IN 2015 ANDIDA SECONDARY SHOOL FIRST SEMISTOR PHYSICS FINALEXAM

FOR GRADE 11th STUDENTS

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives

1. Which one of the following experimental errors can be reduced by taking repeated
measurements?
A. Parallax errors C. Random error
B. Systematic errors D. Zeros errors

2. A teacher gave a student a book whose thickness is 4.30 cm, and instructed him to measure the
thickness of the book with venire calipers. The student took four measurements. The average and
standard deviation of the measurements where 4.33 cm and 0.04cm, respectively. Which one of
the following is the uncertainty in the accuracy the student’s measurement?

A. 0.03cm B. 0.04cm C. 0.035cm D.

0.30cm
3. Which statement is WRONG about units and dimensions?
A. Two quantities can have the same units but different dimensions.
B. Two quantities can have the same dimensions but different units.
C. It is always possible to add two numbers that have the same units.
D. There are quantities that have no unit and dimension.
 
4. Suppose A 3i  2 j and  i  aj are two vectors in xy – plane. What is the value of a,
B
 
such that A  B = 2i?
A. 3 B. 2 C.-2 D. -3

5. The sum and difference of two non – zero vectors A and B are equal in magnitude. What
can you conclude about these two vectors?
 
A. A and B have the same direction
 
B. A and B have opposite directions
 
C. A and B have the same magnitude
 
D. A and B are perpendicular to each other
   
A B A B
6. Two non-zero vectors and are related b = c , where c is a scalar. If the two
vectors have opposite directions, then one of the following is true about c?
A. c is a positive number C. c = 1
B. c is negative number D. c = 0
7. A vector that represents the position of an object in relation to another object is called
A. Unit vector C. Coplanar vector
B. Position vector D. Collinear vectors
 8. Two non zero vectors D and E have precisely equal magnitude for the magnitude of D
+ E to be 3 times larger than magnitude of D – E, what must be the angle between D
and E?
A. 30° B. 370 C. 53° D. 60°
9. What does the slope of a velocity – time graph represent?
A. Distance B. Acceleration C. Displacement
D. Speed
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
10. The vector 2i  j  k is perpendicular to i  4 j  k if  is equal to
A. 0 B. -1 C. 2 D. 3
11. What is the angle between vectors A = (a i + a 3 j) units and B = a 3 i + a j) units?
A. 90° B. 60° C. 37° D.300
12 The magnitudes of the two vectors A and B are 12 units and 5 units, respectively. Which
one of the following is NOT the possible value for the magnitude of the resultant vector
A + B?
A. 60 units B. 17 units C. 13 units D. 7
units
 
12. What is the vector product AxB of two vectors

A 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ and Bˆ 3iˆ  2 ˆj  5kˆ ?

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
A. 36i  11 j  2k C.  4i  59 j  26k
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
B. 4i  59 j  26k D.  36i  11 j  2k
13. An airplane flies at speed of 720.0 km/hr at 37 0 North of West direction. How far
does the plane travel to the west in 1 hour?
A. 432 km. B. 720 km. C. 576 km. D. 504
km.

14. A projectile is fired at 60° with the horizontal. At the highest point of its path, the
vertical component of its velocity is momentarily zero. What is the magnitude of its
acceleration at this point?
A. 20m/s2 B. 10m/s2 C. 5m/s2
2
D. 0m/s
15. A car accelerates steadily form 0 m/s to 30m/s in a distance d and a time t. Another
car takes a time 3t to accelerates steadily from stationary to the same final velocity.
What distance does the second car cover during the new acceleration?
A. 3d B. d C. d/3 D. d/9
16. An object moving with uniform acceleration has a velocity of 12m/s in the positive x
direction when its x coordinate is 3cm. In its x coordinate 2s later is – 4m, what is its
acceleration?
A. -12m/s2 C. -16m/s2
B. -13m/s2 D. 12m/s2

17. The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by x(t) = 25t – 3t2, where the time t is
in seconds. At what value t will the particle become momentarily at rest?
A. 2.78s B. 1.67s C. 0.6s D. 0.36s
m
18. A rocket moving in free space has a speed of 3 x 103 s relative to the Earth. Its
engines are turned on, and fuel is ejected in a direction opposite the rocket’s motion at
m
a speed of 5 x 103 s relative to the rocket. What is the speed of the rocket relative to
the Earth once the rocket’s mass is reduced to half its mass before ignition?
m m m m
A. 7 x 103 s B. 5 x 103 s C. 4 x 103 s D. 2 x 103 s

19. Two projectiles are fired from ground level at equal speed but different angles. One is
fired at an angle of 30 degrees and the other at 60 degrees. The projectile to hit the
ground first will be the one fired at (neglect air resistance)
A. 60 degrees C.. Both hit at the same time
B. 30 degrees D. Cannot be determined from the
given information
20. A body moving with constant acceleration covers the distance between to points 60m
a part in 5s. its velocity as it passes the second point is 15m/s. what is the
acceleration?
A. 3m/s2 B. 2.4m/s2 C. 1.8m/s2 D. 1.2m/s2
21. A placekicker must kick a football from a point which is at a distance of 36.0m from
the goal. When kicked, the ball leaves the ground with a speed of 20.0m/s at an angle
of 53.0° to the horizontal. If the ball hits the crossbar of the goal at a height h and
bounces back what will be the height of the crossbar?
A. 2.45m B. 2.85m C. 3.00m D. 3.15

22. If a long distance jumper athlete leaves the ground at an angle of 37.0° above the
horizontal surface at a speed of 10.0m/s, how far does he jump in the horizontal
direction?
A. 4.8m B. 6m C. 9.6m
D. 12m
23. A woman is rotating a bucket of water in a vertical circle of radius 0.9m. The mass of
bucket and water is 5kg. What is the bucket’s minimum speed at the top of the circle
if no water is to spill out?
A. 0 B. 1m/s C. 3m/s
D. 9m/s
24. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. An object moving toward the east cannot have acceleration toward the west.
B. If the average velocity of an object for that time interval is also zero.
C. The velocity-time graph of an object moving with constant acceleration is
parallel to the time axis.
D. An object having zero velocity can have acceleration different from zero.
25. A car travels along a straight line at a constant speed of 20m/s for a distance d and
then another distance d in the same direction at a constant speed of 36km/hr. what is
the average speed for the entire trip?
A. 23km/h B. 48km/h C. 54km/h
D. 60km/h
26. A highway curve is banked (inclined) in such a way that a car travelling at a speed of
13.5m/s can round the curve without skidding, in the absence of friction. If the
banking angle is 30°, what is the radius of the curve?
A. 10.5m B. 21.0m C. 31.7m D.
36.7m
27. An airplane travelled from Addis Ababa to Mekele, 780km, in 45 minutes. What was
its average speed?
A. 0.28 m/sec C. 17.3 m/min
B. 1040 km/hr D. 585 km/hr
28. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is:
A. A body moving on a straight road C. A body moving in
a circular path
B. A body moving on a straight railway rack D. A body falling in a
viscous fluid
29. A student moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10m in 40sec. If he
started from one of the corners of the square what will be the magnitude of
displacement of the student at the end of 2 minutes and 20 seconds from his initial
position?
A. 10m B. 10 2m C. 40m
D. 30m
30. A car/mass m1/ is driving at velocity v, when it smashes in to an unmoving car/mass
m2/. Locking bumpers, both cars move together at the same velocity. The common
velocity will be given by:
 M 1V M 2V M 2V
A. M 2 B. M 1 C. (m1  m2) D.
(m1  m2)v
M1
31. A cart on an air track is moving at 0.5m/s when the air is suddenly turned off. The
cart comes to rest after traveling 1m. The experiment is repeated, but the cart is
moving at 1m/s when the air is turned off. How far does the cart travel before coming
to rest?
A. 1m B. 2m C. 3m D. 4m
32. A 4kg block is given an initial speed of 8m/s at the bottom of 30° inclined plane. The
frictional force that retards its motions is 15N. If the block is directed up the inclined
plane, how far will it move before it stops?
A. 3.66m B. 4.40 C. 3.38m D.
4.67m
33. A stationary mass explodes in to two parts of masses 0.4kg and 4kg. If the larger
mass has a kinetic energy of 100J, what is the kinetic energy of the smaller mass?
A. 4 50 J C. 1000J
B. 100J D. The change in kinetic energy is the same for both
particles.

34. What is the direction to which a fish must push the water with its fins in order to
propel eastward?
A. eastward B. upward C. westward D. downward
35. A woman driving a 2000 kg car along a level road at 30m/s takes her foot off the gas
to see how far her car will roll before it slows to a stop. She discovers that it takes
150m. what is the average force of friction acting on the car?
A. 9000N B. 6000N C. 3000N D. 400N
36. A 2kg object experiences two concurrent forces of 100N at 30° above the positive x-
axis and 80 N at 60° above the negative x-axis. what is the magnitude to acceleration
of the object?
m 2 m 2
A. 68 s C. 48 s
m 2 m 2
B. 64 s D. 46 s
m
37. A driver moving at a constant speed of 30 s sees an accident up ahead and hits the
m
brakes. If the car decelerates at a constant rate of -5 s 2 , how far does the car go
before it comes to a stop?
 A. 120m C. 40m
B. 100m D. 20m
38. The planet Jupiter is about 318 times as massive as Earth, yet on its surface you
would weigh only about 2.4 times your weight on earth. Why is this happened?
A. Your mass is 132.5 times less on Jupiter
B. You are 132.5 times more weight less there
C. Jupiter is significantly farther from the sun
D. Jupiter’s radius is about 11.5 times the Earth’s radius
39. If two particles have equal; momentum, then which one of the following statements is
TRUE about their kinetic energies?
A. Their kinetic energies are always equal
B. Their kinetic energies are never equal
C. Their kinetic energies are equal when their masses are the same
D. Their kinetic energies are equal when the speed of one of the particle is half
the speed of the other particle and their masses are the same
40. Which one of the following statements is true about the motion of a particle in a
circular path?
A. The centripetal acceleration is constant if the particle’s speed is constant.
B. The tangential acceleration can be perpendicular to velocity vector of the
particle.
C. The centripetal acceleration is always in the direction perpendicular to the
velocity vector of the particle
D. The acceleration is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.
41. A force F of magnitude 20 N is applied to a block of mass 2 kg that lies on a rough,
horizontal surface as shown in Figure 1. The coefficient of kinetic friction between
Block
the block and surface is 0.4. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the block?
A. 10m/s2 F
2
B. 5.2m/s
C. 4m/s2
D. 2.8m/s2
Fig.1
42. A man is standing on a spring scale in an elevator. When the elevator is at rest, the
scale reads 560N. When the elevator starts to move, the scale reads 600N. The
elevator has:
A. an upward acceleration. C. a constant upward speed.
B. a constant downward speed. D. downward
acceleration.

43. The speed of a mass is increased by two fold. By what factor does the kinetic energy
change?
 A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
44. Two men, A and B, are loading identical boxes onto a truck. A lifts his box straight up
from the ground to the bed of the truck, whereas B slides his box up a rough ramp to
the truck. Which statement is correct about the change in the potential energy on the
box-Earth system?
A. A and B changes the potential energy by the same amount.
B. A changes more potential energy than B.
C. B changes more potential energy than A.
D. None of those statements is necessarily true because the force of friction and the
angle of the incline is unknown.

END
Mohammed Neguse

January 2015

IN 2015 ANDIDA SECONDARY SHOOL FIRST

SEMISTOR PHYSICS FINALEXAM FOR
GRADE 12th STUDENTS
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives

1. The temperature of a gas is due to

B. The kinetic energy of the molecules
C. The potential energy of the molecules
 D. The attractive force between the molecules
E. The repulsive forces between the molecules

2. What does a curve drawn between two points on p-v diagram represents?

A. The state of the system

B. A thermodynamic process
C. Work done in a cyclic process
D. Work done on or by the system

3. Which statement is NOT among the assumptions made in the kinetic theory of gases?

A. There is no interaction between particles or between particles and the wall

except during collision.
B. Collisions between particles, and between particles and walls are perfectly
elastic.
C. The volume occupied by the particle is negligible compared to the volume
of the gas as a whole
D. The distribution of velocities of particles is uniform
4. Suppose two molecules of different mass are kept at the same temperature. Which one of the
following statements is NOT true?
A. Both remain at rest
b. Both move with the same speed
B. The lighter molecule moves faster
C. The heavier molecule moves faster

5. In a reversible thermodynamic process, the system

A. is always close to equilibrium states

B. might never be close to any equilibrium state
C. is close to equilibrium states only at the beginning and end
D. is close to equilibrium states throughout, except at the beginning and end

6. An ordinary refrigerator is turned on and its door is left open in a thermally insulated kitchen.
What is the temperature of the room?

A. increases according to the first law of thermodynamics

B. decreases according to the first law of thermodynamics
C. remains constant according to the first law of thermodynamics
D. remains constant according to the second law of thermodynamics
7. Gas at a pressure p is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are doubled and
their speed halved, then what will be the resulting pressure?

p p
A. 2p B. 3 C. 2 D. 3p
8. A cup of coffee at a temperature of 80°C is placed on a table in a 20°C room. What happens to
the thermal energy and molecular motion of the coffee when it is left on the table?
A. The thermal energy decreases and the molecules move more slowly.
B. The thermal energy increases and the molecules move more slowly.
C. The thermal energy decreases and the molecules move faster.
D. The thermal energy increases and the molecules move faster.

9. Which of the following combinations of properties would be most desirable for a heat sink in a
machine?

A. High specific heat and low conductivity.

B. Low specific heat and high conductivity.
C. High specific heat and high conductivity.
D. Low specific heat and low conductivity.

10. An ideal gas is at a temperature of 300 K. if we wish to double the root mean square (rms) speed
of the molecules of the gas, to what value must we raise its temperature?

A. 450 B. 600K C. 800K

D. 1200 K

11. A heat engine is being designed to have a carnot efficiency of 65.0% when operating between
two energy reservoirs. If the temperature of the cold reservoir is 20.0°C, what must be the
temperature of the hot reservoir?

A. 57°C B. 310 °C C. 564 °C D.

807°C
12. The First Law of Thermodynamics takes the form dU = dW. This equation is valid if the process
is _______.
A. isobaric B. isochoric C. isothermal D.
adiabatic

13. An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal process starting with a pressure of 2 x 15pa and a volume
of 6cm2. Which one of the following might be the pressure and volume of the final state?
 A. 4 x 105 pa and 4 cm2 C. 5 x 105 pa and 3
cm2
B. 4 x 105 pa and 3 cm2 D. 105 pa and 10 cm2

14. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. The entropy of the Universe increases in all natural processes.

B. No heat engine operating in a cycle can absorb energy from a reservoir and use it
entirely to do work.
C. When a system undergoes a change in state, the change in its internal energy is
the difference between the energy transferred to it by heat and the work done on
it.
D. The entropy of an isolated system reaches its maximum value when the system is
in equilibrium state.

15. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of an object of mass m = 1 kg by 1 Kelvin
is known as _______.

A. Specific heat capacity [Link]

coefficient
B. Heat capacity D. Internal energy

16. A given weight of gas has a temperature of 27°C and volume V. Keeping the pressure constant,
the volume is increased to 3V by varying the temperature. What is the final temperature of the
gas?

A. 81°C B. 546 °C C. 627 °C D.

900°C
17. A device for transforming heat energy to mechanical energy is referred to as:
A. transformer B. refrigerant C. generator
D. engine
18. Two bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with third body must be in thermal
equilibrium with each other. This statement is statement of:
A. The first law of thermodynamics. C. the second law of
thermodynamics.
B. The zeroth law of thermodynamics. D. the third law of
thermodynamics.

19. If the amplitude of a sine wave is doubled, the intensity

 A. Remains the same
B. Increase by a factor of 2
C. Increase by a factor of 4
D. Increase by a factor of 16

20. A 1kg mass is attached to a spring of stiffness constant 100N/m. what is the maximum
displacement of the mass from its equilibrium position if its speed is 3m/s at the equilibrium
point.?

A. 0.1m B. 0.3m C. 3m D. 10m

21. The total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

A. Zero
B. Directly proportional to the amplitude
C. Directly proportional to the square of the amplitude
D. Inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude

22. The loudness of sound changes from L 1 = 30db to L2 = 60db. What is the ratio of intensities I 1/I2
in the two cases?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 600 D. 1000

23. A point source broadcasts sound into a uniform medium. If the distance from the source is
tripled, how does the intensity change?

A. It remains unchanged
B. It becomes three times larger
C. It becomes one-third as large
D. It becomes one-ninth as large

N
24. A block of mass 0.23kg is placed on top of a light vertical spring of force constant 5000 M and
pushed downward so that the spring is compressed by 0.10m. After the block is release from rest,
it travels upward and then leaves the spring. To what maximum height above the point of release
does it rise?

A. 10.2m B. 9.2m C. 8.0m D. 9.0

25. A wave has a speed of 50m/s and a wavelength of 25,[Link] is the frequency of the wave?
 A. 2.0 x 10-3Hz B. 6.0 x 101 Hz C. 5.0 x 102 Hz D. 1.8
x 106 Hz

26. An oscillating system is used to create a succession of waves on a water surface. The rate of
wave generation is one every 0.33 seconds. What is the period of these waves?

A. 0.3 seconds B. 1.0 seconds C. 2.0 seconds D. 3.0 seconds

27. A transverse sinusoidal wave is traveling on a string. Which statement is correct about a point
on the string?
A. The point moves in the same direction as the wave.
B. The point moves in simple harmonic motion with a different frequency than that of
the wave.
C. The point moves in simple harmonic motion with the same angular frequency as the
wave.
D. The point moves in uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than the
wave.

28. A mass suspended from the end of a spring vibrates up and down 24 times in 36s. What are the
frequency and period of the vibration?

A. 1.5Hz, 0.67s C. 0.0012Hz, 854 s

B. 0.67 Hz, 1.5s D. 864 Hz, 0.0012s

29. The change in entropy is zero for:

A. reversible isobaric processes.

B. reversible adiabatic processes.
C. reversible isothermal processes.
D. reversible processes during which no work is done.

30. The sound level at a distance of 4.00 m from a source is 120 dB. At what distance is the sound
level 100 dB?

A. 0.40m B. 4.80m C. 40m D. 48m

31. A given minimum point (trough) of a sinusoidal wave is traveling 480 cm along a rope in 12s. If
the oscillator that generates the wave completes 48 vibrations in 30 s, what is the wave length of
the wave?
 A. 25 m B. 15 m C. 0.25 m D. 0.15 m
32. A simple pendulum is made using a long, thin metal wire. What happens to the period of the
pendulum when the temperature drops?
A. Increase
B. Remain the same
C. Decrease
D. Period of oscillation has random dependence on temperature
33. What fundamental frequency can a string vibrate at if it is 30 cm long and the velocity of
travelling waves along the string is 120 m/s?
A. 400Hz B. 600 Hz C. 800 Hz D. 200
Hz
34. A wave length is:
A. A line that represents the direction of propagation of light.
B. The minimum distance between two points that are in phase.
C. The locus of all points of a travelling wave that are in phase.
D. The number of waves crossing a given plane in a unit time.
35. Which phenomenon is responsible for the colors seen on a thin oil film on the water surface?
A. Diffraction B. interference C. Superposition
D. refraction

36. A pipe, 68cm long, is open at one end and closed at the other. When air is blown across the open
end sound produces 110Hz. What is the velocity of sound along the pipe?

A. 598.4m/s B. 334.6m/s C. 299.2m/s D.

149.6m/s

37. When a soap bubble is in air, it exhibits different colures under sunlight. The absence of a
particular color in a region is due to

A. Double refraction.
B. Straight line propagation of light.
C. Destructive interference of light of that color in that region.
D. Constructive interference of light of that color in that region.
E.

38. What happens if the monochromatic light used in young’s double slit experiment is replaced by
white light?

A. No fringes are observed

B. All bright fringes become white
C. All bright fringes have colors between violet red.
 D. Only the central fringe is white, all other fringes colored.
39. In young’s double slit experiment both the separation between the slits and the distance between
the slits and the screen are halved then what is the fringe width?
A. halved B. unchanged C. zero D.
doubled

40. Refraction of a wave does NOT involve change in its

A. Speed B. wavelength C. frequency D. speed and

wavelength

41. A thin film of oil (n = 1.25) is located on a smooth wet floor. When viewed perpendicular to the
floor, the film reflects most strongly red light at 640 nm and reflects no blue light at 512nm. How
thick is the oil film?

A. 640 nm B. 612nm C. 548nm D. 512nm

END

Mohammed Neguse

January 2015