06-07-2025

4015CMD303021250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find equivalent resistance A and B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 60 V, –40 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

3) A current of 3.2 mA is flowing through a conductor, then number of free electrons moving per sec
is :-

(1) 2 × 1019
(2) 2 × 1016
(3) 2 × 1018
(4) 2 × 1017

4) The V-I graph for a conductor makes an angle θ with the Y-axis, where V denotes voltage and I

denotes current. The resistance of the conductor is given by :-

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

5) Read the following statements :

S1 : An object shall weigh more at pole than at equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S2 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S3 : It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a spring balance.
S4 : It shall weigh more at the pole than at equator when weighed using a spring balance.
Which of the above statements is /are correct ?

(1) S1 and S2
(2) S1 and S4
(3) S2 and S3
(4) S2 and S4

6) Ratio of weight of a man in a stationary lift and weight of a man in a lift moving downward with an
acceleration is 3 : 2 then acceleration of lift is :

(1) g / 3
(2) g / 2
(3) g
(4) 2g

7) A current flows in a wire of circular cross-section with the free electrons travelling with a mean
drift velocity . If an equal current flows in a wire of same material of twice the radius, new mean
drift velocity is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

8)

The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from
A to B then :
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

9) A force F = kt is applied to a block A as shown in figure, where t is time in second. The force is
applied at t = 0, when the system was at rest. Which of the following graphs correctly gives the

frictional force on block A as a function of time ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 m/s. The man holding it, can exert
maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) The resistance of wire at temperature t°C and 0°C are related by:-

(1) Rt = R0(1 + αt)

(2) Rt = R0(1 – αt)
(3) Rt = R0 (1 + αt)
2

(4) Rt = R0 (1 – αt)
2
12) If a wire is stretched to make it 1% longer, the % change in resistance :-

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 5.6%
(4) 4%

13) A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the

figure. The current I, in the circuit will be :-

(1)
A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 2 A

14) The potential difference between points A and B in a section of a circuit shown is :-

(1) 5 volts
(2) –13 volt
(3) 0 volts
(4) +13 volts

15) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 + 2t + 5 (in SI). The charge
flowing through the cross-section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec. is :-

(1) 22 C
(2) 20 C
(3) 18 C
(4) 5 C

16) A kite of mass m is held stationary in the sky. The net force on the kite is :-

(1) Zero
(2) mg
(3) –mg
(4) 2 mg

17) The effective resistance in the adjoining figure between points X and Y will be -
(1) 4Ω
(2) 2Ω
(3) 8Ω
(4) 16Ω

18) The equivalent resistance between points X and Y in the following diagram will be -

(1) 10.6 Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 16Ω
(4) 8Ω

19) Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is
uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after switch is closed is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3) q
(4) 2 q

20) A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric
constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as
to fill one fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

The angular speed of rotation of earth for which weightlessness is made at pole, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

22) A copper wire of resistance 4Ω is stretched to thrice its original length. The resistance of
stretched wire becomes.

(1) 4 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 16 times
(4) 25 times

23) A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectric as shown in figure. This capacitor is
connected across a battery. The graph which shows the variation of electric field (E) and distance (x)

from left plate :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In the network of resistors shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalents resistance between A

and B is :-

(1) 54 ohm
(2) 18 ohm
(3) 36 ohm
(4) 9 ohm

25) The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of current is shown here. The current i

will be

(1) 3 A
(2) 13 A
(3) 23 A
(4) –3 A

26) The surface is frictionless then the ratio of T1 and T2 is :

(1)
(2)
(3) 1 : 5
(4) 5 : 1

27) A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The

momentum acquired is

(1) 280 Ns
(2) 140 Ns
(3) 70 Ns
(4) 210 Ns

28) A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of
time T. It begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a
function of time. The curve is a semicircle then, correct expression for u :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Consider the following two statements :

A. Kirchhoff's junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
B. Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the conservation of energy.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and B are wrong
(3) A is correct and B is wrong
(4) A is wrong and B is correct
30) Find out the value of current through 2Ω resistance for the given circuit in figure :

(1) Zero
(2) 2A
(3) 5A
(4) 4A

31) If n,e,τ and m respectively represent the density, charge, relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Figure shows a copper wire of nonuniform cross section carrying current toward right for

sectors A, B and C. Then which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) iB > iA > iC (i = current)

(2) EB > EA > EC (E = electric field)
(3) VB > VA > VC (V = drift velocity)
(4) JB > JA > JC (J = current density)

33) Figure represents a part of the closed circuit. The potential difference between points A and

B (VA – VB) is

(1) + 9 V
(2) – 9 V
(3) + 3 V
(4) + 6 V

34) For the circuit shown in figure, the potential difference between point a and b, (Vb–Va) will be
(1) R2 – R1
(2) R1–R2

(3)

(4) zero

35) The mass of a planet is six times of that of the earth. The radius of the planet is twice of that of
earth. If the escape velocity from the earth is v then the escape velocity from the planet is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) The ohmic curve among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) Altitude at which acceleration due to gravity decreases by 0.1% approximately : (Radius of earth
= 6400 km)

(1) 3.2 km
(2) 6.4 km
(3) 2.4 km
(4) 1.6 km

38) If the coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl surface is μ and the diameter of bowl is
r. Find the maximum height to which the insect can crawl in the bowl :-

(1)
×r

(2)
×r

(3)

(4) None of these

39) The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity become times the value at the
surface is (R = Radius of earth) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The
resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, is :-

(1) 6Ω
(2) 0.6πΩ
(3) 3Ω
(4) 6πΩ

41) In the following circuit the value of currents I1 and I2 are :-

(1) 4A, 3A
(2) 3A, 4A
(3) 4A, 4A
(4) 3A, 3A

42) The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius both are
doubled, then :–

(1) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(2) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
(3) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(4) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved.

43)

A projectile is fired with a speed v = from the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational
pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44)

The value of 'g' reduces to half of its value at surface of earth at a height 'h', then :-

(1) h = R
(2) h = 2R

(3)

(4)

45) The escape velocity of a body from the earth depends on :-

(i) the mass of the body.
(ii) the mass of the earth
(iii) the direction of projection.
(iv) the height of the location from where the body is launched.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

CHEMISTRY

1) Using the standard electrode potential values given below, decide which of the statements, I, II,
III and IV are correct. Choose the right answer from (1), (2), (3) and (4).
;
;
;
I. Copper can displace iron from FeSO4 solution.
II. Iron can displace copper from CuSO4 solution.
III. Silver can displace copper from CuSO4 solution.
IV. Iron can displace silver from AgNO3 solution.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) II and IV
(4) I and IV

2) The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1.

Zn|ZnSO4| |CuSO4|Cu
(0.01M) (1.0M)
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to E2.
What is the relationship between E1 and E2

(1) E1 > E2
(2) E1 < E2
(3) E1 = E2
(4) Can not predict

3) A galvanic cell is set up from a zinc bar weighing 100 g and 1.0 L of 1.0 M CuSO4 solution. How
long would the cell will run if it is assumed to deliver a steady current of 1.0 A. (Atomic mass of Zn =
65)

(1) 1.1 hr.

(2) 46 hr.
(3) 53.6 hr.
(4) 24.00 hr.

4) Consider the following four electrodes,

P = Cu2+ (0.0001 M) / Cu(s)
Q = Cu2+ (0.1 M) / Cu(s)
R = Cu2+ (0.01 M) / Cu(s)
S = Cu2+ (0.001 M) / Cu(s)
If the standard reduction potential of Cu2+ / Cu is 0.34 V, the reduction potential in volt of the above
electrodes follow the order :-

(1) Q > R > S > P

(2) P > S > R > Q
(3) R > S > Q > P
(4) P > Q > R > S

5) The reduction potential of a half-cell consisting of a Pt electrode immersed in 1.5 M Fe2+ and

0.015 M Fe3+ solution at 25° C is

(1) 0.652 V
(2) 0.88 V
(3) 0.710 V
(4) 0.850 V

6) In the process of electroplating, 'm' g of silver is deposited when 4 ampere of current flows 2
minutes. The amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 ampere of current flowing for 40 seconds will be

(1) 4m

(2)

(3)

(4) 3m

7) Assertion: In Daniell cell, electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod.

Reason: Zn rod acts as cathode and Cu rod acts as anode in Daniell cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) of NaCl, HCl and C6H5COONa are 130, 420 and 110 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. If conductivity of
0.001 M benzoic acid solution is 10–5 Scm–1. Find out degree of dissociation of benzoic acid :-

(1) 0.0125
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.025
(4) 0.05

9) The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be positive if :-

(1) = 2atm; [H+] = 1.0 M
(2) = 1 atm; [H+] = 1 M
(3) = 4 atm; [H+] = 1 M
(4) = 2 atm; [H+] = 2 M

10) Consider the following redox reaction occuring in acidic medium :-

The unknown standard reduction potential is

(1) –1.6 V
(2) 1.6V
(3) –1.52 V
(4) 1.52V

11) X + Y → Z follows experimental rate equation: r = k[X][Y]–1 The rate will change by which of the
factor if Y is doubled and X is halved :

(1) 0.25
(2) 1.5
(3) 2
(4) 0.5

12) The rate constant is given by the equation: k = Pz . Which factor will register a decrease, for
the reaction to produced more rapidly?

(1) T
(2) Z
(3) E
(4) P

13) A student determined the value of the rate constant, k, for a chemical reaction at several
different temperature. Which of the following graphs of the student's data would give a straight line
?

(1) k versus T
k versus
(2)

(3)
ln k vs
(4) ln k vs Ea

14) Which of the following factors can affect the rate of a reaction?

(1) Nature of reactant

(2) Temperature
(3) Presence of catalyst
(4) All

15) The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions for A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB are 180 kJ
mol–1 and 200 kJ mol–1 respectively. The presence of a catalyst lowers the activation energy of both
(forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy change of the reaction (A2 + B2 → 2AB)
in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol–1) -

(1) 300
(2) 120
(3) 280
(4) –20

16) The rate of 1st order reaction, X → P is 7.5 × 10–4 M/s. When concentration of X is 0.5 M, the rate
constant of the reaction is :-

(1) 3.75 × 10–4 S–1

(2) 2.5 × 10–5 S–1
(3) 1.5 × 10–3 S–1
(4) 8.0 × 10–4 S–1

17) Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 100 g min–1. hence rate of
disappearance of O2 is :-

(1) 50g min–1

(2) 100g min–1
(3) 200g min–1
(4) 20g min–1

18) Rate of which reactions increase with increase of temperature :-

(1) of exothermic
(2) of endothermic
(3) of exothermic as well as endothermic
(4) of neither exothermic nor endothermic

19) Given that K is the rate constant for some order of any reaction at temp T then the value of

_________.

(1) A/2.303
(2) A
(3) 2.303 A
(4) log A
20)

Following mechanism has been proposed for a reaction

2A + B → D + E
Step I A + B → D + C ...(slow)
Step II A + C → E ...(fast)

The rate law expression for the reaction is:

(1) r = K[A]2[B]
(2) r = K[A] [B]
(3) r = K[A]2
(4) r = K[A] [C]

21) A catalyst decrease Activation energy from 100 KJ mol–1 to 80KJmol–1. At what temperature the
rate of reaction in the absence of catalyst at 500K will be equal to the rate of reaction in the
presence of catalyst :-

(1) 400 K
(2) 200 K
(3) 625 K
(4) 100 K

22) The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation K = (4.5 × 1011 s–1) e–28000 K/T. What will
the value of pre exponential factor (A) ?

(1) 669 S–1

(2) 232.79 S–1
(3) 4.5 × 1011 S–1
(4) 28000 S–1

23)

Consider the reaction A → B, graph between half life (t1/2) and intial concentration (a) of the reactant
is

Hence graph between and time will be:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) At 300 K a gaseous reaction : A → B + C was found to follow first order kinetics. Starting with
pure A, the total pressure at the end of 20 minutes was 100 mm of Hg. The total pressure after the
completion of the reaction is 180 mm of Hg. The initial pressure of A (in mm of Hg) is :-

(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 180
(4) 80

25)
Which is correct

(1) P and Q are diastereomers

(2) P and R are homomers
(3) Q and R are enantiomers
(4) P and Q are enantiomers

26) The correct configuration assigned for compounds (I) and (II) respectively is
(1) R, R
(2) S, S
(3) R, S
(4) S, R

27) In the structure the configurations at chiral centers are :

(1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2S, 3R
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2S, 3S

28) Which of the following will not show optical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

29) Find relation between these two compounds A and B.

(1) Enantiomer
(2) Diasteromer
(3) Meso
(4) Identical

30) Which of the following compound are meso forms

(1) (i) only

(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

31) Out of the following which are chiral?

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III, IV
(3) II, III
(4) II, III, IV
32) Which of following group shows +R (+M) as well as –I nature?

(1) –CH = O

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The decreasing order of –1 effect of the following is :-

I. – II. –NO2 III. –CN IV. –COOH

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) II > I > IV > III

34) What will be correct stability order :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) I > III > II

35)

Which of the following is correct order of stability:-

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) I > IV > III > II

36) Which carbanion is least stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Assertion: Tertiary carbocation are generally formed more easily than primary carbocation.
Reason: Hyperconjugation due to more α-H alkyl groups stabilize tertiary carbocation.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

39) Assertion (A) : The electrode potential of SHE is zero only at 25°C and not at any other
temperature.
Reason (R) : SHE is reference electrode and used to measure standard reduction of other
electrons.

(1) Assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.

40) Assertion : Racemic mixture and meso forms are optically inactive.
Reason : These are optically inactive due to external and internal compensation of rotation
respectively :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

41) An electron has higher potential energy when it is at which electrode in galvanic cell?

(1) The anode because electrons flow towards the anode

(2) The anode because electrons flow away the anode
(3) The cathode because electrons flow towards the cathode
(4) The cathode because electrons flow away the cathode

42) Match the groups in column A with their appropriate effect in column B

Column A Column B

P –NO2 A +M, +I

Q –OMe B +M, –I

R –CH3 C –M, –I

S –Cl D +H, +I
(1) P–A, Q–B, R–D, S–C
(2) P–C, Q–B, R–D, S–B
(3) P–C, Q–B, R–D, S–A
(4) P–A, Q–B, R–C, S–D

43) Which of the following is not a Lyophobic sol?

(1) AgCl/Ag+
(2) Gold sol
3+
(3) Fe(OH)3|Fe
(4) Starch sol

44) Assertion: is more acidic than PhOH

Reason: is more resonance stablized than PhO–.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

45) A pH meter can be thought of as a hydronium concentration cell. The reference half-cell is kept
at a pH of 2.0. The other half-cell consists of a platinum probe placed into the sample being tested. If
electrons flow from the reference half-cell into the sample, which of the following is true? (The
applicable half-reaction is: 2H+ + 2e– → H2)

(1) The probe is the anode and the sample solution has a pH less than 2.0
(2) The probe is the anode and the sample solution has a pH greater than 2.0
(3) The probe is the cathode and the sample solution has a pH less than 2.0
(4) The probe is the cathode and the sample solution has a pH greater than 2.0

BIOLOGY

1) In angiosperms, microsporangia is :-

(1) Stamen
(2) Pollen sac
(3) Carpel
(4) Pollen grain

2) In anther of flowering plant archesporial cell (archesporium) gives rise to :-

(1) Only the wall of sporangium

(2) Wall and sporogenous tissue
(3) Tapetum only.
(4) Only sporogenous tissue.

3) Which of the following is not a member of the 2n(sporophytic) generation of angiosperms :-

(1) Carpel
(2) Anther
(3) Pollen grain
(4) Ovary

4) The mature pollen grain and mature male gametophyte are respectively :-

(1) Two and three celled

(2) Three and two celled
(3) Three celled
(4) Two celled

5) Out breeding devices are characteristics of :-

(1) Chasmogamous flowers

(2) Cleistogamous flowers
(3) Autogamous flower
(4) Both (1) and (3)

6) Which cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell ?

(1) Egg cell

(2) Central cell
(3) Synergid cell
(4) Antipodal cell

7) When the transfer of male gametes is near the female gamete through the pollen tube, then the
process is known as :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Polysiphonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Siphonogamy

8) The outermost layer of endosperm in maize is

(1) Aleurone
(2) Epidermis
(3) Tunica
(4) Tonoplast

9) If the endosperm of an angiosperm contains 36 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in the

synergid cell will be ?

(1) 36
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 9

10) Which one of the following structure found in dicot seed will be genetically identical with it's
maternal plant?

(1) Testa
(2) Radicle
(3) Plumule
(4) Cotyledon

11) When we make a cross between AABBCcDd with AABBCcDd then find out the phenotypic ratio
we obtained in next generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

12) When we perform selfing of heterozygous round (Bb) seed shape pea plant, then in their
progeny, in what fraction do we obtain large size starch grain seed?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Presence of single allele of a character in diploid organism is known as :-

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Hemizygous
(4) Hybrid vigour

14) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 3 loci & homozygous for 2 loci, produces how many types
of gametes?

(1) 128
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 14

15) About genotype Rr select out the incorrect statement:

(1) Allelic gene pair

(2) They control common character
(3) They share common locus
(4) can be present on non homologous chromosome

16) If a plant produces Abcdde gamete then which law of inheritance will not be followed ?

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) (1) and (3) both

17) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding law of segregation ?

(1) Alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis

(2) The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
(3) Law of segregation is called as law of purity of gametes
(4) All of the above

18) Which of the following combination of character is not possible in garden pea plant?

(1) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – green

(2) Flower colour – white and seed colour – yellow
(3) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – white
(4) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – yellow

19) How many types of gametes are formed by a dihybrid plant (MmRr) in which one gene is
incompletely dominant and another gene is completely dominant:

(1) One type

(2) Two types
(3) Three types
(4) Four types

20) Grey seed colour(G) in pea is dominant to white seed colour(g). In the following crosses, the
indicated parent with known phenotype, but unknown genotype, produced the progeny listed:

Parent Progeny Female parent

Female × male Gray white Genotype

(i) Gray × white 81 82 A

(ii) Gray × gray 118 39 B

(iii) Gray × white 74 0 C

(iv) Gray × gray 90 0 D

Based on the segregation data, the possible genotype of each female parent -
(1) A-Gg; B-Gg; C-GG; D-GG or Gg
(2) A-GG; B-GG; C-GG; D-Gg
(3) A-Gg; B-Gg; C-Gg; D-Gg
(4) A-gg; B-gg; C-gg; D-Gg
21)
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Homozygous – Mm
(2) Heterozygous – NN
(3) Hemizygous – er
(4) Heterozygous – AA

22) Modified allele could be responsible for production of -

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) No enzyme
(3) Non-Functional enzyme
(4) All of these

23) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype is influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

24) Find the incorrect statement regarding Mendel's experiment on garden pea :-

(1) He performed emasculation and bagging

(2) He made qualitative analysis of quantitative characters
(3) He repeated his experiments on test plants for several generation
(4) He also performed test cross and reciprocal cross

25) Which one of the following is not correct regarding Mendelian dihybrid cross ?

(1) The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) Law of independent assortment can be explained on the basis of the cross
F2 generation phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 1 is obtained from the cross between F1 plants with one
(3)
of the two parental plants
(4) The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4 types in 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio

26) Select false statement for independent assortment:-

(1) Segregation of one pair of unit factor is independent of the other pair of unit factor
 During telophase of meiosis-I the two chromosome pairs can align at the metaphase plate
(2)
independently of each other
Due to independent assortment a dihybrid produces 4 types of phenotype in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3
(3)
:1
(4) Genes for different characters should be located on different pair of chromosome

27) Assertion :- Punnett square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all
possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross.
Reason :- It was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Assertion (A) :- The unmodified allele, which represents the original phenotype is the dominant
allele and the modified allele is generally the recessive allele.
Reason (R) :- The unmodified allele is responsible for production of a non functional enzyme or no
enzyme at all.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

29) Test cross does not involve :-

A. Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait.
B. Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
C. Crossing the F1 hybrid with double dominant genotype
D. Crossing between two F1 hybrids

(1) Only A, B, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

30) Find out incorrect statement for ABO blood group :-

(1) It is an example of multiple factor inheritance

(2) Multiple alleles found in population
(3) Three alleles IA, IB and i govern ABO blood group
(4) Six genotypes are possible for human ABO blood type

31) Which of the following statement is not true for mendelian monohybrid cross.

(1) F1 generation is resemble with any one parent

(2) In F2 generation 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio is obtained.
(3) In F1 generation all plants are always 100% pure.
(4) Factors never show any blending

32)

How many of the following traits in garden pea are dominant ?

Dwarf, Green Seed, Green Pod, Violet flower

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

33) Select the wrong statement :-

(1) Law of segregation and Independent assortment were proposed by Mendel

(2) Three scientists independently rediscover Mendel's Law in 1900
(3) Mendel study quantitative character
(4) Mendel work published in 1865

34) Assertion (A) : Recessive characters are generally pure.

Reason (R) : Dominant character appear both in homozygous and heterozygous condition.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) T.H. Morgan
(3) G.J. Mendel
(4) Hugo de Vries

36) Assertion : AB blood group is example of Co-dominance.

Reason : In the case of Co-dominance the F1 generation resembles both parents.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Find the odd one out w.r.t. dominant phase in life cycle–

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Bryophytes

38) Ovule of gymnosperms are equivalent to–

(1) Megasporangia
(2) Microsporangia
(3) Spore
(4) Microsporophyll

39) Smallest Angiosperm is–

(1) Wolffia
(2) Sequoia
(3) Eucalyptus
(4) Cycas

40) Riccia & Marchantia are–

(1) Red Algae

(2) Mosses
(3) Hornworts
(4) Liverworts

41) Agar is obtained from–

(1) BGA
(2) Green algae
(3) Red algae
(4) Brown algae

42) Number of chromosomes in the leaves of a gymnosperm is 20. Number of chromosomes in its
endosperm should be–

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

43) How many of the following are red algae?

Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Fucus &
Dictyota

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Seven

44) Choose the incorrect pair–

(1) Capsule – Sporophyte

(2) Rhizoids – Gametophyte
(3) Protonema of moss - Sporophyte
(4) Prothallus (Pteridophyte) - Gametophyte

45) Match the Pteridophytes with their classes–

Pteridophytes Classes

A. Adiantum 1. Lycopsida

B. Selaginella 2. Pteropsida

C. Equisetum 3. Sphenopsida
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2

46) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement(s) :-
(a) The universe is almost 13.8 million years old.
(b) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe.
(c) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust.
(d) Considering the size of earth, universe is like a speck.
(e) Big bang theory attempts to explain the origin of universe.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) Only a

47) Life appeared ___(A)___ after the formation of earth i.e., almost ___(B)___ .

(1) A – 500 billion years, B – 4.5 BYA

(2) A – 500 billion years, B – 4 BYA
(3) A – 500 million years, B – 4 BYA
(4) A – 500 million years, B – 4.5 BYA

48) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) There was no atmosphere on early earth

(2) The UV-rays from the sun broke up water into hydrogen and oxygen and the lighter H2 escaped
(3) Oxygen combined with NH3 and CH4 to form water
(4) Life appeared 4 billion years after the formation of earth
49) Statement-I : In the solar system of the milky way galaxy, earth was supposed to have been
formed about 4.5 billion years back.
Statement-II : Panspermia is still a favourite idea for some astronomers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

50) According to Oparin and Haldane theory, 1st form of life could have come from :-

(1) Pangene
(2) Pre-existing living organic molecules
(3) Pre-existing non-living organic molecules
(4) Pre-existing life

51) Statement-I : The big bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.
Statement-II : It talks of a singular huge explosion imaginable in physical terms.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

52) According to chemical evolution the condition on primitive earth were :-

(a) High temperature
(b) Volcanic stroms
(c) Reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
(d) Low temperature
(e) Oxidizing atmosphere

(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, e
(3) c, d, e
(4) a, b, c

53) Which statement is not related to the theory of special creation ?

(1) Organisms were formed as such

(2) Diversity has never changed since its origin
(3) Earth is 4000 years old
(4) Though organisms on earth have changed but diversity has remained unchanged

54) Famous swan neck experiment was done by louis pasture. Which theory was proved by this
experiment :-
(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Special creation theory
(3) Biogenesis
(4) Cosmic panspermia

55) The experimental demonstration of ‘life comes only from pre-existing life’ was given by

(1) S.L Miller

(2) Haldane
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) A.I. Oparin

56) The term "Prebiotic soup" was coined by:

(1) Oparin
(2) Haldane
(3) Aristotle
(4) Thales

57) Which statement is incorrect for protobionts ?

(1) Protobionts reproduced through asexual reproduction.

(2) They could grow by absorbing molecules from surroundings.
(3) They could exhibit simple metabolism.
(4) They were the clusters of protein, polysaccharide, lipid & nuclic acid.

58) Which of the following amino acids were obtained in Miller's experiment ?

(1) Arginine, aspartic acid, histidine

(2) Glycine, arginine, glutamic acid
(3) Arginine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid
(4) Alanine, aspartic acid, glycine

59) The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of reducing nature. It was transformed into an
oxidizing atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of :-

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Angiosperms
(3) photosynthetic plants
(4) eukaryotic algae

60) In the Stanley Miller's experiment, identify the correct combination of gases & temperature

Gases Temperature

(1) CH4, NH3, CO2 400°C

 (2) NH3, HCN, H2O Vapour, H2 1800°C

(3) CH4, H2, NH3, H2O vapour 800°C

(4) CH4, HCN, CO2 8000°C

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ?
(A) Formation of first non-cellular form of life
(B) Formation of pre-biotic soup
(C) Formation of protobionts
(D) Origin of cyanobacteria

(1) A → C → B → D
(2) A → B → C → D
(3) B → C → A → D
(4) B → A → D → C

62) The first evolved prokaryotes were probably :-

(1) Chemoautotroph & Aerobic

(2) Chemoheterotroph & Anaerobic
(3) Oxygenic Photosynthetic Bacteria
(4) Chemoautotroph & Anaerobic

63) Trilobites were evolved during :-

(1) Silurian
(2) Cambrian
(3) Precambrian
(4) Devonian

64) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Invertebrate formed (i) 320 mya
(B) Jawless fish evolved (ii) 65 mya
(C) Extinction of dinosaurs (iii) 500 mya
(D) Sea weed plants (iv) 350 mya
(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
65) Most recent period of mesozoic was :-

(1) permian
(2) cretaceous
(3) jurassic
(4) carboniferous

66) The correct sequence of periods in the history of earth is :

(1) Silurian → Permian → Jurassic → Triassic

(2) Carboniferous → Triassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary
(3) Quaternary → Triassic → Permian → Jurassic
(4) Cretaceous → Tertiary → Quaternary → Permian

67) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back
(2) Fossils formed in older rocks are complex type & found in newer rocks are simpler
(3) Fossils studied showed that life form varied over a time
(4) Fossils are mostly found in sedimentary rocks

68) Evolution of modern birds and mammals occurred in respectively :-

(1) Eocene and oligocene epochs

(2) Silurian and devonian periods
(3) Carboniferous and permian periods
(4) Cretaceous and triassic period

69) The Test-tube Baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?

(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)

(2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)

70)

Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or embryo (with upto 8 cells) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) AI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the vagina

(d) GIFT - Transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development Which
of the above statements are correct:
(1) a and d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) a, b, c & d

71)

What is released at ovulation?

(1) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I

(2) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
(3) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
(4) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

72) How many eggs and sperms are required to produce fraternal (Dizygotic) twins ?

(1) One egg, one sperm

(2) One egg, two sperm
(3) Two eggs, one sperm
(4) Two eggs, two sperm

73) Read the following statements and choose option having correct statements :-
(a) By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
(b) By the end of 24th week the body is covered with fine hair.
(c) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound through the
stethoscope.

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c

74) [A] → Essential for maintenance of the endometrium and endometrium is neccessary for [B].
Identify 'A' and process 'B' respectively :-

(1) FSH, Menarche

(2) Progesterone, Implantation
(3) Oxytocin, Parturition
(4) Oxytocin, Lactation

75) Male condoms prevent primarily :-

(1) spermatogenesis
(2) ejaculation
(3) insemination
(4) fertilisation

76) During embryonic development which tissue originate first ?

(1) Connective
(2) Epithelium
(3) Muscular
(4) Nervous

77) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

78) White fibrous cartilage is found abundantly in:

(1) Hyaline cartilage of joints

(2) Nostrils
(3) Intervertebral discs
(4) External ear

79) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as:

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

80) In cockroch salivary gland attached with ?

(1) Oesophagus
(2) Pharynx
(3) Crop
(4) Gizzard

81) Six cuticular teeth present in cockroach ?

(1) Buccal cavity

(2) Crop
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Gizzard

82) In cockroach, heart comprises of :-

(1) 4–Chambers
(2) 12–Chambers
(3) 8–Chambers
(4) 13–Chambers

83) How many ova are laid by mature female frog at a time ?

(1) 2000–5000
(2) 2500–5000
(3) 2500–3000
(4) 100–500

84) In frog, right auricle receives blood from :-

(1) Lungs
(2) Truncus arteriosus
(3) Sinus venosus
(4) Carotid artery

85) Which of the following structure attaches testes to the kidney ?

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Tendon
(4) Copulatory pad

86) The hormone which is responsible for inhibition of FSH secretion and secreted by Sertoli cells,
is:

(1) Testosterone
(2) Inhibin
(3) Androgen
(4) (1) and (3) both

87) Sugar fructose is present in the secretion of:

(1) Bartholin's gland

(2) Cowper's gland
(3) Perineal gland
(4) Seminal vasicle

88) A structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body called–

(1) Umbilical cord

(2) Allantosis
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Placenta

89) Match List-I with List-II

 List-I List-II

(a) Vaults (i) Made up of rubber

Cut and tieup

(b) IUDs (ii)
Vas deferens

Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus

(d) Tubectomy (iv) Cut and tieup oviduct

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Identify the wrong statement:

(1) Tendon is dense irregular connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue is loose connective tissue
(3) Cartilage matrix is pliable
(4) Yellow bone marrow cavity stores adipose cells
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 1 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 1 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 3 1 2 4 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explanation :
We need to find the effective resistance between points A and B in the given circuit by
simplifying the network step by step using series and parallel combinations.

Concept :
Series and parallel combination of resistors.

Formula :
Series : R = R1 + R2

Parallel :

Calculation :
We can redraw circuit as :

⇒ ⇒

Final answer : Option (1)

2)
Q = Ceq V

Q= = 20 C
VA – 0 = 0 – VB =

= 60 V VB = – 40 V

3)

i = 3.2 mA

4)

R = tanθ
{θ angle with current axis}
here, R = tan(90- θ)
R = cot θ

5) S2 is correct because whatever be the g, the same force is acting on both the pans. Using a
spring balance, the value of g is greater at the pole. Therefore mg at the pole is greater. S4 is
correct. S2 and S4 are correct.

6)

7) i = neAVd

Vd ∝

8)

Kepler's 2nd law

equal area in equal time

9) Force of friction increases with applied force initially. When the applied force is more than
limiting friction then value of friction decreases slightly and becomes constant.

10)
 144 = (40 × 10–3) (1200)

= 3 bullets/sec.

11) Rt = R0 (1 + αt)

12) A. Question Explanation: A wire is stretched, making it 1 % longer. We need to

determine the percentage change in its resistance.
B. Given Data:

A. Percentage increase in length = 1 %

C. Concept:
This question based on effect of Resistance on stretching of wire.
D. Formula:

A. Resistance: R = ρL/A (where p is resistivity, Lis length, and A is cross-sectional area)

B. Percentage change: [(New Value - Original Value)/ Original Value]×100

E. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Initial state: Let the initial length be L and the initial cross-sectional area be A. Initial
resistance R = ρL/A.
B. New state:

o New length L' = L + 0.01L = 1.01L (1% = 1/100 = 0.01)

o Since volume is constant: L×A = L'A' ⇒ LA= 1.01L × A'⇒ A'= A/1.01 3. New resistance R': R' =

ρL'/A' = ρ(1 .01 L)/(A/1.01) = (1.01 ) R1 = 1.02 [(1.02)2 = 1.02 by binomial theorem]
4. Change in resistance: = R' - R = 1.02ρl/A - ρL/A= 0.02ρl/A
5. Percentage change in resistance: ( / R) × 100 = (0.02pL/A /ρL/A) × 100 = 0.02 × 100 = 2 %
Conclusion: The correct answer is option-1

13) R = = 2Ω

⇒ i= = 1.5 A

14)

VA – 6 – 3 – 4 + 2 – 2 = VB
VA – VB = +13 volt

15)

I= = 3t2 + 2t + 5
 = 22C

16)

If Fnet = 0
So body will remain at rest.

17)

Simple ladder circuits start with the two 3Ω resistance in series the left most part (R' = 6Ω).
which will be in parallel with immediate 6Ω. so their not resistance will be R = 6/2 = 3Ω.
similarly work your way through the remaining resistance.

Rxy = .

18)

⇒ Rxy = =

19)

Charge on Inner Plates is bound, So qB = 0

20) (Initial capacitance)

New capacitance C' =

C' =

21) There is no effect of angular speed on gravity.

22)

as volume = Aℓ = constant so
23)

Electric field between plates of capacitor is given by,

(K → Dielectric constant)

24)

25)
put ℓ = 1 cm
A = 1 cm × 100 cm

26) Fcos30° – T1 = 15a

T1 – T2 = 12a
T2 = 3a
Solving,

T1 =

T2 =

So,

27) Change in momentum = Impulse

=
= Area of graph

= 10 × 5 + × 10 × 4
= 70 N s.

28) m(u – 0) = Area

29) Concept : Kirchhoff's Current Law (K.C.L.)

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (K.V.L.)

Formula : ΣIincoming = ΣIoutgoing

ΣV = 0

Calculation : A) Kirchhoff's Current Law follows the law of conservation of charge because it
is based on the principle that change cannot accumulate at a junction. The sum of currents
entering a junction must equal the sum of currents leaving the junction which is a direct
consequence of change conservation.

B) Kirchhoff's Voltage Law follows from the law of conservation of energy because it states
that sum of the potential difference (voltage) around any closed loop in a circuit is zero. This
reflects the conservation of energy, as any energy gained (from a source) must be lost in
resistors are within a closed loop.

30) by KCL, no current flows in 2Ω resistance.

31)

Question Explanation:

Find the expression for the resistance R of a wire in terms of electron density n, charge e,
relaxation time τ, mass m, length ℓ, and cross-sectional area A.

Concept:

The resistance of a wire depends on the material's properties, length, and cross-sectional area.
The drift velocity and current are related to electron properties like n, e, τ, and m.

Formula:

The resistivity ρ of the material is given by:

ρ=
Then, the resistance R is given by:

R = r⋅

Calculation:

Substitute ρ into the resistance formula:

R= ⋅

Final Answer:

The correct option is (1).

32) Current through the wire is same and

33) The given part of a closed circuit can be redrawn as follows. It should be remember that
product of current and resistance can be treated as an imaginary cell having emf = iR.

⇒
⇒ Hence VA – VB = +9 V

34) Vb – Va = i1(R1) – i2(R2)

35)

36)

For ohmic conductor

37)

38)
N = mg cos θ & mg sin θ = μN
⇒ sin θ = μ cos θ ⇒ tan θ =μ
h = r (1– cos θ) = r

39)

40)

= (π × 10 × 10–2 × 12) = 0.6 π Ω

41) Explanation: For the given resistive circuit with applied voltage we need to find current
in the Parallel branches.
Concept: Between the parallel branches the voltage equally applied.
Concept diagram:

Calculation:
Using Ohms law

= 4A

Answer: Option 4 is correct

42) Material same ⇒ ρ unchanged

R= = ⇒R∝
Therefore R´ ∝

⇒ R´=

43)

By Energy conservation

44)

45) The escape velocity is independent of mass of the body and the direction of projection. It
depends upon the gravitational potential at the point from where the body is launched. Since
this potential depends on the height of the point, the escape velocity depends on these factors.

Solution
1. Problem Explanation:
Escape velocity is the minimum velocity needed for a body to escape Earth's gravitational pull
without further propulsion.

2. Concept Used:
• Escape velocity depends on the mass and radius of the planet, not on the mass of the body or
direction of projection.
• It is given by:
 • It also depends on the height from which the body is launched.
3. Formulas Used:

• (if launched from height h )

4. Answer Selection:
- Depends on: Mass of Earth ( M ) and height of launch (h).
- Does not depend on: Mass of body, direction of projection.
- Correct option: (ii) and (iv) Option 2

CHEMISTRY

46)

More SOP ⇒ more reactive metal displaces less reactive.

(SOP order)

47) Solution/Explanation :
E1 of daniell cell is given and on changing the concentrations of reactants and products in the
cell reaction, the e.m.f. changes to E2. To find the relation between E1and E2.
Given Data :
Change in [ZnSO4] :- 0.01 M to ⊥ M
Change in [CuSO4] :- 1 M to 0.01 M
Concept:
0

Ecell = E cell log

0

Calculation: E1 = E cell log

0
E1 = E cell + 0.0591
0

E2 = E cell log
0
E2 = E cell – 0.091
0
E1 = E cell + 0.0591
0
E2 = E cell – 0.0591

Correct answer is E1 > E2

48) Moles of Zn =
moles of CuSO4 = M × V (L) = 1 mol
∴ Cu2+ = 1 mole in solution
Cell reaction
Zn + Cu2+ ———→ Zn2+ + Cu
1 mole 1 mol.
Given mol 1 mol.
2+
1 mol Cu is completely reduced and Zn remains in excess.
Given cell reaction will stop when 1mol. Cu2+ is reduced.
Cu2+ + 2e– ———→ Cu
1 mole 2 mol.
(Q = 2 × 96500 C)
Q = it
t = 2 × 96500 = 193000 sec.

49) Cu+2 + 2e– —→ Cu ↑

Ered = E°red –
on increasing [Cu+2]↑ Erd↑
therefore order of S.R.P.Q > R > S > P

50) Fe+3 + e– → Fe+2

n
According to nernst eq

Ered =

Ered = 0.770 – 0.0591 log

Ered = 0.77 – 0.12 ⇒ 0.652

51)

52) Explanation:
For Daniel cell, with the help of assertion and reason correct option
concept
Assertion→ In daniel cell, electrons flow from zn rod to Cu rod → true
Reason → zn rod acts as cathode and Cu rod acts as anode in Daniel cell → Incorrect
∵ Zn → acts as Anode
Cu → acts as cathode

Final answer = Assertion is true but the reason is false

Correct option = 3

53) = (420 + 110) – (130) = 400 Scm2mol–1

= 0.025

54) = 2 atm; [H+] = 2 M

55)

Question Explanation

To find

Concept

The concept based on ΔG° and E°

ΔG° = – nFE°

Explanation

Given :

= 1.5V and = 1.6V

\(\eqalign{ & XO_3^ - 4{e^ - } \to X{O^ - };\Delta G^\circ = - 4F\left( {1.5} \right) \cr &
\downarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \downarrow \cr & D.N = + 5\,\,\,\,\,D.N = + 1 \cr}
\)......(i)
\(\eqalign{ & XO_3^ - 5{e^ - } \to {X_2};\Delta G^\circ = - F\left( {1.6} \right) \cr &
\downarrow \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \downarrow \cr & D.N = + 1\,\,\,\,\,D.N = 0 \cr}
\)......(ii)
\(\eqalign{ & XO_3^ - 5{e^ - } \to {X_2};\Delta G^\circ = - 5FE^\circ \cr & \downarrow
\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, \downarrow \cr & D.N = + 5\,\,\,\,\,D.N = 0 \cr} \)......(iii)
(iii) = (i) + (ii)
– 5FE° = – 4 × 1.5F + (– 1.6F)

E° = = 1.52V

Final Answer (4)

56) Question Explanation :

The rate will be change which of the factor if y is double and x is halved.

Given Datga :
r = k[X][Y]–1

Mathematical Explanation :
r = k[X] . [Y]–1 ............(1)
If [V] is double and
[X] is halved then
r' =

r' =

r' = ⇒ r' = 0.25 r

57)

Option (3) .

58) lnk = lnA –

59)

Nature of reactant, Temperature, Presence of catalyst

60) Catalyst does not affect value of ΔH.

ΔHR = Ea(f) – Ea(b) = 180 – 200
= –20 kJ/mol.

61)

1.5 × 10–3 S–1

62) Question Explanation: Calculate the mass rate of O₂ disappearance given the mass rate
of SO₃ formation and the reaction stoichiometry.
Concept : This question is based on Stoichiometry and molar masses relate reaction rates.

Solution :

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Molar mass of SO₃ ≈ 80 g/mol

B. Molar mass of O₂ ≈ 32 g/mol

C. Moles SO₃ formed/min = 100 g/min / 80 g/mol = 1.25 mol/min

D. From reaction (2SO₃ : IO₂), Moles O₂ consumed/min = (1/2) × Moles SO₃ formed/min

E. Moles O₂ consumed/min = (1/2) × 1.25 mol/min = 0.625 mol/min

 F. Mass O₂ consumed/min = 0.625 mol/min 0 × 32 g/mol = 20 g/min

63)

of exothermic as well as endothermic

64)

Option (4)

65)

r = K[A] [B]

66)

For rate to be equal

K 1 = K2

⇒ T = 400K

67)

4.5 × 1011 S–1

68)

Option (3)

69) A → B + C
t=0 P0 0 0
t = 20 P0 – p p p
t=∞ 0 P0 P0
2P0 = 180 ∴P0 = 90
P0 – p + p + p = 100
p = 100 – P0 = 100 – 90 =10

70)

P and Q are enantiomers

71)

72)

Option (2)

73)

Both (2) and (3)

74)

Identical

75)

Compounds having chiral centres but compound is achiral.

76)

Compounds having no plane of symmetry.

77)

–CH = O –R, –I

+R, –I

–R, –I

+R, +I

78)

79)
 Carbanion µ charge separation

'S' has vacant d-orbital.

80)

Ans. I > III > II > IV

81)

Option (3)

82)

Oxygen stablized carbocation is more stable.

83)

due to more H and +I effect

84) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks whether the electrode potential of the Standard
Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is zero only at 25°C and not at other temperatures, and whether
the reason that SHE is a reference electrode explains this fact.

Underlying Concept: The Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is assigned a zero electrode
potential by definition under standard conditions, which include 25°C temperature, 1 atm
hydrogen gas pressure, and 1 molar hydrogen ion concentration. The electrode potential
depends on temperature as governed by the Nernst equation. Being a reference electrode
means it is used as a baseline to measure other electrode potentials, but this role does not
dictate its absolute potential at all temperatures.

Relevant Formulas: Nernst Equation: where: - = electrode potential at

non-standard conditions, - = standard electrode potential, - = universal gas constant, -
= temperature in Kelvin, - = number of electrons transferred, - = Faraday's constant, - =
reaction quotient.

Tips and Tricks: Keep in mind that the zero potential of the SHE is a convention set at 25°C
and not an intrinsic physical constant valid at all temperatures.

Common Mistakes: Mistaking the zero potential of SHE as universal for all temperatures
without recognizing the role of standard conditions or assuming the reason 'SHE is reference
electrode' inherently means it's zero potential at any temperature.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Incorrect options may confuse the role of SHE as a
reference electrode with the cause of its zero potential at 25°C; being a reference does not
imply zero potential at all temperatures. Also, misunderstanding that the electrode potential is
 defined only under standard conditions leads to wrong conclusions.

85)

⇒ Mess compound is optically inactive because rotation caused by one chiral carbon to
cancelled by equal and opposite rotation caused by another chiral carbon. Hence net rotation
is zero. This is also called as internal compensation.
⇒ Racemic mixture is equimolar mixture of enantiomers and is optically inactive because
rotation caused by one molecule is cancelled by equal and opposite rotation caused by another
molecule. Hence net rotation is zero. This is also called as external compensation.

86) The anode because electrons flow away the anode

87)

P–C, Q–B, R–D, S–B

88) Starch sol .

89) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

90)

Higher → Cathode
Lower conc. → Anode

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (E) Pg. # 21

NCERT (H) Pg. # 22

92)

Wall and sporogenous tissue

93)

Pollen grain

94) NCERT XIIth Pg.#23

95) NCERT XII Pg # 31

96)

NCERT XII pg.# 34(E), 36(H)

97)

Siphonogamy

98)

Aleurone

99)

Option (3)

100)

Testa .

101)

In the cross AABBCCDd x AABBCCDd:

• A and B are homozygous dominant, so they don't show variation.
• C and D are heterozygous, leading to a 3:1 ratio for each of these genes.
Thus, the overall phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.

102) NCERT Pg. # 62

103)

Hemizygous

104) Allen module

105)

Explanation: Alleles of a gene pair, such as R and r, are located on homologous

chromosomes, not on non-homologous chromosomes. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

The incorrect statement is 4: can be present on non homologous chromosome

106)
 Segregation

107)

The Correct answer is: 4.

The Law of Segregation states that alleles for a trait separate during gametogenesis
(formation of gametes) so that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
1. Alleles separate with each other during gametogenesis - This is correct. During
gametogenesis, alleles for each gene segregate so that each gamete gets only one allele from
the pair.
2. The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis - This is
correct. The law of segregation occurs because homologous chromosomes (which carry the
alleles) separate during meiosis, ensuring each gamete receives one allele.
3. Law of segregation is called the law of purity of gametes - This is correct. It is also known as
the law of purity of gametes because each gamete contains only one allele for each trait.

108)

Flower colour – violet and seed colour – white

109)

Explanation: In the dihybrid plant (MmRr), the gene for M(incomplete dominance) can
produce two types of alleles(M or m), and the gene for R (complete dominance) can produce
two types of alleles (R or r). The number of gametes formed is calculated by formula 2n, where
n is the number of heterozygous pairs. Here, MmRr so, n = 2. Therefore, the number of
gametes formed is 22 = 4.

The correct answer is 4 : Four types

110)

The correct answer is 1: A-Gg; B-Gg; C-GG; D-GG or Gg

Explanation:

A. A-Gg: The 81 gray and 82 white progeny indicate a 1:1 ratio, suggesting the female parent is
heterozygous (Gg).
B. B-Gg: The 118 gray and 39 white progeny suggest a 3:1 ratio, indicating the female parent is
also heterozygous (Gg).
C. C-GG: The 74 gray progeny and 0 white progeny indicate all offspring are gray, implying the
female parent is homozygous dominant (GG).
D. D-GG or Gg: The 90 gray progeny and 0 white progeny suggest the female parent is either
homozygous dominant (GG) or heterozygous (Gg), but since no white seeds are present, Gg is
more likely.

111)

Hemizygous – er
112)

NCERT-Pg.62

113) NCERT-XII Pg. # 62

114) NCERT-XII, Pg # 71

115)

NCERT XII Pg # 78-80

116) NCERT XII Pg # 80,82

117)

NCERT pg no.73

118)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 60,61

119)

Option (2).

120)

It is an example of multiple factor inheritance

121)

In F1 generation all plants are always 100% pure.

122) NCERT-XII, Pg# 70

Green pod and violet flower

123)

Mendel study quantitative character

124) NCERT Pg. # 72-73 [E]

NCERT Pg. # 72-73 [H]
125) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 65

126) NCERT Pg. # 77

127)

Bryophytes

128)

Megasporangia

129) Wolffia .

130)

Liverworts

131)

Red algae

132)

Option (1)

133)

Option (3)

134)

Protonema of moss - Sporophyte

135)

A-2, B-1, C-3

136)

NCERT XII_Pg. No. 111

137) NCERT Pg # 111

 138) NCERT Pg.#139

139) NCERT Pg # 111

140) NCERT Pg# 111

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-127, (H)-137

142) The correct answer to the question is option 4: a, b, c.

Chemical evolution is the theory that life on Earth originated from non-living matter through a
series of chemical reactions over a long period. According to this theory, the early Earth had
conditions that were conducive to the formation of complex organic molecules from simpler
ones.
The conditions on primitive Earth that were favorable for chemical evolution are:

A. High temperature: The early Earth was much hotter than it is today, with abundant volcanic
activity. This high temperature provided the energy needed for chemical reactions to occur.
B. Volcanic storms: Volcanic eruptions released a variety of gases, including water vapor,
carbon dioxide, and nitrogen, into the atmosphere. These gases, along with other elements,
served as the building blocks for the first organic molecules.
C. Reducing atmosphere: The early Earth's atmosphere was primarily composed of reducing
gases, such as methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), and hydrogen. This reducing environment
prevented the oxidation of organic molecules, allowing them to accumulate and react further.

143)

Though organisms on earth have changed but diversity has remained unchanged.

144)

Biogenesis

145) NCERT_ Pg. # 111

146) Haldane

147)

Protobionts reproduced through asexual reproduction.

148)

Alanine, aspartic acid, glycine

149)

Cyanobacteria

150) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 111

151)

Question Explanation:
Asks to identify the correct chronological order of events that led to the origin of life on Earth.

Solution Explanation:
The most likely sequence of events is:
(B) Formation of pre-biotic soup: Accumulation or organic monomers
(C) Formation of protobionts: Encapsulation of these monomers into membrane-bound
structures.
(A) Formation of first non-cellular form of life: Development of self-replicating molecules
with protobionts.
(D) Origin of cyanobacteria: Evolution of photosynthesis in early prokaryotic cells, leading
to the release of oxygen.
Answer is (3)
The sequence correspond to the order B→C→A→D.

152)

Chemoheterotroph & Anaerobic

153)

Cambrian

154) NCERT Pg. # 122, 123

155)

cretaceous

156) NCERT XIIth Pg.#138,139

157)

Fossils formed in older rocks are complex type & found in newer rocks are simpler

158)

Jurasic and triassic period

159) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 64

160)

All statements are correct

161)

Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

162)

Two eggs, two sperm

163)

All statements are correct

164)

Progesterone, Implantation

165)

insemination

166)

Epithelium

167)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

168)

Intervertebral discs

169)

Ciliated epithelium

170)

Oesophagus
171)

Gizzard

172) NCERT Pg. # 113 (E), Fig 7.17

173) NCERT Pg. # 120

174) NCERT Pg # 118

175) NCERT Pg # 83

176)

Option (2)

177) Seminal vasicle

178) Placenta .

179) Option (2)

180) Tendon is dense irregular connective tissue