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1- The pitot system is connected to:

A) Airspeed indicator.
B) Altimeter.
C) Vertical speed indicator.
D) All answers are correct.

2- A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument(s):
A) Altimeter only.
B) Airspeed indicator only.
C) Vertical speed indicator only.
D) Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

3- If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and
another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:
A) There will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
C) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.

4- The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the:
A) Static pressure.
B) Total pressure.
C) Total pressure plus static pressure.
D) Dynamic pressure.

5- In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake:
A) Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments.
B) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1.013,25 hPa as possible.
C) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
D) Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window.

6- A dynamic pressure measurement circuit is constituted of the following pressure probes:

A) Total pressure and static pressure.
B) Static pressure only.
C) Total pressure only.
D) Total pressure and standard pressure.

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7- An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position error and another
one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are equal, during a straight symmetrical
flight:
A) The greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
B) The greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimeters.
C) The lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
D) The error between the two altimeters does not depend' on the speed.
8- Given:
PT = total pressure
PS = static pressure
PD = dynamic pressure
A) PD=PT+PS
B) PT=PD+PS
C) Ps = PT + PD
D) PD = PT /Ps
9- Given:
PT = total pressure
PS = static pressure
PSO = static pressure at sea level
Dynamic pressure is:
A) (PT - Ps) /Ps
B) PT - PSO
C) (PT - PSO)/PSO
D) PT - PS
10- If the pitot tube ices up during a flight, the affected equipment(s) is (are):
1) The altimeter
2) The variometer
3) The airspeed indicator
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,2
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3
D) 3
11- Assume that the static port of your airplane became clogged (pitot tube remains open) at
3500 feet and you climbed. How does this affect the readings on your airspeed indicator at
higher altitudes?
A) It has no effect on the airspeed indicator‘s readings.
B) Airspeed indicator will read lower than actual.
C) Airspeed indicator will read higher than actual.
D) Airspeed indicator continue to show an airspeed that blockage occur

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12- If during a descent:
1) The pneumatic altimeter reading is constant
2) The VSI shows zero
3) The IAS is increasing
The most likely explanation is that:
A) The static intakes are completely clogged up by ice.
B) The total pressure intake is completely clogged up by ice.
C) There is a leakage in the static pressure line.
D) The antenna of the radio altimeter is completely clogged up by ice.
13- The position error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially
with the:
A) Flight time at high altitude.
B) Speed of the aircraft.
C) Altitude of the aircraft.
D) Outside air temperature.
14- The total pressure probe (pitot tube) comprises a mass which moves its port to a distance
from the aircraft skin in order:
A) To locate it outside the boundary layer.
B) Not to disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.
C) It is protected from icing.
D) It is easily accessible during maintenance checks.
15- Which of the following instruments are connected to the pitot-static system?
1) Altimeter
2) Air-operated directional gyro
3) Vertical speed indicator
4) Airspeed indicator
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,3
B) 1,3,4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,4
16- If the static vent becomes blocked due to ice on an unpressurized aircraft, what can you do?
A) Select standby pitot source.
B) Break the VSl glass.
C) The altimeter will function as airspeed indicator, an increase in airspeed will be indicated as a
climb; decrease in airspeed as a descent.
D) The altimeter will function as airspeed indicator, an increase in airspeed will be indicated as a
descent; decrease in airspeed as a climb.

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17- Which Instrument does not connect to the static system?
A) Altimeter.
B) Vacuum gauge.
C) Airspeed indicator.
D) Vertical speed indicator.

18- The standard temperature for all our aerodynamic computations is:
A) 0° C or 32° F.
B) 15° C or 59° F.
C) 273° K or 492° R.
D) 0° F or 460° R.

19- The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A) Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.
B) Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
C) Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location
for which it is provided.
D) Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.

20- If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
A) Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
B) Gradually indicate zero.
C) Under-read.
D) Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.

21- The density altitude is:

A) The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.
B) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature.
C) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
D) The Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

22- If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:
A) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked.
B) Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.
C) Over-read.
D) Gradually return to zero.

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23- On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:
A) Density altitude.
B) Pressure altitude.
C) Temperature altitude.
D) Standard altitude.

24- When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air. the altimeter will:
A) Be just as correct as before.
B) Under-read.
C) Over-read.
D) Show the actual height above ground.

25- You are cruising at 6500 feet indicated altitude from point A where air temperature is much
lower than standard to point B where air temperature is much warmer than standard.
A) Over point B Your True altitude will be lower than point A.
B) Over point B your True altitude will be higher than point A.
C) Your true altitude will not change in this case.
D) Over point B your indicated altitude shows higher than actual.

26- The atmospheric pressure at FL070 in a standard atmosphere is:

A) 942.85 hPa
B) 781.85 hPa
C) 1013.25 hPa
D) 644.41 hPa

27- The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere
layers below the aircraft are cold is:
A) Equal to the standard altitude.
B) The same as the real altitude.
C) Lower than the real altitude.
D) Higher than the real altitude.

28- The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere
layers below the aircraft are warm is:
A) Higher than the real altitude.
B) Lower than the real altitude.
C) Equal to the standard altitude.
D) The same as the real altitude.

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29- The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The
pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively:
A) (i) Static pressure; (ii) total pressure.
B) (i) Static pressure at time t; (ii) static pressure at time.
C) (i) Total pressure; (ii) static pressure.
D) (i) Vacuum (or a very low pressure); (ii) static pressure.

30- The altimeter is supplied with:

A) Differential pressure.
B) Static pressure.
C) Dynamic pressure.
D) Total pressure.

31- An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16000 ft, the outside air temperature is
-30°C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
A) 16800 ft
B) 15200 ft
C) 18600 ft
D) 16000 ft

32- An aircraft is flying straight and level, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:
A) Correct.
B) Greater than the real height.
C) Less than the real height.
D) Oscillating around the correct height.

33- An altimeter contains one or more aneroid capsules. Inside these capsules is:
A) Dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
B) Static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.
C) A very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
D) Static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure.

34- Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:

A) Temperature altitude.
B) Density altitude.
C) Pressure altitude.
D) True altitude.

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35- The altimeter indicates true altitude:
A) When the temperature on the ground is +15°C with a lapse rate of 2°C per 1000 feet, and
correct QNH is set.
B) In ISA conditions only.
C) When the temperature on the ground is +15°C with a lapse rate of 2°C per 1000 feet, and
correct QFE is set.
D) When pressure at mean sea level is 1013.25 hPa, with a ground temperature of +15°C and a
density equal to 1.225 kg/m3.
36- The altimeter is supplied with:
A) Static pressure.
B) Dynamic pressure.
C) Total pressure.
D) Differential pressure.
37- The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 10000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb, OAT is
+5° C, the pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
A) 697 hPa
B) 10400 ft
C) 9600 ft
D) 10000 ft
38- The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 11000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb, the
QNH is 1023 hPa, OAT is +3°C, the pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
A) 10260 ft
B) 11740 ft
C) 11000 ft
D) 670 hPa
39- Approximately how many percent the true altitude will be lower than your indicated
altitude, if the temperature is 10°C colder than standard?
A) 8%
B) 10%
C) 4%
D) 12%

40- If you change the altimeter setting from 30.45 [Link] to 29.85, what would be the change in
the indicated altitude?
A) Indicated altitude would increase 600 feet.
B) Indicated altitude would decrease 600 feet.
C) Indicated altitude would decrease 60 feet.
D) Indicated altitude would increase 60 feet.

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41- A pilot changes the altimeter setting from 29.72 [Link] to 30.17, what would be the change in
the indicated altitude?
A) Indicated altitude would increase 450 feet.
B) Indicated altitude would increase 45 feet.
C) Indicated altitude would decrease 450 feet.
D) Indicated altitude would decrease 45 feet.

42- The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 17000 ft with a subscale setting of 1013.25 mb. QNH
is 1031 hPa. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
A) 17540 ft
B) 17000 ft
C) 16460 ft
D) 527 hPa

43- The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A) Atmospheric pressure at the location for which it is given, corrected for non-standard
temperature.
B) Altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads the elevation.
C) Altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the. apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads zero.
D) Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over-flown by the aircraft.

44- When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
A) Lower than the true altitude.
B) The same as the true altitude.
C) Higher than the true altitude.
D) Equal to the standard altitude.

45- When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will:
A) Show the actual height above the sea level.
B) Underestimate.
C) Overestimate.
D) Show the actual height above ground.

46- When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
A) Higher than the true altitude.
B) The same as the true altitude.
C) Lower than the true altitude.
D) Equal to the standard altitude.

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47- QNH is:
A) The airfield barometric pressure.
B) The setting that will give zero indication on the airfield.
C) The equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield.
D) The standard pressure setting of 1013 hPa.
48- What is density altitude?
A) Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
B) Indicated altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
C) Temperature altitude.
D) Pressure corrected.
49- What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than standard?
A) Read lower than the real altitude.
B) Read higher than the real altitude.
C) Read the correct altitude.
D) Readings will fluctuate.
50- Pressure altitude may be defined as;
A) The lowest forecast regional pressure.
B) Altitude indicated with QNE set on the altimeter.
C) Altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeter.
D) Altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter.
51- What is the effect on an altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to the
pressure source?
A) A change in hysteresis error.
B) A change in the instrument error.
C) A change in the position error.
D) A change in the compressibility error.

52- In an altimeter, what pressure is fed to the capsule and the case?
A) Static-dynamic.
B) Static-static.
C) Static-vacuum.
D) Vacuum-static.

53- The altitude given by an altimeter is:

A) A pressure altitude.
B) A density altitude.
C) A temperature altitude.
D) A true altitude.

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54- If the alternate static source in non-pressurized aircraft is used, the resulting reading will be:
A) Too low reading of altitude.
B) Too high reading of altitude.
C) Too low reading of airspeed.
D) No reading of airspeed.

55- When flying with an indicated altitude of 3000 ft into a low pressure area, the actual
altitude:
A) Will decrease.
B) Will increase.
C) Will be the same as indicated altitude.
D) Will be as before entering a low-pressure area.

56- The altimeter is based upon the same principle as:

A) The aneroid barometer.
B) The hygrometer.
C) The mercury barometer.
D) The Bourdon tube manometer.

57- When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013.25 hPa, what type of
altitude is being measured?
A) Relative height.
B) Pressure altitude.
C) Indicated altitude.
D) True altitude.

58- When the sea level OAT is +25 °C, the deviation from standard temperature for aerodynamic
computations is:
A) 0° C
B) +15° C
C) -10° C
D) +10° C

59- Without re-adjusting the barometric setting of the altimeter, it will under-read when:
A) Flying from a low pressure area into a high pressure area.
B) Flying from a high pressure area into a low pressure area.
C) Flying in headwind with constant barometric pressure.
D) Flying in tailwind with constant barometric pressure

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60- We are maintaining a constant flight level. That means:
A) The altitude above sea level is constant.
B) The outside air pressure is constant.
C) The altitude is constant when the sea level pressure is constant.
D) The outside air pressure is constant if the temperature remains constant.

61- An aircraft is maintaining a level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to
2400 meters AMSL. If the regional QNH is 998 hPa (use 30 ft/hPa), what is the approximate
terrain clearance?
A) 2681 feet
B) 1680 feet
C) 7869 feet
D) 450 feet

62- You are departing an aerodrome (600 ft AMSL, QNH 1012 hPa) and proceed to another
airfield (150 ft AMSL) with the same QNH. After landing, which barometric setting on the
altimeter makes it again indicate 600 ft?
A) 1027
B) 997
C) 1032
D) 992

63- The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of
the rate of change of:
A) Kinetic pressure.
B) Dynamic pressure.
C) Total pressure.
D) Static pressure.

64- The response time of a vertical speed detector may be improved by adding a:
A) Return spring.
B) Bimetallic strip.
C) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
D) Second calibrated port.
65- A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between:
A) The dynamic pressure and the static pressure.
B) The total pressure and the static pressure.
C) The total instantaneous pressure and the total pressure at a previous moment.
D) The instantaneous static pressure and the static pressure at a previous moment.

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66- If the static intakes are completely clogged up by ice during a climb, the VSI shows:
A) A descent if the outside static pressure is less than the pressure in the VSI-gauge.
B) Zero.
C) A constant rate of climb, even if the aircraft is levelling out.
D) An increasing rate of climb if the ambient static pressure decreases.
67- If the static source of a Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) becomes blocked during a climb, the
instrument will:
A) Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.
B) Gradually indicate zero.
C) Under-read,
D) Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
68- What happens when the static pressure supply to a Vertical Speed Indicator becomes
blocked during a descent?
A) Reading gradually reduces to zero.
B) Over-reads.
C) Under-reads.
D) Indicates altitude at which blockage occurred.
69- The Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) gives:
A) Immediate trend information and immediate climb or descent information.
B) Immediate trend information and stable climb or descent information after 6 to 12 seconds
(depending or type).
C) No trend information, but stable climb or descent information after 6 to 12 seconds (depending
on type).
D) Immediate stable climb or descent information, but unreliable trend information.
70- Within a temperature range of +50°C and -20°C the VSI is accurate to within limits of:
A) ± 200 ft/min
B) ± 0 ft/min
C) ± 75 ft/min
D) ± 300 ft/min
71- Which statement is correct for the Vertical Speed indicator (VSI) during a climb?
A) The pressure inside the capsule equalizes the pressure inside the case.
B) The pressure inside the capsule drops faster than the pressure inside the case.
C) The pressure inside the case drops faster than the pressure inside the capsule.
D) The pressure inside the capsule drops slower than the pressure inside the case.
72- VNO is the maximum speed:
A) Which must never be exceeded.
B) Maximum structure cruising speed.
C) At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
D) With flaps extended in landing position.

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73- A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes
the airspeed indictor to:
A) React like an altimeter.
B) Read a little high.
C) Read a little low.
D) Freeze at zero.
74- In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
A) Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
B) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
C) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
D) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
75- VLO is the maximum:
A) Flight speed with landing gear down.
B) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
C) Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
D) Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

76- The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
B) VS0 for the lower limit and VN0 for the upper limit.
C) VS1 for the lower limit and VN0 for the upper limit.
D) VS1 for the lower limit and VL0 for the upper limit.
77- The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are:
A) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
B) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
C) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
D) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.

78- The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS):
A) An instrument and density correction.
B) An antenna and compressibility correction.
C) An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
D) A compressibility and density correction.

79- A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

A) Position, maneuver induced, temperature.
B) Position, maneuver induced.
C) Position, maneuver induced, density.
D) Position, maneuver induced, instrument.

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80- When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the
true airspeed (TAS) will:
A) Increase at a linear rate.
B) Decrease.
C) Increase at an exponential rate.
D) Remain constant.

81- With a pitot probe blocked due to ice buildup, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a:
A) Decreasing speed.
B) Constant speed.
C) Increasing speed.
D) Fluctuating speed.

82- The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:
A) The total pressure.
B) The total pressure and the static pressure.
C) The static pressure.
D) The dynamic pressure.

83- If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:
A) Under-read.
B) Read zero.
C) Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
D) Over-read.

84- VNE is the maximum speed:

A) At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
B) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
C) Which must never be exceeded.
D) With flaps extended in landing position.

85- For a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will
result in a:
A) Lower true airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
B) Higher true airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
C) Higher true airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
D) Lower true airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.

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86- A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator
would cause it to:
A) Over read.
B) Under read.
C) Indication will drop to zero.
D) Freeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure.

87- The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS0 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
B) VS1 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
C) VS0 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
D) VS1 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.

88- During a climb after takeoff from a contaminated runway if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed:
A) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
B) Increases steadily.
C) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
D) Decreases steadily.

89- A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to:
A) Read like a vertical speed indicator.
B) React like an altimeter.
C) Operate normally.
D) Freeze at zero.

90- An airspeed indicator displays:

A) IAS
B) EAS
C) CAS
D) TAS

91- An airspeed indicator includes a capsule; inside this capsule is:

A) A very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
B) Static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.
C) Dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
D) Total pressure and outside is static pressure.

92- Assuming that the CAS remains constant, if the total pressure probe is blocked, the IAS;
A) Remains constant during level flight, decreases during a climb and increases during a descent.
B) Remains constant during level flight, increases during a climb and decreases during a descent.
C) Increases during level flight, remains constant during a climb and a descent.
D) Remains constant during all phases of the flight.

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93- Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained from indicated airspeed (IAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1) Position
2) Compressibility
3) Instrument
4) Density altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 2,3,4
B) 3,4
C) 1,3,4
D) 1,3

94- Static vents are usually fitted to both sides of the aircraft fuselage. This will:
A) Reduce the position error.
B) Balance out errors caused by side slipping or yawing.
C) Require a calibration card for each static vent.
D) Enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted.

95- CAS can be obtained from the following data:

A) TAS and pressure altitude.
B) EAS and density altitude.
C) EAS and pressure altitude.
D) TAS and density altitude.

96- Concerning the airspeed indicator, IAS is:

A) The indicated reading on the instrument.
B) The indicated reading on an instrument presumed to be perfect.
C) The indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors.
D) The indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error only.

97- Considering the relationship between CAS and EAS:

A) EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on density altitude.
B) EAS is always greater than or equal to CAS.
C) EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on pressure altitude.
D) EAS is always lower than or equal to CAS.

98- During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked; if the
pilot tries to maintain a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:
A) Increases until reaching VMO.
B) Decreases until reaching the stall speed.
C) Decreases by 1% per 600 ft.
D) Increases by 1% per 600 ft.

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99- Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is obtained from calibrated airspeed (CAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1) Position
2) Compressibility
3) Instrument
4) Density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
A) 2,4
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1,2,3,4

100- Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is obtained from indicated airspeed (IAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1) Instrument
2) Position
3) Density
4) Compressibility
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,4
C) 1,2
D) 1,2,3,4

101- Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is:

A) Calibrated airspeed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.
B) Calibrated airspeed (CAS) corrected for density error.
C) True airspeed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.
D) True airspeed (TAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors
102- Given:
PT = total pressure
PD = dynamic pressure
PS = static pressure
PSO = static pressure at sea level
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is a function of:
A) PT - PD
B) PT – PSO
C) PT -PS
D) (PT – PSO) / PS

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103- Given:
PT = total pressure
PS = static pressure
PD = dynamic pressure
The airspeed indicator is fed by:
A) PS- PT
B) PD
C) PT-PD
D) PD-PS
104- If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into
warmer air:
A) Mach number increases.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAS increases.
D) Mach number decreases.
105- If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into
colder air:
A) Mach number increases.
B) TAS increases.
C) TAS decreases.
D) Mach number decreases.
106- In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the equivalent airspeed (EAS) is:
A) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
B) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
C) Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
D) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
107- In standard atmosphere, when descending at constant CAS:
A) TAS remains constant.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAs increases.
D) TAS first increases and then remains constant below the tropopause.
108- In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to:
A) IAS
B) EAS
C) TAS
D) IAS and EAS

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109- Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in:
A) Lower TAS because air density increases.
B) Lower TAS because air density decreases.
C) Higher TAS because air density increases.
D) Higher TAS because air density decreases.

110- TAS can be obtained from the following data:

A) CAS and pressure altitude.
B) EAS and pressure altitude.
C) CAS and density altitude.
D) EAS and density altitude.

111- The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:
A) Mach number.
B) Pressure altitude.
C) OAT.
D) Density altitude.

112- The pressure capsule of an airspeed indicator is sensitive to the difference:

A) (Total Pressure - Dynamic Pressure), called Static Pressure.
B) (Dynamic Pressure - Static Pressure), called Total Pressure.
C) (Total Pressure - Static Pressure), called Dynamic Pressure.
D) (Dynamic Pressure - Total Pressure), called Static Pressure.

113- True airspeed (TAS) is obtained from calibrated airspeed (CAS) by correcting for the
following errors:
1) Instrument
2) Compressibility
3) Position
4) Density altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
A) 2,4
B) 2
C) 4
D) 1,2,3,4

284
114- True airspeed (TAS) is obtained from indicated airspeed (IAS) by correcting for the following
errors:
1) Instrument
2) Position
3) Compressibility
4) Density altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 3,4
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 1,2
D) 1,3,4

115- When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:

A) TAS decreases.
B) TAS increases.
C) TAS remains constant
D) TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.

116- When climbing at a constant CAS:

A) EAS decreases.
B) EAS increases.
C) EAS remains constant.
D) EAS does not depend on altitude.

117- When descending at a constant CAS:

A) EAS increases.
B) EAS decreases.
C) EAS remains constant.
D) EAS does not depend on altitude.

118- With EAS and density altitude, we can deduce:

A) CAS and TAS
B) CAS
C) TAS
D) IAS

119- With EAS and pressure altitude, we can deduce:

A) TAS
B) CAS
C) CAS and TAS
D) IAS

285
120- The input connections to an airspeed indicator are from:
A) A static source only.
B) A pitot source only.
C) Both pitot and static sources.
D) Pitot and static sources and outside air temperature sensor.
121- If the static pressure port iced over while descending from altitude, the airspeed indicator
would read:
A) Zero
B) High
C) Low
D) Correctly
122- The position error of an ASI results from:
A) Mechanical differences in individual instruments.
B) The difference in air density from sea level ISA density.
C) The effects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head.
D) The fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds.
123- At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:
A) EAS
B) TAS
C) Ground speed
D) CAS

124- An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot probe measures:
A) Total pressure and static pressure.
B) Dynamic pressure.
C) Static pressure.
D) Total pressure.
125- If a pitot source is blocked in an airspeed indicator (ASI), the drain hole is blocked, but the
static source is open, what will happen?
A) ASI reading goes to zero.
B) ASI under-reads
C) ASI over-reads.
D) ASI behaves like an altimeter.
126- If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at altitude by icing, during a descent the airspeed
indicator will:
A) Read constant airspeed.
B) Under-read.
C) Over-read.
D) Show zero.

286
127- What happens when the static vent supplying an airspeed indicator (ASI) is blocked, and the
ram air inlet remains clear?
A) ASI acts opposite to an altimeter.
B) ASI always over-reads/reads a higher value.
C) ASI always under-reads/reads a lower value.
D) ASI acts like an altimeter.
128- The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range?
A) VS0 to VN0.
B) VS1 to VFE.
C) VS1 to VN0.
D) VS1 to VL0.
129- During a climb, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the indicated
airspeed:
A) Is underestimated.
B) Is overestimated.
C) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
D) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
130- The airspeed indicator measures:
A) Absolute pressure.
B) Total pressure.
C) Differential pressure.
D) Relative pressure.

131- What is the significance of the yellow arc in an airspeed indicator?

A) Flap operating range.
B) Never exceed range.
C) Structural warning range.
D) Normal operating range.

132- What corrections must be applied to indicated airspeed to produce true airspeed?
A) Correction for heading and altitude.
B) Correction for wind and temperature.
C) Correction for altitude and wind.
D) Correction for altitude and temperature.

133- The upper airspeed limit of the green arc on the airspeed indicator represents:
A) Maximum structural cruising speed (VN0).
B) Landing gear lowering speed (VLE).
C) Design maneuvering speed (VA).
D) Maximum allowable speed for smooth-air operations (VNE)·

287
134- As an airplane climbs higher, the true airspeed for a given indicated airspeed will:
A) Be lower than indicated.
B) The true airspeed and the indicated will be the same.
C) Decrease.
D) Increase.

135- Indicated airspeed (as read on the airspeed indicator) will:

A) Increase in headwind.
B) Increase in tailwind.
C) Decrease in tailwind.
D) Remain unchanged in headwind and tailwind.

136- Match true airspeed (TAS) with the associated definition:

A) The airspeed you read directly from the airspeed indicator.
B) Calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature.
C) Actual speed of an aircraft over ground.
D) Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors.
137- Match ground speed (GS) with the associated definition:
A) Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors.
B) Calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature.
C) Actual speed of an aircraft over ground.
D) The airspeed you read directly from airspeed indicator.
138- Correcting an EAS value of 150 kts, a TAS value of 146 kts is obtained, when:
A) An error must have been made in the calculation.
B) No allowance has been made for compressibility.
C) The density of the atmosphere must be greater than the ISA mean sea level air density.
D) No allowance has been made for position error.
139- TAS is:
A) Ground speed.
B) The reading on the ASI.
C) The aircraft's true airspeed which is EAS corrected for altitude and temperature.
D) True airspeed of the aircraft which is IAS corrected for altitude and temperature.

140- In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
concentration of the mass:
A) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
B) Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
C) On the periphery and with a low rotation speed.
D) Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

288
141- The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:
A) Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor.
B) Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor.
C) Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor.
D) Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor.

142- Using a classic (air driven) Artificial Horizon, the aircraft performs a right 270° turn at a
constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:
A) Nose up, too much bank.
B) Nose up, not enough bank.
C) Nose up, wings level.
D) Bank and pitch correct.

143- When executing a turn by 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon (air
driven) indicates:
A) Nose up and correct angle of bank.
B) Attitude and bank angle are correct.
C) Nose up and bank angle too low.
D) Nose up and bank angle too high.

144- The basic properties of a gyroscope are:

1) The gyros weight.
2) The rigidity in space.
3) The inertia.
4) The high RPM.
5) The precession.
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 3,4
B) 2,5
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 1,3,5

145- The inertia of a gyroscope is greater when:

A) Its rotation speed is lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis of
rotation.
B) Its rotation speed is higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotation.
C) Its rotation speed is higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis
of rotation.
D) Its rotation speed is lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotation.

289
146- The properties of a gyroscope are:
1) Rigidity in space
2) Rigidity on Earth
3) Precession
4) Schuler oscillations
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,4
B) 2,3
C) 1,3
D) 2,4

147- The main advantage of electric gyros is:

A) Light weight, high RPM, constant speed, inexpensive.
B) High RPM, only require low voltage DC, constant speed, sealed casing.
C) High RPM, high moment of inertia, rapid build-up of speed, constant RPM.
D) Sealed casing, constant speed, high precession rate, low cost.

148- Rigidity in a gyroscope is:

A) A way to express the stability of the inner and out gimbal rings.
B) To what extremes the flight attitudes might be before the gyro topples.
C) The reaction 90° in the direction of rotation when apply ing force to the spinning wheel.
D) The tendency it has to remain in its plane of rotation and resist attempts to alter its position.

149- Precession in a gyroscope is:

A) The tendency it has to remain in its plane of rotation.
B) A caging device.
C) The angular limits to which the gimbals may travel before the gyro topples and the indication
becomes useless.
D) The reaction at 90° in direction of rotation caused by an applied force to the spinning wheel.

150- How is vacuum provided for the air driven gyro instruments?
A) By the static tube.
B) By an engine-driven pump.
C) By the static vent.
D) All of the above.

151- Air driven gyro rotors are prevented from spinning too fast by the:
A) Air filter.
B) Vacuum relief valve.
C) Suction gauge.
D) Bearing friction.

290
152- What is the main cause of precession?
A) Magnetic variation.
B) Magnetic declination.
C) Bearing friction.
D) The Earth's rotation.

153- A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon:
1) Bank angle
2) Aeroplane speed
3) Aeroplane weight
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
A) 2,3
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,2
D) 1,3

154- An aircraft is flying at a 120 kts TAS. In order to achieve a standard Rate turn, the pilot will
have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:
A) 30°
B) 12°
C) 36°
D) 19°

155- On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:
A) Needle to the right, ball to left.
B) Needle to the right, ball to right.
C) Needle in the middle, ball to right.
D) Needle in the middle, ball to left.

156- If the needle and the ball of a Turn and Slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate:
A) Turn to left and too much bank.
B) Turn to right and too much bank.
C) Turn to left and too little bank.
D) Turn to right and too little bank

157- In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications on Turn and Slip Indicator are:
A) Needle left, ball right.
B) Needle left, ball left.
C) Needle right, ball right.
D) Needle right, ball left.

291
158- On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:
A) Needle in the middle, ball to the left.
B) Needle to the left, ball to the left.
C) Needle in the middle, ball to the right.
D) Needle to the left, ball to the right.

159- When in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft
is:
A) Turning left with not enough bank.
B) Turning left with too much bank.
C) Turning right with too much bank.
D) Turning right with not enough bank.

160- The rate of turn is the:

A) Yaw rate in a turn.
B) Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft.
C) Aircraft speed in a turn.
D) Pitch rate in a turn.

161- On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and ball to the right indicates:
A) Turn to the right, not enough bank.
B) Turn to the left, too much bank.
C) Turn to the left, not enough bank.
D) Turn to the right, too much bank.

162- In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:
A) Independent to the aircraft true airspeed.
B) Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.
C) Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.
D) Proportional to the aircraft weight.

163- When in flight, the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are on the right, the aircraft
is:
A) Turning left with too much bank.
B) Turning right with not enough bank.
C) Turning right with too much bank.
D) Turning left with not enough bank.

164- In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:

A) Independent of weight and proportional a to TAS.
B) Dependent on weight and inversely proportional to TAS.
C) Independent of weight and inversely proportional a to TAS.
D) Dependent on weight and proportional to TAS.

292
165- Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn
indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument. When it is used together with an
attitude indicator, the rate-of-turn indicator provides information on:
1) The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
2) The bank of the aircraft
3) The direction of the aircraft turn
4) The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 3,4
B) 2,4
C) 1,3
D) 1,2

166- A rate gyro is used in a:

1) Directional gyro indicator
2) Turn coordinator
3) Artificial horizon
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
A) 2
B) 1,2,3
C) 1
D) 1,2

167- The rate of turn given by the rate of turn indicator is valid:
A) For all airspeeds.
B) For the airspeed range defined during the calibration of the instrument.
C) With flaps retracted only.
D) For the cruising speed.

168- The factors which will affect a Turn Indicator are:

1) Angle of bank
2) Aircraft speed
3) Aircraft weight
A) 1,2
B) 1,3
C) 2,3
D) All

293
169- What angle of bank should you adopt on the attitude indicator for a standard rate turn
while flying at an IAS of 80 kts?
A) 8°
B) 12°
C) 15°
D) 20°

170- What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn and slip
indicator?
A) The turn coordinator is always electric; the turn and slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
B) The turn coordinator indicates bank angle only; the turn and slip indicator indicates rate of turn
and coordination.
C) The turn coordinator indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and co-ordination; the turn and slip
indicator indicates rate of turn and co-ordination.
D) The turn coordinator indicates angle of bank; the turn and slip indicator indicates turn rate in
coordinated flight.

171- The needle of the Turn and Bank indicator shows:

A) The bank angle at which the aircraft is turning about the roll axis.
B) The rate at which the aircraft is turning about the yaw axis.
C) The pitch angle during a turn.
D) The rate at which the aircraft is rolling into a turn.

172- The higher the airspeed is:

A) The higher the bank angle must be to turn at the standard rate.
B) The lower the bank angle must be to turn at the standard rate.
C) There is no relation between the speed and the rate of turn.
D) The higher the left or right rudder input must be to turn in a coordinated manner.

173- A direction gyro is corrected for accurate directional information using:

A) Air data computer.
B) Direct reading magnetic compass.
C) Flight director.
D) Flux valve.

174- When an aircraft has turned 360° with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
following on a classic (air driven) artificial horizon:
A) Too much nose up and bank too low.
B) Too much nose up and bank correct.
C) Too much nose up and bank too high.
D) Attitude and bank are correct.

294
175- During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial
horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:
A) Constant attitude.
B) Nose-down attitude.
C) Nose-up attitude.
D) Nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude.

176- You have just taken off in a fast aircraft fitted with a vacuum operated attitude indicator.
While climbing straight ahead still accelerating, the instrument may for a short while indicate:
A) A high nose-up attitude.
B) A flatter attitude than actual.
C) A climbing turn to the left.
D) A climbing turn to the right.

177- Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon (air
driven) indicates:
A) Too high pitch-up and too low banking.
B) Too high pitch-up and correct banking.
C) Attitude and banking correct.
D) Too high pitch-up and too high banking.

178- During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of an air driven
artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a:
A) Nose up attitude.
B) Nose down attitude.
C) Constant attitude.
D) Nose up followed by a nose down attitude.
179- The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heeding by means of a:
A) Map showing the isoclinic lines.
B) Map showing the isogonal lines.
C) Deviation correction curve.
D) Compass swinging curve.
180- In the vicinity of the Magnetic North Pole the magnetic compass is useless because:
A) The magnetic field is too strong.
B) The magnetic pole is moving.
C) The horizontal component of the magnetic field is too weak.
D) The variation is too large.
181- Variation is defined as the angle between:
A) MN and CN.
B) TN and CN.
C) TN and MN.
D) CN and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
295
182- The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:
A) Compass north and True North.
B) Compass north and Magnetic North.
C) True North and Magnetic North.
D) Compass north and the lubber line.

183- The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass:
A) On a given heading.
B) On any heading.
C) At any latitude.
D) At a given latitude.

184- The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:
A) Map showing the isogonic lines.
B) Map showing the isoclinic lines.
C) Deviation correction curve.
D) Compass swinging curve.

185- Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible:

A) Variation.
B) Deviation.
C) Regulation.
D) Acceleration.

186- The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:

1) Magnetic masses
2) Ferrous metal masses
3) Nonferrous metal masses
4) Electrical currents
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2,4
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,3,4

187- The magnetic heading can be derived from the compass heading by reference to a:
A) Magnetic variation correction card.
B) Map showing the magnetic variation lines.
C) Compass deviation card.
D) Map showing the isogonic lines.

296
188- Concerning magnetic compass, deviation is:
A) The angular difference between Magnetic North and True North.
B) The angular difference between Magnetic North and Compass North.
C) The angular difference between Compass North and True North.
D) A card in the cockpit showing compass heading errors.

189- During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made
for the northern hemisphere indicates:
A) An apparent turn to the west.
B) No apparent turn only on northern latitudes.
C) No apparent turn.
D) An apparent turn to the east.

190- A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North.
Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this, he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
A) 190°
B) 200°
C) 170°
D) 160°

191- In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly

direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
A) An apparent turn to the south.
B) An apparent turn to the north.
C) A constant heading.
D) A heading fluctuating about 090°.

192- In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction,
the magnetic compass will indicate:
A) A heading fluctuating about 270°.
B) An apparent turn to the north.
C) No apparent turn.
D) An apparent turn to the south.

193- A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 40°
North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this, he must stop the turn on to an
approximate heading of:
A) 030°
B) 350°
C) 330°
D) 010°

297
194- If an aircraft fitted with a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass (DRMC), takes off on a westerly
heading, in the northern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:
A) A turn to the north.
B) Oscillates about west.
C) No turn.
D) A turn to south.

195- During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass made
for the southern hemisphere Indicates:
A) No apparent turn.
B) An apparent turn to the east.
C) An apparent turn to the west.
D) A heading fluctuating about 360°.

196- An-aircraft is taking off on a runway heading 045°, in still air, with a compass having 0°
deviation. The runway is on an agonic line. What will the compass read if you are in the
northern hemisphere?
A) Compass moves to less than 045°.
B) Compass moves to more than 045°.
C) Compass stays on 045° if wings are kept level.
D) Compass remains on 045°.

197- In the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly

direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
A) A heading fluctuating about 090°.
B) An apparent turn to the south.
C) No apparent turn.
D) An apparent turn to the north.

198- A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50° North.
Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this, he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
A) 355°
B) 030°
C) 330°
D) 015°

199- An aircraft is fitted with a direct reading magnetic compass. Upon landing in a northerly
direction the compass will indicate:
A) No change.
B) An oscillation to its north alignment.
C) A turn towards east.
D) A turn towards west.

298
200- A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20°
North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this, he must stop the turn on an
approximate heading of:
A) 170°
B) 150°
C) 200°
D) 190°

201- Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass?

1) Ferrous metals
2) Nonferrous metals
3) Electrical equipment
A) 1
B) 1,3
C) 1,2
D) 1,2,3

202- In the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction,
the magnetic Compass will indicate:
A) No apparent turn.
B) A heading fluctuation about 270°.
C) An apparent turn to the north.
D) An apparent turn to the south.

203- In northern hemisphere, an aircraft takes off on a runway with an alignment of 45°. The
isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is 0°. On a takeoff with
zero wind, the compass error:
A) Will be null.
B) Is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045°.
C) Is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045°.
D) Will be null if the wings are kept level.

204- About a magnetic compass:

A) Errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose.
B) Acceleration errors are due to the compass deviation.
C) Acceleration errors are due to Schuler oscillations.
D) Turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.

205- Concerning the direct reading magnetic compass, the turning error:
A) Does not depend on the magnetic latitude.
B) Decreases with the magnetic latitude.
C) Increases with the magnetic latitude.
D) Decreases with the magnetic longitude.

299
206- The direct indicating compass is no more reliable when approaching:
1) The magnetic poles
2) The magnetic equator with an east or west heading
3) The magnetic equator with a north or south heading
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,2
B) 1,2,3
C) 1
D) 1,3

207- The turning errors of a direct reading magnetic compass are:

A) Maximum at the magnetic equator.
B) Maximum at the magnetic poles.
C) Minimum at a latitude of 45°.
D) Minimum at the magnetic poles.

208- A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

A) Crosswinds - particularly on east/west headings.
B) Parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose.
C) Acceleration on east/west headings.
D) Turning through east/west headings.

209- An aircraft turns to the right, through 90° heading, onto a heading of North, at 48°N, using a
direct indicating compass. The aircraft bank angle is 30°. What heading should the aircraft roll
out on?
A) 010°
B) 030°
C) 330°
D) 350°

210- You commence a turn from south-east to southwest, in the northern hemisphere. On what
heading do you stop the turn?
A) 215°
B) 255°
C) 225°
D) 205°

300
211- An aircraft lands on a southerly direction in the northern hemisphere. The compass
indication will:
A) Oscillate about 180°.
B) Not change.
C) Increase.
D) Decrease.

212- About a magnetic compass:

A) Turning error is due to the angle of dip.
B) Acceleration errors are due to crosswind and gusts.
C) Acceleration errors are due to Schuler oscillations.
D) Errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose.

213- In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards
north if:
A) An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
B) An aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
C) A left turn is entered from a west heading.
D) A right turn is entered from an east heading.

214- At which altitude the pressure decrease approximately more than half?
A) 16000 ft
B) 15000 ft
C) 18000 ft
D) 12000 ft
215- What is the value of standard pressure based on PSI at sea level?
A) 14.7
B) 2116
C) 1013.2
D) A and B are correct
216- Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A) Warm air has less dense than cold air.
B) Density varies with both temperature & pressure.
C) Humidity affects the density of the air in higher degree.
D) Humid air has less dense than dry air.
217- What is the maneuvering speed?
A) VLE
B) VLO
C) VNO
D) VA

301
218- When operating in aerodrome at sea level you maintain 70 kts in indicated airspeed for
approaching to land, how would you adjust your indicated airspeed when operate at
aerodrome with 8000 ft field elevation ISA condition?
A) Increase airspeed
B) Remain constant
C) Decrease airspeed
D) None
219- What is acceptable altitude error for altimeter in?
A) 85 ft
B) 55 ft
C) 75 ft
D) 70 ft
220- Temperature has effect on ………….
A) Altimeter
B) Airspeed indicator
C) VVI
D) Heading indicator
221- In which phase of flight the difference between indicated and calibrated airspeed is
greatest & lowest:
A) Slow speed-cruising speed
B) Slow speed-slow speed
C) Cruising speed-slow speed
D) Cruising speed-cruising speed
222- At high altitude the airplane must fly slightly ----------- to obtain equivalent pressure on the
Pitot tube as sea level.
A) Slower
B) Faster
C) As same as
D) Faster if you are flying below 10000 ft
223- Which one is of following factor effect on VA?
A) Angle of attack
B) Weight
C) Stall speed
D) All answers are correct
224- Which one of the following statement is wrong?
A) Rigidity is a spinning mass tend to remain in fix position.
B) In precession the reaction to this force occur in the direction of rotation, approximately 90˚ ahead
of point that force applied.
C) Precession cause the error in some gyroscopic instrument.
D) All answers are incorrect.

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225- What is/are the source of gyroscopic instrument?
A) Vacuum
B) Electrical
C) Pitot pressure
D) A & B are correct

226- When suction pressure is too low which instrument does not provide reliable information?
A) Heading - attitude
B) Heading - altimeter
C) Attitude - altimeter
D) B and C are correct

227- Turn coordinator rotate about ………. and …………. axis

A) Vertical - lateral
B) Lateral - longitudinal
C) Vertical - longitudinal
D) A and B are correct

228- What information does show by ball in turn coordinator?

A) Bank angle
B) Quantity of turn
C) Quality of turn
D) All answers are correct

229- In standard rate turn the airplane make an orbit within:

A) 30 sec
B) 90 sec
C) 60 sec
D) 120 sec
230- How long does need to make turn from heading 360° to 180° by one-half standard
coordinate turn?
A) 1 min
B) 2 min
C) 30 sec
D) 1 min 30 sec

231- Slip is ........

A) Rate of turn is too slow for bank angle
B) Rate of turn is too great for bank angle
C) Ball is in opposite direction of turn
D) B and C are correct

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232- Skid is ........
A) Rate of turn is too slow for bank angle
B) Rate of turn is too great for bank angle
C) Ball is in opposite direction of turn
D) B and C are correct
233- In flight the pilot encounter to slip condition, the pilot shall:
A) Decrease bank angle
B) Increase rudder
C) Decrease weight
D) All answers are correct
234- To correct skid, the pilot shall:
A) Increase bank angle
B) Increase rudder
C) Increase weight
D) All answers are correct
235- How can pilot correct ball in turn coordinator?
A) By rudder
B) By aileron
C) By elevator
D) B and C are correct
236- Inclinometer can help to recognize torque and adverse yaw:
A) True
B) False
237- During climb which direction the ball move
A) Left
B) Right
C) Lowest part
D) A and C are correct
238- The magnetic compass:
A) Is a dependent unit uses a little electric current.
B) Is a unit called direction seeking instrument using generator magnetic field.
C) Is a self-contained unit is independent of external vacuum and use magnetism.
D) Is a reliable unit used for navigation in light airplanes and as a standby in modern jet airplanes.
239- In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the
north if:
A) The aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
B) The aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
C) A right turn is entered from an east heading.
D) A left turn is entered from a west heading.

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240- In the Northern hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the
south when:
A) Left turn is entered from an east heading.
B) A right turn is entered from a west heading.
C) The aircraft is accelerated while on an east heading.
D) The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
241- In the Northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn
toward the east if:
A) An aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
B) An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C) A right turn is entered from a north heading.
D) A left turn is entered from a north heading.
242- Assume an altimeter indicates an altitude of 3500 ft MSL with an altimeter setting of
29.42", what is the approximate pressure altitude?
A) 4000 ft
B) 3550 ft
C) 3450 ft
D) 3000 ft
243- If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11" to 29.96". What is the approximate
change in indication?
A) Altimeter will indicate 15 ft higher
B) Altimeter will indicate 15 ft lower
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 ft lower
D) Altimeter will indicate 150 ft higher
244- An altimeter is set to 29.84" Hg and the correct altimeter setting is 30.00" Hg. If under these
conditions a landing is made at an airport where the field elevation is 772 ft the altimeter
would indicate approximately:
A) 932 ft
B) 160 ft
C) 612 ft
D) 772 ft

245- Enroute at FL250 the altimeter is set correctly. On descent a pilot fails to reset it to a local
altimeter setting of 30.57". If the field elevation is 650 ft and the altimeter is functioning
properly what will it indicate after landing?
A) Sea level
B) 585 ft
C) 715 ft
D) 1300ft

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246- What is the maximum possible value of dip angle?
A) 66°
B) 180°
C) 90°
D) 45°

247- Given:
True track: 245°
Drift: 5°right
Variation: 3°E
Compass HDG: 242°
Calculate the magnetic heading.
A) 247°
B) 243°
C) 237°
D) 253°

248- Given:
Variation: 7°W
Deviation: 4°E
If the aircraft is flying a compass heading of 270°, the true and magnetic headings are:
A) 274°(T), 267°(M).
B) 267°(T), 274°(M).
C) 277° (T), 281°(M).
D) 263°(T), 259°(M).
249- Given:
True Track: 352°
Variation: 11° W
Deviation: -5°
Drift: 10° R
What is heading?
A) 078° (C)
B) 346° (C)
C) 358° (C)
D) 025° (C)
250- The value of variation:
A) Is zero at the mid-latitude.
B) Has a maximum value of 180°.
C) Has a maximum value of 45°E or 45°W.
D) Cannot exceed 90°.

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QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

1 A 26 B 51 C 76 C
2 B 27 D 52 D 77 D
3 B 28 B 53 A 78 C
4 B 29 D 54 B 79 D
5 D 30 B 55 A 80 B
6 A 31 B 56 A 81 A
7 A 32 C 57 B 82 A
8 B 33 C 58 D 83 D
9 D 34 C 59 A 84 C
10 D 35 B 60 B 85 A
11 B 36 A 61 B 86 B
12 A 37 D 62 A 87 A
13 B 38 C 63 D 88 B
14 A 39 C 64 C 89 B
15 B 40 B 65 D 90 A
16 B 41 A 66 B 91 D
17 B 42 B 67 B 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 A 93 D
19 A 44 C 69 B 94 B
20 A 45 C 70 A 95 C
21 D 46 C 71 B 96 A
22 B 47 C 72 B 97 D
23 B 48 A 73 A 98 B
24 C 49 B 74 C 99 C
25 B 50 B 75 B 100 B

307
QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

101 A 126 B 151 B 176 D

102 C 127 A 152 C 177 B
103 B 128 C 153 C 178 B
104 C 129 B 154 D 179 B
105 C 130 C 155 A 180 C
106 D 131 C 156 B 181 C
107 B 132 D 157 D 182 B
108 A 133 A 158 D 183 B
109 A 134 D 159 B 184 D
110 D 135 D 160 B 185 B
111 D 136 B 161 C 186 B
112 C 137 C 162 C 187 C
113 A 138 C 163 C 188 B
114 B 139 C 164 C 189 C
115 B 140 A 165 C 190 D
116 A 141 A 166 B 191 A
117 A 142 A 167 B 192 D
118 C 143 C 168 A 193 C
119 B 144 B 169 B 194 A
120 C 145 C 170 C 195 A
121 B 146 C 171 B 196 A
122 C 147 C 172 A 197 D
123 D 148 D 173 B 198 B
124 D 149 D 174 D 199 A
125 D 150 B 175 C 200 C

308
QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

201 B 214 C 227 C 240 D

202 C 215 A 228 C 241 D
203 B 216 C 229 D 242 A
204 D 217 D 230 B 243 C
205 C 218 B 231 A 244 C
206 C 219 C 232 D 245 A
207 B 220 C 233 A 246 C
208 C 221 A 234 A 247 C
209 C 222 B 235 A 248 B
210 B 223 B 236 A 249 C
211 B 224 D 237 B 250 B
212 A 225 D 238 C
213 A 226 A 239 A

309