AFUNDAMENTAL DEFINITION AND CONCEPTS

1) Surveying is the art of determining the relative positions of the points on, above or beneath the surface of earth ,
with respect to each other by measurement of:
i) Distances
ii) Directions
iii) Elevations
a) i, ii and iii are required c) only ii is required
b) only i is required d) only iii is required
2) The main principle of surveying is to work from:
a) Higher level to the lower level c) Part to whole
b) Lower level to the higher level d) Whole to part
3) The error which occurs while conducting the survey from whole to part and part to whole is:
a) Same
b) In whole to part, it is localized and in part to whole it is expanded
c) In whole to part, it is expanded and in part to whole it is localized
d) In both the methods, error is localized
4) A point R can be located by the two control points P and Q by:
i. Measuring PR and QR from P and Q, measure distance of R and plot.
ii. Dropping a perpendicular from R on PQ, meeting the line in S. measure PS, SQ and plot.
iii. Distance QR and angle α between QR and QP.
a) Only i is correct c) By i, ii and iii
b) By i and ii both d) None of the above
5) The object of a survey is to:
i. Prepare a plan or map
ii. Determine the relative position of points
iii. Determine position of points in a horizontal plane
iv. Determine position of points in a vertical plane in levelling
a) Only i is correct c) i, ii, iii and iv all are correct
b) Only i and ii are correct d) none of them are correct
6) The difference of the length of an arc and its subtended chord on earth’s surface for a distance of 18.5 km is about:
a) 0.1 cm b) 1.0cm c) 10cm d) 100 cm
7) Survey which are carried out to provide a national grid of control for preparation of accurate maps of large area
are known as:
a) Plane surveys c) Geographical surveys
b) Geodetic surveys d) Topographical surveys
8) Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, water bodies, woods and other details are known as:
a) Cadastral surveys c) Topographical surveys
b) City surveys d) Hydrographic surveys
9) Hydrographic Survey deals with the mapping of:
a) Heavenly bodies c) Large water bodies
b) Hills d) Canal system
10) Plan is a graphical representation of the features on large scale as projected on a:
a) Horizontal plane c) In any plane
b) Vertical plane d) None of the above
11) Map is a graphical representation of the features on small scale as projected on a:
a) Horizontal surface c) In any surface
b) Vertical surface d) None of the above
12) The survey in which the curvature of earth is taken in account is called:
a) Geodetic Survey c) Preliminary survey
b) Plane survey d) Hydrographic survey
13) The effect of curvature on earth’s surface is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more than:
a) 100 km2 c) 195.5 km2
2
b) 260 km d) 300 km2
14) Plane survey is conducted for the area up to:
a) 260 km2 c) 195.5 km2
b) 100 km2 d) 160 km2
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15) The difference between the sum of the angles of a spherical triangle on the earth’s surface to that of the angles of
the corresponding plane triangle is only one second for:
a) 260 km2 b) 160 km2 c) 360 km2 d) 195.5 km2
16) Which of the following is the largest scale map:
a) 1 cm=50m c) RF=1/30000 d) 1 cm= 50
b) 1:42000 0 km
17) The shrinkage factor of an old map is 24/25 and the RF is 1/2400. Then the corrected scale for the map is:
a) 1/2400 b) 1/2500 c) 1/600 d) 1/60000
18) The RF of scale 1 cm=1 km is:
a) 1:100000 b) 1:1000 c) 1:100 d) 1:10
19) It is convenient to record the field notes for a closed traverse in the field book:
a) From left to right c) From top to down
b) From right to left d) From bottom to top
20) Systematic errors are those errors:
a) Which cannot be recognized
b) Whose character is not understood
c) Whose effect are cumulative and can be eliminated by adopting the suitable methods
d) None of the above
21) Theory of probability is applied to
a) Accidental error only c) Both accidental and cumulative errors
b) Cumulative error only d) None
22) The error due to bad ranging is
a) Cumulative and positive c) Compensating
b) Cumulative and negative d) Cumulative and positive or negative
23) The difference between the most probable value of a quantity and it’s observed value is:
a) True error c) Conditional error
b) Weighted observation d) Residual error
24) Mistakes are errors those arise from
i) Inattention iii) Poor judgment
ii) Carelessness iv) Confusion
a) Only i is correct c) i , ii, iii and iv are correct
b) i and ii is correct d) none of them
25) Error are of same size and sign of mistakes, if it follows some definite
i) Mathematical law
ii) physical law
a) i and ii are correct c) only ii is correct
b) only i is correct d) none is correct
26) The degree of precision required in survey work mainly depend upon the
a) Purpose of survey c) Sources of error
b) Area to be surveyed d) Nature of the field
27) The smallest length that can be drawn on a map is
a) 0.2 mm b) 0.5 mm c) 10 mm d) 15 mm
28) The compensating or accidental error in linear measurement is proportional to:
a) L1/2 b) L1/3 c) L d) 1/L

29) The method of plane surveying can be used when the extent of area is less than:
a) 500 sq. km. c) 2500 [Link].
b) 500 sq. km d) 250 sq. km.
30) The difference between an arc distance of 18.2 m on the surface of earth and the corresponding chord distance is:
a) 10 mm c) 1 m
b) 100 mm d) 1000 m
31) Which of the following scale is the smallest one?
a) 1 cm= 10 m c) 1:10000
b) 1:5000 d) 1cm=10 km

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32) Assuming that a draftman can plot a distance as small as 0.25 mm, and the scale of plotting is 1 in 10000, the
distance in the cield can be measured to the nearest
a) 0.25 m c) 0.025 m
b) 2.5 m d) 25.0 m
33) If (2n-1) division on the main scale are equal in length to n division in the vernier scale, the least count is:
a) 𝑠 2𝑛 c) 𝑠 𝑛
b) 2𝑠 𝑛 d) None of the above
34) The distance between two points A and B oh a plan was found to be 100 m when measured with a scale with RF
1:1000. The distance between two same points when measured with a scale of RF 1:500 will be:
a) 200 m c) 2500 m
b) 50 m d) None of the above
35) The main principle of surveying is to work from:
a) Part to the whole c) Lower to higher level
b) Whole to the part d) Higher to lower level

36) The object of surveying is to prepare a:

a) Drawing c) Map
b) Cross section d) None of the above
37) The curvature of the earth is ignored in:
a) Geodetic surveying c) Hydrographic surveying
b) Plane surveying
38) The curvature of earth is takin into account when the extent of area is more than:
a) 50 km2 c) 250 km2
2
b) 100 km
39) The main principle of surveying is to work from:
a) The centre to the boundary c) The part to the whole
b) The whole to the part
40) Surveys which depict the natural features of a country are known as:
a) Cadastral surveying c) Engineering surveying
b) Topographical surveying
41) The diagonal scale is used to read consecutive:
a) One unit c) Three unit
b) Two unit
Answer Key(Fundamental Concept):
1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c)
6.(b) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(d)
16.(a) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20.(c)
21.(a) 22.(a) 23.(d) 24.(c) 25.(a)
26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(a)
31.(d) 32.(b) 33.(c) 34.(b) 35.(b)
36.(c) 37.(b) 38.(c) 39.(b) 40.(b)
41.(c)

Surveying MCQs Compiled by: Er. Ganesh Prasad Sigdel

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CHAIN SURVEYING
1) In chain surveying field work is limited to:
a) Linear measurements only c) Both linear and angular measurements
b) Angular measurements only d) None of the above
2) The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend on:
a) Length of offset c) Importance of features
b) Scale of plotting d) General layout of the chain lines
3) Chain survey is well adopted for:
a) Small surveys in open ground c) Large area with simple details
b) Smalls surveys with ups and downs d) Large areas with crowded details
4) In a metric chain, number of links in a meter can be:
a) 2 b) 5 c) 8 d) 10
5) Cross staff is used for:
a) Setting out right angles c) Both a and b
b) Measuring horizontal angles d) Measuring the bearing of line
6) In chain surveying, perpendicular to the chain line are set out by:
a) A theodolite c) A clinometers
b) A prismatic compass d) An optical square
7) Ranging is defined as:
a) Measuring the distance from starting point
b) Establishing intermediate points on a chain line
c) The distance between end points
d) Any distance measured by chain in field
8) Chainage in chain survey means:
a) The distance between end stations
b) The perpendicular distance of the object from the chain line
c) The distance of object along the chain line from zero end of the chain
d) Any distance measured by chain in field
9) Main station in chain survey are the points:
a) Lying in the area enclosed by survey lines
b) Connected by main survey lines
c) On main survey lines to cover the local details
d) On main survey line to check the accurary of the survey work
10) Oblique offsets are used to:
a) Locate broken boundaries
b) Locate boundary lines of property
c) To check the accuracy of the plotted work in chain survey
d) None of the above
11) Which of the following methods results in higher accuracy for measuring horizontal distance on rough ground
a) Chaining c) Tachometry
b) Taping d) All the above
12) While measuring horizontal distance with chain on hills, it is better to measure the distance by:
a) Stepping down slope c) Both of the above
b) Stepping up slope d) None of the above
13) The maximum tolerances in a 20 m and 30 m chain are:
a) ± 2 mm and ±8mm c) ±5mm and ±8 mm
b) ±3 mm and ±5mm d) ± 8 mm and ±5 mm
14) Pick up the correct statement(s):
a) a metric chain is 20 m long c) both are correct
b) a metric chain is 30 m long d) none are correct
15) Prolongation of a chain line across and obstruction in chain surveying is done by:
a) Making angular observations d) All of the above
b) Drawing perpendiculars with a chain e) Only a and b
c) Solution of triangles
16) While measuring the line between two stations intervened by a raised ground

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a) The vision gets obstructed c) Vision and chaining get obstructed

b) The chaining gets obstructed d) None of the above
17) A well conditioned triangle should not have angles more than:
a) 30° b) 120° c) 45° d) 60°
18) Offsets are:
a) Short measurements from chain line
b) Ties or check lines which are perpendicular to chain line
c) Chain lines which go out of alignment
d) Both (a) and (b)
19) The correction to be applied to each 30 m chain length along slope is:
a) 30(1-sec α) m c) 30(1-cos α) m
b) 30( sec α -1) m d) 30(cos α – 1) m
20) A tape of length l and weight w N/m is suspended at its’ end with a pull of P newtons. The required sag correction
is:
a) lw2/24P2 b) l2w3/24P2 c) l2w2/24P2 d) lw2/24P
21) Compensating or accidental errors are proportional to
a) L1/2 b) L1/3 c) L d) 1/L
22) Check lines( proof lines) in chain surveying, are essentially required:
a) To plot the chain lines
b) To plot the offsets
c) To indicate correctness of survey work
d) To increase the efficiency of the surveyor
23) Perpendicularity of an offset may be judged by eye if the length of the offset is less than:
a) 5 m b) 10 m c) 15 m d) 20 m
24) Which of the following instruments is generally used for base line measurement?
a) Chain c) Steel tape
b) Metallic tape d) Invar tape
25) Invar tape is made of alloy of:
a) Copper and steel c) Brass and steel
b) Brass and nickel d) Steel and nickel
26) The length of a chain line is measured from:
a) Center of one handle to center of other handle
b) Outside of one handle to outside of other handle
c) Outside of one handle to inside of other handle
d) Inside of one handle to inside of other handle
27) The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors in optical square is:
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°
28) Which is the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross-staff:
a) 45° only c) Both of the above
b) 90° only d) Any angle
29) If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by
a) Straightening the links
b) Removing one or more small circular rings and placing bigger rings
c) Closing the joints of ring, if open
d) All of the above

30) If the length of a chain is found to be too long on testing, it can be adjusted by
a) Closing the opened joints of rings
b) Reshaping elongated links
c) Removing one or more circular rings
d) Replacing the worn out rings
e) All of the above
31) The position of a point can be fixed accurately by
a) Cross staff c) Clinometers
b) Optical square d) Perpendicular offset
32) Which of the following is the most precise instrument for measuring horizontal distance

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a) Chain c) Tachometer
b) Tape d) Tellurometer
33) Which of the following is an obstacle to chaining but not to ranging:
a) River c) Building
b) Hillock d) None of the above
34) A building is obstacle to:
a) Chaining only c) Both chaining and ranging
b) Rangimg only d) Neither chaining nor ranging
35) Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offset:
a) Line ranger c) Optical square
b) Steel tape d) Cross staff
36) During chaining along a straight line with a 20 m chain , the leader of the party has 4 arrow in his hand while
follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is:
a) 4 chain b) 6 chain c) 8 chain d) 12 chain
37) The main difference between an optical square and a prism square is:
a) The difference in principle of working
b) That an optical square is more accurate than prism square
c) That no adjustment is required in prism square since the angle between the reflecting surfaces can’t be
changed
d) All of the above.
38) The allowable length of an offset depends upon the:
a) Degree of accuracy required
b) Method of setting out the perpendicular and nature of ground
c) Scale of plotting
d) All of the above
39) Normal tension is that pull which
a) Is used at the time of standardizing the tape
b) Neutralizes the effect due to sag
c) Makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
d) Makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
40) The correction for sag is:
a) Always additive
b) Always subtractive
c) Always zero
d) Sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive
41) The permissible error in chaining for measurement with a chain on rough or hilly ground is:
a) 1 in 100 b) 1 in 250 c) 1 in 500 d) 1 in 1000
42) Correction for slope is given by:
a) h2/2L b) h/L c) h/2L d) 2h2/L
43) The required slope correction for a length of 30 m along a gradient of 1 in 20 is:
a) 3.75 cm b) 0.375 cm c) 27.5 cm d) 2.75 cm
44) If the length of a chain line along a slope α in l. The required slope correction is:
a) 2lcot2α c) ltan2α/2
b) 2lsin α/2
2
d) lcos2α/2
45) Pick up the correct statement(s):
a) Optical square is better than a prism square
b) In both the optical and prism square the principle of operation is same
c) Both are correct
d) None is correct
46) For setting out an offset at angle of 45° with a chain line, the instrument used is:
a) An optical square c) A French cross staff
b) An open cross staff d) A prism square
47) A pair of slots at right angles to each other are provided in:
a) Cross staff b) Arrow c) Ranging rod d) Offset rod
48) The limiting length of an offset doesnot depends on:
a) Accuracy of work

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b) Method of setting out perpendicular

c) Scale of plotting
d) The number of features to be surveyed
49) Pickup the correct statement:
a) The cost of making a horizontal measurement decreases with an increase in the desired position
b) A base line may be measured with a precision of 1 in 106
c) Tie stations are generally located on the intersection of two main survey lines
d) Base line is a line lying at the base of the area to be surveyed by a chain.
50) Pick up the correct statement(s)
a) Offset is the distance from the foot of an object to the chain line.
b) Perpendicular offsets may have infinite length.
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
51) Pick up the correct statement:
a) A revenue chain is 66 feet long.
b) Gunter devised the invar tape.
c) A tally is used to facilitate observation in an optical square.
d) A brass ring is provided at every meter length in metric chain.
52) While testing a chain, a 80 N tension is applied at the ends of:
a) 20m chain c) Both a and b
b) 30 m chain d) Gunter’s chain
53) Pick up the correct statement:
a) Invar is an alloy of steel (36%) and nickel (64%).
b) A steel tape is soft and easily deforms as compared to invar tape.
c) Metallic tape is made by weaving linen with brass wires.
d) Steel tape can be used comfortably in ground with weeds and vegetation.
54) Pick up the correct statement(s):
a) A ranging rod is provided with a stout open ring recessed hook.
b) An offset cannot be laid with French cross staff.
c) Optical squares and cross staffs are used for same purpose.
d) Clinometer is used to measure the directions of survey lines in chain survey.
55) Pick up the correct statement(s):
a) In the process of chaining the leader inserts the arrows and follower picks them up.
b) A leader follows the instructions of the follower.
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
56) Pick up the incorrect statement:
a) It is easy to measure distance down the slope.
b) Incorrect plumbing while measuring distances on slopes is a cumulative error.
c) Sag correction is a cumulative error.
d) Incorrect holding of chain at arrow is a compensating error.
57) Pick up the correct statement:
a) Sag correction may be positive or negative.
b) The limiting length of an offset is independent of the scale of plotting.
c) Error due to laying of the direction of offset is negligible.
d) The slope correction is always subtractive.
58) Pick up the correct statement:
a) The length of offset in a chain survey is always limited to reduce error in plotted work.
b) Perpendicular offsets are used to filling in details.
c) Both a and b
d) None
59) The coefficient of linear expansion for invar as compared to that of ordinary steel is about:
a) 1/500 c) 1/30
b) 1/100 d) 1/200
60) If h is the height difference between the end points of a chain of length L, the slope correction is approximaterly:

Surveying MCQs Compiled by: Er. Ganesh Prasad Sigdel

 8
2 2
a) − 𝑕 2𝐿 c) −2𝑕 𝐿
b) 𝑕 2𝐿 d) None of the above
61) If a 200 m chain diverges a perpendicular distance of 2 m from its correct alignment, error in length is:
a) +0.10 m c) +0.20 m
b) -0.10 m d) -0.20 m
62) A tape of length l and weight w when suspended at its ends are subjected to a pull p, will require sag correction
of:
2 2 3
a) −𝑙 𝑤 2 c) −𝑙𝑤
24𝑃 24𝑃2
2
b) −𝑙𝑤 d) None of the above
24𝑃2
63) An invar tape is made of an alloy of:
a) Brass and steel c) Copper and steel
b) Nickel and steel d) None of the above
64) A metallic tape is made of:
a) Metallic wire and cloth c) Metal
b) Steel d) None of the above
65) The temperature correction of the tape:
a) Is always negative c) May be negative or positive
b) Is always positive d) Is always zero
66) If the length of a chain line along a slope of θ degrees is L, required slope correction is:
a) +2𝐿𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃2 c) +2𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃2
b) −2𝐿𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃2 d) −2𝐿𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃2
67) For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than:
a) 45° b) 30° c) 15° d) 60°
68) A tie line is run:
a) To check the accuracy of field work
b) To locate detail which are far away from chain line
c) Between main survey stations
d) Parallel to the survey line
69) The angle of intersection of the mirrors in an optical square is:
a) 60° b) 45° c) 30° d) 90°
70) The allowable length of an offset depends upon:
a) Scale of plotting c) Both a and b
b) Degree of accuracy required d) None of the above
71) A French cross staff is used to set out the lines at angle:
a) 45° c) Both of the above
b) 90° d) None of the above
72) Chain surveying is generally used for:
a) Small ares in open ground c) Large areas in open ground
b) Small areas crowded with details d) Large and crowded areas
73) The permissible error in chaining on rough or hilly areas is usually:
a) 1 in 100 c) 1 in 1000
b) 1 in 250 d) 1 in 10000
74) A subsidiary line is same as:
a) Range line c) Survey line
b) Tie line d) Base line
75) An offset scale always has the zero mark at its
a) Middle
b) End
c) At middle or end
d) None of the above

76) A 20m chain is divided into:

a) 150 links

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b) 100 links
c) 200 links
77) A 30 m chain is divided into:
a) 100 links
b) 150 links
c) 200 links
78) The length of gunter’s chain is:
a) 100 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 66 ft
79) For ranging a line, the no. of ranging rods required is:
a) At least two
b) At least three
c) At least four
80) The difference between the arc length and chord length for a distance of 18.2 km is only:
a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
81) If θ be the angle of slope and l be the slope length , the slope correction is given by:
a) 𝑙(1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)
b) 𝑙(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)
c) 𝑙(1 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃)
82) If θ be the angle of slope and the length of chain be 30 m, then the correction to be applied per chain length is:
a) 30(cosθ-1)
b) 30(secθ -1)
c) 30(tan θ -1)
83) One link means the distance from:
a) Centre to centre of middle rings
b) Centre to centre of inner rings
c) Center to centre of handle
84) The walking step of a man is considered equal to:
a) 80 cm
b) 90 cm
c) 100 cm
85) Chain survey is recommended when the area is:
a) Crowded
b) Undulating
c) Simple and fairly level
86) In a chain survey, the area is divided into:
a) Rectangles
b) Triangles
c) Squares
87) The sketch prepared during reconnaissance survey is known as:
a) Hand sketch
b) Index sketch
c) Rough sketch
88) A triangle is said to be well conditioned when it’s angles lie between:
a) 30° and 120°
b) 20° and 150°
c) 15° and 135°
89) The field records of the chain survey is entered in a/ an:
a) Exercise book
b) Field book
c) Level book
90) The chain man who drags the chain is called:

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a) Captain
b) Leader
c) Followers
91) The main survey stations are located on the ground by:
a) Index sketches
b) Reference sketches
c) Line sketches
92) The limiting length of offsed depends upon:
a) Scale of plotting
b) Method of measurement
c) Method of layout
93) Perpendicular offset may be taken by setting the right angle in the ratio:
a) 3:6:9
b) 3:4:5
c) 2:4:5
94) For taking an oblique offset which makes an angle of 45° with chain line, the instrument used is:
a) Adjustable cross staff
b) Open cross staff
c) French cross staff
95) If a 20 m chain gets displaced from correct alignment by a perpendicular distance d, then the error is given by:
𝑑2
a)
40
𝑑2
b)
60
𝑑2
c)
40
96) If a wooden area obstructs the chain line, then it is crossed by:
a) Profile line method
b) Random line method
c) Projection line method

Answer Key(Chain Survey):

1.(a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(a)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(b)
11. (c ) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25.(d)
26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(c ) 29.(a) 30.(c)
31.(d) 32.(d) 33.(a) 34.(c) 35.(a)
36. (b) 37.(c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44.(b) 45.(b)
46.(c) 47.(d) 48.(d) 49.(b) 50.(a)
51.(d) 52.(c) 53.(c) 54.(c) 55.(c)
56.(b) 57.(d) 58. (c) 59.(c) 60.(a)
61.(a) 62.(b) 63.(b) 64.(a) 65.(c)
66.(d) 67.(b) 68.(b) 69.(b) 70.(c)
71.(c) 72.(a) 73.(b) 74.(b) 75.(c)
76.(b) 77.(b) 78.(c) 79.(b) 80.(b)
81.(b) 82.(a) 83.(a) 84.(a) 85.(c)
86.(b) 87.(b) 88.(a) 89.(b) 90.(b)
91.(b) 92.(a) 93.(b) 94.(c) 95.(a)
96.(b)

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COMPASS SURVEY
1) The direction of survey lines may be expressed in terms of:
a) Included angles between them c) Both of the above
b) Bearings d) None of the above
2) Which of the following compass can be used without a tripod for observing bearings?
a) Trough compass c) Surveyor compass
b) Prismatic compass d) None of the above
3) A looking mirror is generally provided on object vane to:
a) Sight on whole circle bearing system
b) Sight the objects too low
c) Sight the objects too high or too low
d) Observe the reading while sighting
4) In surveyor compass the bearing observed
a) Are in whole circle bearing system d) Both a and c
b) Are in quadrantal bearing system e) Both b and c
c) Can vary from 0° to 90°
5) The temporary adjustment of surveyor compass involves:
a) Centring only
b) Levelling only
c) Centring and levelling
d) Centring, levelling and focusing the prism
6) Bearing of a line is the horizontal angle it makes with:
a) True meridian c) Arbitrary meridian
b) Magnetic meridian d) All of the above
7) Which of the following reference direction is used in geodetic survey?
a) True c) Arbitrary
b) Magnetic d) Any of above
8) A declination of 3° East means:
a) Magnetic north is 3° east of true north
b) Magnetic north is 3° west of true north
c) True north is 3° east of magnetic earth
d) True north is 3° west of magnetic north
9) Dip is defined as:
a) The smaller horizontal angle, a survey line makes with the true meridian
b) The angle, which a freely suspended needle makes with horizontal plane
c) The angle, which a survey line makes with some reference direction.
d) None of the above
10) Which one of the following is the correct statement is the prismatic compass?
a) Zero is placed at north end.
b) The least count is 20 minutes.
c) The graduations are inverted.
d) It indicates quadrantal bearing.
11) Quadrantal bearing can be reckoned from:
a) North line c) Either from north or south
b) South line. d) Either from east or west
12) The whole circle bearing of a line is 300°. It’s quadrantal bearing is:
a) W30°N c) N30°W
b) N60°W d) W60°N
13) The bearing of a line in the opposite direction of the progress of survey is known as:
a) Fore bearing c) Reduced bearing
b) Back bearing d) Arbitrary bearing
14) The angle of dip at a point on equator is:
a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° d) 180°
15) If the forebearing of a line is 0°, it’s back bearing is:
a) 0° b) 180° c) 360° d) None

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 12

16) If the back bearing of a line is N30°W, it’s forebearing is:

a) S30°W c) N30°E
b) S30°E d) N30°W
17) The whole circle bearing of a line, whose quadrantal bearing is S19°30’E is:
a) 19°30’ c) 160°30’
b) 199°30’ d) 340°30’
18) Find the included angle AOB if the bearing of lines AO and OB are respectively 40° and 130°
a) 90° b) 170° c) 270° d) 130°
19) What will be the included angle AOB if the bearing of lines AO and OB are 130° and 40° resp.
a) 90° b) 170° c) 270° d) 130°
20) If the magnetic bearing of a line is 34°30’ and the magnetic declination is 3°30’ W, the true bearing of the line will
be:
a) 37° b) 38° c) 30° d) 31°
21) The forebearing of line AB is 209°. The included angle ABC is 341°. The FB of line BC is:
a) 550° b) 330° c) 10° d) 190°
22) The magnetic bearing of sun at noon is 178°. The magnetic declination at the place is:
a) 2°W b) 2°E c) 2°N d) 2°S
23) True bearing of a line is 10° and the magnetic declination is 2°W. It’s magnetic bearing is;
a) 2° b) 8° c) 12° d) 20°
24) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Local attraction affects included angle
b) The position of E and W are interchanged in prismatic compass
c) Dip of magnetic needle is the angle between magnetic north and true north
d) None of the above
25) The magnetic declination at a place:
a) Is constant
b) Fluctuates
c) Changes regularly at an interval of 10 years
d) Changes abruptly
26) Survey is preferred with true meridian because these
a) Converge at pole c) Facilitate plotting
b) Do not change with time d) All of the above
27) The value of magnetic dip at magnetic poles is:
a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° d) 180°
28) The line joining points of equal dip are called:
a) Aclinic lines c) Agonic lines
b) Isogonic lines d) Isoclinic lines
29) Pickout the correct statement:
a) Prismatic compass is used to measure included angle between survey lines
b) Compass can be used to fill in details
c) Compass cannot be used to plot irregular boundaries
d) Compass is not suitable for reconnaissance and exploratory survey.
30) The direction of survey line may be defined as being:
a) Relative to each other
b) Relative to some reference direction
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
31) Pick out the incorrect statement:
a) The direction of magnetic meridian is variable
b) The direction of true meridian is invariable
c) The magnetic bearing of line varies with time
d) Magnetic meridians through various stations are not parallel but converge at pole.
32) Pick out the correct statement
a) The graduation are inverted in a surveyor compass
b) A prism is provided to magnify the graduations in addition to erecting the figures.
c) East and west are interchanged in prismatic compass

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d) The 0°graduation is placed at north in prismatic compass.

33) In surveyor compass:
a) The graduations are in whole circle bearing system
b) The graduation card is attached to and rotates with box
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
34) Pick out the correct statement
a) If during computation of bearings, the fore bearing of a line is found to be 200°, the actual fore bearing will be
380°.
b) Lines joining places of equal dip are known as isogonic lines
c) Lines joining places of zero dip are known as isoclinic lines.
d) Magnetic equator is an example of aclinic line.
35) Pick out the correct statement:
a) The angle of dip is 0° at equator c) None of the above
b) The angle of dip is 90° at poles d) Both of the above.
36) Pick out the correct statement:
a) Lines joining places of equal magnetic declination are known as isogonic lines.
b) Lines joining places of zero magnetic declination are known as agonic lines.
c) On agonic lines the magnetic needle defines true as well as magnetic north.
d) All of the above.
37) Pick out the incorrect statement:
a) Diurnal variation of declination is more for the places near equator.
b) Irregular variation of declination may be of order of 1° .
c) Causes of secular variation of declination are not well understood.
d) Both a and c
38) Pick out the incorrect statement:
a) Due to local attraction at a station, the included angles are affected.
b) Even if none of the fore and back bearing of the lines of traverse differ by 180°, the local attraction can be
calculated at each station.
c) The true bearing of sun can be found
d) All of the above.
39) Pick out the incorrect statement:
a) An arbitrary meridian can be of any convenient direction.
b) All the three faces of prism in a prismatic compass are made convex.
c) Sighting and reading can be done simultaneously with a surveyor compass.
d) Both b and c
40) Pick out the correct statement:
a) With a prismatic compass, sighting and reading can be done simultaneously.
b) Levelling of the compass is achieved by eye judgement.
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

41) The angle of dip at the magnetic pole is:

a) 0° c) 45°
b) 90° d) None of the above
42) Agonic lines pass through points of:
a) Zero declination c) Equal dip
b) Equal declination d) Zero dip
43) Local attraction of magnetic compass is due to:
a) Magnetic objects c) AC current
b) Gravity d) None of the above
44) A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to:
a) West of true meridian c) South of true meridian
b) East of true meridian d) None of the above

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45) The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is called:
a) Dip c) Declination
b) Azimuth d) None of the above
46) The graduation in a prismatic compass:
a) Are inverted c) Are from 0° to 360°
b) Have zero at south d) All of the above
47) The quadrantal bearing of a line is determined by:
a) Prismatic compass c) Celestial observation
b) Surveyor compass d) All of the above
48) Vertical angle between longitudinal axis of a freely suspended magnetic needle and the horizontal line is called:
a) Declination c) Azimuth
b) Dip d) None
49) Select the correct statement:
a) Magnetic declination at a place remains constant
b) True meridians at different places are parallel to each other
c) In a prismatic compass, the graduation ring moves with box
d) Magnetic bearing of a line does not remain constant
50) In a prismatic compass, the zero is marked on:
a) North end
b) South end
c) West end
51) In a surveyor compass, the ring is graduated:
a) From 0° to 360°
b) In quadrants 0° to 90°
c) In any way
52) The compass box is made of:
a) Iron
b) Alumunium
c) Brass
53) Open traverse is suitable in survey of:
a) Ponds
b) Rivers
c) Estates
54) The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse is:
a) (2n-4)*90°
b) (2n+4)*90°
c) (n-4)*90°
55) The true meridian passes through:
a) Geographic poles
b) Magnetic poles
c) Arbitrary poles
56) The line passing through points of zero declination is known as:
a) Isogonic line
b) Agonic line
c) Contour line
57) In the WCB system, a line is said to be free from local attraction if the difference between FB and BB is equal to:
a) 0°
b) 90°
c) 180°
58) In the QB system, a line is said to be free from local attraction, if the FB and BB are:
a) Numerically equal
b) Numerically equal with opposite quadrants
c) Anything
59) The accuracy of open traverse is checked by the:
a) Cut-off line
b) Auxillary line

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c) Random line
60) The angular accuracy of closure should not exceed:
a) 15′ 𝑁𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
b) 30′ 𝑁𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
c) 𝑁𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
61) The closing error in closed traverse is adjusted by:
a) Lehmann’s rule
b) Bowditch rule
c) Slide rule
62) The relative closing error shouldnot exceed:
1
a)
600
1
b)
400
1
c)
1000

Answer Key(Compass Survey)

1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(e) 5.(c)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(c)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(b)
16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(b) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(c)
26. (b) 27.(c) 28.(d) 29.(b) 30.(c)
31.(d) 32.(b) 33.(b) 34.(d) 35.(c)
36.(d) 37.(a) 38.(a) 39.(d) 40.(c)
41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(a) 44.(a) 45.(c)
46.(d) 47.(b) 48.(b) 49.(d) 50.(b)
51.(b) 52.(c) 53.(b) 54.(a) 55.(a)
56.(a) 57.(c) 58.(b) 59.(a) 60.(a)
61.(b) 62.(a)

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THEODOLITE
1. The size of the theodolite is defined by:
a. The diameter of graduated circle of lower plate
b. The diameter of graduated circle of upper plate
c. The height of the theodolite
d. The length of the telescope
2. The operation consisting of revolving the telescope through 180°in a vertical plane about its horizontal axis is
called:
a. Transiting c. Face left
b. Face right d. Traversing
3. The operation of revolving the telescope in a horizontal plane about it’s vertical axis is called:
a. Surveying c. Face right
b. Transiting d. None
4. Theodolite is an instrument for:
a. Measurement of bearing only
b. Measurement of horizontal angles only
c. Measurement of vertical angles only
d. All the above
5. A telescope is said to be inverted if:
a. Vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of telescope is down
b. Vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of telescope is up
c. Vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of telescope is down
d. Vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of telescope is up
6. A telescope is said to be normal or direct if:
a. Vertical circle is to the left of the observer and the bubble is up
b. Vertical circle is to the left of the observer and the bubble is down
c. Vertical circle is to the right of the observer and the bubble is down
d. Vertical circle is to the right of the observer and the bubble is up
7. The process of establishing intermediate points with the help of theodolite, on a given straight line whose ends are
not intervisible is called:
a. Centring c. Balancing in
b. Levelling d. Lining in
8. The process of establishing intermediate points with the help of theodolite, on a given straight line whose ends are
intervisible is called:
a. Centring c. lining in
b. Traversing d. Balancing in
9. Which of the following is the function of levelling head?
a. To support main part of the instrument
b. To attach theodolite to the tripod
c. To provide means for levelling the theodolite
d. All of the above
10. If the altitude bubble is provided both on the index arm as well as on the telescope of theodolite, then the
instrument is leveled with reference to:
a. Altitude bubble on telescope
b. Altitude bubble on index frame, if it is to be used as level
c. Altitude bubble on the telescope if it is to be used as a level
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
11. If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the theodolite may be rotated:
a. With a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate
b. Without a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate
c. Both a and b
d. None of above
12. If a tripod setting of a theodolite being used as a level changes in the interval that elapses between taking a FS and
the BS, then the elevation of turning point will be:

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a. Increased c. Same
b. Decreased d. Either a or b
13. Removal of parallax may be achieved by:
a. Refocusing the objective
b. Refocusing the eye piece
c. Refocusing the eye piece and objective
d. None of the above
14. For which of the following permanent adjustment of a theodolite is the spire test used?
a. Adjustment of plate levels
b. Adjustment of line of sight
c. Adjustment of horizontal axis
d. Adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame.
15. Right deflection angle may be directly obtained by setting the instrument to read:
a. Zero on back station c. 90° on back station
b. 180° on back station d. 270° on back station
16. For locating a distant object visible from two transit stations the method usually preferred is:
a. Angles and distant from transit stations
b. Angles from two transit stations
c. Distances from two transit stations
d. Angle from one transit station and distance from the other one.
17. A transit is oriented by setting it’s vernier A to read back bearing of the preceding line and a back sight on the
preceding station is taken. The transit is then rotated about it’s vertical axis. The vernier A then reads:
a. Fore bearing of preceding line
b. Fore bearing of the forward line
c. Back bearing of preceding line
d. Equal to 360° - bearing of the forward line
18. To observe an included angle with better accuracy than what is achieved by reading the verniers of the theodolite,
the method preferred is:
a. Repetition c. Double observation
b. Reiteration d. Any of the above
19. Accurate measurement of deflection angle with a transit not properly adjusted made by:
a. Setting vernier A to read zero at the back station and then plunging the telescope
b. Setting the vernier A to read zero at the back station and then turning the instrument to the forward station
c. Taking two backsights, one with telescope normal and the other with telescope inverted.
d. None of the above
20. The plate bubble in the plate level of a theodolite will move considerably from its central position if the tripod leg
is moved:
a. Radially inwards
b. Radially outwards
c. In the same direction of bubble moved
d. In the opposite direction of bubble moved
21. The error eliminated by changing face is:
i) Error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
ii) Error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis
iii) Error due to line of collimation not being parallel to altitude level
a. i, ii and iii are eliminated c. i and ii are eliminated
b. only i is eliminated d. none of these are eliminated
22. The temporary adjustment of theodolite consists of:
i)setting up the theodolite over station
ii) levelling up
iii)elimination of parallax
a. i, ii and iii c. i and ii only
b. i only d. ii and iii only
23. The permanent adjustment of a theodolite consist of:
i)adjustment of the horizontal plate level
ii)adjustment of the horizontal axis

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iii)adjustment of the telescope

iv)adjustment of the telescope level
v)adjustment of the vertical circle index
a. (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v) c. (i), (iv), (v) only
b. (i),(ii) and (iii) only d. (i), (iii), (v) only
24. The correct order of permanent adjustments of theodolite is:
i)make the vertical cross hair lie in a plane perpendicular to the horizontal axis
ii)make the plate bubble central to its run when the vertical axis of the theodolite is truly vertical
iii)make the line of sight perpendicular to the horizontal axis
iv)make the horizontal axis perpendicular to vertical axis
v)make the telescope level bubble central when the line of sight is horizontal
vi)make the vertical circle indicate zero when the line of sight is perpendicular to the vertical axis,
a. (ii),(i),(iii),(iv),(v),(vi) c. (ii),(iv),(v),(vi),(i),(iii)
b. (iii),(i),(iv),(v),(vi),(ii) d. (i),(ii),(iii),(vi),(iv),(v)
25. The error which is eliminated/minimized by the method of repetition is
i)the error of graduation are minimized
ii)personal error of bisection
iii)the error due to eccentricity of centers of main scale and verniers
iv)the error due to the line of collimation not being perpendicular to the transverse.
a. (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) c. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) only d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
26. Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition for horizontal angle measurement?
a. Error due to eccentricity of verniers
b. Error due to displacement of station signals
c. Error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis
d. Error due to inaccurate graduations
27. The magnitude of error due to imperfect levelling of the plate bubble for horizontal angle measurement is:
a. Large, when sights are approximately level
b. Large for long sights
c. Less for steeply inclined sights
d. large for steeply inclined sights
28. Centring error of a theodolite produces an error
a. In all angles equally
b. Which doesnot vary with direction or bisection
c. Which varies with the direction of bisection and inversely with the length of sight
29. The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer spindle of the theodolite can be eliminated by:
a. Reading both verniers and taking mean of two
b. Taking both face observation and taking mean of two
c. Double sighting
d. Taking mean of the observations distributed over different portion of the graduated circle
30. Which of the errors can be eliminated by taking the mean of both face observations
a. Error due to imperfect graduations
b. Error due to eccentricity of verniers
c. Error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
d. Error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
31. Pick up the incorrect statement
a. A theodolite is known as universal instrument
b. The modern theodolites are glass arc type
c. The size of the theodolite is determined by vertical circle
d. Alidade assembly is a part of theodolite
32. A theodolite consist of:
a. Levelling head assembly c. Alidade assembly
b. Horizontal circle assembly d. All of these
33. Pick up the correct statement
a. A four screw levelling head is better than the three screw one

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b. Centring in a theodolite is facilitated by movable head

c. Two plate levels on a horizontal circle assembly are provided so that if one becomes sluggish the other can
be used
d. It is better to provide a bubble tube on the telescope rather than on the index frame
34. Pick up the correct statement
a. The horizontal circle of a vernier theodolite is graduated in the quadrantal bearing system
b. The vertical circle of a vernier theodolite is graduated 0° to 90°.
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
35. Pick up the incorrect statement
a. Three sets of clamp and tangent screw are provided on the theodolite
b. Theodolite are equipped with internal focusing telescope to facilitate transiting
c. The least count of a vernier theodolite is 20”
d. The telescope normal position means that the vertical circle of the theodolite is to the right of the observer.
36. Pick up the correct statement
a. Lining in means establishing intermediate points on a line whose ends are not intervisible
b. The error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis cannot be eliminated by
changing face
c. The error due to line of collimation not being parallel to the axis of level tube van be eliminated by
changing the face
d. Both b and c
37. The difference between face left and face right observations of a theodolite is 3’. The error is:
a. 45” b. 1’30” c. 3’ d. 6’
38. In a theodolite,
i)the lower clamp and tangent screw are used to bring the line of sight along a reference line
ii)the upper clamp and tangent screws are used to set 0-0 reading on the plates before sighting along the
reference line
iii)the upper clam and tangent screws are used to obtain a differential movement between upper and lower
plates
a. (i) and (ii) are correct c. (ii) and (iii) are correct
b. (i) and (iii) are correct d. All are correct
39. Pick up the correct statement
a. Theodolite can be used for ordinary levelling
b. Theodolite can be used for measuring directions
c. Theodolite can be used for measuring horizontal distances on rough ground
d. All of above
40. Pick up the correct statement
a. Spire test is the name of collimation in azimuth test
b. During transit the wing nuts of the theodolite are loosened
c. Poor focusing of a theodolite results in instrumental error
d. A direct angle is that which a survey line makes with prolongation of the preceding line
41. The bubble tube parallel to the telescope of a theodolite should be more sensitive since it controls
a. Vertical axis c. Axis of the bubble tube
b. Horizontal axis d. None
42. Wing nuts are provided on:
a. Bubble tubes c. Standards
b. Diaphragm d. Tripod

43. The upper plate of theodolite is fixed to:

a. Outer spindle c. Levelling head
b. Inner spindle d. None of the above
44. While taking the backsight, the screw used is:
a. Lower clamp c. Upper tangent
b. Upper clamp d. None of the above
45. Turning the telescope in the vertical plane about the horizontal axis is called:

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a. Transiting c. Swinging
b. Plunging d. Both a and b
46. Parallax can be removed by:
a. Focusing the objective c. Focusing both objective and eye piece
b. Focusing the eye piece d. None of the above
47. The horizontal angle between two lines is generally measured:
a. Clockwise from the forward station d. Counter-clockwise from the backward
b. Clockwise from the back station station.
c. Counter-clockwise from the forward station
48. For measuring a horizontal angle between two lines with better accuracy than that given by the vernier, the
method commonly used is:
a. Reiteration c. Double-centring
b. Repetition d. Double sighting
49. The final setting of the plates when taking a foresight is achieved by using the:
a. Upper clamp screw c. Lower clamp screw
b. Upper tangent screw d. Lower tangent screw
50. Two points are marked on the ground where the line of sight strikes before and after plunging the telescope, and a
stake is set midway between two points. The process is called:
a. Double sighting c. Mid-pointing
b. Balancing in d. Lininig- in
51. A deflection angle is:
a. Always less than zero
b. Always between 90° and 180°
c. Equal to the difference between the included angle and 180°
d. Equal to the difference between 360° and included angle
52. If a backsight is taken on the preceding transit station with the vernier reading equal to back azimuth of the
preceding line and then the instrument is turned to sight the forward station, the vernier reading will give:
a. Azimuth of the forward line
b. Back azimuth of the forward line
c. Difference of 360° and azimuth of forward line
d. None of the above
Answer Key(Theodolite)

1(a) 2(a) 3(d) 4(d) 5(a)

6(a) 7(c) 8(c) 9(d) 10(b)
11(a) 12(c) 13(c) 14(c) 15(a)
16(b) 17(b) 18(a) 19(c) 20(c)
21(a) 22(a) 23(a) 24(a) 25(a)
26(b) 27(d) 28(c) 29(a) 30(d)
31(c) 32(d) 33(b) 34(b) 35(d)
36(c) 37(b) 38(d) 39(d) 40(c)
41(b) 42(d) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(d)
46.(c) 47.(b) 48.(b) 49.(b) 50.(a)
51.(c) 52.(a)

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TRAVERSING
1. Which of the following methods can be used for finding the direction of the survey line while traversing
a. Free needle method c. Both of the above
b. Fast needle method d. None of the above
2. In traversing, traverse can be:
a. Closed c. Closed or open
b. Open d. Closed with a central station
3. Lattitude of a line is defined as:
a. Orthographic projection of a survey line on E-W line
b. Orthographic projection of a survey line on the reference meridian
c. Length of a survey line corrected for various chain/tape corrections
d. None of the above
4. In open traversing, which of the following methods is preferred:
a. Method of direct angles
b. Method of exterior angles
c. Method of deflection angles
d. Method of interior angles
5. If N is the no. of stations and least count of the instrument is 20”, then the limit of the angular error of closure in
traversing should be:
a. <20√N c. <20√N
b. >20N d. >20√N
6. If n is the number of sides of a traverse while traversing clockwise, the sum of included angles should be:
a. (2n-4)*90° c. (2n±4)*90°
b. (2n+4)*90° d. None of the above
7. The departure of a line of traverse is its length multiplied by:
a. Cosine of reduced bearing
b. Sine of reduced bearing
c. Secant of reduced bearing
d. Tangent of reduced bearing
8. For an open traverse:
a. ΣLattitude =0 c. Both of above
b. ΣDeparture=0 d. None of above
9. The Gale’s method of traversing consist of plotting the points by:
a. Independent coordinates c. Both a and b
b. Consecutive coordinates d. None of the above
10. In a traverse surveying, the deflection angle is:
a. Always less than 90°
b. 90°
c. Difference between 180° and internal angle
d. None of the above
11. In a traverse survey, closing error means:
a. The error in the closing of the traversing operation
b. The actual distance by which the traverse fails to close
c. The distance between the starting and end point in an open traverse
d. None of the above
12. The closing error can be eliminated by:
a. Bowditch rule
b. Transit rule
c. Working accurately latitudes
d. Either a or b as applicable
13. In case of angular measurements being more precise than the linear measurements, the traverse can be balanced
by:
a. Empirical formula c. Bowditch rule
b. Theodolite correction d. Transit rule
14. To observe the included angle accurately, method preferred is:

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a. Repetition c. By deflection angles

b. Reiteration d. Transit rule
15. The most accurate method of plotting traverse is by:
a. Independent coordinates c. Both a and b
b. Consecutive coordinates d. None of the above
16. In open traversing, the angular error can be determined by:
a. Checking algebraic sum of deflection angles
b. Checking Nothings=Southings
c. Sum of included angles
d. Astronomical observation
17. In traversing, linear measurements are done with chain and angular measurements by:
a. Chain c. Theodolite
b. Compass d. Any of the above
18. Pick out the correct statement
a. A closed traverse is employed for locating boundaries of areas across which tie lines cannot be measured.
b. A closed traverse is employed for determining area
c. Both a and b are correct
d. None is correct
19. Pick out the correct statement
a. A closed traverse is most suited for narrow strip of land
b. Free needle method is better than fast needle method of traversing
c. The coordinate method of plotting a traverse is usually employed
d. The departure of a line is its projection on the reference meridian
20. Pick out the correct statement
a. An example of a negative coordinate is the south coordinate
b. The method of plotting by independent coordinates is better than by consecutive coordinates
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
21. Pick out the correct statement
a. If l is length and α is the angle which the line makes with east direction, its latitude is lcosα
b. The sum of exterior angles of a traverse of n sides is (2n-4)*90°
c. The algebraic sum of deflection angles should be zero
d. Cut off lines are used to check the accuracy of an open traverse
22. An open traverse can be checked by:
a. Included angle c. Astronomical observation
b. Deflection angles d. None of the above
23. Closing error in a traverse:
a. Means the error on close of the day’s work
b. Occurs because of limitations of the calculating machine
c. Is equal to ΣL+ΣD
d. None of the above
24. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Transit rule is also known as compass rule
b. Graphical adjustment of closing error is based on transit rule
c. If e is the error of closure and the number of lines in the traverse is 5, then the correction on the second
observed bearing is (2)2e/5
d. If n is the number of sides of a traverse, then the angular error of closure should not exceed by least
count*√n
25. For closed traverse, which of the following is more important and essential
a. Σlattitude=0 c. Both of the above
b. ΣDeparture=0 d. None of the above
26. Which of the following is correct for balancing traverse if the distance has been measured precisely
a. Bowditch rule c. Either a or b
b. Transit rule d. None of the above
27. Coordinates of A are 100 (Northing) and 200(Easting), that of B are 100(southing) and 200(Easting). length AB is:
a. 200

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 23

b. 282.84
c. 244.94
d. 400
28. The method which is most suitable for locating the details which are far away from a transit station in a traverse
consists of:
a. Measuring angle and distance from one station
b. Measuring angle from one station and distance from the other
c. Measuring angles from two stations
d. Measuring distances from two stations
29. Select the incorrect statement:
a. The fast needle method is more accurate than the loose needle method
b. In a closed traverse, the angles measured are interior angles if the traverse is clockwise.
c. Traversing by the method of deflection angles is generally used for open traverse.
d. Traversing by the method of included angle is generally preferred to traversing by fast needle method.
30. The following method of the fast needle method of traversing is generally preferred:
a. Direct method with transiting
b. Direct method without transiting
c. Back bearing method
d. None of the above
31. In a theodolite traverse for land surveying, the length of the traverse lines are generally measured with a:
a. Chain
b. Metallic tape
c. Steel tape or band
d. Invar tape
32. The most commonly used method for determining correctly the relative positions of a number of survey points is”
a. Chain survey
b. Theodolite traverse
c. Triangulation
d. Compass traverse
33. Select the correct statement:
a. A closed traverse always closes on the starting line
b. Deflection angle traverse is preferred for a closed traverse
c. Direction of deflection angles may be determined later in the office
d. In the direct method without transiting of the traversing, by fast needle method, the telescope is in normal
position at every alternate stations
e. The angle between the preceding line and elongation of the forward line is the deflection angle.
34. The sum of interior angles of a closed traverse of ‘n’ sides is equal to:
a. (n-1)*180°
b. (n-2)*180°
c. (2n-1)*180°
d. (n-4)*180°
35. The latitude of a line is obtained by multiplying its length by:
a. Tangent of bearing
b. Sine of bearing
c. Cosine of bearing
d. Cotangent of bearing
36. If angular measurement of a traverse are more accurate than the linear measurements, balancing of the traverse is
generally done by:
a. Bowditch rule
b. Transit rule
c. Arbitrary method
d. Axis rule
37. The most accurate method of plotting a theodolite traverse is by:
a. Consecutive co-ordinates
b. Independent co-ordinates
c. Included angles

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d. Tangent method
38. In a closed traverse, if ΣL= negative and ΣD= positive, then the whole circle bearing of the error of closure will
be between:
a. 0° to 90°
b. 90°to 180°
c. 180° to 270°
d. 270° to 360°
39. The bowditch rule is based on the assumption that the probable error is proportional to:
a. 𝑙
b. 𝑙
c. 𝑙2
d. 1 𝑙
40. If the precision of the angular measurement is 20”, the corresponding consistent precision in linear measurement
is:
a. 1 in 1000
b. 1 in 10000
c. 1 in 5000
d. 1 in 3000
41. The omitted measurement can be computed if they are not more than:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1

Answer Key( Traversing)

1(c) 2(c) 3(b) 4(c) 5(d)

6(b) 7(b) 8(d) 9(a) 10(c)
11(b) 12(d) 13(d) 14(a) 15(a)
16(d) 17(d) 18(c) 19(c) 20(c)
21(d) 22(c) 23(d) 24(d) 25(c)
26(a) 27(a) 28.(c) 29.(b) 30.(b)
31.(c) 32.(b) 33.(d) 34.(b) 35.(c)
36.(b) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(b) 40. (b)
41.(c)

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LEVELLING
1. Levelling deals with measurement in:
a. Horizontal plane c. Both horizontal and vertical planes
b. Vertical plane d. Inclined plane
2. BM in surveying designates
a. Bending moment c. Bench mark
b. British mark d. Both a and c
3. The datum adopted in Nepal is the mean sea level at
a. Karachi c. South china sea
b. Calcutta d. Bay of Bengal
4. Height of instrument may be defined as:
a. Height of instrument at the time of observation
b. The elevation of the plane of collimation when the instrument is accurately leveled
c. Height of instrument, if the backsight distance is equal to the foresight distance
d. None of the above
5. In an external focusing telescope, the focusing of the objective is achieved by:
a. Movement of the negative concave lens
b. Movement of the objective
c. Movement of the eye piece
d. All of the above
6. Line of collimation is defined as:
a. Line joining the intersection of cross hairs, optical center of the objective and it’s continuation
b. Line joining the center of the eyepiece and optical centre of the objective
c. Line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the level tube at it’s mid-point
d. None of the above
7. Staff reading over a station whose elevation is known as:
a. Foresight c. Intermediate sight
b. Backsight d. All of the above
8. A fixed point of reference, whose elevation is known, is called:
a. Reduced level c. Change point
b. Bench mark d. Station
9. Pick out the correct statement
a. Height of instrument method is better as compared to rise and fall method
b. The length of a metric staff used in levelling is 2 m.
c. The rise and fall method for reduction of levels provide check on all sights
d. The effect of curvature is to cause the objects sighed to appear higher than they actually are
10. Pick out the correct statement:
a. In levelling, backsight is less than foresight the backsight station is lower than foresight station.
b. In reciprocal levelling, error due to refraction is eliminated.
c. At a change point in levelling, two backsight readings are taken.
d. The effect of curvature is to cause the objects sighted to appear lower than they actually are.
11. Correction for curvature is given by:
a. 0.0112D2 c. 0.0673 D2
b. 0.0785 D2 d. 0.0112D2
12. Pick out the correct statement:
a. The nature of combined correction due to curvature and refraction is additive
b. The figures in the staff are very distinct if the staff is kept near the level
c. In levelling, if previous reading is less than the next consecutive reading, it indicates a rise
d. The effect of curvature and refraction can be neglected if the instrument is kept midway
e. Both c and d
f. Both c and a
13. Pick up the correct statement:
a. The sensitivity of a bubble tube increases with the increase in radius of curvature of the bubble tube.
b. The sensitivity of a bubble tube increases with increase in length of the vapour bubble.
c. The sensitivity of a bubble tube will be more if the diameter of the tube is more.

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 26

14. What will be the correction for curvature at a distance of 1000 m?

a. 0.0673 m c. 078.50 m
b. 0..0785 m d. 0.112 m
15. The reading on a 4.0 m staff at a point is observed as 2.895. If the staff was 8 cm out of the plumb line, the
correct reading should have been:
a. 2.8938 m c. 2.8936 m
b. 2.8937 m d. 2.8940 m
16. A backsight reading on a BM=100 m was 3.250. The inverted staff reading to the bottom of the girder was 1.250.
The RL of bottom of the girder is:4
a. 101.250 c. 104.5
b. 102.0 d. 103.250
17. Pick out the correct statement:
i)in ascending a hill, the backsight distance is more than the foresight distance
ii)on hills, to avoid short sights in levelling, the instrument should be set so as to obtain zigzag sights
iii)while descending a hill, it is easy to read a foresight than backsight
a. Only i is correct c. all are correct
b. i and ii are correct d. only ii is correct
18. To calculate the amount of cut and fill
a. Only profile levelling is sufficient
b. Only cross section levelling is sufficient
c. Both profile levelling and cross sectioning are required.
19. Pick out the correct statement:
i)A level must be set over exact point by means of a plumb bob.
ii)a transit may be used as a level.
iii)a turning point is a point where an instrument is located.
a. Both i and ii are correct c. Only i is correct
b. Both ii and iii are correct d. Only ii is correct
20. The sensitivity of a bubble tube is 20”. A staff is held at a distance of 200 m. What is the error in reading in it of
the bubble is out by one division
a. 0.704 m c. 0.0194 m
b. 0.0704 m d. 0.1940 m
21. Pick out the correct statement
i)direct levelling is more precise than indirect levelling
ii)trigonometric levelling gives better result than spirit levelling
iii)barometric levelling gives the best result
a. Only (i) is correct c. Only (iii) is correct
b. Only (ii) is correct d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
22. The diaphragm of a surveying telescope is held:
a. Inside the eye piece
b. Inside the objective
c. Either a or b
d. Inside the telescope near eye piece
23. In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely eliminated is due to:
a. Curvature c. Non adjustment of line of collimation
b. Refraction d. None of the above
24. The real image of an object formed by the objective must be:
a. At the center of the telescope
b. At the optical centre of the objective
c. At the plane of the cross wire
d. At the optical center of the eye piece
25. Pick out the incorrect statement
a. Under high temperature, the liquid in a level tube expands but does not affect the observations made on the
staff
b. To miminize error in levelling with an instrument in muddy soil, the foresights should be taken before
backsights on an alternative setup of the instrument.
c. In differential levelling, the errors can be eliminated completely.

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 27

d. By keeping the line of sight parallel to the bubble, line of collimation error is eliminated.
26. Pick up the correct statement
a. In spirit levelling, vertical angles are also measured.
b. Hypsometry is a type of levelling
c. Differential levelling is the most common method of levelling
d. Both b and c
27. Pick out the correct statement
a. Elevation of a point is its vertical coordinate
b. Usually average sea level is considered as datum in levelling
c. Levelling can be used to measure settlement of the building
d. All of the above
28. Levels of the points can be found by:
a. Measuring pressures
b. Measuring boiling point of water
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
29. Pick out the correct statement
a. Fly levelling is a type of spirit leveling
b. Sectioning and cross sectioning are one and the same type of levelling
c. Spot levels are points used to denote instrument positions
d. None of the above
30. In levelling
a. Permanent bench marks are established by government agency in permanent points
b. Temporary bench marks are the points on which a days work is closed
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
31. The liquid in level tube should be:
a. Quick acting
b. Non freezing
c. Stable under normal temperature variation
d. All the above
32. Sensitivity of bubble tube increases with:
a. An increase in the radius of curvature of the tube
b. Smoothness of finish of internal surface of the tube
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
33. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. Wye level can be tested rapidly as compared to dumpy level
b. Cooke’s level is a combination of good features of dumpy and wye level
c. In cushing’s level, the object glass and eye piece are interchangeable
d. None of the above
34. Pick out the incorrect statement
a. Hand level can be adjusted and used without a tripod
b. Abney hand level is also known as clinometers
c. A clinometers can be used as a hand level by setting the pointer to zero
d. In tilting level, the telescope can be revolved only about the vertical axis
35. Pick out the incorrect statement
a. A levelling staff should be read upwards
b. Target staff is 3 m long
c. In sopwith telescopic staff, the readings are taken downwards
d. None is above
36. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. Centring is not required in levelling
b. In the two peg test the vertical axis is made perpendicular to the plate bubble axis.
c. In a tilting level only one permanent adjustment is required.
d. In a dumpy level two permanent adjustments are required

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 28

37. Pick out the correct statement:

a. By equalizing backsight and foresight observation in levelling, the error due to improper permanent
adjustment of a level are overcome
b. A munis sight is booked for inverted staff reading
c. Spot levels are determined by sectioning and cross sectioning
d. All the above
38. Pick out the correct statement
a. The effect of the curvature of the earth is to cause an object appear low
b. The effect of refraction is to cause an object appear higher
c. Both are correct
d. None is correct
39. Apart from arithmetic , the levelling work is best checked by:
a. Height of instrument method
b. Rise and fall method
c. Closed loop check
d. Open loop check
40. Pick out the correct statement:
a. The permissible closing error in ordinary levelling is 12 seconds
b. Sectioning does not use the principle of differential levelling
c. Barometric levelling is most suited in flat countries
d. Barometric levelling is performed by altimeters

41. The most important requirement for levelling is that:

a. Horizontal cross wire should lie on a plane perpendicular to the axis
b. Axis of bubble tube should be perpendicular to vertical axis
c. Line of sight should be parallel to the axis of bubble tube
42. Levelling of dumpy level is done to make:
a. The vertical axis truly vertical c. The optical axis truly horizontal
b. The line of sight truly horizontal d. None of the above
43. The height of the instrument in levelling is:
a. Height of telescope axis above the ground c. Elevation of line of sight with respect to msl
b. Elevation of line of sight with respect to the d. None of the above
datum
44. The surface perpendicular to the direction of the gravity is:
a. Horizontal surface c. Horizon
b. Level surface d. None
45. A bubble tube with division of 2 mm and a radius of 10 m has the sensitivity of about:
a. 40” b. 80” c. 20” d. 2”
46. The sensitivity of bubble tube can be increased by:
a. Increasing the diameter of the tube c. Increasing the length of tube
b. Increasing radius of curvature of the tube d. Increasing the length of division
47. With rise in temperature, the sensitivity of bubble tube:
a. Decreases c. Increases or dicreases
b. Increases d. Remains unaffected
48. On a turning point:
a. Only a backsight is taken c. Both backsight and foresight are taken
b. Only a foresight is taken d. Intermediate sight is taken
49. The rise and fall method provides arithmetic check on:
a. Backsight and foresight c. Both a and b
b. Intermediate sight d. Neither a nor b
50. Which of the following types of levelling cannot be done by dumpy level?
a. Differential levelling c. Trigonometric levelling
b. Reciprocal levelling d. Profile levelling
51. The internal focusing lens is:
a. Convex lens c. Plano-convex lens
b. Concave lens d. Plano-concave lens

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 29

52. Philadelphia rod is a type of:

a. Solid staff c. Telescopic staff
b. Folding staff d. None of the above
53. While levelling in a undulating terrain, it is preferable to set up the instrument on:
a. The top of the summit c. One side of the slope
b. The bottom of the valley d. Any of the above
54. While levelling on steep slope, it is preferable to set up the instrument successively along a
a. Straight line c. Curved line
b. Zigzag line d. None
55. Select the correct statement:
a. The first reading after setting up the instrument is a foresight
b. If the foresight is greater than the backsight, it represents a rise
c. The height of instrument method provides check on intermediate sights
d. The staff reading increases when it is tilted
e. A plumb bob can be used to establish a level line of sight.
56. If the level tube is out of adjustment by an angle e, when telescope is rotated through 180°, it will be:
a. 4e b. 3e c. 2e d. –e
57. The surface of still water is considered to be:
a. Level
b. Horizontal
c. Smooth
58.

Answer Key ( Levelling)

1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4(b) 5(b)
6(a) 7(b) 8(b) 9(c) 10(d)
11(a) 12(d) 13(d) 14(b) 15(b)
16(c) 17(c) 18(c) 19(d) 20(c)
21(a) 22(d) 23(b) 24(c) 25(c)
26(d) 27(d) 28(c) 29(a) 30(c)
31(d) 32(c) 33(d) 34(d) 35(d)
36(b) 37(b) 38(c) 39(c) 40(d)
41.(c) 42.(a) 43.(b) 44.(b) 45.(a)
46.(b) 47.(a) 48.(c) 49.(c) 50.(c)
51.(b) 52.(c) 53.(c) 54.(b) 55.(d)
56.(c) 57.(a) 58.(

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 30

TACHEOMETRY
1. The method generally preferred for contouring rough country where ordinary levelling is tedious anc chaining is
slow and inaccurate is:
a. Levelling c. Tachometric surveying
b. Plane table surveying d. Compass surveying
2. The branchc of surveying in which both horizontal and vertical positions of a point are determined by making
optical measurements is known as:
a. Tachometry c. Tachemetry
b. Telemetry d. All the above
3. Horizontal distance obtained by tachometric observations:
a. Require slope correction
b. Require pull correction
c. Require slope and pull correction
d. Don’t require slope and pull correction.
4. If only horizontal cross wire is provided in the stadia diaphragm of a tachometer, these may be:
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
5. Multiplying constant of a tachometer is:
a. f/i c. (f/i)+d
b. (f/d)+i d. f+d
6. The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is generally fitted with two additional
a. Horizontal hair
b. Vertical hair
c. Horizontal and two vertical hairs
d. None of the above
7. Whick of the followings represent the correct match?
i)movable hair method: the intercept of staff is kept constant and stadia hair interval is variable
ii)fixed hair method: the intercept on staff is variable and stadia hair interval is fixed
iii)tangential method: the stadia hairs are not used
a. Only iii is correct
b. Only i and ii are correct
c. All three statements are corrected
d. None is corrected
8. The stadia method in tachometry is used to determine:
a. Horizontal angles
b. Vertical angles
c. Horizontal distances
d. Horizontal and vertical distances
9. The standard accuracy of tachometric distance determination is:
a. 1:10 c. 1:500
b. 1:100 d. 1:10000
10. The purpose of an anallactic lens in a tachometer is to:
a. Increase magnification
b. Reduce effective length of telescope
c. To eliminate multiplying constant
d. To make staff intercept proportional to its distance from tachometer.
11. The additive constant of a tachometer is generally:
a. A few centimeters c. About 10 meters
b. 100 centimeters d. A dimensionless quantity
12. The multiplying constant of tachometer is generally:
a. 200 b. 200 c. 50 d. 0
13. A substense bar can be used to determine:
a. Long distance upto a km
b. Short distane up to 200 m
c. Very short distance upto a few centimeters
d. Very long distance upto 100 km

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14. For a tacheometer fitted with anallactic lens, the additive and multiplying constants are respectively:
a. 0 and 100 c. 0 and 0
b. 100 and 0 d. 100 and 100
15. Substance bar is used for:
a. Levelling
b. Measurement of horizontal distance in plane areas
c. Measurement of horizontal distance in undulated areas
d. Measurement of angles
16. If the spacing of cross-hairs in stadia diaphragm of tachometer is 12 mm and the focal length of the objective is
24 cm.. Then the multiplying constant will be
a. 20 b. 100 c. 0.005 d. 200
17. If a staff is held normal to the line of sight and the angles of elevation and depression are kept same, then the
horizontal distance between instrument station and station computed by observation will be:
a. Same in both cases
b. Greater at angle of elevation than at angle of depression
c. Greater at an angle of depression than at an angle of elevation
d. Unpredictable
18. If the focal length of the object class is 25 cm, stadia interval is 1.25 mm and the distance from object glass to
trunnion axis is 15 cm, the additive constat is:
a. 0.1 b. 0.4 c. 1.66 d. 200
19. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as 0.75 from a tachometer with the line of sight horizontal fitted
with anallactic lens, horizontal distance between the tachometer and staff station is :
a. 0.75 m b. 7.5 m c. 75 m d. 750 m
20. Theodolite used for making tachometric observation by optical wedge system are:
a. Provided with stadia hair in front of the eyepiece
b. Not provided with stadia hair at all
c. Fitted with a glass wedge inside the telescope
d. Fitted with a glass wedge in front of the objective lens
21. Tilt of the stadia in staff tachometry increases the staff intercept if it is:
a. Away from the telescope and pointing downhill
b. Towards the telescope and pointing uphill
c. Away from the telescope and pointing uphill
d. None of the above
22. In tangential tachometry, an ordinary levelling staff is used which:
a. Leans towards the instrument for inclined sight upward
b. Leans away from the instrument for inclined sight downwards
c. Is vertical in all cases
d. None of these
23. If the vertical angle of inclined sights do not exceed 10° and non- verticality of the staff remains within 1°, the
stadia system of tachometric observation can be made with:
a. Staff normal
b. Staff vertical
c. Staff normal as well as vertical
d. None of the above
24. The intercept of a staff:
a. Is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
b. Is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
c. Decreases, if the staff is titlted away from the normal
d. Decreases if the staff is tilted towards instrument from the normal
25. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. Tachometry is preferred over chaining on undulating ground
b. Tachometry is very suitable for preliminary location surveys
c. Vertical holding of staves is better than normal holding since the error on account of improper staff holding
is less
d. A substense bar is used to measure short distances
26. Pick out the correct statement:

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 32

i)in substense method the staff intercept is varied

ii)Tangential method of tachometry is superior to substense method
iii)an anallactic lens can be provided only in external focusing telescopes
iv)anallactics lens reduces to multiplying constant to zero
a. Only i is correct
b. i and ii are correct
c. iii is correct
d. iii and iv are correct
27. Pick out the correct statement:
i)Range finding is a method of obtaining vertical distance
ii)telemeter is an example of a range finder
iii)sextant is an example of a range finder
iv)mekometer is an example of range finder
a. Only iv is correct
b. i and ii are correct
c. ii and iii are correct
d. ii and iv are correct
28. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Mekometer is more handy as compared to a telemeter
b. Astigmatisers are used to convert the images of stars into thin vertical lines
c. Telemeter is superior to barr and stroud range finders
d. Range finders are more precise than tachometers
29. Beamann stadia arc:
a. Is an instrument to measure horizontal angle
b. Is an instrument to measure vertical angle
c. Consists of both H-scale and V-scale
d. Consists of a V-scale with central graduation marked 90°
30. In Beaman stadia arc, if the v-scale reading is 45, it indicates:
a. Depression
b. Elevation
c. That the horizontal distance is 45 m
d. That the vertical distance is 45 m
31. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. On the Beaman’s stadia arc, zero is marked as 50 on the V-scale to avoid confusion between elevations and
depressions
b. On the H-scale of Beaman stadia arc, the values are interpolated
c. Beaman stadia arc is graduated in terms of tangents of angles as percentage
d. In Fergusson’s percentage unit system, the divisions of the circle are unequal
32. In Fergusson’s percentage unit system, the circle is divided into:
a. 2 parts c. 6 parts
b. 4 parts d. 8 parts
33. A gradienter is used:
a. To set out gradients
b. To determine horizontal distance
c. To determine vertical distance
d. For all the above
34. Pick out the correct statement
a. In a Szepessy direct reading tachometer, the middle of the three pointers is fixed
b. In Jeffcott direct reading tacheometer, the intercept between the right movable pointer and the middle fixed
pointer multiplied by 100 gives the horizontal distance
c. Jeffcott direct reading tacheometer doesnot reduce vertical distance
d. In Szepessy direct reading tacheometer, the scale of tangents is divided into 0.005 and is figured at every
0.01

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 33

Answer Key(Tachometry)

1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(a)

6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(c)
16.(d) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(d)
21.(d) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(b) 25.(c)
26.(c) 27.(d) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(a)
31.(c) 32.(d) 33.(d) 34.(d)

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CONTOURING
1. The method usually adopted to contour a rough country where ordinary levelling is tedious and chaining is slow
and inaccurate is:
a. Spirit levelling c. Plane tabling
b. Differential levelling d. Tacheometry
2. The lines joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of earth are:
a. Isohytes c. Agonics
b. Isogonics d. Contours
3. A series of closed contours on map indicate:
a. A closed traverse c. A summit
b. A depression d. Either b or c
4. At what angle does a ridge line intersect contours?
a. 90° b. 45° c. 30° d. 0°
5. For mountainous region, a suitable contour interval may be:
a. 0.2 m b. 2 m c. 20 m d. 200 m
6. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. The contour interval depends upon the time available
b. Contours can be drawn underwater
c. Usually the contour interval is kept constant, but a variable interval may be used if required
d. A group of contours with higher figures inside indicate a depression
7. The direction of steepest slope on a contour is:
a. Along the contour c. At 45° to the contour
b. At right angle to the contour d. None of the above
8. The relief on the earth’s surface can be represented by:
a. Hachures c. Contours
b. Shading d. All of the above
9. On geographical maps, the relief is generally represented by:
a. Contours c. Shading and hachures
b. Isohytes d. None of the above
10. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Contour maps cannot be used to ascertain intervisibility of points
b. Contours drawn underwater are known as aqueous contours
c. Contour interval may be located in field by a gradienter
d. Contour interval is inversely proportional to square of the scale of map
11. Pick out the incorrect statement
a. Two contour lines intersect in case of vertical cliff
b. A watershed crosses the contours at right angles
c. The direction of steepers slope is along the longest distance between the contours
d. In the direct method of contouring, the contours are not interpolated
12. Pick out the incorrect statement:
a. A hand level is used for direct contouring
b. Direct contouring methods are very useful for small scale maps.
c. For a canal survey the method of cross section is most suited
d. In the indirect method of contouring, the contours are interpolated.
13. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Indirect contouring methods are useful for country with gentle slope
b. Method of squares for plotting the contours is best suited for route surveys
c. Method of coordinates is used for plotting the contours
d. Arithmetic method of interpolating contours is the most rapid and accurate
14. Pick out the correct statement:
a. From a contour map, the capacity of a reservoir can be estimated
b. While contouring steep hills a variable contour interval may be adopted
c. Limitarion of fund doesnot affect the contour interval
d. From the contour map the possible location of dam cannot be ascertained
15. Pick out the incorrect statement:

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a. Closely spaced contour lines indicate a gentle slope

b. Surface slope on a map may be indicated by short lines of various widths known as hachures
c. The direction of the steepest slope on a contour map is along the normal to the contour line
d. A contour line is the intersection of a level surface with the surface of earth.

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The contour lines are closed curve
b. In steep slope the spacing of contours is small
c. Two contour lines of different elevation cannot generally cross each other
d. Contour lines cross ridge at right angle
e. Contour interval on a map can vary
f. The direction of steepest slope is at right angle to the contour.
17. An imaginary line lying throughout the ground surface and having a constant inclination to the horizontal surface
is a:
a. Contour line
b. Ridge line
c. Contour gradient
d. None of the above
18. The direct method of contouring is:
a. A quick method
b. An accurate method
c. Useful for very large areas
d. None of the above
19. The contour interval is:
a. Directly proportional to the scale of map
b. Inversely proportional to the scale of map
c. Large for flat ground
d. Small for hilly areas
20. Select the correct statement
a. Closed contour with higher values inside represent a depression
b. The contour lines crossing a valley have higher values on the convex side
c. Profile levelling is done for determining the contour
d. The horizontal and vertical scale are generally same in longitudinal section
21. In reciprocal levelling, the error that is not completely eliminated is due to:
a. Earth curvature
b. Inclined line of sight
c. Refraction
d. Both a and c
22. The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours is called:
a. Contour gradient
b. Contour interval
c. Horizontal equivalent
d. None of the above

Answer Key( Contouring)

1.(d) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(b)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(c)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(a)
16.(e) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.b) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(b)

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PLANE TABLE SURVEYING

1. The process of keeping the plane table into fixed direction so that a line representing a direction on
the plan is parallel to its direction on ground is called:
a. Centring c. Levelling
b. Orientation d. Resection
2. The process of determining the plotted position of the station occupied by plane table by means of
sight taken towards point of known location is called:
a. Resection c. Orientation
b. Intersection d. None of the above
3. Two point and three point problems are method of:
a. Traversing c. Resection and orientation
b. Resection only d. Orientation only
4. Three point problem can be solved by:
a. Lehmann’s method c. Mechanical method
b. Bessel’s method d. All of the above
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. The plane table surveying doesn’t require office work
b. Detail plotting is generally done by radiation
c. An inaccessible detail can be located by intersection
d. In three point problem, the station is easily located when it lies on great triangle
e. A plumbing fork is used for accurate centring
6. In setting up a plane table, the operation which is done first is:
a. Levelling c. Orientation
b. Centring d. Resection
7. The two point problem, as compared to the three point problem is:
a. More accurate c. More laborious
b. Quicker d. All of the above
8. The instrument which is used in plane table surveying for determining horizontal distances without
actual measurement is called:
a. Plane alidade c. Tacheometer
b. Telescopic alidade d. Clinometer
9. For the scale of 1 in 400, the permissible error in centring is:
a. 0.5 m c. 0.1 m
b. 0.3 m d. 0.01 m
10. In plane table survey, the operation which must be carried out is:
a. Resection
b. Orientation
c. Intersection
11. The working edge of the alidade is known as:
a. Fiducial edge
b. Beveled edge
c. Parallel edge
12. The north of the map is marked on the:
a. Right hand bottom corner
b. Left hand top corner
c. Right hand top corner
13. The U-fork and plumb bob are required for:
a. Centring
b. Levelling
c. Orientation
14. Inaccessible points may be located by:
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 37

a. Resection method
b. Intersection method
c. Radiation method
15. The accuracy with which the instrument station can be established is called the:
a. Strength of fix
b. Strength of accuracy
c. Strength of solution
16. The principle of plane table is:
a. Parallelism
b. Triangulation
c. Traversing
17. The plane table map cannot be plotted to a different scale as there is no:
a. Log book
b. Level book
c. Field book
18. The strength of fix is bad when the plane table station is taken:
a. Outside the great triangle
b. On the circumference of great circle
c. Inside the great circle

Answer Key( Plane Table Surveying):

1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(d)
6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(b)
11.(a) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a)
16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b)

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TRIANGULATION
1) The permissible average and maximum triangular closure in seconds in a second order triangulation is:
a) 1” and 3” c) 3” and 4”
b) 2” and 3” d) 3” and 5”
2) The distance angle in triangulation should not be small, since:
a) A small angle cannot be observed accurately
b) Extension of base line net will not be possible
c) The error in computed side by using it will be large
d) None
3) The best shape of a triangle in triangulation is:
a) Equilateral c) Isosceles with base angles 65°14’
b) Isosceles with base angle 56°14’ d) None
4) The limiting strength of figure for for first order ad third order triangulations are:
a) 25 and 30 c) 30 and 25
b) 25 and 50 d) 50 and 25
5) Pick out the incorrect statement:
a) Triangulation covers a large area in less time
b) Triangulation is most suitable for hilly areas
c) Triangulation is suited more than traverse for surveying long narrow belts
d) The only linear measurement taken in triangulation is that of a base line
6) Select the correct statements:
i)Triangulation is used for filling in details
ii)triangulation is referred to as a system of multiplying ground control points
iii)for a highway, a system of quadrilaterals is most suitable
a) (i) is correct c) (i) and (iii) are correct
b) (ii is correct d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
7) Select the correct statement:
i)In triangulation, angles less than 20° are not permitted
ii)a quadrilateral figure is most suited for highway triangulation
iii)a triangle figure is most suited for railway triangulation
a) (ii) is correct c) (i) and (ii) is correct
b) (iii) is correct d) (i) and (iii) is correct
8) Station marks are used in triangulation to provide:
a) A surface mark
b) A good target point
c) Complete description to enable the station to be recovered even after years
d) All the above
9) Pick out the correct statement:
a) A three leg signal is preferred over a four legged one
b) Heliotropes are luminous signals
c) A beacon lamp signal is a type of electric lamp
d) All the above
10) Pick out the correct statement:
a) Tirangulation is most suited for flat areas
b) In triangulation, the length of only one side is measured
c) Small angles are essential in triangulation
d) Limiting strength of figure for first and third order triangulations are 50 and 25 respectively
11) Pick out the correct statement
i)A base line may be used in triangulation to determine the scale of triangulation
ii)Colby apparatus is a flexible type of apparatus for measuring bases
iii)Bases can be measured electronically using tellurometer
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 39

a) Only (i) is correct c) (i) and (ii) are correct

b) Only (ii) is correct d) (i) and (iii) are correct
12) In triangulation survey, the intervisiblity of stations can be checked by
a) Method of least squares c) Captain G.T. McCaw’s solution
b) Heliotropes d) Three point problem
13) The number of stations for a triangulation framework can be reduced yet, yet maintaining the required
accuracy, by using a chain of:
a) Triangles c) Parallelograms
b) Squares d) Polygons
14) Pick out the correct statement:
a) Wheeler’s method uses flexible method of base measurement
b) Jaderin’s method uses radar technology
c) Tellurometer is the most commonly for third order triangulation
d) None of the above
15) Pick out the incorrect statement
a) A base is extended to avoid ill-conditioned triangles
b) In triangulation, satellite station are the false stations
c) Reduction to center means reducing the observations to the center of the earth
d) The error in centring of instrument over a triangulation station can be reduced by selecting the
stations far away
16) Pick out the correct statement
a) It is preferred to observe horizontal angles at noon to avoid refraction
b) For the angles with unequal weight, the correction is inversely proportional to square of the weights
c) Figure adjustment in triangulation is best achieved by the method of least squares
d) Triangulation is method of providing horizontal as well as vertical control
17) In triangle ABC, the side opposite the angle C is known. It is required to compute the side opposite the
angle B. The distance angles will be:
a) ∠𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∠𝐵∠ c) ∠𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∠𝐴
b) ∠𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∠𝐶 d) ∠𝐴 𝑜𝑛𝑙𝑦
18) Select the correct statement
a) The value of spherical excess is 1” for an area of about 196 [Link].
b) In triangulation, for best results, the angle of a triangle which is not used in side computation should
be as small as possible
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
19) For a distance of 45 km in triangulation, the type of signal used is:
a) Heliotrope c) Heliograph
b) Beacon d) All
20) The towers used in triangulation are known as:
a) Heliotropes c) Captain McCow
b) Bilby d) Hunter
21) Zero correction in EDM instrument corresponds to the:
a) Difference of final and initial readings
b) Delay of EDM signal
c) Difference of distance travelled by electromagnetic waves and the direct distance between the point
of arrival of signal and centring mark
d) Calibration error
22) The principle used for measuring distances electronically is that the dirrerence in phase between the
transmitted and received waves represents
a) Only a fraction of wavelength c) ¼ wavelength
b) Half wavelength d) None

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23) The pattern wavelengths employed by various EDM instruments is maximum for:
a) Tellurometer c) Distomat
b) Geodimeter d) Mekenometer
24) Mekonometer has a range of:
a) 1 km c) 10 km
b) 3 km d) 50 km

Answer Key(Triangulation)
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(c)
6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(b)
11.(d) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(c)
16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(c) 19.(d) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(d) 24.(b)

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THEORY OF ERROR AND TRIANGULATION ADJUSTMENT

1. Residual error of a measurement is the difference of:
a. True and observed value c. True and most probable value
b. Most probable and observed value d. None
2. If a quantity of given weight is multiplied by a factor, the weight of the result is obtained by dividing
its given weight by:
a. The factor c. The square root of the factor
b. The square of the factor d. None
3. If an equation is subtracted from a constant K, the weight of the resulting equation will be:
a. Weight of the equation divided by K
b. Weight of the equation multiplied by K
c. Weight of the equation multiplied by K2
d. Unchanged
4. In case of line of levels the weight varies:
a. Directly as length of route
b. Inversely as length of route
c. Directly as square root of the length of route
d. Inversely as square root of the length of route
5. The most probable value of an angle A from following observation equation is:
A=30°00’20” weight 2
2A=60° weight 1
a. 30°00’06.66” c. 30°00’2.22”
b. 30°00’10” d. None
e.
6. An angle was measured by two observers were the following:
Angle no. of observations
30°00’20” 2
30°00’10” 4
The most probable angle will be:
a. 30°00’10” c. 30°00’13.33”
b. 30°00’16.66” d. None

7. The theory of probability can be used for:

a. Mistake c. Accidental errors
b. Systematic error d. None of the above
8. The error in linear measurement by a steel tape due to small momentary change in temperature is:
a. Systematic error c. Mistake
b. Random error d. Any of the above
9. If an error makes the measurement too great, it is a:
a. Positive error c. Negative error
b. Compensating error d. None of the above
10. If the standard deviation is ±1, E99.9 is equal to:
a. ±0.5 b. ±2 c. ±3 d. ±3.3
11. The number of significant figures in 0.005320 is:
a. 6 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
12. If the residual in 4 measurements of a length are +0.01 mm,+0.02 mm,-0.01 mm,-0.02 mm, the
standard deviation is equal to:
a. Zero c. ±0.016
b. ±0.033 d. ±0.018
13. A good surveyor should always try to achieve:
a. Accuracy b. Precision
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c. Both accuracy and precision d. Neither accuracy nor precision

14. The difference between the most probable value of a quantity and its observed value is:
a. True error c. Probable error
b. Residual error d. None of the above
15. If ν is the residual error and n is the no. of observations, the probable error of a single observation is
proportional to:
𝜗2 𝜗2
a. c.
𝑛 −1 𝑛(𝑛−1)
𝜗2
b. d. 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒
𝑛 −1
16. The number of significant figure is 0.7000610 is:
a. 8 b. 7 c. 9 d. 6
17. Accidental error are proportional to:
a. n c. 1 𝑛
b. 𝑛 d. 1
𝑛
18. A systematic error is one which:
a. Is accidental in nature
b. Follows some well defined law
c. May change sign and magnitude
d. Occurs due to carelessness
19. A surveyor forgot to count the chain length while measuring a line. The distance measured will be:
a. Accidental error
b. Systematic error
c. Mistake
d. None of the above

Answer Key
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(b)
6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(b)
16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(c)

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MEASUREMENT OF AREA
1) The method of computing areas by subdividing a plot into triangles is suitable for:
a) Work of small nature c) Road work
b) Work of big nature d) None of the above
2) The method suitable for computing the area when boundary line departs considerably from a straight line is:
a) Mid-ordinate rule c) Trapezoidal rule
b) Average ordinate rule d) Simpson’s rule
3) Meridian distance of a survey line is the :
a) Distance of its mid point from the meridian
b) Distance of its far end from the meridian
c) Distance of its near end from the meridian
d) Departure of the line
4) In calculating the area of a plan by planimeter, the area of zero circle is excluded when:
a) Anchor point is inside the area
b) Anchor point is outside the area
c) Tracing arm is inside the area
d) Tracing arm is outside the area
5) The area of an irregular plotted figure can be accurately obtained with:
a) Pentagraph c) Planimeter
b) Parallax bar d) Any of the above
6) The area of an oblique triangle ABC of base b and perpendicular height h is:
a) 12 𝑏𝑕 1
c) 𝑏𝑐𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴
2
b) 𝑠 𝑠 − 𝑎 𝑠 − 𝑏 𝑠 − 𝑐 where s=(a+b+c)/2 d) 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒
7) One hectare of an area is equivalent to:
a) 102 m2 c) 106 m2
b) 104 m2 d) 109 m2
8) If n is no. of sides and L is the length of sides of a regular polygon, the area is:
𝑛 2 𝑛 2
a) 𝑙 cot2(180°/n) c) 𝑙 cosec2(180°/n)
4 4
𝑛 2
b) 𝑙 sec2(180°/n) d) None of the above
4
9) Area enclosed between a curved boundary and a chain line can be found by:
a) Simpson’s rule c) Francke’s rule
b) Poncelet’s rule d) All the above
10) Simpson’s rule for calculating area is applicable only when the ordinates are:
a) Odd c) Either a or b
b) Even d) None of the above
11) Simpsons rule can be used for computation of area when the number of sets is:
a) Even c) Any number
b) Odd d) 3
12) The area of a triangle ABC can be determined as:
1 1
a) 𝑎𝑏𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐶 c) 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐵
2 2
1 d) All of the above
b) 𝑏𝑐𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴
2
13) The area of any irregular figure can be determined accurately with a:
a) Pantograph c) Cross staff
b) Planimeter d) Graph paper
14) The area of a parabolic segment of base width b and height h is given by:
1 3
a) 𝑏𝑕 c) 𝑏𝑕
2 4
2 d) 𝑏𝑕
b) 𝑏𝑕
3
15) Select the incorrect statement:
a) In case of general irregular boundaries, Simpsons rule is more accurate than the trapezoidal rule
b) In simpson’s rule, the first and last ordinates are omitted if they are zero
c) The meridian distance of any line is equal to the meridian distance of its mid point

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d) The areas of a closed traverse is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the latitude and meridian
distance of various lines
16) In the formulaof area, 𝐴 = 𝑀(𝐹𝑅 − 𝐼𝑅 ± 10𝑁 + 𝐶), the area of zero circle is equal to:
a) C c) C/M
b) M*C d) None of the above
17) If l is the length of the tracing arm, R is the radius of anchor arm and a is the distance between the roller and hinge
when wheel is beyond the hinge, the area of zero circle is given by:
a) 𝜋(𝐿2 − 2𝑎𝐿 + 𝑅 2 ) c) (𝐿2 − 2𝑎𝐿 + 𝑅 2 )
2 2
b) 𝜋(𝐿 + 2𝑎𝐿 + 𝑅 ) d) (𝐿2 + 2𝑎𝐿 + 𝑅 2 )
18) For determination of area of a figure bounded by straight lines, the figure is generally converted into a network of:
a) Squares c) Rectangles
b) Triangles d) Polygons
19) The coordinate of a point measured normal to the reference parallel is:
a) Total departure c) Meridian distance
b) Total latitude d) None of the above

Answer Key( Measurement of Area):

1.(a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(c)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(b)
16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(b)

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MEASUREMENT OF VOLUME
1) In the volume computed by trapezoidal formula, the prismoidal correction is:
a) Subtractive c) Subtractive or additive
b) Additive d) Not applicable
2) The curvature correction in the earthwork computation is:
a) Always positive
b) Always negative
c) Positive if the centroid and center of curvature are to opposite side of the center line
d) Positive if the centroid and center of curvature are to the same side of the center line
3) Pick out the correct statement:
a) downward slope of the curve of mass diagram in the direction of a increasing abscissa indicates a fill.
b) The algebraic difference between a maximum ordinate and the next forward minumin ordinate represent the
total volume of embankment
c) The vertical distance between a minima ordinate and the next forward maxima ordinate represents the whole
volume of cutting
d) All the above
4) Volume of earthwork can be calculated by:
a) Mid ordinates c) Prismoidal rule
b) Average ordinates d) Hund’s rule
5) Because of irregular boundaries, if the computed area of a cross section works out to be less than the actual one, it
is known as:
a) Under break c) Free haul
b) Over break d) Over haul
6) Which of the following formulae is unjustified in rock excavations?
a) Trapezoidal c) Simpson’s rule
b) Prismoidal d) None
7) Prismoidal formula yields better results when:
a) There is a large difference between two end areas of prismoid
b) The cross sections are spaced closely
c) The surface irregularities have been measured in field
d) All the above
8) The earthwork problems are best dealt with by:
a) Moller diagram
b) Mass diagram
c) Haulage diagram
d) Cross section area Vs time diagram
9) The prismoidal formula for volume is:
𝐷
a) 𝑉 = (𝐴1 + 2𝐴𝑚 + 𝐴2)
6
𝐷
b) 𝑉 = (𝐴1 + 4𝐴𝑚 + 𝐴2)
3
𝐷
c) 𝑉 = (𝐴1 + 4𝐴𝑚 + 𝐴2)
6
𝐷
d) 𝑉 = (𝐴1 + 4𝐴𝑚 + 𝐴2), where d is the distance between end sections 1 and 2If
3
10) If h1 and h2 are the differences in level between the ground surface and the formation levels at the two sections
and n is the side slope and D is the distance between then, the prismoidal correction for level sections is:
𝐷𝑛
a) + (𝑕1 − 𝑕2)2
3
𝐷𝑛
b) + (𝑕1 − 𝑕2)2
6
𝐷𝑛
c) − (𝑕1 − 𝑕2)2
6
𝐷𝑛
d) − (𝑕1 + 𝑕2)2
6
11) Pick up the correct statement:
a) The prismoidal correction is always positive
b) If the mass haul diagram rises, it shows filling
c) The vertical distance between the minimum point and next maximum point is equal to the volume of cutting

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d) The curvature correction is positive when thee eccentricity is on the inside of the curve
12) The curvature correction is:
𝐷
a) 𝐶𝑐 = ± 𝐴1𝑒1 + 𝐴2𝑒2
2𝑅
𝐷 𝐴1+𝐴2 𝑒
b) 𝐶𝑐 = ± ∗𝐷∗
2𝑅 2 𝑅
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
13) Pick up the incorrect statement:
a) Any horizontal line drawn on the mass haul diagram is balancing line
b) Haul is equal to the volume of the material moved multiplied by the average distance moved
c) The volume of earthwork, can be determined from the levels taking the mean height of the square prism as:
1Σ𝑕1+2Σ𝑕2+3Σ𝑕3+4Σ𝑕4
𝑕=
4
d) The volume of a wedge of length l and area of base A is equal to

Answer Key( Measurement of Volumes):

1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(b)

6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(c)
11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(d)

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CURVES
1. A curve tangential to four sight lines and consisting of areas of different radii is known as:
a. One-centered compound curve
b. Two-centered compound curve
c. Three-centered compound curve
d. Four-centered compound curve
2. Setting out a simple curve by two theodolite method does not require:
a. Angular measurements
b. Linear measurements
c. Both angular and linear measurements
d. None of the above
3. The angle subtended by the long chord of a simple circular curve at it’s center is equal to:
a. Angle of deflection
b. Two times the angle of deflection
c. 180° - angle of deflection
d. 180° - angle of deflection/2
4. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using a:
a. Compound curve c. Reverse curve
b. Vertical curve d. Transition curve
5. Different grades are joined together by:
a. Compound curve c. Reverse curve
b. Transition curve d. Vertical curve
6. The long chord and tangent length of a circular curve of radius R will be equal if the angle of deflection is:
a. 30° b. 60° c. 120° d. 150°
7. If the degree of curve is 1° and if chain length is 30 m, then the radius of the curve is equal to:
a. 5400m 1720 3440
c. m d. 𝑚
𝜋 𝜋
b. 1720 m
8. The ratio of the radius and apex distance of a curve of radius R deflecting through ∆ is:
∆ ∆
a. 𝑠𝑒𝑐 − 1 c. cot -1
2 2
∆ ∆
b. 1 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐 d. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 -1
2 2
9. If the first chord gradient is 0.16, the fourth chord gradient will be(take v=0.01):
a. 0.12 b. 0.10 c. 0.04 d. None
10. The distance between the point of intersection of an upgrade g1% and downward g2 % at the highest point of a
vertical curve of length L is:
(𝑔1−𝑔2) (𝑔1−𝑔2)
a. 𝐿 c. 𝐿
100 800
(𝑔1+𝑔2) (𝑔1−𝑔2)
b. 𝐿 d. 𝐿
100 800
11. The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having their centers os the opposite side of the curve is known
as:
a. Simple curve c. Reverse curve
b. Compound curve d. Vertical curve
12. When the length of any chord of a curve is less than peg interval, it is known as a:
a. Small chord c. Normal chord
b. Sub chord d. Short chord
13. Designation of a curve is done by:
a. Angle subtended by a chord of any length
b. Angle subtended by an arc of specified length
c. Radius of curve
d. Curvature of curve
14. The angle of intersection of a curve is the angle between:
a. Back tangent and forward tangent
b. Prolongation of back tangent and forward tangent
c. Forward tangent and long chord
d. Back tangent and long chord

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15. The approximate formula for radial as well as perpendicular offset according to the tangent method of laying
simple circular curve is:
𝑥 𝑥
a. c.
2𝑅 𝑅
𝑥2 𝑥2
b. d.
2𝑅 𝑅
16. If D is the degree of curve of radius R, then the tangential angle may be obtained by Rankine’s method, in minutes
by multiplying the length of the chord by:
a. Degree of curve
b. Square of degree of curve
c. Inverse of degree of curve
d. None of the above
17. The radius of a simple circular curve is 30 m and the length of the specified chord is 30 m. The degree of curve is:
a. 57.29 c. 55.60
b. 3.70 d. 37.03
18. If the angle of intersection of a curve is θ, then the deflection angle will be:
a. θ/2 c. 180°+θ
b. 180°-θ d. None
19. If S is the length of a sub-chord and R is the radius of simple curve, the angle of deflection angle between its
tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to:
𝑆 𝑅
a. 573 c. 1718.9
𝑅 𝑆
𝑆 𝑅
b. 1718.9 d. 573
𝑅 𝑆
20. For a curve of radius 100 m and normal chord 10 m, the deflection angle given by Rankine’s formula is:
a. 1°45.95′ c. 0°35.95′
′ d. 1°25.95′
b. 2°54.53
21. If ∆ is the angle of deflection of curve and T1 and T2 are its point of tangencies, the angle between tangent at T1
and long chord T1T2 is:
a. ∆ 4 c. ∆ 2
b. ∆ 3 d. ∆
22. If r is the radius of curvature at any point on a transititon curve and l is its distance from the beginning of the
transition curve to that point, then for ideal transition curve:
a. 𝑙𝛼𝑟 1
d. 𝑙𝛼 2
2 𝑟
b. 𝑙𝛼𝑟
1
c. 𝑙𝛼
𝑟
23. If l is the length of a transition curve and R is the radius of circular curve then shift of each curve is proportional
to:
1
a. 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 c. 1 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑙2
𝑙
2
b. 1 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑙2 d. 𝑅 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1 𝑙
24. Transition curves are introduced at each end of a circular curve to obtain:
a. Gradual decrease of curvature from zero at the tangent point to a specified quantity at the junction of
transition curve with the main curve
b. Gradual decrease of superelevation from zero at tangent point to a specified amount at the junction of
transition curve with main curve
c. Gradual change of gradient from zero at tangent point to the specified amount at the junction of transition
curve with main curve
d. None of the above
25. The properties of an autogenous curve for an automobile are given by:
a. True spiral c. Bernoulli’s lemniscates
b. Cubic spiral d. Clothoid spiral
26. An ideal transition curve is a:
a. Cubic parabola c. Parabola
b. Cubic spiral d. True spiral
27. For setting out a simple circular curve using two theodolites:
a. Offsets from tangent are required

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 49

b. Offsets from long chord are required

c. Deflection angle from rankine’s formula are required
d. None of the above are required
28. If the angle of intersection and radius of a simple curve are 120° and 700 m respectively, then which of the
following statements is true:
a. Length of chord is 700 m c. Both of the above
b. Length of curve is 350 m d. None of the above
29. If the radius of a circular curve is five times the length of transition curve, then the spiral angle is given by:
1 1
a. 𝑟𝑎𝑑 c. 𝑟𝑎𝑑
5 20
1 1
b. 𝑟𝑎𝑑 d. 𝑟𝑎𝑑
10 40
30. Perpendicular offset from the junction of a transition curve and circular curve to the tangent is equal to:
a. Shift c. 2* shift
b. 0.5* shift d. 3*shift
31. Shift of a curve is:
2 2
a. 𝐿 6𝑅 c. 𝐿 24𝑅
b. 𝐿 24𝑅 d. 𝐿 6𝑅
32. If v is the speed of a locomotive in km/h, g is acceleration due to gravity, G is the distance between running edges
of rails, and R is the radius of the circular curve, the the required superelevation is:
𝑔𝑣 2 𝐺𝑅 𝐺𝑣 2
a. c. d.
𝐺𝑅 𝑔𝑣 2 𝑔𝑅
𝑅𝑔
b.
𝐺𝑣 2
33. Total angle of deflection of a transition curve is:
a. Spiral angle c. Spiral angle/3
b. Spiral angle/2 d. Spiral angle/4
34. If the rate of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3 m/s2 and a full centrifugal ratio is developed on the curve, the ratio
of the length of the transition curve to the same radius on road and rail is:
a. 2.844 b. 3.844 c. 1.351 d. 0.351
35. To join two gradients an ideal vertical curve is:
a. Circular c. Spiral
b. Parabolic d. Hyperbolic
36. The shape of vertical curve generally provided is:
a. Circular c. Spiral
b. Parabolic d. Elliptical
37. Select the correct statement:
a. Shift bisects the transition curve
b. Transition curve bisects the shift
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
38. A lemniscate curve between tangents wil be transitional throughout if the polar deflection angle of its apex is:
a. ∆ 2 c. ∆ 4
b. ∆ 3 d. ∆ 6
39. A lemniscate curve will not be transitional throughout if the deflection angle is more than:
a. 45° b. 60° c. 90° d. 180°
40. In a lemniscate curve, the ratio of the angle between the tangent at end of the polar ray and the straight , and the
angle between the polar ray and the straight is:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 3/2
41. If α is the angle between the polar ray and the tangent at the point of commencement of a lemniscate curve, the
equation of the curve is:
a. 𝑙 = 𝑘 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 c. 𝑙 = 𝑘 𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝛼
b. 𝑙 = 𝑘 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝛼 d. 𝑙 = 𝑘 𝑡𝑎𝑛2𝛼
42. The mean value of the centrifugal ratio(v2/gR) on roads and railways is:
a. 1/4 and 1/6 c. 1/4 and 1/8
b. 1/6 and 1/8 d. 1/8 and 1/4

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 50

43. If an upgrade of 1.5% is followed by a downgrade of 0.5%, and the rate of change of grade is 0.2% per 20 m
chain, then the length of vertical curve is:
a. 100 m b. 200 m c. 300 m d. 400 m
44. If the sight distance (S) is equal to the length (2l) of vertical curve joining two grade g1% and g2 %, the height of
the apex will be:
(𝑔1 − 𝑔2)𝑙 𝑔1 − 𝑔2 (𝑆 − 𝑙)
a. 400 c. 400
(𝑔1 − 𝑔2)𝑙 d. None
b. 200

45. The minimum radius of curvature of cubic parabola is:

a. 1.39 𝑅𝐿 𝑎𝑡 ∅ = 24°5′41" c. 𝑅𝐿 𝑎𝑡 ∅ = 0
b. 2.78 𝑅𝐿 𝑎𝑡 ∅ = 12°2′50" d. None of the above
46. For what deflection angle is there little difference between lemniscates, clothoid and cubic parabola type of
curves?
a. 12° b. 24° c. 45° d. 60°
47. Reverse curves are not recommended on main highways because:
a. A sudden change in curvature reduces the life of vehicle and gives discomfort to the passengers
b. It is not possible to provide proper superelevation at the point of reverse curvature
c. It is not possible to provide a transition curve between two simple curves forming the reverse curve
d. Both a and b
48. For a reverse curve with two simple curves of radius R and running between two parallel straights spaced a
distance D apart, the length of curve is given by:
a. 𝑅𝑉 c. 4𝑅𝑉
2
b. 2𝑅𝑉 d. 2𝑅𝑉 3
49. A reverse curve is known as:
a. S-curve c. Easement curve
b. Spiral curve d. Both a and b
50. A transition curve is provided between a curve and straight line since:
a. Its radius of curvature increases or decreases gradually
b. A gradual change in superelevation can be accommodated in a convenient manner
c. It bisects the shift
d. It eliminated the danger of detrailment
51. If centrifugal ration if given and rate of change of radial acceleration is 0.3 and the comfort condition also holds
good, the length of the transition curve of railway is given by:
a. 4.5 𝑅 c. 𝑉 14𝑅
b. 12.80 𝑅 3
d. 𝑉 0.3𝑅
52. An ideal transition curve is:
a. Clothoid c. Bernoulli’s lemniscates
b. Cubic parabola d. Parabola
53. Froude’s transition curve is:
a. Cubic spiral
b. Cubic parabola
c. Bernoulli’s leminscate
d. None of the above
54. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Cubic spiral is known as froude’s transition curve
b. Cubic parabola is known as clothoid
c. reverse curve is known as easement curve
d. None of the above
55. For a maximum centrifugal ratio, the limiting velocity of railways is(if R is the radius):
𝑔𝑅 𝑔𝑅
a. b.
2 4

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 51

𝑔𝑅 𝑔𝑅
c. d.
8 16
56. For an ideal transition curve:
a. Length of curve should be inversely proportional to the curvature
b. Centrifugal ratio should be proportional to the curvature
2
c. Intrinsic equation is ∅ = 𝑙 2𝐿𝑅
d. All the above is true
57. For a transition curve the radius should decrease with increase in deflection angle but for a cubic parabola, the
radius starts increasing after a particular value. That value of deflection angle is:
a. 8° b. 12° c. 16° d. 24°
58. Equation of Bernaulli’s lemniscate is:
a. 𝜇 = 𝑘 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝛼 c. 𝑘 = 𝜇 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝛼
b. 𝜇 = 𝑘 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝛼 d. 𝑘 = 𝜇 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝛼
where μ is the chord length, α is the polar deflection angle and k is the constant
59. For vertical curves, a parabola is preferred because
a. Computation is easy
b. It gives the best riding quality
c. Rate of change of grade is constant
d. All of the above
60. An upward grade 1% meets with a decreasing grade of 1%, the rate of change is 0.05% per chain, the length of
curve is:
a. 800 m b. 80 m c. 40 m d. 220 m
61. A broken back curve is a type of:
a. Horizontal curve c. Transition curve
b. Vertical curve d. None of the above
62. Radius of curves are designed by:
a. Degree of curve c. Length of curve
b. Radius of curve d. All of the above
63. The arc definition of curve is practiced in:
a. Highways c. Canal alignment
b. Railways d. Tunnel
64. Reverse curve is provided:
a. When the two straights to be joined are parallel
b. In hilly area
c. In railway siding
d. All of the above
65. If R is the radius of a simple curve and D the degree of curvature, then degree of curvature is designated by a 30 m
arc length RD which is equivalent to:
a. 1719 b. 859.5 c. 573 d. 5730
66. The deviation angle is exactly equal to three times the polar deflection angle in case of :
a. Clothoid c. Cubic parabola
b. Lemniscates d. None of the above
67. If the radius of a simple circular curve is 400 m and the deflection angle is 120°, midordinate is:
a. 100 m b. 200 m c. 400 m d. 800 m
68. A simple circular curve of radius 400 m has to be laid out by radial offset from the tangent. The radial offset along
the tangent and 20 m away from the curve is:
a. 0.5 m b. 2 m c. 4 m d. 0.25 m
69. The chainage of point of tangent is 1435 m. If 20 m chain has been used to lay out a simple circular curve of
radius 400 m by method of deflection distances, the offset required at last offset will be:
a. 0.43 m b. 0.53 m c. 0.55 m d. 0.66 m
70. The best method for laying out the curve is:
a. Tacheometer c. Deflection distance
b. Two theodolites d. Offsets from the tangents produced
71. The total deflection angle for a simple circular curve at a poing is 90°. A tangent is drawn which has length of
150m between two tangents and this makes an angle of 45° with the back tangent. The radius of the curve is:

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 52

a. 181 m b. 451 m c. 305 m d. 498 m

72. In a compound curve there are seven factors which decide the nature of curve. These are radii of curves, back
tangent and forward tangent, total deflection angle, deflection angle between back tangent and common tangent,
and deflection angle between forward and common tangent. How many elements should be known for designing
curve?
a. All should be known c. Any three
b. Any two d. Any four
73. Pick out the correct statement:
a. Cubic spiral is more widely used than cubic parabola since the former is simple to set out
b. In the equation of cubic spiral, only one approximation is made whereas in the equation of a cubic parabola,
two approximations are made, which makes cubic spiral superior to cubic parabola
c. The shift of the curve is given by L2/(24R2)
d. Bernoulli’s lemniscates is the ideal transition curve
74. Generally the transition curve used on highways is:
a. Cubic spiral c. Bernoulli’s lemniscates
b. Cubic parabola d. Both a and b
75. The three transition curves deviate after an angle of:
a. 4° b. 8° c. 12° d. 20°
76. A parabola is best suited for a vertical curve since
a. It provides a longer sight distance
b. Rate of change of grade is uniform throughout
c. Smooth riding condition are provided
d. All of the above
77. In limiting case of overturning while traversing a simple circular curve by a vehicle, pressure below
a. Outer wheels will be zero
b. Outer wheels will be maximum
c. Outer and inner wheels will be same
d. Inner wheels will be maximum
78. If superelevation is provided assuming the friction to be zero
a. Pressure below outer and inner side wheels will be same
b. Vehicle will skid laterally
c. Vehicle will overturn
d. None of the above
Answer Key( Curves)

1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(d)

6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(d)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(b)
16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(b) 24.(b) 25.(c)
26.(b) 27.(c) 28.(a) 29.(b) 30.(d)
31.(c) 32.(d) 33.(c) 34.(a) 35.(b)
36.(b) 37.(c) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(d)
41.(b) 42.(c) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(a)
46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(c) 49.(c) 50.(c)
51.(a) 52.(a) 53.(b) 54.(d) 55.(c)
56.(d) 57.(d) 58.(a) 59.(d) 60.(a)
61.(a) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(d) 65.(a)
66.(b) 67.(b) 68.(a) 69.(d) 70.(b)
71.(a) 72.(d) 73.(b) 74.(c) 75.(b)
76.(d) 77.(b) 78.(a)

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TRIGONOMETRIC LEVELLING
1. The process of determining the elevations of stations from vertical angles and geodetic lengths at mean
sea level is known as:
a. Levelling c. Triangulation
b. Trigonometric levelling d. Hypsometry
2. Trigonometric levelling by reciprocal observations:
a. Eliminates error due to uncertain refraction
b. Is essentially done in the early morning
c. Proves to be more accurate than spirit levelling
d. All are correct
3. In trigonometric levelling the correction due to refraction and curvature are determined:
a. In linear measure c. Either a or b
b. In angular measure d. Graphically
4. Which one is correction to be applied in trigonometric levelling:
a. Correction for dip
b. Correction for semi-diameter of sun
c. Axis of signal correction
d. Parallax correction
5. In trigonometric levelling, the correction is subtracted to the observed vertical angle if it is for
a. Axis signal
b. Combined refraction and curvature
c. Both a and b
d. None

Answer Key( Trigonometric Levelling):

1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(b)

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 54

HYDROGRAPHY
1. The branch of surveying which deals with water bodies is known as:
a. Aqueous surveying
b. Topographic surveying
c. Hydrographic surveying
d. Sea surveying
2. The purpose of making a hydrographic survey is:
a. To determine the quantities of subaqueous excavations
b. To measure areas subjected to scouring and silting in harbours
c. To measure soundings and preparing navigation charts
d. All the above
3. Sounding in hydrography is defined as the
a. Distance travelled by sound waves in water body
b. Depth of water body at point of measurement
c. Difference of gauging reading and water level at the time of observation
d. All the above
4. In hydrography
a. Only horizontal control is required
b. Only vertical contral is required
c. Both horizontal and vertical control are required
d. No such control is required
5. The unit of sounding is
a. m/s
b. cm2/s
c. fathom
d. cycle/sec
6. The major tide producing force is due to:
a. Sun
b. Mars
c. Venus
d. Moon
7. The moon completes a complete cycle of revolution about earth in:
a. 29 days
b. 29.5 days
c. 30 days
d. 30.5 days
8. The observations to establish msl are recorded for about:
a. 9 years
b. 19 years
c. 29 years
d. 39 years
9. To estimate the dredged material from harbor, the best method for locating sounding is:
a. Two angles from shore
b. Two angles from boat
c. Fixed intersecting rays
d. None
10. The most common weir to measure stream discharge is:
a. Rectangular notch
b. Triangular notch
c. Cipolleti notch
d. Stepped notch
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11. In floods most suited weir is:

a. Rectangular notch
b. Triangular notch
c. Cipolleti notch
d. Stepped notch

Answer Key(Hydrography):

1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c)

6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11.(d)

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AERIAL SURVEY
1. Aerial photographs are:
a. Perspective projections
b. Orthographic projections
c. Isometrics
d. None
2. The perspective and orthographic projections produce similar images on a:
a. Vertical photograph
b. Tilted photograph
c. High oblique photograph
d. Low oblique photograph
3. The vertical axis of a camera is inclined by 1° to the vertical to cover large number of details while
photographing from air. The resulting photograph will be a:
a. Vertical photograph
b. Tilted photograph
c. Oblique photograph
d. None
4. Vertical photographs donot represent the true plan of ground because of:
a. Variation in speed of aircraft
b. Ground relief
c. Tilt displacement
d. Image displacement
5. The rotation of an aerial camera about the line of flight is known as:
a. Tilt
b. Tip
c. Crab
d. Drift
6. Which of the following coincides with the point of intersection of x and y axes of aerial photograph.
a. Nadir line
b. Principal point
c. Isocenter
d. Air station
7. The scale in aerial photographs are not uniform because of
a. Ground relief
b. Tilt
c. Tip
d. All of the above
8. The scale of vertical photographs on a flat terrain, with a variation in flying altitude will be
a. Uniform
b. Non uniform
c. Uniform if tilt is not there
d. Non uniform if tilt is not there
9. On a vertical photograph, the relief displacement is always radial from:
a. Principal point
b. Isocenter
c. Nadir point
d. None
10. The relief displacement on an air photograph decreases with:
a. Decrease in flying height
b. Increase in flying height
c. A decrease in distance from the principal point
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d. Both b and c
11. Pick out the correct statement for relief displacement in aerial photos:
a. It increases as the distance from the principal point decreases
b. It is positive and radially outwards for point above the datum
c. Is it positive and radially outwards for points below the datum
d. It increases for points vertically below the exposure station
12. Pick out the correct statement
a. Relief displacement is zero for the points vertically below the exposure station
b. Relief displacement is zero if the ground photographed is flat
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
13. Ground control points are established in aerial photogrammetry to control :
a. Height distortion
b. Tilt distortion
c. Relief displacement
d. Scale
14. The usual longitudinal overlap in aerial photogrammetry is:
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 60%
15. Overlap in aerial photograph is necessary:
a. To tie different points such that the principal point of each print appears on the adjacent prints
b. Because only central portion of the photographs which is less distorted is used
c. Because only the overlapped portion can be used for stereoscopic examination
d. All the above
16. When the effect of wind is not considered during flight planning, the result is:
a. Mosaic
b. Drift
c. Crab
d. None
17. When the aerial camera cannot be kept square with the direction of flight, the result is:
a. Mosaic
b. Drift
c. Crab
d. None
18. If net length covered by each photograph is 1.2 km and the length of strip is 20km, the no. of aerial
photographs required is:
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 24
19. An aircraft is flying at a ground speed of 180 km/hr. The focal length of the camera is 150 mm. The
longitudinal coverage of the ground is 900 m. Which one is the exposure interval?
a. 18 s
b. 50 s
c. 750 s
d. None
20. The focal length of an aerial camera is 12.5 cm and the exposure station was 2500 m above the datum.
The scale of the photograph is:
a. 1 cm=200 m

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b. 1cm=31250 m
c. 1:2000
d. None
21. The spatial view of a photographed terrain can be had through a:
a. Photo theodolite
b. Parallax bar
c. Stereoscope
d. Both b and c
22. For an aerial photograph, the interpretation is easy if it is:
a. Vertical
b. Tilted
c. Oblique
d. All the above
23. The object of photointerpretation is:
a. Identification of objects
b. Recognition of objects
c. Judging the significance of objects
d. All the above
24. Photo interpretation depends upon:
a. The quality of photosensitive material used
b. The condition of air photogrammetry
c. Scale of photograph
d. All the above
25. A spatial view can be obtained with naked eyes for a distance upto:
a. 240 m
b. 640 m
c. 1140 m
d. 1540 m
26. The elevations of the objects on air photographs can be measured because of:
a. Tilt
b. Tip
c. Stereoscopic fusion
d. None
27. Pick out the correct statement for picture control points in aerial photographs
a. These are used for lying photographs
b. These donot have corresponding ground control points
c. Is is not essential for them to occur on stereopairs
d. None
28. In aerial photogrammetry, map details are plotted by:
a. Graphical method
b. Mechanical method
c. Stereoplotters
d. All the above
29. Slotted template method of map plotting in aerial survey is:
a. Graphical method
b. Mechanical method
c. Based on three point problem
d. None
30. Rectification of aerial photographs is required for eliminating:
a. Tilt
b. Uniformity of scale

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c. Both a and b
d. None
31. Pick out the incorrect statement regarding mosaics in aerial photogrammetry:
a. Mosaic shows the actual ground condition and maximum details
b. Photographs forming mosaics are reduced to same scale
c. Uncontrolled mosaics are obtained by rectified air photographs
d. A composite of processed photographs pasted together to form a single photograph of an area is
known as mosaic
32. Example of a map in air photogrammetry is:
a. Stereotopographic map
b. Planimetric map
c. Topographic map
d. All the above
33. In air photogrammetry, the desired overlap is obtained by:
a. Stereoscope
b. Photo theodolite
c. Parallax bar
d. Intervalometer
34. For reconnaissance of preliminary location of highways, the aerial photographs should preferably be:
a. Vertical
b. Tilted
c. Oblique
d. All of the above
35. Aerial photograph in which the horizon in included is known as:
a. Vertical
b. Tilted
c. Low oblique
d. High oblique
36. Which of the following is appropriate scale of an air photograph?
a. 1 cm= 10 m
b. 1 cm= 100 m
c. 1cm=500 m
d. 1 cm=1000 m
37. Tilt displacement are radial about:
a. Principal point
b. Nadir point
c. Isocenter
d. None
38. The basic requirement of an aerial camera is:
a. Fast lens
b. High speed shutter
c. High speed emulsion for the film
d. All of the above
39. An aerial photograph is taken at a flying height of H1 meters above the datum. The focal length of the
camera was f cm and the average scale was 1 cm= H2 meter such that H2>[Link] implies that:
a. The photographed terrain lies at an elevation (H2-H1) above the datum
b. The photographed terrain lies at an elevation (H2-H1) below the datum
c. The terrain is at the same elevation as datum
d. It cannot be ascertained from given data
40. Select the correct statement:
(A) Every point on an aerial photograph is displaced from its ture or orthographic position

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(B) Aerial photographs shows perspective view

a. Only A is true
b. Only B is true
c. Both A and B are true but A does not follow from B
d. Both A and B are true and A follows from B
41. Pick out the correc statement:
(A) The horizon point of an aerial photograph ABCD lies on the photo itself
(B) The photograph ABCD is a high oblique photograph
a. A follows from B
b. B follows from A
c. A and B have no relation
d. None of the above
42. Pick out the correct statement:
a. The tilt and relief displacement tend to cancel in the upper part of a tilted photograph
b. The tilt and relief displacement are cumulative in the lower part of the aerial photograph
c. Both are correct
d. None is correct
43. In a tilted photograph, the relief displacement is radial from;
a. Principal point
b. Isocenter
c. Nadir point
d. None of the above
44. If f is the focal length of camera and t is the tilt angle, distance of photo nadir from the principal point
will be:
a. tsinθ
b. tcosθ
c. ttanθ
d. t cotθ
45. In a tilted photograph:
a. The scale is uniform
b. The downward half has a smaller scale
c. The downward half has a larger scale
d. Either of the two halves can have larger scale
46. Pick out the correct statement:
(A) In an erial photograph, the principal and nadir points coincide
(B) The isocenter also coincides with the other two points.
Conclusion: it is a truly vertical photograph
a. Only A is enough to arrive to the conclusion
b. Only B is enough to arrive to the conclusion
c. The conclusion can be deduced only if both A and B are given
d. None of the above
47. If the distance of the image of a point A from the isocenter, on a tilted photograph, is 15.6 mm and the
same distance is equal to 14.9 mm on a vertical photograph, tilt distortion is:
a. 2.9 mm
b. 0.007 mm
c. 0.7 mm
d. 0.29 mm
48. In a tilted photograph, both a and b are equidistant from the axis of tilt but a lies on the principal line
whereas b does not. If aa’ and bb’ are the displacements of a and b respectively and θ is the angle at the
isocenter that the principal line makes with the point b, then bb’/aa’ is equal to
a. Sinθ

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b. Cosθ
c. Cotθ
d. Secθ
49. An observer views two points A and B, such that angle of parallax of b is greater than that of A.
Therefore,
a. Object A is nearer to the observer
b. Object B is nearer to the observer
c. Both are at same distance
d. Cannot be ascertained from given data
50. The rate of change of pararallax dp/dh with respect to change in h can be expressed as:
𝑓𝑏
a. 𝐻=𝑕
𝑓𝑏
b. (𝐻−𝑕)2
𝑓𝑏
c. 𝐻+𝑕
𝑓𝑏
d. 𝐻+𝑕 2
51. The diffecence of parallax for a given difference in elevation is independent of:
a. Focal length of camera
b. Percentage of overlap
c. Overall size of the photograph
d. All the above
52. Parallax bar is used to measure
a. Parallax
b. Height
c. Parallax difference
d. Relief displacement
53. The three dimensional view or the depth perception is caused due to
a. Viewing of object simultaneously by both eyes
b. Relative apparent size of the near and far objects
c. The effect of light and shade
d. All the above
54. Which of the following is true for tilted photograph:
a. The scale is uniform for all points on a line perpendicular to the principal line
b. The scale is uniform for all points lying on the principal line
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
55. The relation between air base (B), photographic or principal base (b), flying height(f) and focal length
(f) is:
a. 𝐵 = 𝑏𝐻 𝑓
𝑓
b. 𝐵 = 𝑏𝐻

c. 𝐵 = 𝑏 𝑓𝐻
d. 𝐵 = 𝐻 𝑏𝑓
56. Two consecutive photographs were taken with an overlap of 55% and the print size was 22.5 cmX22.5
cm for both photographs. All the conditions were same and the scale of photograph was 1 cm = 200 m.
The length of the air base is:
a. 0.2025 km c. 2.25 km
b. 2.5 km d. 2.025 km
57. Which of the following is true:

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a. A mosaic is not same as a map

b. A mosaic is a perspective view whereas a map is a orthographic one
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
58. Homologous points are:
a. Opposite corners of the photographs
b. Nodal points of the camera lens
c. Corresponding points on ground and the photograph
d. Plumb points of a stereopair
Answer Key( Aerial Survey):
1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(a)
6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(d)
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d)
16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(a)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(d) 24.(d) 25.(b)
26.(c) 27.(b) 28.(d) 29.(b) 30.(c)
31.(c) 32.(d) 33.(d) 34.(c) 35.(d)
36.(b) 37.(c) 38.(d) 39.(b) 40.(d)
41.(b) 42.(c) 43.(c) 44.(c) 45.(c)
46.(c) 47.(c) 48.(d) 49.(b) 50.(b)
51.(d) 52.(c) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(a)
56.(d) 57.(c) 58.(c)

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ASTRONOMY
1. The science which deals with celestial bodies is known as:
a. Hydrography c. Astronomy
b. Aerial photogrammetry d. Cadastral survey
2. Field astronomy deals with determining
a. Azimuth c. Time
b. Latitude and longitude d. All the above
3. GMM stands for:
a. Global mid morning c. Greenwich mean midmorning
b. Greenwich mean midnight d. Global midnight
4. The inclination of ecliptic with the equator is:
a. 23°27’ c. 32°27’
b. 27°23’ d. 72°23’
5. When the earth in its orbit is nearest to the sun it is known as:
a. Prolate c. Perihelion
b. Oblate d. Aphelion
6. The sun has apparent motion with respect to:
a. Earth c. Both a and b
b. Stars d. None
7. Day and night on earth are of equal duration at the instant of
a. Vernal equinox c. Solstices
b. Autumnal equinox d. Both a and b
8. The sun at rise and set has an HA of less than 90° at the instant known as:
a. Vernal equinox c. Summer solstice
b. Autumnal equinox d. Winter solstice
9. The number of planets of the sun is:
a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 11
10. The number of natural satellites of the earth is:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
11. A star having a polar distance less than the latitude of the place of observation is known as:
a. Star at elongation c. Star at prime vertical
b. Star at culmination d. None
12. A star which does not set and is therefore above the horizon is known as:
a. Elongated star c. Polaris
b. Circumpolar star d. Precession
13. The declination and RA of stars
a. Suffer from nutation c. Both a and b
b. Suffer from precession d. Are invariable
14. For field observations the system of coordinates used is:
a. Azimuth and altitude c. Declination and right ascension
b. Declination and hour angle d. None
15. The star for which zenith distance is 90° will be at:
a. Equator c. Elongation
b. Horizon d. Prime vertical
16. For a celestial body, in astronomy, which is a function of time
a. Azimuth c. Hour angle
b. Altitude d. All the above
17. When the time measurement is based upon the diurnal motion of first point of aries, it is known as:
a. Apparent solar time c. Sideral time
b. Mean solar time d. None
18. For a star at it’s upper transit, the local sidereal time is equal to:
a. HA of the star c. RA of the star
b. Declination of the star d. None
19. A tropical year is equal to
a. 365.2422 mean solar days b. 366.2564 mean solar days

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c. 366 mean solar days d. 366 mean sidereal days

20. One solar day is less than a mean solar day by:
a. 1minute 55.91 second c. 3 minute 55.91 second
b. 2 minute 55.91 second d. None
21. The reason for the difference in mean apparent solar time is:
a. Non-uniformity of motion of the sun c. Both a and b
b. Obliquity of the ecliptic d. Not known
22. In Nepal, standard meridian is at the following longitude from Greenwich:
a. 5 h45 m E c. 6 h 45 m E
b. 5 h 45 m W d. 5 h 30 m E
23. The LMT at a place having a longitude 93° E when standard time is 10 h and the standard meridian is 78° E is:
a. 9h b. 10h c. 11h d. 25h
h
24. The LMT of a place at GMT 21 with a longitude 60°W is:
a. 5h pm b. 5h am c. 1h pm d. 1h am
25. For a star to the west of meridian, the local sidereal time is given by:
a. LST= RA+HA c. LST= RA ± HA
b. LST=RA – HA d. None
26. The most accurate method to locate the true meridian is by making observations of:
a. Polaris at culmination c. Sun
b. Polaris at elongation d. None
27. If the sun is south of equator, its declination is:
a. Positive b. Negative c. Either a or b d. None
28. A great circle passing through celestical poles and the vernal equinox is:
a. Hour circle c. Equinoctial colure
b. Declination circle d. Parallel of latitude
29. A star culminates in zenith when:
a. 𝛿 < 𝜃 b. 𝛿 > 𝜃 c. 𝛿 ≤ 𝜃 d. 𝛿 = 𝜃
30. In the altitude and azimuth system of coordinates, the reference plane is:
a. Equator c. Ecliptic
b. Horizon d. None
31. For a circumpolar star, declination must be:
a. Equal to co latitude c. Less than co latitude
b. Greater than co latitude d. Less than or equal to co-latitude
32. Correction for parallax is not applied to which of the following celestial body
a. Star c. Sun
b. Moon d. None of the above
33. The sum of three angles of a spherical triangle is:
a. = 𝜋 b. < 𝜋 c. > 𝜋 d. 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒
34. How many circular parts are there in a right angled spherical triangle?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. None
35. The time to which the watches and clocks are regulated is determined by:
a. Polaris c. Sundial
b. Mean sun d. All of the above
36. A sidereal day is divided into:
a. 23 h b. 24 h c. 36 h d. 12 h
37. One nautical mile is equal to:
a. 1000 m c. 2000m
b. 1853.18 m d. 2012.2 m
38. The distance equivalent to 1° of latitude is:
a. 11 km c. 1111 km
b. 111 km d. None
39. If the declination of a star is 30° N, its polar distance is:
a. 30° b. 60° c. 120° d. 150°
40. The first point of aries is on:
a. 21st march b. 21st june

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c. 22nd September d. 23rd December

41. Watches and clocks maintain
a. Local sidereal time c. Apparent solar time
b. Mean solar time d. Standard time
42. The angle between the observer’s meridian and the declination circleof a heavenly body is known as:
a. Azimuth c. Right ascension
b. Hour angle d. Declination
43. Right ascension of a heavenly body is its equatorial angular distance measured
a. Westwards from the first point of libra
b. Eastwards from the first point of aries
c. Westward from the point of aries
d. Eastwards from the first point of libra
44. A latitude of the pole is always equal to:
a. Latitude of the observer’s position
b. Longitude of the observer’s position
c. Hour angle of the heavenly body
d. None of the above
45. The latitude of the observer’s position is equal to:
a. Altitude of the celestial body in upper culmination
b. Altitude of the celestial body at lower culmination
c. Mean of altitude of the celestial body at upper and lower transits
d. None of the above
46. A star is said to be at elongation when its distance east or west of the observer’s meridian is:
a. Least c. Zero
b. Greatest d. None of the above
47. The circle is in which the plane tangent to the earth’s surface at the point of observation intersects the celestial
sphere, is known as:
a. Visible horizon c. True horizon
b. Sensible horizon d. Celestial horizon
48. The great circle that sun appears to trace on the celestial sphere with the earth as its center , during the year is
called:
a. Equator c. Ecliptic
b. Equinox d. None of the above
49. The angle between the plane of equator and the plane of ecliptic is:
a. Known as the obliquity and is equal to 23°27’
b. Known as obliquity but is not equal to 23°27’
c. Equal to 23°27’ but it is not known as obliquity
d. None of the above
50. At the first point of aries, the sun travels
a. Northwards c. South to north of the equator
b. Southwards d. North to south of the equator
51. The great circle passing through the zenith, nadir and poles is known as:
a. Meridian c. Vertical circle
b. Prime vertical d. All o the above
52. The prime vertical passes through the:
a. East point of horizon d. Nadir
b. West point of horizon e. All of the above
c. Zenith
53. Places having the same latitude are:
a. Equidistant from the nearer pole c. Equidistant from the equator
b. Equidistant from both poles d. All of the above
54. Which of the following is correct?
a. One degree of longitude has the greatest value at the equator
b. One degree of longitude has the greatest value at the poles
c. One degree fo longitude has the same value at the equator and poles
d. None of the above

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55. The longitude of two places at 60° N latitude is 93° E and 97°W respectively. Their departure is:
a. 5100 nautical miles c. 120 nautical miles
b. 3700 nautical miles d. 1500 nautical miles
56. A nautical mile is equal to:
a. One minute of arc of great circle joining two c. 1853.18 m
points d. Both b and c
b. One minute of arc of the longitude
57. A circumpolar star is the one:
a. Which always remains above the horizon of the observer’s position
b. Which does not set
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
58. In a spherical triangle, which of the following statements is not true?
a. Every angle is less than two right angles
b. Sum of three angles is equal to two right angles
c. If the sum of any two sides is 𝜋, the sum of angles opposite to them ia also 𝜋
d. Sum of two sides is greater than the third
59. If S is the sum of three angles of a spherical triangle, then the spherical excess is :
a. S-90° c. S-270°
b. S-180° d. S-360°
60. According to Napier’s rule of circular parts for a right- angled triangle, sine at middle part equals the product of:
a. Tangent of two adjacent parts c. Cosine of two opposite parts
b. Sine of two adjacent parts d. Both a and c
61. The great circle, whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the earth, is called:
a. Equator c. Terrestrial equator
b. 0° latitude d. All of the above
62. Longitude of a place is the angular distance between the meridian of the place and
a. Standare meridian c. Both a and b
b. Greenwich meridian d. None of the above
63. International date line is located along:
a. Greenwich c. 180° longitude
b. Equator d. Standard meridian
64. A star is said to be at culmination when:
a. It crosses the vertical circle c. It crosses the observer’s meridian
b. It crosses the equator d. None of the above
65. The altitude of a star is zero. Therefore the star is at:
a. Culmination c. Meridian
b. Horizon d. None of the above
66. The point at which the sun’s declination changes from north to south is known as:
a. First point of aries c. Vernal equinox
b. First point of libra d. Both b and c
67. The sun’s declination as well as right ascension equal zero at:
a. March 21 c. September 22
b. June 21 d. December 22
68. Summer solstice is the position of the sun where its:
a. North declination is maximum c. Declination is zero
b. South declination is maximum d. None of the above
69. The position of a heavenly body on the celestial sphere can be completely specified by it’s
a. Azimuth and altitude c. Declination and right ascension
b. Declination and hour angle d. All of the above
70. The Polaris remain below horizon at:
a. 10°N latitude c. 5°S latitude
b. 50°N latitude d. None of the above
71. Equation of time, which is the difference between apparent and mean solar time at any instant vanishes:
a. Once in a year c. Thrice in a year
b. Twice in a year d. Four times in a year
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72. Difference in longitude of two places expressed in terms of time is equal to the difference in their
a. Sidereal time c. Mean solar time
b. Apparent solar time d. All of the above
Answer Key( Astronomy):
1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(c)
6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(a) 15.(b)
16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20.(c)
21.(c) 22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.(a)
26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(c) 29.(d) 30.(b)
31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34.(b) 35.(c)
36.(b) 37.(b) 38.(b) 39.(b) 40.(a)
41.(d) 42.(b) 43.(b) 44.(a) 45.(c)
46.(b) 47.(b) 48.(c) 49.(a) 50.(a)
51.(a) 52.(e) 53.(d) 54.(a) 55.(a)
56.(c) 57.(c) 58.(b) 59.(b) 60.(d)
61.(d) 62.(c) 63.(c) 64.(c) 65.(b)
66.(b) 67.(a) 68.(a) 69.(d) 70.(c)
71.(d) 72.(d)

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SETTING OUT WORKS

1) Setting out is done:
a) Prior to the preparation of plans c) After the preparation of plans
b) Along with the preparation of plans d) None of the above
2) Which of the following is associated with the setting out of sewers and pipe line
a) Batter-board c) Cross-head
b) Cross-staff d) None
3) Pegs or stakes are not generally fixed at the exact corner of the buildings because:
a) It is difficult to set them there c) They are not required at corners
b) They might be lost during the excavations d) None
4) The setting out of culverts involve locating corners of abutments and wing walls, with respect to:
a) Center line of the water body c) Both of the above
b) Center line of the road d) None
5) In designing culverts, the center lines of the water body and road, and the point of their intersection are considered
analogous to;
a) The axes of coordinates and their origin c) The axes and critical point
b) The base lines and the origin d) None
6) Bridges cannot be set out from the centre because
a) They consist of more than one span c) Both of the above
b) The water body involved is generally a d) None
perennial one
7) Setting out of bridge involve:
a) Determination of length of centre line and the height of piers
b) Determination of the direction of center line and height of piers
c) Determination of the length of center line and the position of piers
d) None
8) Invert is defined as:
a) The RL of inverted pipeline
b) The RL of top of the sewer
c) The RL of bottom of the inner surface of sewer or pipe
d) None
9) Cross heads are generally erected at:
a) 30 m intervals c) Change of direction
b) Change of grade d) All of the above
10) The length of boning rod for a section of the sewer is:
a) Kept constant c) Changed at alternate immediate sections
b) Changed frequently d) None
11) Absolute accuracy in setting out tunnels is stressed, because:
a) slight error can lead to collapse of tunnel c) Even a small error costs a lot to rectify
b) Tunnels are strategically very important d) None
12) Setting out is sometimes referred to as reverse of surveying because:
a) All instruments are set in a reverse manner
b) It nullifies all the work done by surveying
c) It transfers data from plans and drawings onto the site
d) None
Answer Key(Setting Out):

1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a)

6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11.(c) 12.(d)
REMOTE SENSING
1) Remote sensing can be defined as collecting information about a target
a) Without seeing it c) Without a physical contact with it
b) By touching it d) None
2) Which of the following are examples of remote sensing system?

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a) Human eye c) Remote sensing satellites

b) Bat’s guidance system d) All of the above
3) Which of the following statements best expresses the relationship between remote sensing(R ) and
photointerpretation?
a) R is a form of P and vice-versa c) R is the form of P
b) P is the form of R d) None
4) Which of the following factors does not contribute towards accurate photo-interpretation?
a) Knowledge of the area c) Incorrect interpretation of size
b) Skill and ingenuity d) None
5) Which of the following remote sensing systems employs only one detector?
a) Scanning system c) Both of the above
b) Framing system d) None
6) Which of the following cannot be achieved by remote sensing?
a) Detection of forest fires c) Prevention of earthquakes
b) Detecting of pollutants d) None
7) Remote sensing is being used in land use analysis because:
a) Images of large areas can be acquired rapidly
b) Problem of access is eliminated
c) It is cheaper as compared to ground surveys
d) All of the above

Answer Key( Remote Sensing):

1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a)

6.(c) 7.(d)

Surveying MCQs Compiled by: Er. Ganesh Prasad Sigdel