Handout 1-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 1: Introduction to EMS Systems—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. According to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) of the

United States Department of Transportation, how many key attributes are there in an
integrated EMS system?

a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 14

2. An Emergency Medical Responder possesses all of the following skills EXCEPT:

a. defibrillation.
b. oxygen administration.
c. IV medication administration.
d. bleeding control.

3. Which individual involved with an EMS system is involved in both quality improvement
and protocol development?

a. Medical Director
b. Chief of the emergency department
c. EMT
d. Agency administrator

4. A 47-year-old patient has been injured in a serious motor vehicle crash. Which is the
most appropriate specialty hospital for this patient?

a. Pediatric center
b. Trauma center
c. Cardiovascular care center
d. Stroke center

5. The highest level of EMS provider is:

a. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician.

b. Emergency Medical Technician.
c. Emergency Transport Technician.
d. Paramedic.

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6. One of the important components of the medical legal standards in patient care is:

a. confidentiality.
b. community relations.
c. communications.
d. advocacy.

7. Emergency Medical Responder care is usually authorized by:

a. the National Registry.

b. state statutes and laws.
c. the patient’s physician.
d. department bylaws.

8. The place where 911 calls are initially answered is called a:

a. dispatch headquarters.
b. communication coordination center.
c. public safety answering point.
d. radio call center.

9. As an Emergency Medical Responder, which of the following should you set as your top
priority at the scene of an emergency?

a. CPR
b. Personal safety
c. Patient care
d. Traffic control

10. Demeanor is part of professionalism for the Emergency Medical Responder, and it has
which of the following as an attribute?

a. Advanced education
b. A take-charge attitude
c. Fearlessness
d. Respect

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Handout 2-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Principles of Emergency Care—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Written guidelines or instructions describing assessment and care are known as:

a. hospital care directives.

b. online medical controls.
c. prescription services.
d. protocols.

2. This is a form, requested by a patient and signed by a physician, refusing CPR if the heart
stops.

a. health care proxy

b. power of attorney
c. do not resuscitate order
d. ethics statement for the living

3. What is the name of the legal document that outlines instructions regarding a patient’s
medical decisions?

a. Breach of duty
b. Power of attorney
c. Advance directive
d. Release of confidence

4. If a competent adult refuses your care but you then provide it against his will, you could
be charged with (select best answer):

a. inadvertence.
b. abandonment.
c. negligence.
d. battery.

5. Failure to perform a required assessment or treatment or the incorrect performance of an

action is a(n):

a. proximate causation.
b. breach of duty.
c. abandonment.
d. disregard of proper action.

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6. The law that protects the confidentiality of protected health information is commonly
called:

a. HIPAA.
b. SEPA.
c. INPRO.
d. H-ACT.

7. An Emergency Medical Responder’s legal obligation to provide emergency care is

referred to as a(n):

a. duty to act.
b. scope of care.
c. implied consent.
d. standard of care.

8. In an emergency in which a patient is so severely injured that they cannot provide you
with verbal consent for you to treat them, you have the right to provide care based on:

a. implied consent
b. expressed consent
c. guardian consent
d. minor’s consent

9. A 16-year-old who is financially independent and living away from home as an adult by
permission of the courts is called a(n):

a. guardian minor
b. independent minor
c. emancipated minor
d. jurisdictional minor

10. Patients of legal age who are competent and who accept your care are giving what type of
legal consent?

a. Implied
b. Expressed
c. Guardian
d. Minor’s

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Handout 3-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 3: Wellness and Safety of the Emergency Medical Responder—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which of these EMS situations is most likely to be considered a significant stressor for
the Emergency Medical Responder?

a. Working a single-vehicle crash

b. An uncomplicated childbirth
c. A pediatric patient with serious trauma
d. An emergency worker with an ankle injury

2. What is the term that refers to the approach that all patients are considered infectious
until proven otherwise?

a. Pathogenic precautions
b. Universal precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. EMR basic precautions

3. Under the right conditions, pathogens can enter the body, multiply, and produce harmful
effects. Which of these is NOT a way they enter the body?

a. Ingestion
b. Injection
c. Absorption
d. Exculpation

4. Common infections that EMS providers are subject to are caused by organisms such as:

a. viruses, bacteria
b. viruses, tuberculosis
c. pathogens, bacteria
d. bacteria, fungi

5. Which of these are all types of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a. Uniform, synthetic gloves, gowns

b. Face masks, gowns, alcohol-based hand cleaner
c. Uniform, alcohol-based hand cleaner, eye protection
d. Face masks, synthetic gloves, eye protection

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6. To ensure they are not carriers of this pathogen/disease, Emergency Medical Responders
should be screened for:

a. tuberculosis.
b. tetanus.
c. hepatitis.
d. HIV.

7. It is critical that all Emergency Medical Responders wear which body substance isolation
device whenever a patient is suspected of having tuberculosis?

a. Eye shields or goggles

b. A HEPA respirator or N95 mask
c. A disposable gown and mask
d. Impervious boots and a helmet

8. If hand washing is indicated but you are in the field without soap and water available,
what should you do?

a. Wear gloves until soap and water are available

b. Do nothing now, but make sure that gloves are used on the next call
c. Take yourself out of service until soap and water can be found
d. Use an alcohol-based hand cleaner

9. For which type of call would you be most likely to use a gown?

a. A child with a fever

b. An elderly gentleman complaining of abdominal pain
c. A woman giving birth
d. An assault victim with no active bleeding

10. If an Emergency Medical Responder has an exposure and the contamination involves the
eyes, it is recommended that irrigation be done for a minimum of:

a. 10 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 45 minutes.

11. Appropriate lifestyle changes to aid in dealing with stress would include all of these steps
EXCEPT:

a. cutting down on sugar, fat, and caffeine.

b. avoiding exercise in your daily routine.
c. avoiding cigarettes and alcohol.
d. use of relaxation techniques.

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12. What should an Emergency Medical Responder always look around for when
approaching an emergency scene?

a. Hazards
b. Police
c. Water source
d. The perpetrator

13. A patient with a terminal illness has an outburst during which she yells, “Why is this
happening to me?” This patient is exhibiting what stage of the grieving process?

a. Bargaining
b. Depression
c. Denial
d. Anger

14. Disease-causing agents are called:

a. venoms.
b. toxemias.
c. pathogens.
d. amoebas.

15. Practices to prevent exposure to disease during patient contact are called:

a. infection precautions.
b. universal isolations.
c. disease control methods.
d. standard precautions.

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Handout 5-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 5: Introduction to Pathophysiology—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Pathophysiology is:

a. the study of healthy body systems and how they function together.
b. the study of what causes disease.
c. the study of human body structures.
d. the study of how disease processes affect body’s normal function.

2. What controls the movement of water and other substances into and out of a cell?

a. Cell nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. DNA
d. Cell metabolism

3. Which metabolic substance is a necessary component used by cells to metabolize glucose

into sufficient amounts of energy?

a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Electrolytes
d. DNA

4. What is the best explanation for why anaerobic metabolism is destructive?

a. It creates carbon dioxide, which is toxic to the human body in any amount.
b. It converts glucose instead of oxygen into cellular energy.
c. It causes an accumulation of waste, which becomes toxic for the cells.
d. It causes a decrease in the levels of oxygen, leading to hypoxia.

5. Fluid loss from excessive vomiting or sweating would decrease the amount of:

a. plasma.
b. cells.
c. membranes.
d. capillaries.

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6. Poor fluid distribution can be recognized through fluid accumulation, which can be
observed as what findings in areas such as the ankles and feet?

a. Permeability
b. Edema
c. Aerobic metabolism
d. Patency

7. What is the most common lower airway obstruction?

a. Alveolitis
b. The tongue
c. Soft tissue trauma
d. Bronchoconstriction

8. Gas exchange occurs only with the air that actually reaches the:

a. trachea.
b. alveoli.
c. peripheral cell membrane.
d. medulla oblongata.

9. All of these directly contribute to the pressure within the cardiovascular system,
EXCEPT:

a. the internal diameter of the blood vessels.

b. the blood volume.
c. the pumping of the heart.
d. the proper functioning of the medulla oblongata.

10. Shock is always the result of:

a. anaerobic metabolism.
b. bleeding.
c. hypoperfusion.
d. vessel dilation.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

Handout 6-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 6: Principles of Lifting, Moving, and Positioning of Patients—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A patient who is in shock is placed on the stretcher. Which of the following positions
would be most effective for this patient?

a. Supine
b. High Fowler’s position
c. Semi-Fowler’s position
d. Prone

2. An unresponsive patient with no suspected spine injury should be placed in:

a. right lateral recumbent position.

b. semi-Fowler’s position.
c. shock position.
d. recovery position.

3. During a log roll, which rescuer should give the signal to roll the patient?

a. The rescuer controlling the pelvis

b. The rescuer positioning the long backboard
c. The rescuer positioned at the head
d. The rescuer positioned at the feet

4. All of these are steps in the patient restraint process EXCEPT:

a. talking to the patient with a calm and clear voice.

b. securing the patient in the prone position.
c. checking the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation frequently after restraints
have been applied.
d. ensuring you use only force required to effectively restrain the patient.

5. Which of the following is most likely caused by improperly restraining uncooperative or

combative patients?

a. Pneumonia
b. Aneurysm
c. Diarrhea
d. Positional asphyxia

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6. A method used to move a patient by placing him on a blanket or sheet and pulling it
across the floor or ground is called:

a. blanket drag.
b. shoulder drag.
c. fireman’s carry.
d. direct ground lift.

7. The correct and efficient use of your body to facilitate lifting and moving is called
proper:

a. yoga stance.
b. daily routine.
c. body mechanics.
d. body alignment.

8. Which of the following statements represent a suggested guideline for safe lifting?

a. Bend at your knees and hips and keep your back straight.
b. Limit the lift to two team members.
c. Position your feet together.
d. Keep the weight about a foot from your body.

9. The lifting technique used to lift a patient who is on a stretcher is called a:

a. dead man’s lift.

b. bilateral leg lift.
c. power lift.
d. provider-assisted lift.

10. Which of these do NOT represent an indication for an emergent move?

a. You cannot adequately assess airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs), or bleeding.

b. You identify a dangerous environment where the patient is at risk for further
injury.
c. You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.
d. You cannot console a young child who has been injured.

11. The carry method used to move a patient with no suspected spine injury from a bed to a
stretcher is:

a. direct carry.
b. indirect carry.
c. extremity lift.
d. dead lift.

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12. A two-piece device often used to pick up patients is:

a. stair chair.
b. basket stretcher.
c. scoop stretcher.
d. spine board.

Handout 7-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 7: Principles of Effective Communication—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. An Emergency Medical Responder should position herself to communicate with a

patient:

a. above eye level.

b. at eye level.
c. well below eye level.
d. at any level that is comfortable.

2. A key characteristic of good interpersonal communication is the immediate

______________ between the sender and receiver.

a. feedback
b. action
c. history
d. therapy

3. Which of the following is NOT typically a barrier to communication?

a. Mistrust
b. Gender
c. Walls
d. Body language

4. What is defined as using eye contact and asking appropriate and clarifying questions to
further define the message the sender is attempting?

a. Care provision
b. Active interpretation
c. Active listening
d. Response generation

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

5. Nonverbal communication may be relayed through our:

a. words.
b. volume.
c. tone of voice.
d. body language.

6. Which of these is NOT a pitfall in a successful patient interview?

a. Providing false reassurance

b. Interrupting a patient’s answer
c. Letting the patient talk
d. Asking leading questions

7. The person who initiates the communication process is called the:

a. receiver.
b. sender.
c. delayer.
d. obstructer.

8. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt is referred to as:

a. portable.
b. mobile.
c. base.
d. repeater.

9. If your patient has impaired hearing, you should:

a. exaggerate when speaking.

b. use very simple words.
c. shout loudly.
d. ask a family member for help.

10. Which of the following is the best way to handle a patient who can’t communicate due to
mental impairment?

a. Don’t communicate; just transport to the closest hospital.

b. Ask another health care provider to tell you about the patient.
c. Keeping trying to communicate with the patient.
d. Use alternate forms of communication, such as sign language.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

Handout 8-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 8: Principles of Effective Documentation-—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

5. An Emergency Medical Responder makes sure the receiving health care professional is
properly informed of the patient’s progression and care. This insures:

a. productive education.
b. continuity of care.
c. quality assurance.
d. legal precedence.

6. Which of these is NOT part of the minimum data set that an Emergency Medical
Responder should give when transferring care at the scene of a multi-vehicle motor
collision?

a. Name
b. Individual suspected to be at fault for collision
c. Vital signs
d. Chief complaint

7. You are on a call with a patient who appears to be intoxicated. He is yelling profanity at
you and your partner. He admits to drinking a fifth of whiskey. Which of these would be
appropriate to document in your report?

a. The patient states he has had a “fifth of whiskey to drink.”

b. The patient is drunk and using inappropriate language.
c. The patient is violent and is probably intoxicated.
d. The patient has a bad attitude and is being rude to the crew.

8. Your patient care report may be called into a civil or criminal court due to the fact that:

a. any document may be presented.

b. it may be used to compile statistical data.
c. it contains personal patient information.
d. it is considered a legal document.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

9. It is important to document thoroughly and accurately because:

a. patients expect a lengthy report.

b. if an action or intervention is not documented, it may be concluded that the action
or interventions was not actually performed.
c. the more that is documented, the more the patient can be billed.
d. lawyers are intimidated by lengthy patient care reports.

10. Which section of the patient care report (PCR) includes documentation reflecting that the
patient has been turned over to an ambulance?

a. Narrative
b. Disposition
c. Patient data
d. Run data

11. The part of the patient care report that includes the patient’s name, address, date of birth,
and sex is the:

a. patient data section.

b. run data section.
c. narrative section.
d. billing section.

12. Which of these is TRUE regarding narrative writing?

a. It contains only subjective information.

b. It contains conclusions you make from your observations.
c. It contains the patient’s personal information.
d. It contains both objective and subjective information.

13. All of the following regarding correcting errors on a paper PCR is true EXCEPT:

a. cross out the incorrect item with a single line.

b. always initial the correction.
c. white-out should be used.
d. never completely cover the incorrect information.

14. Which of these is NOT considered a form of electronic documentation?

a. Tablet computer
b. Laptop computer
c. Writing on paper with a lighted pen

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 d. Data-enabled cellular phone

Handout 9-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 9: Principles of Airway Management and Ventilation—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. The head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver is used primarily to open the airway of:

a. an unresponsive patient without a suspected spine injury.

b. a responsive patient with a suspected spine injury.
c. an unresponsive patient with a suspected spine injury.
d. any patient who has a cervical collar in place.

2. How long should an adult patient who has vomited be suctioned?

a. No more than 10 seconds

b. No more than 5 seconds
c. No more than 15 seconds
d. No more than 20 seconds

3. An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) can be inserted into the mouth in which of the following
positions during placement?

a. With the flange inserted into the mouth first

b. Sideways along the cheek
c. Tip of OPA toward the roof of the mouth
d. The curve of the OPA anterior to the tongue

4. A condition in which there is an insufficient level of oxygen in the blood and tissues is
called:

a. hypocarbia.
b. apnea.
c. hyperventilation.
d. hypoxia.

5. The leaf-shaped structure that prevents food and fluids from entering the trachea is called
the:

a. pharynx.
b. larynx.
c. epiglottis.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

 d. tongue.

6. Which of these events occurs during inhalation?

a. The intercostal muscles expand.

b. The diaphragm rises and expands.
c. The diaphragm moves downward.
d. The chest wall relaxes.

7. Which of these is an anatomical difference between an adult patient and a child patient?

a. Airway structures are less easily obstructed in the child.

b. The child has a larger mouth and nose.
c. The tongue of the child takes up proportionally more space in the mouth.
d. The airway structures may be more developed than in older adults.

8. Which of these is generally considered to be the normal range for the respiratory rate of a
child between the ages of 4 and 12?

a. 10 to 16 breaths/minute
b. 20 to 50 breaths/minute
c. 22 to 30 breaths/minute
d. 18 to 34 breaths/minute

9. Stridor is an indication of which of the following?

a. Partial obstruction of the upper airway

b. Narrowing airway of the lungs
c. Tongue blocking the airway
d. Fluid in the lungs

10. The process that involves the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the cells is
called:

a. apnea.
b. tidal volume.
c. stoma.
d. respiration.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

Handout 10-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 10: Principles of Oxygen Therapy—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. The device that sits over the oxygen port and serves as a gasket and ensures an airtight
seal between the regulator and the tank valve is the:

a. O ring.
b. G ring.
c. regulator.
d. expander.

2. To deliver 45 percent oxygen via nasal cannula, you would set the flow rate at:

a. 2 LPM.
b. 4 LPM.
c. 6 LPM.
d. 8 LPM.

3. A nasal cannula flowing at four liters a minute will deliver what concentration of
oxygen?

a. 29 percent
b. 33 percent
c. 37 percent
d. 41 percent

4. The proper oxygen flow setting for a bag-mask device is:

a. 6 LPM.
b. 8 LPM.
c. 10 LPM.
d. 15 LPM.

5. When a nasal cannula is used to deliver oxygen, the maximum flow rate that should be
used is:

a. 2 LPM.
b. 4 LPM.
c. 6 LPM.
d. 8 LPM.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

6. The amount of air in the environment is about:

a. 5 percent.
b. 100 percent.
c. 21 percent.
d. 35 percent.

7. A device that moistens the air in an oxygen delivery system is called a(n):

a. vaporizer.
b. regulator.
c. humidifier.
d. pressurizer.

8. Which of the following is the best method of determining how much oxygen remains in a
tank?

a. Check the pressure regulator.

b. Lift the tank to see if it is full.
c. Tap on the bottom of the tank with a wrench.
d. Check the pressure gauge.

9. All of the following are oxygen safety guidelines EXCEPT:

a. open and close the valves quickly.

b. tighten all valves and connections hand-tight only.
c. never allow smoking around oxygen equipment.
d. always ensure that the O ring is in good condition.

10. The process of testing a high-pressure cylinder is called a:

a. hemodynamic test.
b. hydrodynamic test.
c. hydraulic test.
d. hydrostatic test.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

Handout 11-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 11: Principles of Resuscitation—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which of the these is an important factor to ensure that the best-quality CPR is being
performed?

a. Interruption of compressions can be up to 30 seconds.

b. Release all pressure off the chest between compressions.
c. Push at a moderate rate with a depth of no more than 1 inch.
d. Switch doing compressions only when absolutely necessary.

2. What is the term for the application of an electric shock to correct lethal heart
dysrhythmias?

a. Reanimation
b. Defibrillation
c. Artificial conduction
d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

3. The most common type of fibrillation affects the lower half of the heart and is called:

a. ventricular fibrillation.
b. fibrillation asystole.
c. pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
d. atrial fibrillation

4. Typically AED adhesive pads should be placed with one on the upper ________ chest
and the other one on the patient’s side a few inches below the ________ armpit.

a. left, left
b. right, left
c. left, right
d. right, right

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

5. You find a patient who was down for four to five minutes according to bystanders. For
how many minutes should you perform CPR before applying the AED?

a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two

6. The compression-to-ventilation ratio in pediatric two-rescuer CPR is:

a. 30:2.
b. 10:2.
c. 15:2.
d. 20:1.

7. Which of these is NOT a characteristic that a patient must have to be a candidate for the
placement of an AED?

a. Have no carotid pulse

b. Be unresponsive
c. Be in shock
d. Have no normal respirations

8. To determine uselessness in an adult patient, palpate the ________ pulse. In an infant,

palpate the ________ pulse.

a. carotid, brachial
b. tibial, carotid
c. pedal, carotid
d. brachial, tibial

9. Your patient is a 58-year-old male. He is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. You

should perform CPR at the rate of ________ compressions per minute.

a. 100 to 120
b. 60 to 80
c. 80 to 100
d. 40 to 60

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

10. When performing CPR, the rate of compressions for infant patients is how many per
minute?

a. 100 to 120
b. 60 to 80
c. 80 to 100
d. 40 to 60

11. If the patient is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a pulse, you must begin
CPR, which includes chest compressions and:

a. agonal breathing.
b. artificial ventilations.
c. oxygen administration.
d. AED placement.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

Handout 12-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 12: Obtaining a Medical History and Vital Signs—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Finding a radial pulse in an infant is difficult, so which pulse location is more preferred in
infants?

a. femoral
b. brachial
c. carotid
d. pedal

2. Cyanosis is a sign of:

a. liver disease.
b. distress.
c. high fever.
d. severe hypoxia.

3. The time it takes for the blood to return to the capillaries is called the capillary refill time
and should be equal to or less than how many seconds?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8

4. The process of comparing multiple sets of vital signs from the same patient over time is
called:

a. measuring.
b. trending.
c. estimating.
d. guessing.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

5. The normal pupil reaction to a penlight is to:

a. get larger.
b. remain the same size.
c. get smaller.
d. fluctuate.

6. A finding that is relayed from the patient but that cannot be observed or measured is a(n):

a. sign.
b. suspicion of cause.
c. symptom.
d. objective discovery.

7. The “P” in SAMPLE history stands for:

a. past medical history.

b. pharmaceuticals used.
c. present illnesses.
d. primary complaint.

8. A patient’s pale, bluish skin would be considered:

a. an indicator of adequate perfusion.

b. a sign.
c. normal.
d. a symptom.

9. Which of the following senses is usually NOT used when assessing vital signs?

a. Sight
b. Hearing
c. Touch
d. Smell

10. What is the name that refers to the adequate supply of well-oxygenated blood to all parts
of the body, and adequate waste removal?

a. Circulation
b. Refilling
c. Perfusion
d. Trending

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Handout 13-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 13: Principles of Patient Assessment—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which of these is an example of a penetrating wound?

a. Being hit with a baseball bat

b. Falling off a ladder and landing on a driveway
c. Being stabbed with a knife
d. Hitting the handlebars of a motorcycle

2. If you are unable to locate which peripheral pulse, you should attempt to palpate a carotid
pulse?

a. radial
b. torso
c. distal
d. respiratory

3. The protection of an area of injury or pain by the patient is called:

a. deviation.
b. guarding.
c. rigidity.
d. aplasticity.

4. Which of these is the Emergency Medical Responder expected to do after completing the
secondary assessment (select BEST answer)?

a. Find someone who can start providing care

b. Notify his supervisor of medical findings
c. Retrieve the necessary equipment to start treatment
d. Provide a report of findings to an EMT or Paramedic

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

5. The presence of this condition in the older adult patient can make it very difficult to
accurately assess mental status.

a. liver disease
b. extremity fracture
c. dementia
d. hypertension

6. The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one’s hands is
called:

a. auscultating.
b. observation.
c. palpating.
d. scanning.

7. The “P” in the “AVPU scale” mnemonic stands for:

a. Pain.
b. Person.
c. Prior to.
d. Persistent.

8. One of the most important goals of the primary assessment is to (select BEST answer):

a. determine patient stability.

b. manage any life threats.
c. call for additional resources.
d. obtain a baseline set of vitals.

9. The first assessment modality used during the head-to-toe examination is:

a. palpate.
b. auscultate.
c. evaluate.
d. inspect.

10. Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:

a. high blood pressure.

b. blood backing up from the heart.
c. neck injury.

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 d. difficulty breathing.
Handout 14-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 14: Caring for Cardiac Emergencies—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. For patients with the signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise, the American Heart
Association recommends using which medical device to monitor peripheral oxygen
saturation?

a. Stethoscope
b. Pulse oximeter
c. Blood pressure cuff
d. Medication

2. A 55-year-old patient is complaining of pain in his neck, back, and jaw. He also states
that he feels nauseated and light-headed. You should suspect what type of emergency?

a. Cardiac
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Pulmonary
d. Nervous

3. In the mnemonic OPQRST, used to assist with the evaluation of a patient in discomfort,
the “P” stands for:

a. Pulse.
b. Palpitation.
c. Pain.
d. Provocation.

4. Any patient with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of less than this value should receive
supplemental oxygen via cannula per the American Heart Association.

a. 96%
b. 94%
c. 90%
d. 92%

5. A patient who has taken her prescribed nitroglycerin for chest pain may experience the
side effect of:

a. hypertension.
b. pulmonary edema.

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 c. hyperventilation.
d. hypotension.

6. Which term describes specific signs and symptoms that indicate some type of emergency
relating to the heart?

a. Cardiac syndrome
b. Condition failure
c. Myocardial dysfunction
d. Cardiac compromise

7. The oxygenated blood supply for the heart is provided by which blood vessels?

a. The inferior and superior vena cava

b. The coronary arteries
c. The lymphatic vascular system
d. The aortic veins

8. A condition that results when the blood supply to a portion of the heart is temporarily
interrupted or reduced is called a(n):

a. angina pectoris.
b. cardiac compromise.
c. myocardial infarction
d. cardiac standstill.

9. What is the name of the condition in which a patient has difficulty breathing because
inefficient beating of the heart causes fluid to build up in the lungs?

a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b. Asthma
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Pneumonia

10. A myocardial infarction occurs when one of these vessels is blocked, preventing blood
from getting to the heart muscle.

a. Cardiac vein
b. Descending aorta
c. Coronary artery
d. Carotid vessel

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Handout 15-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 15: Caring for Respiratory Emergencies—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A condition characterized by narrowing of the air passages and wheezing is called:

a. bronchitis.
b. asthma.
c. pneumonia.
d. tuberculosis.

2. A condition of the lungs characterized by inflammation of the bronchial airways and

mucus formation is called:

a. bronchitis.
b. tuberculosis.
c. influenza.
d. pneumothorax.

3. Patients experiencing shortness of breath often place themselves in a sitting position with
their hands on their knees and shoulder arched upward. This is called the:

a. lateral position.
b. Fowler’s position.
c. Trendelenburg position.
d. tripod position.

4. A prescribed medication device that stores and delivers medicine to a patient’s lungs
when administered is called a:

a. bronchodilator tube (BDT).

b. metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
c. glucometer.
d. pulse oximeter.

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5. The device used to measure the oxygen saturation in a patient’s blood is called a:

a. pulse oximeter.
b. oxygen regulator.
c. infrared glucometer.
d. hemo scanner.

6. An Emergency Medical Responder is sent on a call for a patient who complains of chest
congestion and a cough that brings up sputum. The patient also has a fever, feels weak, and
complains of pain in the chest. Based on this information, what seems to be the most likely
problem?

a. Emphysema
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Pneumonia
d. Chronic bronchitis

7. During periods of heightened respiratory effort, what is an additional sign that the EMR
may see?

a. Anterior muscle use

b. Additional muscle use
c. Ancillary muscle use
d. Accessory muscle use

8. The general term referring to the inability to breathe adequately is called:

a. hypoxia.
b. respiratory compromise.
c. respiratory arrest.
d. respiratory failure.

9. A patient with asthma may make what type of sound when breathing—a sound that
sometimes can be heard even without a stethoscope?

a. Wheezing
b. Rhonchi
c. Rales
d. Stridor

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10.` Muscles of the neck, chest, and abdomen that can assist during respiratory difficulty are
called:

a. pulmonary muscles.
b. respiratory muscles.
c. accessory muscles.
d. pleural muscles.
11. A respiratory condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema is called:

a. respiratory synsyctial virus.

b. viral pneumonia.
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
d. pulmonary fibrosis.

Handout 16-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 16: Caring for Common Medical Emergencies—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which piece of information is important to determine for a suspected stroke patient?

a. The time that the call was received by dispatch

b. The time that the first EMS unit arrived on the scene
c. The exact time that the patient started having signs/symptoms
d. The date that the patient was last seen by a physician

2. Seizures characterized by a temporary loss of awareness and no dramatic body

movements are known as:

a. grand mal seizures.

b. partial seizures.
c. generalized seizures.
d. febrile seizures.

3. Which of the following is part of care for a seizing patient (select BEST answer)?

a. Move objects away from the patient

b. Place something in the patient’s mouth
c. Restrain the patient
d. Request that an ALS unit respond immediately

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4. Stings of insects are considered what type of route of poison?

a. Ingestion
b. Injection
c. Inhalation
d. Absorption

5. Which of the following methods can help calm a patient who has a behavioral disorder?

a. Get very close to the patient

b. Tell the patient what you think he wants to hear
c. Touch the patient to reassure him
d. Involve a trusted family member or friend

6. What route of entry into the body allows the poison to reach the circulatory
system directly through the lungs?

a. Ingested
b. Injected
c. Inhaled
d. Absorbed

7. Which of the following is a common cause of hypoglycemia?

a. Failure to take insulin

b. Skipping meals
c. Eating too much food that contains sugar
d. Infection

8. Which of the following is part of care for a diabetic emergency?

a. Position an unresponsive patient in a sitting position

b. Withhold oxygen from an unresponsive patient
c. Administer sugar if the patient is unconscious
d. Administer sugar if the patient is conscious

9. A stroke can be caused by:

a. a narcotic overdose.
b. spasming vessels.
c. a clot blocking blood flow.
d. abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

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10. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

a. Facial droop
b. Pupil reaction
c. Arm drift
d. Speech

Handout 17-1 Student’s Name ________________________

Chapter 17: Caring for Environmental Emergencies—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A condition of higher than normal body temperature is known as:

a. hypothermia.
b. hyperthermia.
c. basal temperature.
d. hypoacclimation.

2. A patient who becomes overheated and who may even stop sweating is most likely
having what type of heat emergency?

a. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat syncope
c. Heat stroke
d. Heat cramps

3. Spasms of the airway at the level of the vocal cords is common in what type of
environmental emergency?

a. Cold injuries
b. Hyperthermia emergencies
c. Rewarming events
d. Submersion accidents

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4. Any patient who has been rescued from a water submersion should be monitored by
the Emergency Medical Responder for signs of:

a. hyperglycemia.
b. hyperthermia.
c. hypothermia.
d. hypoglycemia.

5. This condition is most often caused by a combination of exercise-induced heat, typically

in a hot environment, and fluid and electrolyte loss through excessive sweating.

a. Stroke
b. Frostbite
c. Hypothermia
d. Heat exhaustion

6. Heat loss involving the transfer of heat to an object without physical contact is known as:

a. convection.
b. conduction.
c. radiation.
d. evaporation.

7. This type of heat loss occurs as perspiration is changed from liquid to vapor and carries
heat away from the body with it.

a. Respiration
b. Radiation
c. Evaporation
d. Conduction

8. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for a patient’s response to cold?

a. Underlying medical condition

b. Use of alcohol or drugs
c. Gender
d. Altitude

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9. A sign of mild hypothermia is:

a. increased blood pressure.

b. decreased breathing rate.
c. decreased pulse rate.
d. absence of shivering.

10. With severe hypothermic patients, it is recommended that a pulse check be done for how
long before a decision to start CPR?

a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 30–45 seconds
d. 10 seconds

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Handout 18-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 18: Caring for Soft-Tissue Injuries and Bleeding—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. An open wound in the neck should be covered with an occlusive dressing to prevent what
from occurring?

a. Tension pneumothorax
b. Air embolism
c. Blood occlusion
d. Hemostatic reaction

2. Severity of burns is determined by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. depth.
b. area (size).
c. heat source.
d. location.

3. Which type of burn involves both the epidermis and dermis layers of the skin?

a. Partial thickness
b. Superficial
c. Full thickness
d. Surface

4. A chemical burn should be flushed for at least how many minutes with water?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

5. Electrical burns can have a serious impact on which body system (select BEST answer)?

a. Pulmonary
b. Cardiovascular
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Genitourinary

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6. The force of trauma applied over a large area is referred to as:

a. blunt trauma.
b. ecchymotic trauma.
c. penetrating trauma.
d. abrasive trauma.

7. What type of injury can be described as a cut to the skin and/or to the layers of the soft
tissue beneath the skin, caused by a sharp object?

a. Puncture
b. Laceration
c. Abrasion
d. Avulsion

8. The covering for a wound, designed to control bleeding and to protect the wound, is
called a(n):

a. dressing.
b. bandage.
c. hemostatic application.
d. adhesive compress.

9. Which of these best describes how a dressing and bandage should be applied?

a. Place the dressing loosely over the bandage.

b. Place the bandage over the dressing, securing it as tightly as possible.
c. Place the dressing tightly over the bandage, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.
d. Place the bandage tightly over the dressing, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.

10. Impaled objects usually should be secured in place—EXCEPT when the object is
impaled in the:

a. lung.
b. eye.
c. cheek.
d. neck.

Handout 19-1 Student’s Name _________________________

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 Chapter 19: Recognition and Care of Shock—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. The term hypovolemic means:

a. slow bleeding.
b. low fluid volume.
c. high fluid volume.
d. low pressure.

2. Shock occurs when the pump (heart) fails, or the tubing (vessels) dilate abnormally, when
there is not enough:

a. fluid (blood).
b. muscle (contraction).
c. energy (action).
d. cells (perfusion).

3. If injuries do not prevent it, what is appropriate care for a patient in shock?

a. Keep the patient in a supine position.

b. Use passive cooling.
c. Decrease the blood pressure.
d. Give the patient something to eat and drink.

4. Which type of shock is seen in the early stages, that is, in which perfusion is maintained
through actions of the body, such as increased heart rate?

a. Decompensated
b. Obstructive
c. Compensated
d. Distributed

5. The appropriate position for a patient who has signs and symptoms of shock is:

a. sitting.
b. prone.
c. Fowler’s.
d. supine.

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6. The consistent delivery of adequate oxygen to the cells is called:

a. circulation.
b. perfusion.
c. contusion.
d. hypoxation.

7. The type of shock caused by a failure of the heart is referred to as:

a. hypovolemic.
b. distributive.
c. blood loss.
d. cardiogenic.

8. Which organ is particularly sensitive to an inadequate supply of oxygen and may, as a

result, cause the patient to exhibit such signs as restlessness and anxiety?

a. The heart
b. The lungs
c. The brain
d. The liver

9. A sign of the late stages of shock that presents when the body can no longer compensate,
is:

a. a drop in blood pressure.

b. a significant rise in pulse.
c. very rapid respirations.
d. incontinence.

10. Syncope is also called:

a. blood pressure.
b. capillary.
c. lymphatic node.
d. fainting.

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Handout 20-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 20: Caring for Muscle and Bone Injuries—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. During your assessment of an extremity fracture, which of these parameters is least

important to determine (select BEST answer)?

a. Temperature
b. Sensation
c. Motor function
d. Circulation

2. Straightening of an angulated extremity should be considered if evidence of decreased

blood flow is evident at what location in relation to the injury?

a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Medial
d. Lateral

3. It is recommended that the Emergency Medical Responder use what type of equipment to
splint an upper extremity injury?

a. Circumferential splint
b. Rigid bandage
c. Traction splint
d. Sling and swathe

4. The bones of the lower arm are the:

a. tibia and fibula.

b. ulna and radius.
c. humerus and ulna.
d. radius and patella.

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5. When a patient’s hand is placed with the fingers slightly flexed and the wrist cocked
slightly upward, it is called the:

a. immobilization position.
b. position of function.
c. position of stabilization.
d. extremity position.

6. Trauma to the skeletal system and associated muscles, tendons, and joints is a(n):

a. neurologic injury.
b. orthopedic injury.
c. allopathic injury.
d. thoracic injury.

7. The skull, rib cage, and spinal column are referred to together as the:

a. appendicular skeleton.
b. basal skeleton.
c. medial skeleton.
d. axial skeleton.

8. With this musculoskeletal injury, the skin overlying the broken bone is perforated:

a. closed.
b. comminuted.
c. osteopathic.
d. open.

9. Which type of force causes an injury away from the site of impact because the force is
transferred to other parts of the body?

a. Twisting
b. Indirect
c. Direct
d. Transverse

10. Which type of injury occurs when muscles are overworked and damaged?

a. Sprain
b. Strain
c. Dislocation
d. Disruption

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Handout 21-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 21: Caring for Head and Spinal Injuries—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A patient’s tooth has been knocked out. What is the recommended fluid of choice in
which to place it for transport?

a. Alcohol
b. Milk
c. Sterile dextrose solution
d. Citric-based liquid

2. What type of brain injury is characterized by a minor and temporary damage to the brain?

a. Contusion
b. Diffuse axonal injury
c. Concussion
d. Hemorrhage

3. Numbness, loss of feeling, or paralysis that affects the patient’s legs but not her arms
probably indicates an injury:

a. to the cervical spine.

b. to the left side of the brain.
c. to the spine below the neck.
d. to the base of the brain.

4. When assessing the extremities of a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury, which of
the following should you NOT consider a possible symptom?

a. Spasm
b. Numbness
c. Paralysis
d. Loss of sensation

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5. When providing manual stabilization for a patient with a suspected spinal injury, keep the
head in an in-line and ________ position.

a. neutral
b. flexed
c. extended
d. lateral position

6. The fluid that surrounds the brain is called:

a. aqueous humour fluid.

b. hemoplasmatic fluid.
c. synovial fluid.
d. cerebrospinal fluid.

7. How many bones are in the spinal column?

a. 22
b. 33
c. 29
d. 44

8. The posturing that occurs with a closed head injury is an involuntary movement of the
patient’s limbs, referred to as:

a. flexion or extension.
b. tension or relaxation.
c. superior or inferior.
d. reflexive or responsive.

9. What type of injury is it called when it prevents the patient from realizing pain that would
otherwise be felt elsewhere in the body?

a. Spinal
b. Traumatic
c. Closed
d. Distracting

10. All of these injuries would cause a high suspicion of head or spinal injury, EXCEPT:

a. a fall from a 20-foot ladder.

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 b. a tossed softball striking a patient’s chest.
c. a minor forehead abrasion caused by diving into a shallow pool.
d. a motor-vehicle collision.

Handout 22-1 Student’s Name ________________________

Chapter 22: Caring for Chest and Abdominal Emergencies—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which position is favored for a patient who is suspected of having fractured ribs?

a. Lying flat with arms above head

b. Sitting forward with arms by side
c. Fetal position with arms against ribs
d. Position of comfort

2. The type of breathing that may be observed with a patient who has a flail chest, with one
side of the chest rising while the other fails, is called:

a. tension movement.
b. retrograde breathing.
c. paradoxical movement.
d. agonal breathing.

3. A late sign of a tension pneumothorax is:

a. increased work to breathe.

b. an increased heart rate.
c. tracheal deviation.
d. pain while breathing.

4. What is the general recommendation for a patient who has suffered an evisceration to the
abdomen?

a. Cover the organs with a moist sterile dressing and plastic

b. Cover the organs with a dry sterile dressing, then an occlusive dressing
c. Cover the organs with a dry sterile dressing, then a dressing that air can pass
through
d. Do not cover the protruding organs

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5. When the abdominal cavity fills up with blood, such as seen with a puncture wound, the
belly will bulge, a condition known as:

a. peritoneal protrusion.
b. abdominal distension.
c. colon catastrophe.
d. cavity extension.

6. What is the name of the condition where air works its way in between the chest wall and
the lung, causing the lung to collapse?

a. Flail chest
b. Pulmonary contusion
c. Pneumothorax
d. Negative pressure syndrome

7. Which type of dressing should be applied to an open chest wound?

a. Porous
b. Occlusive
c. Absorbent
d. Form-fitting

8. What is the name of the life-threatening condition in which a significant pneumothorax

puts pressure on the heart and great vessels of the chest, causing profound shock.

a. Hemothorax
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Spontaneous pneumothorax
d. Paradoxical pneumothorax

9. The grating sound of bone ends rubbing together is called:

a. rubbing.
b. stridulous.
c. scour.
d. crepitus.

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10. A person has how many sets of ribs that give structure and form to the chest wall?

a. 12
b. 16
c. 20
d. 24
Handout 23-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 23: Care During Pregnancy and Childbirth—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. The final (third) stage of labor is characterized by (select BEST answer):

a. dilation of the cervix.

b. expulsion of the infant.
c. expulsion of the placenta.
d. crowning of the baby’s head.

2. What term refers to the appearance of the baby’s head at the opening of the birth canal?

a. afterbirth
b. crowning
c. meconium
d. prebirth

3. The birth of a baby may be imminent if the mother’s contractions are roughly how many
minutes apart?

a. two
b. five
c. six
d. four

4. Which of these statements about delivery of the placenta is true?

a. Pull on the umbilical cord to assist with delivery.

b. It takes from 20 to 30 minutes to deliver.
c. Discard it immediately after it delivers.
d. It usually delivers before the baby does.

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5. What term references the type of birth in which the baby’s feet or buttocks deliver first?

a. prolapsed
b. abruption
c. premature
d. breech
6. During a normal pregnancy, the baby develops inside the mother’s:

a. vagina.
b. cervix.
c. uterus.
d. placenta.

7. This structure provides nourishment to the fetus, absorbs its waste, and produces
hormones during pregnancy.

a. vagina
b. cervix
c. uterus
d. placenta

8. The fetus floats in a “bag of waters” that contains what type of fluid?

a. amniotic
b. cerebrospinal
c. vaginal
d. synovial

9. A normal full-term pregnancy lasts approximately how many weeks?

a. 40–42 week
b. 38–40 weeks
c. 39–41 weeks
d. 28–30 weeks

10. The first stage of labor is characterized by:

a. dilation of the cervix.

b. expulsion of the infant.
c. delivery of the placenta.
d. crowning at opening of birth canal.

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Handout 24-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 24: Caring for Infants and Children—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A child is more likely to suffer from hypothermia because their body surface area, as
compared to an adult, can be characterized as:

a. equivalent to.
b. larger than.
c. the same as.
d. smaller than.

2. What position should an infant’s head be maintained in so that the airway remains open?

a. Extended
b. Flexed
c. Neutral
d. Lateral

3. What is the primary muscle used by infants and children to breathe?

a. The diaphragm
b. The intercostals
c. The neck muscles
d. The abdominal muscles

4. Of the options listed, which cause of pediatric seizure is most likely to be encountered by
the EMR?

a. Meningitis
b. Traumatic
c. Epileptic
d. Febrile

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5. A tip for the physical exam of a young pediatric patient is, if possible, to assess the child
while she is:

a. separated from the parent.

b. in the prone position.
c. in the supine position.
d. on the parent’s lap.

6. A child’s head is ________ in proportion to the body than is an adult’s head.

a. larger
b. smaller
c. no larger
d. no smaller

7. Drawing in the soft tissues between the ribs, above and below the clavicles, or around the
shoulders of a pediatric patient who is having difficulty breathing is called:

a. retractions.
b. withdrawing.
c. stress breathing.
d. intercostal extension.

8. A normal pulse rate for an infant 3 months to 2 years old is ________ beats per minute.

a. 12 to 30
b. 20 to 30
c. 75 to 110
d. 100 to 190

9. A normal respiratory rate for an infant less than 12 months old is:

a. 12 to 20.
b. 30 to 60.
c. 60 to 75.
d. 80 to 140.

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10. Monitor an infant’s airway continually: infants have proportionally ______________
tongues, which, if relaxed, can easily ______________ the airway.

a. smaller, open
b. smaller, block
c. larger, block
d. larger, open

Handout 25-1 Student’s Name ________________________

Chapter 25: Special Considerations for the Geriatric Patient—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. What is defined as the abandonment or the deprivation of basic needs such as water,
food, housing, clothing, or medical care.

a. Abuse
b. Elder neglect
c. Abuse
d. Self-neglect

2. Which of the following statements about assessment of an elderly patient is true?

a. Address the patient as “dear.”

b. Speak to the patient, not a family member, whenever possible.
c. Take a position above the patient’s eye level.
d. Ask, “What’s wrong?” to get a concise response.

3. A classification of medications used to control the rhythm of the heart and control blood
pressure common to older adults are referred to as:

a. beta blockers.
b. blood thinners.
c. aspirin.
d. diuretics.

4. Which of the following statements about the assessment of an elderly patient is NOT
true?

a. Poorly functioning heating devices may create problems.

b. Curvature of the spine makes it easy to position the patient’s head.
c. Properly fitted false teeth can stay in place for artificial ventilation.

©2024 by Pearson Education, Inc.

 d. A patient’s lack of self-care should be noted.

5. What can age-related stiffening of the aorta lead to?

a. Enlargement of the left ventricle

b. Susceptibility to tearing
c. Degeneration of the heart’s electrical system
d. Parkinson’s disease

6. Which of the following is a common change due to aging?

a. More efficient digestion

b. Lower blood pressure
c. Increased lung capacity
d. Weakened bone structure

7. Depression is ________ in the elderly.

a. often imaginary
b. common
c. untreatable
d. rare

8. In general, the force needed to cause injury in the elderly is ________ the force needed to
cause injury in younger people.

a. less than
b. the same as
c. more than
d. unable to be compared to

9. This mechanism is responsible for most of the injury deaths among the elderly.

a. Burns
b. Medication errors
c. Falls
d. Vehicle collisions

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10. Because sensitivity to pain is ________ in the elderly, suspect a serious illness or injury
in any elderly patient’s complaint of pain.

a. nonexistent
b. increased
c. unchanging
d. Decreased

Handout 26-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 26: Introduction to EMS Operations and Hazardous Response—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. Which of the following components is generally NOT part of the daily safety inspection
for a response vehicle?

a. Communications equipment
b. Transmission oil level
c. Siren and horn
d. Medical equipment

2. Responses by Emergency Medical Responders has how many phases?

a. Six
b. Four
c. Eight
d. Three

3. The EMS vehicle that the Emergency Medical Responder responds in should be
inspected:

a. at least daily.
b. twice per month.
c. at the start of each shift.
d. once per week.

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4. When using warning lights and the siren, the driver of an emergency vehicle should
exercise:

a. the right-of-way in emergencies.

b. due regard for the safety of others.
c. warning signal rules for emergency vehicles.
d. rules for emergency response.

5. What should Emergency Medical Responders always do prior to entering a patient’s

vehicle following a collision?
a. Obtain consent
b. Stabilize the vehicle
c. Cover the patient with a blanket or tarp
d. Remove all windows

6. All of these are components of the postcall preparation phase of an emergency call
EXCEPT:

a. notifying dispatch of arrival on scene.

b. disinfecting equipment.
c. refueling the vehicle.
d. participating in any debriefings.

7. When approaching the scene of an EMS call, the Emergency Medical Responder should
survey the scene for:

a. 360 degrees.
b. 270 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. 90 degrees.

8. The minimal amount of protection that an Emergency Medical Responder should wear is:

a. eye protection.
b. respiratory protection.
c. exam gloves.
d. turnout gear.

9. The first duty of all emergency personnel is:

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 a. frequent radio transmissions with dispatch.
b. scene management.
c. appropriate transfer of care.
d. safety.

10. Emergency Medical Responders are not expected to know how to:

a. document patient care.

b. evaluate accident scenes for hazards.
c. use appropriate lifting techniques.
d. open or destroy locks.

11. The manufacturer’s information about the chemicals contained in a product is found on
a(n):

a. safety data sheet.

b. medical and safety information document.
c. information sheets on risks and hazards.
d. alert for safety and medical issues.

12. The placard that the United States Department of Transportation requires on containers
used to transport hazardous materials, which are designed to identify the material
contained within, utilizes each of these identification components EXCEPT?

a. Numbers
b. Colors
c. Symbols
d. Attachment point

13. Drivers of vehicles with hazardous materials aboard who must have a Safety Data Sheet
(SDS) on each hazardous material carried. Check with the driver to determine whether
the placard is:

a. correct.
b. special.
c. fire reactive.
d. explosive reactive.

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14. What is the benefit of manufacturers installing tempered glass in vehicles?

a. It is glare-resistant and can prevent accidents.

b. It will not shatter into sharp pieces or shards.
c. It breaks easily to avoid injury during collisions.
d. It is unbreakable and prevents patient ejection.

15. In a hazmat incident, patient contamination can still occur in the:

a. cold zone.
b. warm zone.
c. temperate zone.
d. safe zone.

Handout 27-1 Student’s Name ________________________

Chapter 27: Introduction to Multiple-Casualty Incidents, the Incident Command System,

and Triage—Quiz

Circle the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. A multiple-casualty incident (MCI) is best defined as a(n):

a. medical emergency involving more than two victims.

b. hazardous materials incident where numerous people may become contaminated.
c. emergency that involves more victims than can safely be cared for by the first
responding units.
d. emergency where three or more people have suffered a trauma.

2. An incident commander:

a. is specifically responsible for overseeing the patient’s care.

b. bears overall responsibility for an incident.
c. oversees only the operations and logistics sectors of an incident.
d. does only those tasks that are assigned by unified command.

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3. This approach to managing a mass-casualty incident was developed so that federal, state,
local, and tribal resources can respond more efficiently and consistently to natural
disasters and emergencies.

a. NIMS
b. FEMA
c. ICS
d. START

4. The branch of the incident command system in which the Emergency Medical Responder
commonly functions is:

a. staging branch.
b. treatment branch.
c. triage branch.
d. medical branch.

5. The START triage system is based on the rapid assessment of the following criteria:
respirations, perfusion, and:

a. injuries.
b. mental status.
c. age.
d. medical history.

6. The national incident management system (NIMS) was developed in response to:

a. a series of destructive wildfires in the southwestern United States.

b. the widespread failure of local incident command systems.
c. the 1989 Loma Prieta earthquake in California.
d. increased terrorist threats.

7. Which of these is NOT a principle of the incident command system (ICS)?

a. Organization
b. Planning
c. Separation
d. Delegation

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8. There are how many functional groups within the medical branch of an ICS?

a. Five
b. Three
c. Nine
d. Two

9. The first responsibility of a member of an ICS treatment group is to:

a. maintain communications with the EMS Branch Director.

b. determine the location for the treatment group.
c. direct movement to the transport group.
d. reassess patients to match them with resources.

10. If an Emergency Medical Responder is first on the scene of an event with numerous
casualties, she must:

a. try to find out what happened.

b. move around the scene to triage patients.
c. start treating patients by herself.
d. take the role of incident commander.

11. The primary goals of managing a multiple-casualty incident are to quickly and
effectively:

a. notify dispatch, triage, and establish sectors.

b. triage, transport, and ensure even patient distribution to hospitals.
c. get resources, triage, and transport.
d. triage, treat, and transport.

12. What triage system, meant for pediatric patients, was designed to be accomplished with
no equipment and with minimal training?

a. JumpSTART
b. PediSTART
c. SmallSTART
d. FastSTART

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Handout 4-1 Student’s Name _________________________

Chapter 4: Introduction to Medical Terminology, Human Anatomy, and Lifespan

Development—Quiz

Select the letter of the best answer to each multiple-choice question.

1. The brain and the spinal cord are referred to together as the:

a. peripheral nervous system.

b. central nervous system.
c. somatic nervous system.
d. automatic nervous system.

2. The integumentary system consists of the:

a. small and large intestines.

b. skin, hair, and nails.
c. testes and ovaries.
d. lymphatic and immunity tissues.

3. Which of these is NOT considered part of the endocrine system?

a. Gallbladder
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal gland
d. Pituitary gland

4. After air enters the body through the nose and mouth, it passes down the trachea and
enters the lungs through the right and left:

a. bronchioles.
b. ventricle.
c. bronchi.
d. alveoli.

5. Blood vessels are constructed of smooth muscle, which is capable of constricting and:

a. slowing the blood down.

b. digesting broken up platelets.
c. getting smaller to raise blood pressure.
d. dilating to enhance blood flow to the organs.

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6. Wherever two or more bones come together, it is called a:

a. tendon.
b. ligament.
c. joint.
d. fibrous tissue.

7. Muscles are attached to bones by:

a. tendons.
b. ligaments.
c. joints.
d. cartilage.

8. Which type of muscle is found in blood vessels?

a. Voluntary
b. Cardiac
c. Striated
d. Involuntary

9. What is the major muscle of the respiratory system?

a. Diaphragm
b. Bronchi
c. Alveoli
d. Intercostal muscle

10. The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the body is the:

a. right atrium.
b. left atrium.
c. left ventricle.
d. right ventricle.

11. The processes of digestion and absorption are largely completed in the:

a. small intestine.
b. stomach.
c. abdomen.
d. large intestine.

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12. The spinal column is divided into how many sections?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

13. How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?

a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12

14. This chamber pumps blood to the lungs in order for the blood to be reoxygenated:

a. left ventricle
b. right atrium
c. left atrium
d. right ventricle

15. Which division of the skeletal system is made up of the upper and lower extremities and
the shoulder and pelvic girdles?

a. Nervous system
b. Axial skeleton
c. Muscular skeleton
d. Appendicular skeleton

16. A person who is standing erect, with arms at sides and palms forward, is in a(n) what
position?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Anatomical
d. Lateral recumbent

17. A person who is lying face up on his back is in which position?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Anatomical
d. Lateral recumbent

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18. A person who is lying down on her left side is in which position?

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Anatomical
d. Lateral recumbent

19. What is opposite to the reference term anterior, which refers to the back?

a. Posterior
b. Inferior
c. Lateral
d. Distal

20. Proximal means close, or near the point of reference, and which term is opposite,
meaning distant, or far away from the point of reference?

a. Posterior
b. Inferior
c. Lateral
d. Distal

21. The opposite of superior, or toward the head, is what term referencing toward the feet?

a. Lateral
b. Ventral
c. Inferior
d. Dorsal

22. Which position finds the patient lying supine on a firm surface such as a bed or
backboard with the foot end higher than the head.

a. Trendelenburg position
b. Recovery position
c. Semi-Fowler’s position
d. Shock position

23. The internal female reproductive organs are found in this body cavity.

a. thoracic
b. abdominal
c. cranial
d. pelvic

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24. Using topographical lines, the abdominal cavity is divided into:

a. quadrants.
b. tridivisions.
c. bisectional areas.
d. anatomic planes.

25. The prefix that means “slower than normal” is:

a. hyper-.
b. hypo-.
c. tachy-.
d. brady-.

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POINTERS FOR REVIEW
COMPONENT OF PATIENT
ASSESSMENT
1. Scene Size-up
2. Primary Assessment
3. History Taking
4. Secondary Assessment
5. Reassessment
SCENE SIZE-UP
6. Safety
7. Standard Precaution
8. MOI and NOI
9. Additional Resources
10. Number of Victims
Types of Personal Protective
Equipment
11. Gloves
12. Mask
13. Goggle
Types of Medical Resources
14. Medical Ambulance
15. Aeromedical Transport
Types of Non-Medical Resources
16. Police
17. Firefighter
18. Traffic Enforcer
19. Electric Company
20. Utility Services
AVPU stand for?
21. Alert
22. Verbal Stimuli
23. Pain Stimuli
24. Unconscious/Unresponsive
Orientation Test?
25. Place
26. Time
27. Event
28. Person
PEARRLA stand for?
29. Pupil
30. Are
31. Equal
32. Round
33. Reactive
34. Light
35. Accommodation

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Two methods in Opening the Airway
36. Head Tilt Chin Lift Maneuver
37. Jaw Thrust Maneuver
Two methods in Opening the mouth
38. Cross Finger Technique
38. Tongue Jaw Lift
Two types of Airway Adjuncts
39. Oropharyngeal Airway
40. Nasopharyngeal Airway
Technique in breathing assessment
41. Look at chest rising
42. Listen for air movement
43. Feel for air coming from nose and
mouth
Signs and Symptoms of inadequate
breathing
44. Abnormal sound
45. Shallow breathing
46. Labor or deep breathing
47. Nasal flaring
48. Absent Lung sound
49. Tripod position
50. Agonal or gasping
Assessment for Circulation?
51. Pulse
52. Skin Color
53. Bleeding
Two chambers of the heart muscle
54. Atrium
55. Ventricle
POINTERS FOR REVIEW
EMS NC II TNTI MIML2024
SAMPLE History stand for?
56. Sign and Symptoms
57. Allergy
58. Medication
59. Last Oral Intake
60. Event lead to injury/illness
OPQRST for Pain Assessment?
61. Onset
62. Provocation
63. Quality
64. Radiation
65. Severity
66. Timing

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Vitals Signs?
67. Blood Pressure
68. Pulse Rate
69. Respiratory Rate
70. Pulse Oximeter
DCAPBTLS stand for?
71. Deformity
72. Contusion
73. Abrasion
74. Puncture
75. Burn
76. Tenderness
77. Laceration
78. Swelling
DOTS stand for?
79. Deformity
80. Open wounds
81. Tenderness
82. Swelling
Star of Life, six pointed star
83. Detection
84. Response
85. Reporting
86. On-scene care
87. Care in Transit
88. Transfer to Definitive care
Two Types of Consent
89. Expressed consent
90. Implied consent
Five stages of grieving
91. Denial
92. Anger
93. Bargaining
94. Depression
95. Acceptance
EMS Level
96. Emergency Medical Responder
97. Emergency Medical Technician-B
98. Advanced Emergency Medical
Technician (AEMT)
99. Paramedic
Complete Name of your EMS NC II
Trainer?
100.

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5 H and 5 T causes of Cardiac Arrest
101. Hypovolaemia
102. Hypoxia
103. Hydrogen ion (acidosis)
104. Hyper/Hypokalaemia
105. Hypothermia
106. Toxins
107. Tamponade (cardiac)
108. Tension pneumothorax
109. Thrombosis (coronary)
110. Thrombosis (pulmonary)
ENUMERATION:
3 Types of Bleeding
1. Arterial
2. Venous
3. Capillary
3 Parts of circulatory system
4. Heart
5. Blood vessel
6. Blood
4 Types of Distributive shock
7. Anaphylactic
8. Septic
9. Neurogenic
10 Psychogenic
3 Types of Obstructive shock
11. Cardiac Tamponade
12. Tension Pneumothorax
13 Pulmonary Embolism
2 Types of Hypovolemic shock
14. Hemorrhagic
15. Non-hemorrhagic
2 Progression of Shock
16. Compensated
17. Decompensated
2 Types of wound
18. Open
19. Closed
5 Types of open wound
20. Laceration
21. Incision
22. Avulsion
23. Abrasion
24. Puncture

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3 Management for Open wound
25. Direct pressure
26. Compression bandage
27. Tourniquet
5 Management for Closed wound
28. Rest
29. Ice
30. Compression
31. Elevation
32. Splinting
2 Type of closed wound
33. Hematoma
34. Contusion
4 Sources of burn injury
35. Thermal
36. Electrical
37. Chemical
38. Radiation
3 Classification of burns based on Depth
39. Superficial thickness burn
40. Partial Thickness burn
41. Full thickness burn
3 Sign and symptoms of Compartment syndrome
42. Weakness
43. Paleness
44. Numbness
4 Sample of critical Burn
45. Burn on hand
46. Circumferential burn on neck
47. Circumferential burn on chest
48. Genitalia
What is MOI
49. Mechanism of Injury
What is NOI
50. Nature of Illness

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