aspects of the business.
14 Which of the following statements is false?
3.
(a) Each business use case in business model is mapped to a subsystem in the analysis
model
(b) Each business worker in business model is mapped to a system actor in the
analysis model
(c) Each business entity in business model is mapped to a class in the analysis model
(d) Each object model in business model is mapped to an interaction diagram in the
analysis model
(e) All of the above.
14 Which of the following statements is true?
4.
(a) A class is an encapsulation of an object
(b) A class represents the hierarchy of an object
(c) A class is an instance of an object
(d) A class is an abstract definition of an object
(e) A class is physical object.
14 Polymorphism can be described as
5.
(a) Hiding many different implementations behind one interface
(b) Inheritance
(c) Aggregation and association
(d) Generalization
(e) Composition.
14 Which of the following phrase best represents a generalization relationship?
6.
(a) “Is a part of”
(b) “Is a kind of”
(c) “Is a replica of”
(d) “Is composed of”
(e) “Is related of”.
14 A subclass inherits is ‘parents’ is
7.
(a) Attributes, links
(b) Attributes, operations
(c) Attributes, operations, relationships
(d) Relationships, operations, links
(e) Methods, links.
14 Requirement artifacts include
8.
(a) Use-case model, glossary and supplementary specification
(b) Use-case model, analysis model and design model
(c) Use-case model, deployment and component models
(d) Activity model, glossary and deployment model
 (e) All of the above.
14 What does an actor represents I in use-case model?
9.
(a) A role that a human, hardware device, or another system can play
(b) The same user that can perform several acts
(c) A physical user regardless of its role
(d) A physical system or a hardware device together with its interfaces
(e) A software product.
15 An initial attempt at defining the pieces/parts of the system and their relationships,
0. organizing these pieces/parts into well-defined layers with explicit dependencies is
called

(a) Use-case analysis

(b) Architectural analysis
(c) Structural analysis
(d) Dependency analysis
(e) Documentation analysis.
15 Which of the following are considered usual steps in systems development life cycle?
1.
(a) Systems Analysis (b) Systems Design
(c) Testing (d) Implementation
(e) All of the above.

15 __________ is the basic objective of systems analysis.

2.
(a) Train managers in mathematical analysis
(b) Understand a complex system and design it in some way
(c) Understand computer hardware by opening the system unit
(d) Implement the system
(e) Run simulation programs.

15 Which one of the following fact-finding techniques is most useful in collecting

3. quantitative data?
(a) Interviews (b) Record reviews
(c) Questionnaires (d) Observations (e) Workshops.

15 Which of the following tool sketches the logical structure of the system based on some
4. criteria?
(a) Decision Table (b) Data Flow Diagram
(c) Decision Tree (d) Structured English
(e) Structured chart.
15 The data dictionary in SDLC contains descriptions of
5.
(a) DFD elements (b) E-R Diagram
(c) Use case (d) Class Diagram
(e) Decision table.

15 Application prototyping follows an organized process or steps that begins with

6. ___________.
(a) Use prototype (b) Review prototype
(c) Develop working model (d) Identify known requirements
(e) Design a prototype.

15 CASE tools are used_______________

7.
(a) To maintain
(b) To get routine work in a development project done
(c) To train users of the system
(d) As a productivity tool in systems development
(e) Not to automate the implementation phase of a development project.

15 Which of the following is a combination of data and logic that represents some real
8. world entity?
(a) Relationship (b) Object (c) Attributes (d) Method
(e) Class.

15 During project inception the intent of the task is

9.
(a) Implementing the project (b) Designing a solution
(c) Analysis of the problem (d) Programming
(e) Maintenance of the project.

16 Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

0.
(a) Interact with other modules
(b) Focuses on just one thing
(c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world
(e) None of the above.

16 Technical feasibility is an evaluation to determine

1.
 (a) Whether the system can provide the right information for the organisation’s
personnel
(b) Whether the existing systems can be upgraded to use the new technology
(c) Whether any restructuring of jobs will be acceptable to the current users
(d) Whether the organisation has the expertise to use the new technology
(e) Whether the technology needed for the proposed system is available.

16 _______________ are not parts of the system. They represent anyone or anything that
2. must interact with the system.
(a) Use
Cases (b) Actors (c) Components (d) Packages
(e) Classes.

16 Which of the following system test determine the length of time the system uses to
3. process transaction data?
(a) Recovery Testing (b) Performance Time Testing
(c) Peak load Test (d) Procedure
Testing (e) Silk Testing.

16 _____________ refers to the process of using software in a live environment in order to

4. find errors.
(a) Verification (b) Clarification (c) Determination
(d) Validation (e) Correctness.

16 A post-implementation review looks into_____________

5.
(a) Goals achieved vis-à-vis targets
(b) User friendliness of the system
(c) Realization of cost-benefits
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) (a), (b) and (c) above.

16 ____________is a variation of simple aggregation. It is a strong type of aggregation

6.
(a) Component aggregation (b) Inheritance
(c) Composition (d) Association
(e) Multiple Inheritance.

16 ______ refers to the number of subordinate modules controlled by a calling module.

7.
(a) Span of control (b) Coupling
 (c) Cohesion (d) Integration (e) Collaborati
on.

16 Which of the following activities are included in the OO system development?

8.
(a) Use case driven analysis (b) Design
(c) Prototyping (d) Component based development
(e) All of the above.

16 Which one the following is not a form of Decision Table?

9.
(a) Limited-Entry (b) Double-Entry
(c) Mixed-Entry (d) Extended-Entry (e) Extended and
Mixed-Entry.

17 __________represents a Whole Part or Composition relationship.

0.
(a) Aggregation (b) Inheritance
(c) Polymorphism (d) Stereotype (e) Association
.

17 The main issue in documentation during the __________ phase is to

1. determine what the system must do.
(a) Analysis (b) Design
(c) Implementation (d) Coding (e) Maintenanc
e.

17 the symbol represents

2.
(a) Aggregation (b) Generalization
(c) Dependency (d) Composition (e) Association.

17 _____ design is a data-flow-based methodology.

3.
(a) Physical (b) Logical (c) Structure
(d) Object Oriented (e) Record based.

17 Which of the following UML diagram provides static structure of a system?

4.
(a) Class diagram (b) Sequence diagram
(c) State diagram (d) Collaboration diagram
(e) Activity diagram.

17 System Testing implies_______________

5.
(a) Testing changes made in an existing or a new program
 (b) Making sure that the new programs do in fact process certain transactions
according to specifications
(c) Running the system with live data by the actual user
(d) Executing a program to check logic changes made in it and with the intention of
finding errors making the program fail
(e) Both (a) and (b) above.

17 _________refers to the number of connections between a “calling” and “called” module

6. and the complexity of these connections.
(a) Module coupling (b) Transaction
(c) Evaluation (d) Cohesion (e) Collaborati
on.

17 Which of the following highlights the feasibility report of an existing system?

7.
(a) Dataflow and processing (b) Information needs
(c) Problem areas (d) Data storage (e) All the
above.

17 Which diagram depicts a pattern of messages coming into and going from an object?
8.
(a) Collaboration diagram (b) Sequence diagram
(c) Class diagram (d) Object
diagram (e) Activity diagram.

17 The process of converting a new or revised system design into an operational one is
9. known as _______________________.
(a) Testing (b) Implementation
(c) Quality Assurance (d) System Analysis
(e) System Design.

18 The rules and semantics of the UML can be expressed in a form known as
0.
(a) Object modeling language (b) Object constraint language
(c) Object specification language (d) Object control language
(e) Object driven language.

18 Which one of the following fact-finding techniques is most useful in collecting

1. quantitative data?

(a) Interviews
(b) Record reviews
(c) Questionnaires
 (d) Observations
(e) Workshops.
18 Which of the following focus on output and processing logic?
2.
(a) Data models
(b) Data-oriented approach
(c) Systems development approach
(d) Process-oriented approach
(e) Information models.
18 Which would be the best representation for “A customer sending in a payment”?
3.
(a) Data
(b) Data flow
(c) Information
(d) Processing logic
(e) Data store.
18 Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of information systems?
4.
(a) Decision support system
(b) Collaboration system
(c) Management information system
(d) Expert system
(e) Knowledge system.
18 Which of the following replicates the decision-making process rather than manipulates
5. information?

(a) Management replication system

(b) Management information system
(c) Expert system
(d) Decision support system
(e) Knowledge Support system.
18 Which approach to development is the most interactive and focuses more on the user
6. and their work?

(a) Modern structured analysis

(b) Information engineering
(c) Structured design
(d) Object-oriented analysis
(e) Agent-based analysis.
18 During the analysis phase, the project team
7.
(a) Describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in
the previous phase
(b) Studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems
used to perform organizational tasks
(c) Determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific
plan for the proposed project
(d) Codes, tests and installs the new system
 (e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.
18 During implementation, the project team
8.
(a) Concentrates on the business aspects of the system and tends to be
oriented to a high level of specificity
(b) Studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems
used to perform organizational tasks
(c) Determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific
plan for the proposed project
(d) Codes, tests and installs the new system
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.
18 Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements?
9.
(a) Interviewing
(b) Rad
(c) Observations
(d) Document analysis
(e) Fact finding technique.
19 The UML is a language for
0.
(a) Visualizing, specifying, constructing, documenting the artifacts of a
software system
(b) Visualizing, modeling, constructing, documenting the artifacts of a software
system
(c) Visualizing, documenting, modeling, encapsulating the artifacts of a
software system
(d) Visualizing, modeling, constructing, encapsulating the artifacts of a
software system
(e) Visualizing, aggregation, constructing and polymorphism are the artifacts
of a software system.
19 A class is a description of a set of objects that share the same
1.
(a) Attributes, behavior and operations
(b) Identity, behavior and state
(c) Attributes, operations and relationships
(d) Relationships, operations and multiplicity
(e) Identity, mannerism and state.
19 Which of the following is the official way a system works as described in organizational
2. documentation?

(a) Formal system

(b) Primary system
(c) Working system
(d) Value system
(e) Secondary system.
19 During the analysis phase, which of the following has as its primary purpose the
3. collection of system requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the
system?

(a) Requirements structuring

(b) Prototyping
(c) JAD
(d) Business process reengineering
(e) Reverse process engineering.
19 Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when
4.
(a) There is a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation
(b) Multiple stakeholders are involved in the system
(c) Tools and data are not readily available to rapidly build systems
(d) User requirements are not well understood
(e) Multiple system analysts are involved in the system.
19 Which of the following has disrupted the belief that managers must make all the
5. decisions?

(a) Distributed databases

(b) Expert systems
(c) Advanced telecommunications networks
(d) Decision support tools
(e) Knowledge system.
19 Which of the following UML diagram that emphasizes the structural organization of the
6. objects which send and receive messages?

(a) Collaboration diagram

(b) Sequence diagram
(c) Activity diagram
(d) Class diagram
(e) Use case diagram.
19 Which of the following represent the capabilities which will be provided to actors by the
7. system?

(a) Use Cases

(b) Objects
(c) States
(d) Classes
(e) Packages.
19 Which of the following relationship between use cases means that the base use case
8. explicitly incorporates the behavior of another use case at a location specified in the
base?

(a) Inheritance
(b) Include
(c) Aggregation
(d) Association
(e) Extends.
19 Which of the following statements is/are the approaches for identifying classes?
9.
(a) The noun phrase approach
(b) The common class patterns approach
(c) The use-case driven approach
(d) The class responsibilities collaboration (CRC) approach
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.
20 An Interaction diagram that emphasizes the time-ordering of messages is called as
0.
(a) Sequence diagram
(b) Collaboration diagram
(c) Activity diagram
(d) State diagram
(e) Class diagram.
20 Which of the following is a measure of the strength of association among objects?
1.
(a) Cohesion
(b) Coupling
(c) Corollary
(d) Interaction
(e) Collaboration.
20 Which of the following represent a built-in extensibility mechanism of the UML?
2.
(a) Note
(b) Meta model
(c) Stereotype
(d) Class
(e) Model constraints.
20 Which of the following is a combination of data and logic that represents some real
3. world entity?

(a) Relationship
(b) Object
(c) Attributes
(d) Method
(e) Class.
20 The rules and semantics of the UML can be expressed in a form known as
4.
(a) Object modeling language
(b) Object constraint language
(c) Object specification language
(d) Object control language
(e) Object driven language.
20 A diagram that shows the hierarchical relationship between the modules of a computer
5. program is called

(a) System flow chart

(b) Design class diagram
(c) Data flow diagram
 (d) Structure chart
(e) E-R diagram.
20 Polymorphism can be described as
6.
(a) Hiding many different implementations behind one interface
(b) Inheritance
(c) Aggregation and association
(d) Generalization
(e) Composition.
20 What phrase best represents a generalization relationship?
7.
(a) “Is a part of”
(b) “Is a kind of”
(c) “Is a replica of”
(d) “Is composed of”
(e) “Is related of”.
20 In use-case model, an actor represents
8.
(a) A role that a human, hardware device, or another system can play
(b) The same user that can perform several acts
(c) A physical user regardless of its role
(d) A physical system or a hardware device together with its interfaces
(e) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) above.
20 Which of the following is the multiplicity notation that represents optional many?
9.
(a) 0..X
(b) 1..X
(c) 1..1
(d) 0..*
(e) 1..*.
21 How is composition represented in a class diagram?
0.
(a) A circle
(b) A rounded rectangle
(c) An ellipse
(d) A solid diamond
(e) A solid circle.
21 From an existing relational database layout; Creating an object model is known as
1.
(a) Bottom-up engineering
(b) Top-down engineering
(c) Backward engineering
(d) Reverse engineering
(e) Forward engineering.
21 Which layer consists of objects with which the user interacts?
2.
(a) View Layer
(b) Business Layer
(c) Access Layer
 (d) Network Layer
(e) Physical Layer.
21 For ease of use, maintainability and reusability what are used to group classes together.
3.
(a) Objects
(b) Packages
(c) States
(d) Use Cases
(e) None of the above.
21 During system analysis phase which tool from the following is not used?
4.
(a) Data Flow Diagram
(b) Structured English
(c) Decision Tree
(d) Decision Table
(e) Structured Chart.
21 From the following CASE Tools which is not a component of CASE Tool?
5.
(a) Diagramming Tools
(b) Code Generators
(c) Information Repository
(d) Debugging Tools
(e) Both (a) and (b) above.
21 For specifying a set of conditions and their corresponding actions the following tabular
6. form is used.

(a) Decision tree

(b) Decision table
(c) Structured english
(d) Data flow diagram
(e) E-R diagram.
21 In SDLC the data dictionary contains descriptions of what from the following
7.
(a) DFD elements
(b) E-R Diagram
(c) Use case
(d) Class Diagram
(e) Decision table.
21 Technical feasibility is to determines whether
8.
(a) The system can provide the right information for the organization’s personnel
(b) The existing system can be upgraded to use the new technology
(c) Any restructuring of jobs will be acceptable to the current users
(d) The organization has the expertise to use the new technology
(e) The technology needed for the proposed system is available.
21 Chose the correct option from the following with respect to prototyping
9.
(a) It is most practical for large scale projects
(b) It emphasizes getting the design right the first time
 (c) It is the execution of the standard systems development cycle using CASE tools
(d) It cannot be used when the requirements are not clear
(e) It involves an iterative and interactive development process with extensive end use
involvement.
22 Chose the most correct option for an association
0.
(a) It must be described by nouns
(b) It must have attributes
(c) It must be based on events
(d) It must have a 1:M component
(e) It must be described by a verb or nouns.
22 During the cost-benefit analysis of an information system development project, which of
1. the following is not considered?

(a) Personnel costs

(b) Clients staff costs
(c) Training costs
(d) Computer usage
(e) Cost of new computer hardware and software.
22 Black box testing is also known as
2.
(a) Unit testing
(b) Structural testing
(c) Verification
(d) Specification-based testing
(e) Stress testing.
22 From the followings pick the one which is not a UML diagram?
3.
(a) Component diagram
(b) State-chart diagram
(c) Deployment diagram
(d) Use case diagram
(e) Broadcast diagram.
22 What does a class share?
4.
(a) Attributes, behavior and operations
(b) Attributes, operations and relationships
(c) Identity, behavior and state
(d) Relationships, operations and multiplicity
(e) Identity, mannerism, and state.
22 The business object models describes
5.
(a) The structure of the business
(b) How the structural elements are used to fulfill the business use cases
(c) Both the structure of the business and how those structural elements are
used to fulfill the business use cases
(d) The business view that the organization supports
(e) The logical aspects of the business.
22 To represents a generalization relationship, What phrase is best to use?
6.
(a) “Is a kind of”
(b) “Is a part of”
(c) “Is a replica of”
(d) “Is composed of”
(e) “Is related of”.
22 The test cases that are used to demonstrate that each program function is operational is
7. known as

(a) White-box testing

(b) Glass-box testing
(c) Grey-box testing
(d) Black-box testing
(e) Green box testing.
22 Each statement in Column A has to be matched with the most appropriate one from
8. Column B

Column A Column B
(i) End user A A person who analyses the way the system works and
its problems
(ii) Business B A person who needs the system to carry out his
Analyst responsibilities within the organization
(iii) User C People responsible for organizing and allocating
resources
(iv) Management D A user who develops some of the computer parts of the
system
(v) System E A person analyzing a business at the subject level
Analyst
Which of the following represent the correct matchings?

(a) (i) & E, (ii) & B, (iii) & C, (iv) & A, (v) & D
(b) (i) & B, (ii) & C, (iii) & A, (iv) & D, (v) & E
(c) (i) & C, (ii) & A, (iii) & D, (iv) & E, (v) & B
(d) (i) & A, (ii) & D, (iii) & E, (iv) & B, (v) & C
(e) (i) & D, (ii) & E, (iii) & B, (iv) & C, (v) & A.
22 The below are some statements associated with system development. Identify
9. the Incorrect statement among them

(a) A scenario is a description of a process in the subject world

(b) Terms used in the subject world must be included in a glossary of terms in
the requirement specification
(c) Subject world and the System world help to bridge the gap between the
Usage
world and the Development world
(d) The design model is associated with the System world
 (e) The development process centres on converting an initial usage world
model through
subject and system models, to a computer system.
23 There is an incorrect statement associated with process descriptions identify it from the
0. below given

(a) Data flow diagrams are very effective tools for showing the logic inside the
processes
(b) A decision table can be used to specify the decision logic in a process
(c) A structured English specification is built using the three fundamental
constructs of
structured programming
(d) Natural English is too imprecise and subject to misinterpretation to be used
in specifying process logic
(e) Blocking and indentation are used to set off the beginning and ending of
constructs
& enhance readability.
23 From the following identify the one which can’t be stored in CASE repository.
1.
(a) Data
(b) Diagrams
(c) Knowledge
(d) Specifications
(e) Descriptions.
23 Consider the following Use Case diagram:
2.

What are the system actors in the given Use Case diagram?

(a) Clerk, Manager, Customer

(b) Clerk, Manager, Bank network
(c) Clerk, Manager
(d) Clerk, Manager, Bank network, Customer
(e) Manager, Bank network, Customer.
23 Consider the following five models.
3.
A. Subject world model B. System world model
C. Requirements model D. Analysis model
 E. Design Model
Considering the above models, which option from the below describe how the system
works now in terms of the subject world, what users need in terms of the subject world
and the required computer system in terms of the system world?

(a) D, A, C
(b) A, C, E
(c) D, C, E
(d) B, D, C
(e) B, A, C.
23 Entities, Attributes and Relationships are associated with
4.
(a) Logical concepts of data
(b) Physical concepts of data
(c) Logical and physical concepts of data
(d) Persons of an organization
(e) Both (b) and (d) above.
23 Towards the failure of a particular systems development projects, which from the
5. following given factors do/does not necessarily contribute?

(a) Insufficient testing

(b) A project that spans multiple departments
(c) Inadequate or improper systems design
(d) A lack of top management support
(e) A lack of management and user involvement.
23 With respect to viewpoint oriented analysis of a system, which of the following is not an
6. advantage?

(a) It allows the designer to incorporate different user views and requirements
into the system
(b) It provides an effective way of structuring non-functional requirements
(c) It helps the analyst to identify conflicts among different view points
(d) It helps to make different viewpoints independent of one another
(e) It allows the analyst to identify the users of the system.
23 From among the following, identify the legal data flows in a data flow diagram.
7.
(a) External entity to another external entity
(b) Data Store to a process
(c) Data Store to an external entity
(d) External entity to a data store
(e) Data store to a data store.
23 To represent processes or work to be done, the shape used in Gane and Sarson
8. representation is:

(a) A rectangle
(b) A rounded rectangle
(c) A square
(d) A circle
 (e) An ellipse.
23 Given below are some statements associated with data flow diagrams. Identify the
9. correct statement among them.

(a) Data flows in a DFD may be bidirectional

(b) The level 0 DFD only consists of the main process
(c) The level 0 DFD is the same as the context diagram
(d) Data can flow directly from a data store to an external agent
(e) Every process in a DFD must connect to two other processes.
24 Which of the following is a fact-finding technique?
0.
(a) Quality assurance
(b) Prototyping
(c) Systems requirement specification
(d) Sampling of existing documents
(e) Rapid application development.
24 The strongest quality management action that a systems analysis team can perform is
1.
(a) Structured programming (b) Structured walkthrough
(c) Modular programming (d) Bottom-up development
(e) Object oriented programming.

24 Which of the following describes bottom-up design?

2.
(a) Critical systems identification
(b) General systems thinking
(c) Looking at the big picture across the company and breaking it down into smaller
parts or subsystems
(d) The identification of processes that need computerization as they arise
(e) All of the above.

24 Which of the following is not a system conversion strategy?

3.
(a) Direct changeover (b) Parallel conversion
(c) Deferred conversion (d) Phase-in conversion
(e) Phase-out conversion.

24 When should the make-or-buy decision be made?

4.
(a) During a physical system design (b) Prior to system analysis
(c) During conceptual system design (d) During system analysis
(e) During a logical system design.
24 Which among the following is not a level of quality assurance?
5.
(a) Testing (b) Verification (c) Validation (d) Observation (
e) Bug tracking.

24 The charts which mark significant points in the development of a project are
6.
(a) PERT (b) Milestone charts (c) Bar charts
(d) CPM (e) Structured charts.

24 Which among the following refers to the strength of the relationship between modules in
7. a system?
(a) Coupling (b) Cohesion
(c) Span of control (d) Modularity and
partitioning (e) Controlling.

24 When the question measures what the analyst intended to measure, the question is
8. called:
(a) Closed (b) Open-
ended (c) Inconsistent (d) Valid (e) Invalid.

24 Which of these describe a guideline for selecting the output method?

9.
(a) The frequency of the output is of no concern in the selection of an output method.
(b) The preferences of the user are the only consideration when selecting an output
method.
(c) The content of the output is irrelevant when selecting an output method.
(d) The content of the output must be considered as interrelated to the output method.
(e) The content of the output is relevant when selecting on output method.

25 Which among the following is not an activity of requirement determination?

0.
(a) Requirement Anticipation (b) Requirement Investigation
(c) Requirement Specification (d) Requirement Gathering
(e) All of the above.

25 A data dictionary is a part of a larger collection of project information called a

1.
(a) Repository (b) Data flow diagram
(c) Metadata file
(d) Data structure (e) Decision table.

25 Technical detailed specifications of all system elements are the product of

2.
(a) Logical design (b) Physical design (c) Analysis
 (d) Implementation (e) Maintenance.

25 During the analysis phase, the project team

3.
(a) Describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in the
previous phase
(b) Studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems used to
perform organizational tasks
(c) Determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific plan for
the proposed project
(d) Codes, tests, and installs the new system
(e) None of the above.

25 Which of the following reflects the project manager's "best guess" of the amount of time
4. an activity actually requires for completion?
(a) Optimistic time (b) Pessimistic time (c) Realistic
time
(d) Logical time (e) Physical time.

25 Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction and increased speed of activity are
5. examples of
(a) Intangible costs (b) Tangible costs
(c) Tangible benefits (d) Intangible benefits
(e) None of the above.

25 The willingness and ability of management, employees, customers, suppliers and so-
6. forth of an organization to operate, use and support a proposed system is known as
(a) Economic feasibility (b) Cost/benefit analysis
(c) Technological feasibility (d) Operational feasibility
(e) Specification feasibility.

25 Which of the following describes the changes made to a system to add new features or
7. to improve performance?
(a) Corrective maintenance (b) Adaptive maintenance
(c) Perfective maintenance (d) Preventive maintenance
(e) Productive maintenance.

25 Prototyping is most useful for requirement determination

8.
(a) When there is a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation
 (b) When multiple stakeholders are involved in the system
(c) When tools and data are not readily available to rapidly build systems
(d) When user requirements are not well understood
(e) When multiple stake holders are not involved in the system.

25 The lowest level of decomposition for a data flow diagram is a

9.
(a) Primitive DFD (b) Unit DFD (c) Context
DFD
(d) Level-0 DFD (e) Level-1 DFD.

26 Which of the following represents the correct sequence of testing activities?

0.
(a) Unit testing, system testing, module testing, integration testing, acceptance testing
(b) Unit testing, volume testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing
(c) Unit testing, integration testing, system testing, module testing, acceptance testing
(d) Unit testing, module testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing
(e) Unit testing, system testing, integration testing, volume testing, acceptance
testing.

26 Which of the following is a main component of a decision tree?

1.
(a) Entity (b) Process (c) Action (d) Condition

(e) All of the above.

26 Column A contains some key words associated with Object-oriented analysis. A word
2. from
Column A has to be matched with the most appropriate phrase from Column B.

Column A Column B
(i) Method A Allowing developers to define new
classes by reusing existing classes and
adding new data and/or methods to
them.
(ii) Attribute B A functionality of an object.
(iii) Inheritance C Combine process and data into a single
object.
(iv) Object D An instance of a class
(v) Encapsulation E A property of a(n) class/object
 The correct matching is
(a) (i) & B, (ii) & A, (iii) & E, (iv) & D, (v)& C
(b) (i) & C, (ii) & A, (iii) & E, (iv) & B, (v) & D
(c) (i) & B, (ii) & D, (iii) & A, (iv) & E, (v)& C
(d) (i) & A, (ii) & C, (iii) & D, (iv) & B, (v) & E
(e) (i) & B, (ii) & E, (iii) & A, (iv) & D, (v) & C.

26 Which of the following activities are included in the OO system development?

3.
(a) Use case driven analysis (b) Design (c) Prototyping
(d) Component based development (e) All the above.

26 Which of the following diagram visualizes the distribution of components across the
4. enterprise?
(a) Component diagram (b) Use case diagram
(c) Deployment diagram (d) Class diagram
(e) Collaboration diagram.

26 Which of the following represent a built-in extensibility mechanism of the UML?

5.
(a) Note (b) Meta model (c) Stereotype
(d) Class (e) Model constraints.

26 The rules and semantics of the UML can be expressed in a form known as
6.
(a) Object modeling language (b) Object constraint language
(c) Object specification language (d) Object control language
(e) Object driven language.

26 ---<> the symbol represents

7.
(a) Aggregation (b) Generalization (c) Dependency (d) Composition
(e) Association.

26 Creating an object model from an existing relational database layout is referred to as

8.
(a) Forward engineering (b) Backward engineering
(c) Reverse engineering (d) Top-down engineering
(e) Bottom-up engineering.

26 The process of looking for patterns to document is called

9.
 (a) Pattern (b) Antipattern (c) Framework
s
(d) Pattern Template (e) Pattern mining.

27 Which of the following are not parts of the system. They represent anyone or anything
0. that must interact with the system.
(a) Use
Cases (b) Actors (c) Components (d) Packages (
e) Classes.

27 In which of the following phases of the system development life cycle, elimination of
1. errors in the system and tuning the system for any variations in its working environment
will be done?

(a) System maintenance

(b) System specification
(c) System design
(d) System development
(e) System testing.
27 The willingness and ability of management, employees, customers, suppliers and so-
2. forth of an organization to operate, use and support a proposed system. What do you
mean by the above?

(a) Economic feasibility

(b) Operational feasibility
(c) Cost/benefit analysis
(d) Specification feasibility
(e) Technological feasibility.
27 Which of the following factors does not necessarily contribute to the failure of particular
3. systems development projects?

(a) Insufficient testing

(b) Inadequate or improper systems design.
(c) A project that spans multiple departments
(d) A lack of top management support
(e) A lack of management and user involvement.
27 Consider the following activities in connection with software development:
4.
I. Use a problem-solving approach.
II. Establish phases and activities.
III. Establish standards.
Which of the above is/are the software development principle(s)?

(a) Only (I) above

(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) & (II) above
 (d) Both (I) & (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
27 Which shows the top level function defined to cover the scope of the application?
5.
(a) Data flow diagram
(b) Decision table
(c) Context diagram
(d) Matrix plotting
(e) Flow charting.
27 Which of the following is correct statement with respect to data flow diagrams?
6.
(a) Replace the job of systems analysts
(b) Do not allow every function to work at the same time
(c) Can be automatically generated by computer aided software engineering
tools
(d) Does not support object oriented methods
(e) Describes how data flows from one logical processing unit to another.
27 Which of the following is not considered as benefit of prototyping?
7.
(a) Provide rapid feedback from the user to the designer
(b) Help validate requirements with fewer errors
(c) Enhance designer and user understanding of what system should
accomplish
(d) Bring about meaningful user involvement in systems analysis and design
(e) System testing can be automated.
27 What does Economic feasibility looks/determine at?
8.
(a) Looks at performance aspects of the system
(b) Looks at acceptances of the system within the organization
(c) Looks at the technical aspects of the system
(d) Determines whether the investment needed to implement the system will be
recovered
(e) Determines whether the existing system can be upgraded to use a new
technology.
27 Facts gathering techniques play a crucial role in systems development projects. Which
9. technique would you highly recommend for a situation where very accurate answers
and clarifications are needed?

(a) Questionnaire
(b) Record inspection
(c) Interviews
(d) Observation
(e) E-mail.
28 Who is not involved in joint application development who uses workshops with the
0. following personnel?

(a) System owners

(b) System designers
 (c) System operators
(d) System users
(e) System analysts.
28 What is the Delivarable of Requirements Analysis?
1.
(a) Interfaces
(b) Design specification
(c) User manual
(d) Requirements specification
(e) Executable file.
28 What is the other name of context diagram?
2.
(a) Level 1 diagram
(b) Level 2 diagram
(c) Level 0 diagram
(d) Level 3 diagram
(e) Level n diagram.
28 Which of the definition of elements in system a data dictionary contain?
3.
(a) Data flows
(b) Processes
(c) Data stores
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) All (a), (b) and (c) above.
28 Which media is available for providing computer based output?
4.
(a) MICR
(b) OCR
(c) Punched cards
(d) Optical Bar
(e) COM.
28 Which cohesion determines the elements are all executed at the same time?
5.
(a) Functional cohesion
(b) Sequential cohesion
(c) Temporal cohesion
(d) Logical cohesion
(e) Coincidental cohesion.
28 Which prototype is a simulation of interface but contains no functionality?
6.
(a) Vertical prototype
(b) Horizontal prototype
(c) Analysis prototype
(d) Hybrid prototype
(e) Domain prototype.
28 Who produced CRC cards?
7.
(a) Booch
(b) Sally Shaler
 (c) Jim Rumbaugh
(d) Peter Coad
(e) Wirfs-Brock.
28 Which will help analysts to work with users to determine system usage?
8.
(a) Actor
(b) Component
(c) Class
(d) Package
(e) Use case.
28 Which will provides a variety of symbols and encompasses a number of ideas, all to
9. model the changes which just one object goes through in UML?

(a) Package
(b) Object
(c) Class
(d) Use case
(e) State.
29 Which relationship in use case diagram represents an optional behavior?
0.
(a) A generalization
(b) An include
(c) An extend
(d) An aggregation
(e) An inheritance.
29 Which of the following statements incorrect regarding Object Oriented Methodologies?
1.
(a) Gane and Sarson, Shlaer Mellor and Extreme Programming are object
oriented Methodologies
(b) RUP activities emphasize the creation and maintenance of models rather
than paper documents
(c) Establishment of the project plan and the architecture is done during the
Elaboration phase of RUP
(d) During the Elaboration phase, the focus turns towards analysis and design
(e) During inception, it is common to create an executable prototype that
serves as a proof of concept.
29 Considering the following statement in relation to Use Case modeling, identify the
2. correct statement.

(a) Use Case is a construct that helps analysts to work with users to determine
system usage
(b) Extends relationship shows the compulsory behavior of a Use Case
(c) A scenario is a collection of use cases initiated by an actor
(d) Scenario is another term used for a Use Case
(e) Actors represent software that must interact with the system.
29 Consider the following multiplicity indicators and their meanings:
3.
Indicator Meaning
 I. 0..* Zero or More.
II. 1..* One or More.
III. 0..1 Zero or One.
IV. 4..7,9 4,5,6,7 or 9.
V. 1-2 1 or 2.
Which of the above are correct?

(a) Both (II) and (III) above

(b) (I), (II) and (III) above
(c) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (II),(III) and (IV) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above.
29 Which UML diagram that adds the dimension of time to object interactions?
4.
(a) Communication Diagram
(b) Interaction Overview Diagram
(c) Composite Structure Diagram
(d) Sequence diagram
(e) Activity Diagram.
29 Which UML diagram that has the overall framework of an activity diagram and
5. interaction diagrams as activities?

(a) Composite Structure Diagram

(b) Interaction Overview Diagram
(c) Sequence Diagram
(d) Activity Diagram
(e) Communication Diagram.
29 Which diagram is like a flow chart which shows the steps, decision points and
6. branches?

(a) Sequence Diagram

(b) Composite Structure Diagram
(c) Interaction Overview Diagram
(d) Communication Diagram
(e) Activity Diagram.
29 Which UML diagram that shows how objects are organized according to the links
7. among objects?

(a) Activity Diagram

(b) Sequence Diagram
(c) Interaction Overview Diagram
(d) Communication Diagram
(e) Component Diagram.
29 Which of the following statements is correct regarding identifying Classes and Objects
8. and drawing a Class diagram and an Object diagram?
 (a) Entity and Boundary are the only two primary Class stereotypes in UML
2.0
(b) An aggregation relationship is discovered in a Class diagram when one
finds classes in the initial model which have common attributes and
operations
(c) Class diagrams show general definitional information about classes
whereas an Object diagrams are used to model specific instances of
classes at specific instants in time
(d) A class is a set of objects which share common attributes and behaviour
(e) A composition relationship is discovered in class diagram when one finds
classes in the initial model which have common attributes and operations.
29 Which symbol is used to represent Protected visibility in UML?
9.
(a) +
(b) -
(c) @
(d) #
(e) &.
30 Which falls into the modular programming?
0.
(a) Fortran
(b) C
(c) Modula 2
(d) Small talk
(e) Modula 3.
30 Which of the following is not a key information system component?
1.
(a) Design stability
(b) Data
(c) Data flow
(d) Processing logic
(e) Information.
30 Which of the following focus on output and processing logic?
2.
(a) Data models
(b) Data-oriented approach
(c) System development approach
(d) Process-oriented approach
(e) Information models.
30 Which would be the best representation for “A customer sending a payment”?
3.
(a) Data
(b) Data flow
(c) Information
(d) Processing logic
(e) Data store.
30 Which among the following describe the steps for computing income tax?
4.
(a) Data
(b) Data flow
(c) Information
(d) Processing logic
(e) Data store.
30 To which component of Data Flow Diagram the following Product number, quantity in
5. stock, and the supplier's name belong to?

(a) Data
(b) Data flow
(c) Information
(d) Processing logic
(e) Entity.
30 Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of information systems?
6.
(a) Decision support system
(b) Collaboration system
(c) Management information system
(d) Expert system
(e) Knowledge system.
30 Which of the following replicates the decision-making process rather than manipulation
7. of information?

(a) Management replication system

(b) Management information system
(c) Expert system
(d) Decision support system
(e) Knowledge Support sytem.
30 Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding the SDLC?
8.
(a) Every organization uses a slightly different life cycle model
(b) The life cycle is sequential
(c) In the systems development life cycle, it is possible to complete some
activities in one phase in parallel with some activities of another phase
(d) Sometimes the life cycle is iterative
(e) All of the above.
30 What does the Project team does during the analysis phase?
9.
(a) Describes the functional features of the system chosen for development in
the previous phase
(b) Studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems
used to perform organizational tasks
(c) Determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific
plan for the proposed project
(d) Codes, tests, and installs the new system
(e) All of the above.
31 What does the Project team does during the implementation phase?
0.
(a) Concentrates on the business aspects of the system and tends to be
oriented to a high level of specificity
(b) Studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems
used to perform organizational tasks
(c) Determines the scope of the proposed systems and produces a specific
plan for the proposed project
(d) Codes, tests, and installs the new system
(e) All of the above.
31 Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements?
1.
(a) Interviewing
(b) RAD
(c) Observations
(d) Document analysis
(e) Fact finding technique.
31 What does the following statement correspond to?
2.
“Specifying that only people who satisfy certain criteria receive a questionnaire”.

(a) Purposeful sample

(b) Convenient sample
(c) Random sample
(d) Stratified sample
(e) Purposeless sample.
31 When comparing questionnaires to interviews, questionnaires:
3.
(a) Are rated high in terms of information richness
(b) Are rated high in terms of expense
(c) Are limited in terms of chances for follow up
(d) Have an active and involved subject
(e) Are rated high in terms of conditions.
31 Which of the following has group members, who work alone to generate ideas, and then
4. pools the ideas under the guidance of a trained facilitator?

(a) JAD
(b) RAD
(c) Nominal Group Technique
(d) Analytical clustering
(e) SAD.
31 Which of the following is the official way that a system works as described in
5. organizational documentation?

(a) Formal system

(b) Primary system
(c) Working system
(d) Value system
(e) Secondary system.
31 During the analysis phase, which of the following has the primary purpose of collecting
6. system requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system?

(a) Requirements structuring

(b) Prototyping
(c) JAD
(d) Business process reengineering
(e) Reverse process engineering.
31 Referencing a JAD session, which person usually attends the sessions only at the very
7. beginning or at the end?

(a) JAD session leader

(b) Scribe
(c) Manager
(d) Sponsor
(e) Clerk.
31 When Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination?
8.
(a) There is a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation
(b) Multiple stakeholders are involved in the system
(c) Tools and data are not readily available to rapidly build systems
(d) User requirements are not well understood
(e) Multiple system analysts are involved in the system.
31 Which of the following has disrupted the belief that managers must make all the
9. decisions?

(a) Distributed databases

(b) Expert systems
(c) Advanced telecommunications networks
(d) Decision support tool
(e) Knowledge system.
32 “A detailed model that shows the overall structure of organizational data while being
0. independent of any database management system or other implementation
considerations” What does the above statement best describe?

(a) Conceptual data model

(b) Logical data model
(c) Process model
(d) Logic model
(e) Physical model.
32 During which phase, database and file definitions are prepared?
1.
(a) Initiation and planning
(b) Design
(c) Implementation
(d) Analysis
(e) Testing.
32 Which of the following techniques and notations would you find within UML?
2.
(a) Use cases
(b) Class diagrams
(c) State diagrams
(d) Activity diagrams
(e) All of the above.
32 Which of the following extends a use case by adding new behaviors or actions?
3.
(a) An extend relationship
(b) An include relationship
(c) A join relationship
(d) A merge relationship
(e) A sort relationship.
32 “A condition that encompasses an object's properties and the values those properties”.
4. What does the above statement describe about?

(a) Event
(b) State
(c) Behavior
(d) Action
(e) Rule.
32 Which technique hides the internal implementation details of an object from its external
5. view?

(a) Incorporation
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Encapsulation

(d) Generalization
(e) Persistence.
32 Which of the following is the multiplicity notation that represents optional many?
6.
(a) 0..X
(b) 1..X
(c) 1..1
(d) 0..*
(e) 1..*.
32 What do you call when subclasses are generalized and the class they are generalized
7. into?

(a) Super class

(b) Extended class
(c) Abstract class
(d) Concrete class
(e) Includes class.
32 How the basis of a generalization is specified on a class diagram?
8.
(a) Extends relationship
(b) Discriminator
(c) Event
(d) Message
(e) Incriminator.
32 Which would best describe the process of replacing a method inherited from a
9. superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass?

(a) Inheritance
(b) Instance restriction
(c) Encapsulation
(d) Overriding
(e) Overloading.
33 How is composition represented on a class diagram?
0.
(a) A circle
(b) A rounded rectangle
(c) An ellipse
(d) A solid diamond
(e) A solid circle.
33 Information systems that take information captured by transaction processing systems
1. and produce reports that management needs for planning and control are called
(a) Executive information systems (b) Decision
support systems
(c) Management information systems (d) Office
support systems
(e) Transaction processing systems.

33 CASE stands for

2.
(a) Computer application system environment (b) Computer-aided system
engineering
(c) Computer application system engineering (d) Computer-aided system
environment
(e) Computer applied software engineering.

33 Which of the following is NOT a reason why an effective systems analyst needs to know
3. how an organization works?
(a) Some analysts take time to specialize in a specific industry
(b) Knowing the people who work for a company increases an analyst's
effectiveness
(c) An organization may require an analyst to make management decisions
 (d) An analyst with deep understanding in a type of business can solve complex
problems
(e) An analyst involved in designing databases.

33 Techniques are used to complete specific system development activities. The following
4. are some example of the techniques except
(a) Project planning (b) Business functions
(c) System construction and implementation (d) System analysis and system
design
(e) System support.

33 The method that is used to assess economic feasibility is called

5.
(a) Analysis of the time value of money (b) Cost/benefit analysis
(c) Sources and uses of funds analysis (d) Development cost analysis
(e) Implementation cost analysis.

33 The major activities that make up the implementation phase are

6.
(a) Construct software components
(b) Verify, test, and convert data
(c) Design and integrate the system controls
(d) Train users and document the system
(e) Install the system.

33 Which of the following approaches to system development develops the application

7. architecture plan?
(a) Object-oriented (b) Information
engineering (c) Structured
(d) Integrated development environments (e) Both (a) and (c) above.

33 The data entities from the entity-relationship diagram correspond to

8.
(a) Data stores on the DFDs (b) Relationships in the class
diagram
(c) Modules of top-down programming (d) Elements of the CASE tool
(e) Modules of bottom-up programming.

33 Which of the following approaches to system development uses elements which are
9. capable of responding to messages?
(a) Structured (b) Object-oriented
 (c) Information engineering (d) Integrated development
environments
(e) Agent based.

34 Which is normally the most expensive method of fact-finding technique?

0.
(a) Building prototypes (b) Observing business
processes
(c) Reviewing existing reports (d) Interviewing users
(e) All of the above.

34 The type of prototype used during the analysis phase is the

1.
(a) Design prototype (b) Evolving prototype (c) Discovery prototype
(d) Functioning prototype (e) Reviewing prototype.

34 A review technique to test the correctness of the documents produced during analysis is
2. called
(a) Code reading (b) Joint application
design
(c) Structured walkthrough (d) Prototyping (e) Code writing.

34 The figure is an example of a(n)

3.
(a) Context diagram (b) DFD fragment (c) Diagram Zero
(d) Event-partitioned system model (e) E-R diagram.

34 The techniques and models used in the Information Engineering SDLC are ____ than
4. those used in the traditional structured analysis SDLC.
(a) Less tightly integrated (b) More tightly integrated
(c) Simpler (d) Better suited to small systems
(e) Better suited to large systems.

34 Concepts that are held in common between the traditional approach and the object-
5. oriented approach include
(a) Processes and objects (b) Processes and messages
(c) Events and processes (d) Things and events
(e) Events and messages.

34 The object-oriented approach to information systems development describes activities

6. as
(a) A collection of processes
 (b) Processes that interact with data entities
(c) Processes that accept inputs and produce outputs
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) All (a), (b) and (c) above.

34 Implementation classes are classes that

7.
(a) Show implementation rules (b) Describe the user interface
(c) Describe the computer nodes (d) Identify the implemented files
(e) Describe the database interactions.

34 A message descriptor in a sequence diagram includes which of the following

8. components?
(a) True/false condition, return-value, and activities
(b) Return-value, message-name, and parameter list
(c) Message-name, parameter-list, and sequence number
(d) Action-expression, message-name, and parameter list
(e) Return-value, parameter-list, and action-expression.

34 The first step in designing a system with structured design is to identify which processes
9. are internal to the system. This is done with a(n)
(a) Function list (b) Event
table (c) Automation system boundary
(d) Use case
diagram (e) Sequence diagram.

35 A diagram that shows the hierarchical relationship between the modules of a computer
0. program is called a
(a) System flow chart (b) Design class
diagram (c) Data flow diagram
(d) Structure chart (e) E-R diagram.

35 A measure of the internal strength of a module in a structure chart is called

1.
(a) Module integrity (b) Module coupling (c) Module functionality
(d) Module cohesion (e) Module compatibility.

35 A diagram that shows the major subsystems in an object-oriented system is called a

2.
 (a) System flowchart (b) Design
class diagram
(c) Package diagram
(d) Subsystem diagram (e) Component diagrams.

35 The designing phase includes the following activities, EXCEPT

3.
(a) Designing and integrating the network (b) Designing the application
architecture
(c) Designing the user interface (d) Designing the project team
(e) Designing the databases.

35 A common problem with development projects is scope creep. This refers to

4.
(a) Rating the importance of each function
(b) Deferring some functions until later
(c) Determining the priority of each function
(d) Requests to add new functions after decisions have been finalized
(e) All of the above.

35 An association class must be created to store the attributes of a ____ relationship

5. among two other classes.
(a) One-to-one (b) One-to-many (c) Many-to-one
(d) Many-to-many (e) One-to-all.

35 Which approach to development is the most interactive and focuses more on the user
6. and their work?
(a) Modern structured analysis (b) Information engineering
(c) Structured design (d) Object-oriented analysis
(e) Agent-based analysis.

35 Designing the inputs and outputs involved when the user interacts with the computer to
7. carry out a task helps to create the
(a) User requirements (b) System interface (c) User
interface
(d) Task boundary (e) Database interface.

35 A ____ is an example of a function or requirement that is well suited to prototyping.

8.
(a) Non-interactive program that automatically generates orders to suppliers
(b) Module that schedules deliveries using a complex cost minimization algorithm
 (c) Program that generates thousands of electronic payments per hour
(d) Technical feasibility for some system functions is uncertain
(e) None of the above.

35 A set of classes that are specifically designed to be reused in a wide variety of

9. programs, is referred to as
(a) Object framework (b) Foundation classes (c) Interface classes
(d) Methodology (e) All of the above.

36 ____ tests the interaction among components as specified during the high-level
0. (architectural) design phase of the system development life cycle.
(a) Driver testing (b) Integration
testing (c) System testing
(d) Unit testing (e) Module testing.