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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.1) With reference to the Indian polity, Q.4) Consider the following pairs with
consider the following statements: reference to the Constitution of India:
I. An Ordinance can amend any central Act.
Personality Role in Constituent
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental
Assembly
Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a I. B. N. Rau Constitutional Advisor
back date. of the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? II. S. N. Mukherjee Chief Draftsman of the
a) I and II only Constitution in the
b) II and III only Assembly.
c) I and III only
III. V. T. Vice-President of the
d) I, II and III
Krishnamachari Assembly.

Q.2) In the context of Indian Polity, consider How many pairs given above are correctly
the following statements: matched?
Statement I: Each organ of the State in India a) Only one
has rigid and watertight functional b) Only two
boundaries. c) All the three
Statement II: Article 50 of the Indian d) None
Constitution provides for separation of
judiciary from executive. Q.5) Which of the below acts was/were
Which one of the following is correct in repealed once the Constitution of India came
into effect on 26 January 1950?
respect of the above statements?
I. Government of India Act, 1935
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
II. Indian Independence Act, 1947
correct and Statement II explains
III. Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction
Statement I
Act, 1949
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Select the correct answer using the code given
correct but Statement II does not explain
below:
Statement I
a) I only
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is b) I and II only
not correct c) II and III only
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II d) None of the above
is correct
Q.6) Consider the following
Q.3) India shall be a Union of erstwhile British provisions/features of the Constitution of
Indian territories, Indian States, and other India:
parts outside British India and Indian States as I. Single citizenship
are willing to be a part of the Union. II. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
The above statement most closely III. Parliamentary privileges
corresponds to: IV. Amendment procedure of the Constitution
a) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 How many of the above provisions/features
b) Indian Independence Act, 1947 were borrowed from the British Constitution?
c) Objectives Resolution, 1946 a) Only one
d) Government of India Act, 1935 b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All the four

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.7) With reference to the Constitution of Q.9) Consider the following statements:
India, which of the following statements The Preamble to the Constitution of India
is/are correct about the State Election provides information about:
Commission (SEC)? I. the source of authority of the
I. The State Election Commissioner is Constitution
appointed by the President of India. II. the nature of the Indian State
II. A State Election Commissioner can be III. the objectives of the Constitution
removed only on the like grounds as a IV. the date of commencement of the
Judge of the High Court. Constitution
III. It is empowered for the preparation of Which of the statements given above are
electoral rolls and conduct of all elections correct?
to the Panchayats and Municipalities. a) I and II only
IV. The conditions of service of the State b) I, II and III only
Election Commissioner are determined c) I, III, and IV only
by the Election Commission of India. d) I, II, III and IV
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.10) Consider the following statements:
a) I and II only With reference to the Constitution of India,
b) II, III and IV the Preamble constitute limitations upon:
c) II and III only I. legislative function.
d) I and III only II. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q.8) In the context of Kesavananda Bharti case a) I only
(1973) consider the following statements: b) II only
I. This case was heard by the largest c) Both I and II
constitutional bench ever constituted till d) Neither I nor II
date by the Supreme court of India.
II. The Supreme Court in this case ensured Q.11) With reference to “Scheduled Areas’ in
that the Constitution remains a living India, consider the following statements:
document while at the same time 1. Within a State, the notification of an area
preserving its fundamental values and as Scheduled Area takes place through an
principles. Order of President.
III. The Supreme Court in this case ruled that 2. The largest administrative unit forming the
Entry 97 of the Union List in the Seventh Scheduled Area is the District and the
Schedule of the Indian Constitution lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
which provides residuary powers to the 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned
Parliament also includes the subject of States are required to submit annual
amendment to the Constitution. reports to the Union Home Ministry on the
Which of the statements given above is/are administration of Scheduled Areas in the
correct? States.
a) I and II only How many of the above statements are
b) I only correct?
c) II only a) Only one
d) I, II and III b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.12) The Original Constitution of India was d) Preamble to the Constitution of India,
neither typeset nor printed but was Fundamental Rights and the Directive
handwritten and calligraphed in both English Principles of State Policy.
and Hindi. It was calligraphed in English by:
a) Acharya Nandalal Bose Q.16) In the context of Presidential election in
b) A. Perumal India, consider the following statements:
c) Prem Behari Narain Raizada The Chief Minister of a State with a bicameral
d) Vasant K. Vaidya legislature will not be part of the electoral
college for the President if on the date of
Q.13) India became a fully sovereign nation on- election the Chief Minister is:
a) 15 August 1947, when India attained I. a member of the Legislative council of
Independence from British rule. state.
b) 2 September 1946, when the Interim II. a member of the Legislative assembly of
Government of India was formed. state but is yet to secure a vote of
c) 26 January 1950, when the Constitution of confidence in the house.
India came into force. III. functioning in a caretaker capacity
d) 26 November 1949, when the Constituent though the legislative assembly of the
Assembly adopted the Constitution of state has been dissolved.
India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.14) Consider the following: a) I only
The Parliament in India may by law: b) I and III only
I. increase the jurisdiction of the Supreme c) II and III only
Court d) I, II and III
II. extend the jurisdiction of the High Courts
to include any Union Territory Q.17) Arrange the following events in the
III. increase the number of judges of the correct chronological order of their
Supreme Court occurrence from earliest to latest.
IV. increase the number of judges of the High I. Launch of ‘Operation Polo’ by the
Courts Government of India.
Which of the statements given above are II. Signing of Instrument of Accession by
correct? Maharaja Hari Singh of Jammu and
a) I and III only Kashmir with India
b) II and IV only III. Plebiscite in Junagadh on the question of
c) I, II and III only its accession to India.
d) I, II, III and IV Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.15) “Political Justice” as an objective of the a) I-II-III
Constitution of India is provided under: b) II-III-I
a) Fundamental Rights and Directive c) III-II-I
Principles of State policy only d) II-I-III
b) Preamble to the Constitution of India and
Directive Principles of State policy only
c) Fundamental Rights and the Preamble to
the Constitution of India only

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.18) In the context of Indian Polity, consider III. Its recommendation is mandatory prior
the following: to the grant of a mining lease for major
I. Creation of any new District in the State minerals in the Scheduled Areas.
II. Altering the name of any existing District IV. It shall be responsible for the
in the State identification or selection of persons as
III. Altering the boundaries of any existing beneficiaries under the poverty
District in the State. alleviation and other programmes.
Which of the above action(s) can be taken by a Which of the statements given above are
State government without any involvement of correct?
the Central Government? a) I and IV only
a) II and III only b) I, III and IV
b) I only c) I and II only
c) I and III only d) III and IV only
d) I, II and III
Q.21) Consider the following statements:
Q.19) As per Article 13 of the Indian 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor
Constitution, Laws that are inconsistent with General of India are the only officers of the
or in derogation of the fundamental rights Government who are allowed to participate
shall be held void. In this context,consider the in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
following: 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
I. Ordinances issued by the President of Attorney General of India submits his
India resignation when the Government which
II. Laws made by the State Legislatures appointed him resigns.
III. Executive Orders of the Union Which of the statements given above is/are
Government correct?
IV. Constitutional Amendments made under a) 1 only
Article 368 b) 2 only
V. Customs having the force of law c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above are considered as d) Neither 1 nor 2
‘Laws’ as per Article 13 of the Constitution of
India? Q.22) With reference to Bharat Ratna Awards,
a) Only two consider the following statements:
b) Only three I. These awards are given in recognition of
c) Only four exceptional service of the highest order
d) All the five in any field of human endeavour.
II. Government servants other than doctors
Q.20) With reference to the powers of the and scientists are not eligible for the
Gram Sabha under the Panchayats (Extension award.
to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA), 1996, III. These awards do not carry any monetary
consider the following: grants.
I. It is empowered to approve a project for IV. C. Rajagopalachari and Jawaharlal Nehru
social and economic development before were the first recipients of Bharat Ratna
its implementation by the Panchayat at Awards.
the village level. Which of the statements given above are
II. It can review the performance of officers correct?
and recommend the suspension of those a) I, II and III
who fail to effectively implement b) I, III and IV
government policies with respect to the c) II and IV only
PESA Act in the Scheduled Areas. d) I and III only

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.23) Under Article 19(2) of the Indian III. Unlike the ‘Procedure Established by
Constitution, the State can make any law to Law’, the ‘Due Process of Law’ protects
impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise individuals against arbitrary actions of
of the right to Freedom of Speech and both the executive and legislature.
Expression: Which of the statements given above is/are
I. in relation to Contempt of court. correct?
II. in relation to Defamation. a) I only
III. in relation to Sedition. b) II and III only
IV. in relation to incitement to an offence. c) I and III only
V. in the interest of the Security of the state. d) I, II and III
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q.26) With reference to prison administration
a) I, III, IV and V only in India, which of the following statements
b) II, III, IV and V only is/are correct?
c) I, II, IV and V only I. The time period spent on parole is
d) I, II, III, IV and V counted as part of the prisoner’s total
sentence.
Q.24) With reference to the Constitution of II. A prisoner upon completion of a
India, consider the following Fundamental minimum years of imprisonment, has an
rights: absolute legal right to claim furlough.
I. Protection of life and personal liberty. Select the correct answer using the code given
II. Freedom to manage religious affairs. below:
III. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and a) I only
forced labour b) II only
IV. Equality of opportunity in matters of c) Both I and II
public employment d) Neither I nor II
V. Right to reside and settle in any part of
the territory of India Q.27) With reference to the Cultural and
How many of the above given rights are Educational Rights under Article 29 of the
available to both Indian and foreign citizens Indian Constitution, consider the following
(excluding enemy aliens) in India? statements:
a) Only two I. A citizen residing in territory of India
b) Only three being denied admission to an educational
c) Only four institution maintained by the State on the
d) All the five grounds only of sex is a violation of
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution.
Q.25) With reference to Indian Polity, consider II. These rights are available subject to
the following statements about ‘Due Process reasonable restrictions on grounds of
of Law’ and ‘Procedure established by the public order or morality.
Law’: Which of the statements given above is/are
I. The doctrine of ‘Procedure Established by correct?
Law’ originated in the British a) I only
Constitution, whereas the doctrine of b) II only
‘Due Process of Law’ originated in the c) Both I and II
United States Constitution. d) Neither I nor II
II. Both the terms are explicitly mentioned
in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.28) Consider the following situations: III. A legislature of a state cannot introduce a
I. To enforce a contractual obligation bill relating to a Uniform Civil Code
arising out of a private contract. without obtaining prior approval of the
II. To compel a public authority to perform a President of India.
statutory duty that it has failed to Which of the statements given above is/are
perform. correct?
III. To direct a tribunal to exercise its a) I and III
jurisdiction when it has declined to act. b) II only
In how many of the above situations can a c) I and II
Writ of Mandamus be issued by the Supreme d) II and III
Court of India or any High Court?
a) Only one Q.31) Other than the Fundamental Rights,
b) Only two which of the following parts of the
c) All the three Constitution of India reflect/reflects the
d) None principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
Q.29) Consider the following Directive 1. Preamble
Principles of State Policy (DPSPs): 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
I. To ensure that children are given 3. Fundamental Duties
opportunities and facilities to develop in a Select the correct answer using the code given
healthy manner. below:
II. To provide free legal aid, by suitable a) 1 and 2 only
legislation or schemes, to ensure that b) 2 only
opportunities for securing justice are not c) 1 and 3 only
denied to any citizen by reason of d) 1, 2 and 3
economic or other disabilities.
III. To minimise the inequalities in income, Q.32) In the context of Indian Constitution,
and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in consider the following situations:
status amongst the individuals. I. An emergency is proclaimed under Article
IV. To protect and improve the environment 352 of the Constitution with respect to
and to safeguard forests and wildlife of the whole of India.
the country. II. The President’s Rule is imposed in State X
How many of the above Directive Principles under Article 356 of the Constitution.
were added to the Constitution by the 42nd III. Proclamation of Financial Emergency
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976? under Article 360 of the Constitution with
a) Only one respect to the whole of India.
b) Only two IV. The Legislative Assembly of State X
c) Only three passes a resolution with a two-third
d) All the four majority, requesting the Parliament to
make laws on Subjects mentioned in the
Q.30) In the context of Indian Polity, consider State list of the 7th schedule of the
the following statements: Constitution.
I. In the constituent assembly, the Munshi- In how many of the above mentioned
Iyengar formula was adopted to decide situations, with respect to State X, the
the nature and scope of Uniform Civil Parliament can legislate on a subject of the
Code in India. State List mentioned in the 7th schedule of the
II. As per Indian constitution, both the Indian Constitution?
Parliament and the State Legislature have a) Only one
the power to enact law for b) Only two
implementation of Uniform Civil code. c) Only three
d) All the four

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.33) In the context of Polity, consider the Q.35) With reference to various institutional
following statements: bodies in India, consider the following
Statement I: Socialism's aim is to reduce information:
inequality and ensure fair distribution of Body Nature Members
wealth in society. are
Statement II: In Socialism the State is appointed/
described as a ‘night-watchman’ state. nominated
Statement III: The means of production are by
primarily owned and regulated by the State for I. Central Statutory President
the common good in a Socialist system. Vigilance body but of India
Which one of the following is correct in Commiss- non-
respect of the above statements? ion constitutional
a) Both Statement II and Statements III are II. National Statutory and Central
correct and both of them explain Commiss- constitutional Government
Statement I. ion for body
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are Women
correct but only one of them explains III. State Statutory Governor
Statement I. Human body but
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is Rights non-
correct and that explains Statement I. Commiss- constitutional
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is ion
correct. In how many of the above rows is the
information correctly matched?
Q.34) In the context of Indian Polity, consider a) Only one
the following bills: b) Only two
I. A bill that imposes restrictions on the c) All the three
freedom of trade, commerce or d) None
intercourse between the States.
II. A bill that alters the definition of Q.36) With regard to the effects of
“agricultural income” for the purposes of
proclamation of Emergency under Article 352
the enactments relating to Indian
on the ground of armed rebellion of the Indian
income-tax.
Constitution, on the Fundamental Rights,
III. A bill that alters the area or boundary of a
consider the following statements:
State. I. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are
IV. A bill that provides for the establishment
automatically suspended upon the
of inter-state water disputes tribunals.
proclamation of such an emergency.
As per the Constitution of India, how many of
II. The right to move to the court with
the above bills can be introduced in the respect to protection in respect of
Parliament only on the recommendations of
conviction for offences under Article 20
the President of India?
cannot be suspended during the
a) Only one
proclamation of such an emergency.
b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Only three
correct?
d) All the four
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II

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Q.37) In which of the following situations II. S/he is the final authority with regards to
would the imposition of President’s Rule in a the disqualification of a Member of
state under Article 356 be constitutionally Parliament if he/she is an undischarged
justified? solvent.
a) Two members of the State legislative III. S/he can make regulations for the peace,
assembly belonging to the opposition party progress and good government of the
have been killed by criminals and the Union Territory of Ladakh.
opposition is demanding dismissal of the Which of the statements given above are
State government. correct?
b) No political party has secured a majority in a) I and III only
the recent elections of the State Legislative b) I and II only
Assembly and no party is willing to form c) II and III only
the government. d) I, II and III
c) Different political parties are ruling in the
State and at the Centre and the State Q.40) Which of the following statements is
government has opted out of the Universal incorrect about the Prime Minister of India?
Health scheme for the citizens launched by S/he is the-
the Centre. a) head of the political council of Indian
d) In the water dispute between the two Nuclear Command Authority.
States, one State government refused to b) chairman of the National Ganga Council.
follow the decision of the tribunal and has c) chairman of the NITI Aayog.
challenged the order in Higher court. d) supreme commander of the Indian Armed
Forces.
Q.38) Consider the following statements
regarding the Comptroller and Auditor Q.41) With reference to the Union
General (CAG) of India: Government, consider the following
I. His/her salary and other conditions of statements:
service are determined by the President 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible
of India. for the preparation of the Union Budget
II. The administrative expenses of the office that is presented to the Parliament.
of Comptroller and Auditor General are 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of Consolidated Fund of India without the
India. authorization from the Parliament of India.
III. S/he shall only be removed from office in 3. All the disbursements made from Public
like manner and on the like grounds as a Account also need the authorization from
Judge of the Supreme Court. the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) I and II only a) 1 and 2 only
b) II and III only b) 2 and 3 only
c) I and III only c) 2 only
d) I, II and III d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.39) In the context of the President of India,

consider the following statements:
I. S/he notifies for the general election to
the House of People.

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.42) With reference to a state in India, regarding Article 18 of the Constitution of

consider the following scenario: India:
I. Recommending to the President for I. An Indian citizen can accept a title from a
imposition of President’s Rule in the state. foreign State only with the prior approval
II. Determining the amount payable by the of the President of India.
Sixth Schedule states to the autonomous II. An Indian citizen holding an office profit
district councils. under the Indian Government can accept
III. Reserving a bill passed by the State any present from a foreign State only
Legislature for the consideration of the with the prior approval of the President
President. of India.
IV. Appointment of a Chief Minister when no Which of the statements given above is/are
party has a clear majority in the State correct?
Legislative assembly. a) I only
In how many of the above given situations are b) II only
discretionary powers of a Governor of a State c) Both I and II
explicitly provided under the Constitution of d) Neither I nor II
India?
a) Only one Q.45) With reference to the concept of Office
b) Only two of Profit, which of the following statements is
c) Only three incorrect?
d) All the four a) The concept of “Office of Profit” is rooted
in the Doctrine of Separation of Powers.
Q.43) In the context of Indian Constitution, b) The Representation of the People Act, 1951
consider the following statements: provides the legal definition of ‘Office of
Statement I: Every child in India between the Profit’.
age of six and fourteen years has a right to c) As per Indian constitution, the office of a
free and compulsory education. Minister held by a Member of Parliament is
Statement II: It is the fundamental duty of a not considered an office of profit.
parent to provide opportunities for education d) The Parliament (Prevention of
to his/her child who is between the age of six Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several
and fourteen years. posts from disqualification on the grounds
Which one of the following is correct in of holding an office of profit.
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are Q.46) With reference to Deputy Speaker of the
correct and Statement II explains House of People, consider the following
Statement I statements:
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are I. As per the Constitution of India, only a
correct but Statement II does not explain member of the House of People can be
Statement I elected as the Deputy Speaker.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is II. S/he vacates his/her office immediately
not correct on dissolution of the House of People.
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II Which of the statements given above is/are
is correct correct?
a) I only
Q.44) With reference to the Fundamental b) II only
rights, consider the following statements c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II

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SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.47) With reference to various legislative II. All the members of the committee are
procedures in India, consider the following from the Lok Sabha only.
pairs: III. A minister cannot be elected as a member
Decision Type of Majority of the Committee.
required IV. It can suggest alternative policies to
I. Removal of the A majority of all the then promote economy and efficiency in
Speaker of Lok members of the Lok administration.
Sabha Sabha only. Select the correct answer using the code given
II. Creation of A majority not less than below:
the Legislative two thirds of the a) I, II and III
Council in a members present and b) I, II and IV
State by voting in each House of c) II, III and IV
Parliament. the Parliament d) I, III and IV
III. Passing a bill A majority of the total
to make any membership of each Q.49) With reference to Indian Polity, consider
change in the House of Parliament and the following statements:
manner of by a majority of not less Statement I: The Union Council of Ministers
election of the than two-thirds of the continues to hold the office even after the
President of members of each House dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
India of Parliament present
Statement II: The President of India cannot
and voting alongwith
exercise executive power without the aid and
ratification by the
advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
Legislatures of not less
Which one of the following is correct in
than one-half of the
respect of the above statements?
States by resolutions.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
IV. Resolution A majority not less than
correct and Statement II explains
under Article two thirds of the
Statement I
249 in Rajya members of the Rajya
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Sabha Sabha present and
correct but Statement II does not explain
voting.
Statement I
How many of the pairs given above are
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correctly matched?
not correct
a) Only one
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II
b) Only two
is correct
c) Only three
d) All the four

Q.48) With reference to the Parliament in

India, which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Committee on
Estimates?
I. The first Estimates Committee in post-
independence India was constituted in
1964, on the recommendation of V.K
Krishna Menon.

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 Page 12 of 12

SFG 2026 | LEVEL 1 |Test 9 | Test 321108 |

Q.50) With reference to Indian judiciary,

consider the following pairs:
Judicial Doctrine Description
I. Doctrine of If a legislature does not
Colourable have the power to
Legislation make laws on a
particular subject
directly, it cannot
make laws on it
indirectly.
II. Doctrine of If the substance of
Pith and legislation falls within a
Substance legislature’s power, it
remains valid even if it
affects matters beyond
its area of authority.
III. Doctrine of If a particular provision
severability of a statute is against
the Constitution, only
that offending
provision will be
declared void by the
Court and not the
entire statute.
How many of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None

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