23-11-2025

1103CMD303031250023 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moves such that its position vector where ω is a constant and t
is time. Then which of the following statements is true for the velocity and acceleration of
the particle :

(1) is perpendicular to and is directed towards the origin

(2) and both are parallel to
(3) and both are perpendicular to
(4) is perpendicular to and is directed away from the origin

2) A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring of force constant k and unstretched
length ℓ The system is rotated about the other end of the spring with an angular velocity ω, in
gravity free space. Then increase in length of the spring will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) The speed of a particle moving in a circle of radius r = 4m varies with time as v = 2t2. (t in
second v m/s). Find radial and tangential acceleration at t = 2 seconds. (in S.I. unit)

(1) 32 & 8
(2) 34 & 16
(3) 8 & 16
(4) 16 & 8

4) For the given diagram find ωBA = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) In circular motion, what could be the possible value of ?

(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) negative

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) a only
(4) c only

6) A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is
rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can
bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is :-

(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 27
(4) 36

7) A cyclist riding the bicycle at a speed of m/sec takes a turn around a circular road of radius
2
m without skidding. Given g = 9.8 m/s . What is the banking angle of circular path ?

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

8) A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road is µS, then minimum safe velocity on this road is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r from
the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is µ. The coin will revolve with the record if
:-

(1)

(2)
r<
(3)

(4)

10) Assertion (A) :- When a body is placed in a rotatory frame rotating with constant angular
speed, it is thrown radially outward.
Reason (B) :- Centrifugal force acts on the body placed in a rotating frame.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11)

A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :-

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

12) A small body of mass m slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height (h) at which the body loses contact with the

surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A pendulum bob has a speed 3 m/s while passing through its lowest position, length of the
pendulum is 0.5 m then its speed when it makes an angle of 60o with the vertical is :–
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

14) A stone is rotated in a vertical circle with the help of a string. Speed at bottommost point is
, where R is the radius of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

15) A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on a sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the
sand, the average resistance offered by the sand to the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Mgh + Mgx

(4)

16) A body of mass 2 kg moves in one direction in the presence of a force which is described by the
potential energy graph shown in figure. If the body is released from rest at x = 2m, then its speed

when it crosses x = 5m is :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1

17) A self propelled vehicle of mass m whose engine delivers constant power P has an acceleration a
= P/mv (assume that there is no friction). In order to increase its velocity from v1 to v2 the distance it
has to travel will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power delivered to the
particle by the forces acting on it, is :-

(1) zero
(2) mk2r2t2
(3) mk2r2t
(4) mk2rt

19) A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain
and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that on hang over
one edge of the table is :

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 35%
(4) 15%

20) A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms–1. To give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 ms–2, the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust
will be: (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 185.5 kg s–1

(2) 187.5 kg s–1
(3) 127.5 kg s–1
(4) 137.5 kg s–1

21) The system shown in the figure is in equilibrium. The maximum value of W, so that the maximum
value of static frictional force on 100 kg body is 450 N, will be :-
(1) 100 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 450 N
(4) 1000 N

22) A body of mass 0.2 kg is pressed against a wall with horizontal force 5 N. If coefficient of friction

is 0.8 then find force of friction.

(1) 2 N
(2) 0.2 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 4 N

23) Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up
the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator,
then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk down on a moving escalator
in opposite direction.

(1)

(2)

(3) t1 – t2

(4)

24)

From the surface of a certain planet a body is projected with a certain velocity at a certain angle
from the horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical displacements x and y are given by
x = 10 t and y = 10t – t2
where t is the time in second and x and y are in meter. The magnitude and direction of the velocity
of projection are :-
(1) 10 ms–1 at 30° from the horizontal
(2) 20 ms–1 at 60° from the horizontal
(3) 10 ms–1 at 60° from the horizontal
(4) 20 ms–1 at 30° from the horizontal

25) The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. The maximum acceleration in ms–2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

26)

Position of a particle is given by:

x = t3 – 3t2 + 2t + 5 m Find velocity of particle at that time when accleration is zero.

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) –1 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

27) A small sphere with mass 1.2 g hangs by a thread between two parallel vertical plates held 5 cm
apart. The plates are insulating and have uniform surface charge densities + σ and – σ on inner
faces. The charge on the sphere is q = 9 × 10–6 C. What potential difference between the plates will
cause the thread to make an angle of 37º with the vertical as shown in fig. :- (Take g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 30 V
(2) 12 V
(3) 50 V
(4) 25 V

28) Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some large distance. A third spherical conductor
having same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact
with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is :-

(1) F / 4
(2) 3F / 4
(3) F / 8
(4) 3F / 8

29) Charges + q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is
the midpoint between A and B. The work done by electric field in moving a charge + Q from C to D

along the semicircle CRD is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Electric field due to point

charge (p)

(b) Electric field due to line

charge (q)

(c) Electric field due to line

(r)
dipole

(d) Electric field due to a

charge sheet (s)
(1) a – p; b – q; c – r; d – s
(2) a – q; b – p; c – s; d – r
(3) a – s; b – p; c – q; d – r
(4) a – r; b – p; c – q; d – s
31) The current flowing through R2 is :

(1) 1/3 A
(2) 1/4 A
(3) 1/2 A
(4) 2/3 A

32) In a meter bridge experiment, the balance point is obtained if the gaps are closed by 2Ω and 3Ω.
A shunt of xΩ is added to 3Ω resistor, to shift the balance point by 22.5 cm. The value of x is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

33) A galvanometer is used in laboratory for detecting the null point in electrical experiments. If, on
passing a current of 6mA it produces a deflection of 2°, its figure of merit is close to :

(1) 3 × 10–3 A/div.

(2) 333° A/div.
(3) 6 × 10–3 A/div.
(4) 666° A/div.

34) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Initially 'n' parallel resistances 'R' are connected to battery of emf 'E'. If an equal resistance 'R' is
connected in series with parallel resistances then current through battery changes by 80% then

value of 'n' is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

36) In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are identical. Which bulb will be the brightest?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

37) Each Resistance is R. Find RAB :-

(1) R

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) In the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the current between B and D is zero, the unknown

resistance is of :-

(1) 4Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) e.m.f. of a cell is required to find the value of X

39) The potential difference across AB is 5V. The voltage of ideal battery is

(1) 40 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 10 V

40)
Each Resistance is R
Find value of RAB

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41) The resistance of a galvanometer is 50Ω and it shows full scale deflection for a current of 1mA.
To convert it into a volmeter to measure 1V and as well as 10V (refer circuit diagram) the

resistances R1 and R2 respectively are :

(1) 950Ω and 9150Ω

(2) 900Ω and 9950Ω
(3) 900Ω and 9900Ω
(4) 950Ω and 9000Ω

42) To know the resistance G of a galvanometer by half deflection method, a battery of emf VE and
resistance R is used to deflect the galvanometer by angle θ. If a shunt of resistance S is needed to
get half deflection then G, R and S are related by the equation :-

(1) 2S (R+G) = RG
(2) S (R+G) = RG
(3) 2G = S
(4) 2S = G

43) A galvanometer of 10 ohm resistance gives full scale deflection with 0.01 ampere of current. It is
to be converted into an ammeter for measuring 10 ampere current. The value of shunt resistance
required will be :

(1)
ohm
(2) 0.1 ohm
(3) 0.5 ohm
(4) 1.0 ohm

44) A galvanometer has 36 resistance. If a 4 shunt is added to this, the fraction of current that
passes through the galvanometer is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The emf and internal resistance of single battery which is the equivalent to the combination of
three batteries as shown in figure are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

For a substance enthalpy of fusion is 1.436 Kcal mol–1 and entropy change of fusion is 5.26 cal
mol–1K–1. The melting point of the substance is :-

(1) 0° C
(2) 273° C
(3) –273° C
(4) 273° F

2) For which reaction change of entropy will be positive ?

(1) NH4NO3(s) N2O(g) + 2H2O(g)

(2) HCl(g) + NH3(g) NH4Cl(s)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(4) MgO(s) + H2(g) Mg(s) + H2O(l)

3) Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice :

Column-I Column-II

(A) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g) (i) ΔH = ΔU –2RT

(B) PCℓ5(g)→PCℓ3(g) + Cl2(g) (ii) ΔH = ΔU +3RT

(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (iii) ΔH = ΔU

(D) 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) (iv) ΔH = ΔU +RT

(1) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
(2) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)
(3) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii)
(4) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)

4) For a reversible process at T = 300 K. The volume of ideal gas is increased from vi = 1 L to vf = 10
L. Calculate the ΔH if the process is isothermal :-
(1) 11.47 kJ
(2) 4.98 kJ
(3) 0
(4) – 11.47 kJ

5) For the reaction :

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
Kp = 6.0 ×10–5 at 25° C. ΔG° for the reaction will be (in J/mol) :

(1) +24k
(2) –24k
(3) –7.3k
(4) 2k

6) Change in entropy for an isothermal reaction is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

7) Assertion : Decrease of free energy of system during the process under constant temperature
and pressure provides a measure of its spontaneity.
Reason : A spontaneous change must have +ve sign of ΔSsystem.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) The standard enthalphy of formation of NH3 is –46.0 kJ mol–1. If the enthalpy of formation of H2
from its atoms is –436 kJ mol–1 and that of N2 is –712kJ mol–1, the average bond enthalpy of N–H bond
in NH3 is :-

(1) –1102 kJ mol–1

(2) –964 kJ mol–1
(3) + 352 kJ mol–1
(4) +1056 kJ mol–1

9) C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O ΔH = –2220 kJ mol–1

C3H6 + H2 → C3H8 ΔH = –124 kJ mol–1

H2 + O2 → H2O ΔH = –285 kJ mol–1

 Then find heat of combustion of C3H6

(1) –2059 kJ mol–1

(2) 2059 kJ mol–1
(3) –4118 kJ mol–1
(4) +4118 kJ mol–1

10) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction using given bond energies (in kJ/mol)
C–H=414, H–O = 463, H–Cl = 431
C–Cl = 326, C–O = 335
CH3 – OH(g) + HCl(g) → CH3–Cl(g) + H2O(g)

(1) –23 kJ/mol

(2) –42 kJ/mol
(3) –59 kJ/mol
(4) –511 kJ/mol

11) 0.2 M, 100 mL NaOH is mixed with 0.4 M, 100 mL HCl solution. Determine energy released
during the reaction :
Given H+ (aq) + OH–(aq) → H2O(l)
ΔH = – 57.5 KJmol–1

(1) 1150 J
(2) 1150 kJ
(3) 2300 J
(4) 2300 kJ

12) Total no of structural isomers of aldehydes with the molecular formula C6H12O ?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 5

13) The given compound show :-

(1) Functional isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Ring-chain isomer

14) Which of the following is incorrectly matched:-

(1)

; Metamers

(2)

; Functional group isomers

(3)
; Chain isomers

(4)

Metamers

15) are :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Position isomers

16) The number of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol possible with the formula C4H10O is given
by the set of (excluding stereoisomers) :-

(1) 2,1,0
(2) 1,2,1
(3) 2,1,1
(4) 2,1,2

17) Which is not pair of enantiomers:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) total stereo isomers for given compound will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10

19) Which of the following will not show optical isomerism

(1) ClCH=C=C=CH–Cl
(2) Cl–CH=C=C=C=CH–Cl

(3)

(4)

20)

Which of the following compound is strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)
Compare acidic strength

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

22) Number of benzylic H in following structure ?

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10

23) Which of the following stability order is incorrectly written.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) For the redox reaction, MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ —→ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
Correct coefficient of reactant for the balanced reaction are respectively MnO4–, C2O42–, H+ :-

(1) 2, 5, 16
(2) 16, 3, 12
(3) 15, 16, 12
(4) 2, 16, 5

25) The incorrect order of decreasing oxidation state of 'S' :-

(1) H2S2O7 > Na2S4O6 > Na2S2O3 > S8

(2) H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S
(3) SO3 > SO2 > S8 > H2S
(4) H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8

26) Oxidation no. of P in Ba(H2PO2)2 is :-

(1) +3
(2) +2
(3) +1
(4) –1

27) Bromine when react with water undergoes disproportionation according to the equation
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr.
Equivalent mass of Br2 in the reaction is :-
(M = molar mass of Br2)

(1) M

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) Oxidation number of A, B and C are +2, +5 and –2 respectively then what will be the formula of
compound?

(1) A3(BC4)2
(2) A3(B4C)2
(3) ABC2
(4) A3(BC3)2

29) Oxidation state of C in C3O2 ?

(1) +2
(2) +8/3
(3) +2, 0
(4) None

30) 0.32 g of a metal gave on treatment with an acid 112 mL of hydrogen at NTP. Calculate
equivalent mass of the metal :

(1) 11.2
(2) 24
(3) 58
(4) 32

31) Statement-I : The gas phase reaction PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) shifts to right on increasing
pressure.
Statement-II : When pressure increases, equilibrium shifts towards more number of moles.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

32) Assertion : Melting of ice is favoured at high temperature.

Reason : Density of ice is less than density of water.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) The conditions favourable for the reaction; 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g); ΔH° = –198 kJ are

(1) low temperature, high pressure

(2) any value of T and P
(3) low temperature and low pressure
(4) high temperature and high pressure
34) At which temperature the value of KP becomes equal to KC :-

(1) 273 K
(2) 1 K
(3) 12.19 K
(4) 546 K

35) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

When 1 mol PCl5 is 40% dissociated, the pressure of equilibrium mixture becomes 2 atm & when
80% dissociated then the pressure of equilibrium mixture will be approximately :-

(1) 0.2 atm

(2) 0.5 atm
(3) 0.3 atm
(4) 0.6 atm

36) For the reaction : N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), the degree of dissociation in terms of KP can be expressed
as (P -> Total pressure at equilibrium)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37)

XY2(g) ⇌ XY(g) + Y(g)

Initial pressure of XY2 was 600 mm of Hg. The total pressure of equilibrium mixture is 800 mm of
Hg. Assuming volume of the system to remain constant, the value of KP is :-

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 400

38) One litre of water contains 10–7 mole of H+ ions. Degree of ionisation of water at 25°C is :-

(1) 1.8 × 10–7%

(2) 0.8 × 10–9%
(3) 3.6 × 10–9%
(4) 3.6 × 10–7%

39) The value of Ksp for B2CO3 is 3.2 × 10–5. The concentration of B+ in its saturated solution is :-
(1) 3.4 × 10–3 M
(2) 7 × 10–4 M
(3) 2 × 10–2 M
(4) 4 × 10–2 M

40) The highest pH value is of :-

(1) 0.1 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M NH4Cl
(3) 0.1 M CH3COONa
(4) 0.1 M CH3COONH4

41) The pH of two solutions are 5 and 3 respectively. What will be the pH of the solution made by
mixing the equal volumes of the above solutions –

(1) 5.3
(2) 4.3
(3) 3.3
(4) 4.0

42) M (OH)x has Ksp = 4 × 10–12 and solubility 10–4 M. Hence, x is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Calculate the pH of 4 × 10–3 M, Y(OH)2 solution assuming the first dissociation to be 100%
second dissociation to be 50%:-

(1) 11.78
(2) 9.9
(3) 2.5
(4) 2.22

44)

At what pH Mg(OH)2 will begin to precipitate?

Given Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 4 × 10–9

(1) 3
(2) 11
(3) 2.7
(4) 11.3

45) 20 mL of 0.2 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.2 M CH3COOH. Hence, (pKa – pH) is :

(1)

(2)

(3) log 2
(4) 2 log 2

BIOLOGY

1)

Match the column -I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
i 70s ribosome a Lysosome
ii Autolysis b Centriole
iii Lipoprotein c Mitochondria
Plasma
iv Membrane less d
membrane
(1) i → c; ii → d; iii → a; iv → b
(2) i → d; ii → c; iii→b; iv → a
(3) i → c; ii → a; iii → d; iv → b
(4) i → d; ii → b; iii → c; iv → a

2)

Besides the nucleus, the eukaryotic cell have other membrane bound distinct structures called
organelles.
Which one is odd according to given statement

(1) ER
(2) Golgibody
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

3)

Read the following functions (A-D) and answer as asked next to them
A = Lipid synthesis
B = Protein synthesis
C = Nucleic acid synthesis
D = Steroid synthesis
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site for how many of the above function.

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
4) Diplotene can lasts for months or years in:

(1) oocytes of all vertebrates

(2) oocytes of all invertebrates
(3) oocytes of some vertebrates
(4) spermatocytes of all vertebrates

5) Cell wall of algae is rich in _____

(1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectins and proteins

(2) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans and Minerals like CaCO3
(3) Cellulose, Lignin, Pectin and CaCO3
(4) Cellulose, Pectin, Galactans and Lignin

6) Centriole, Ribosome, Vacuole, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Golgibodies, Endoplasmic reticulum,

Peroxisome. How many of the above organelle lacks membrane ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8

7) Identify the incorrect statement ?

(1) Arrangement of microtubule in centriole = (9 + 0).

(2) At centromere two protein discs are present which is called kinetochore.
(3) Structure of chromosome can be best studied at anaphase.
(4) Heterochromatin is genetically less active or inactive chromatin.

8) The study of chromosomes at meiotic diplotene shows that

(1) The paired chromosomes undergo crossing over

(2) The pairing of homologous chromosomes which had initiated in the earlier stage is completed
(3) The homologous chromosomes remain united by chiasmata
(4) Terminalization of chiasmata

9) Choose the correct option with respect to cytokinesis in plant :

(1) Cell plate method, Centrifugal

(2) Cell plate method, Centripetal
(3) Cell furrow method, Centrifugal
(4) Cell furrow method, Centripetal

10) If the number of bivalents are 23 in metaphase I, what shall be number of chromosomes in
anaphase I and anaphase II.
(1) 23, 23
(2) 23, 46
(3) 46, 23
(4) 46, 46

11) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequences

(A) Terminilisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction of chromosome
(E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

12) If diploid chromosome number in a cell is 8 what shall be the number of chromatids in each
daughter cell after meiosis-I?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 32

13) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) In plants, mitosis occurs in both diploid and haploid cells

(2) Meiosis occurs in both diploid and haploid organisms but only in diploid cells
In animals meiosis occurs only in diploid cells but in plants it can occur in both haploid and
(3)
diploid cells
Gametes can be formed by meiosis as well as mitosis depends on the ploidy (2n or n) of the
(4)
gamete producing cells.

14) The given graph shows the change in DNA content in a single cell during the mitosis. Which

stage occurs between the time x and y ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

15)

In monocot seeds the endosperm is bulky and stores food. The outer covering of endosperm in these
seeds separates the embryo by a proteinous layer, this layer is called :-

(1) Scutellum
(2) Aleurone
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Coleorhiza

16) Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represent the

related floral formula :-

(1) Pea
(2) Brinjal
(3) Lily
(4) Mustard

17) Match the following column-l and column-ll :

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i

(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
18) In the above type of inflorescence :-

(1) Floral axis is unlimited in growth

(2) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
(3) Flowers are borne in acropetal order
(4) It is a type of racemose inflorescence

19) Assertion :- In parietal placentation the ovules develop on inner wall of the ovary.
Reason :- Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered in parietal placentation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

20) A student while studying the anatomy of leaves of four specimens (P & Q), observed the
following characters–
(P) Reticulate venation
(Q) Parallel venation and bundle sheath containing chloroplasts.
Identify the type of plants–

(1) (P) and (Q) are dicots

(2) (P) and (Q) are monocots
(3) (P) and (Q) are dicot and monocot respectively
(4) (P) and (Q) are monocot and dicot respectively

21) How many of the structures given below are present in monocot embryo ?
Coleorhiza, Scutellum, Coleoptile, Radicle, Root cap

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

22) Match the following Column–I and column–II

Column–l Column–ll

(a) Hypogynous (i) Brinjal

(b) Perigynous (ii) Rose

Ray florets of
(c) Epigynous (iii)
sunflower
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

23) How many of following term is not correctly stated about tobacco's family.
Bicarpellary obligately placed, apocarpous, superior ovary, bilocular, placenta swollen with many
ovules, free- central placentation, drupe fruit.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

24) In a particular flower the insertion of floral whorls was in such a manner, so the ovary was below
other three whorls, but its stigma was taller than other three whorls. What will you call such flower ?

(1) Hypogynous
(2) Perigynous
(3) Inferior ovary
(4) Half superior-half inferior

25) Which of the following option have example of primary meristem

(1) Apical meristem, Intrafascicular cambium

(2) Intercalary meristem, cork cambium
(3) Intercalary meristem, interfascicular cambium
(4) Intra fascicular cambium, interfascicular cambium

26) Meristematic tissues of plants, include :-

(1) Vascular cambium, cork cambium and the tips of mature leaves
(2) Stem and root tips, vascular cambium and cork cambium
(3) Mature fruits, tips of stem and root and cork cambium
(4) Tips of mature leaves and mature fruits

27) How many shoot apical meristem are likely to be present in a twig of a plant possessing 4
branches and 26 leaves ?

(1) 26
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 30

28) Meristematic cells are characterised by :-

(1) Thin cell walls and large intercellular spaces

(2) Thin cell walls and no intercellular spaces
(3) Thick cell walls and large intercellular spaces
(4) Thick cell walls and small intercellular spaces

29) Which is not correct about sclereids?

(1) They possess narrow lumen.

(2) These are round and oval shape.
(3) These are commonly found in the shells of nuts and in the pulp of guava.
(4) These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified walls.

30) Milestone contribution to understanding photosynthesis was demonstrated by an experiment

with which of the following ?

(1) Purple and green sulphur bacteria

(2) A mint plant and mouse
(3) A leaf that was partially covered with black paper
(4) A leaf and KOH soaked cotton

31) (A) Essential role of air in the growth of green plants described by Joseph Priestley.
(B) Jan Igenhousz provided evidences for production of glucose during growth of green plants.

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct

32) For the synthesis of one molecule of sucrose, how many turns of Calvin cycle will be required?

(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 12

33) Represented below is the graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on
absorption spectrum of chlorophyll 'a'. Which one of the following is correct for this?
(1) There is a complete one to one overlap between the absorption and action spectrum
By this overlapping it can be concluded that chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment of
(2)
photosynthesis
(3) This overlapping shows that only chlorophyll 'a' absorb the entire light energy
(4) These graphs show that photosynthesis occurs only in the wavelengths of blue and red light

34) The electron flow from PSII to NADP via ETS and PSI follows

(1) Uphill Downhill Uphill Downhill

(2) Downhill Uphill Downhill Uphill
(3) Downhill Uphill Uphill Downhill
(4) Uphill Downhill Downhill Uphill

35) Assertion (A): In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur.

Reason (R): C4 plants have a mechanism that increase the concentration of CO2 at the enzyme site

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

36) ATP : NADPH2 : CO2 consumption ratio during the photosynthesis in the C3 plant:

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 4

37) Assertion (A) : CO2 fixation rates increase linearly with incident light only up to a certain point,
after which they plateau.
Reason (R) : Light saturation for photosynthesis occurs at about 10 percent of full sunlight, and
beyond this point, other factors limit the rate of photosynthesis.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

38) The following (I-VI) are the main steps of chemosynthetic ATP synthesis in the light reaction.
Arrange them in correct order.
I. H+ concentration gradient established.
II. H+ diffuses through ATP synthetase.
III. Carriers use energy from electrons to move H+ across the membrane.
IV. Electrons from PS-II pass a long electron transport chain.
V. Light excites electrons in PS-II.
VI. Energy of H+ flow in used by ATP synthetase to make ATP.

(1) I → II → III → IV → V → VI
(2) II → IV → V → III → II → VI
(3) V → IV → III → I → II → VI
(4) V → VI → III → IV → II → I

39) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

40) Which of the following green algae is used in T.W. Engelmann's experiment ?

(1) Chlorella
(2) Acetabularia
(3) Cladophora
(4) Volvox

41) Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

(1) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

(2) They are not bound by any membrane
(3) These are involved in ingestion of food particles
(4) They lie free in the cytoplasm

42) Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1) Polysomes
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Peroxisomes
(4) Golgi bodies

43) The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis

characterizes.

(1) Bivalent
(2) Sites at which crossing over occurs
(3) Terminalization
(4) Synaptonemal complex

44) Which one of the following is not rue regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis
through chemiosmosis? It involves

(1) Breakdown of electron gradient

(2) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
(3) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 occurs on the stroma side of the membrane
(4) Breakdown of proton gradient

45) Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?

(1) Iron
(2) Copper
(3) Magnesium
(4) Zinc

46) Which bone is not a part of appendicular skeleton?

(1) Sphenoid
(2) Scapula
(3) Patella
(4) Pubis

47) Match the column-I with column-II :-

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-a, (v)-c
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-e, (iv)-a, (v)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-c, (v)-a

48) Arrange the following events of muscle contraction in the sequence :-

(I) Generate the action potential in the sarcolemma.
(II) Form a cross bridge.
(III) Release a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine).
(IV) Release of calcium ions.
(V) Pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band.
(VI) Remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
The correct option is :-

(1) I → II → III → IV → V → VI
(2) III → IV → I → II → VI → V
(3) III → I → IV → II → V → VI
(4) III → I → IV → VI → II → V

49) Select the incorrect statement :

Girdles help in the articulation of the upper and the lower limbs respectively with the axial
(1)
skeleton.
(2) Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal midline.
(3) Each rib is a thin flat bone.
(4) The clavicle articulates with acromian process of scapula.

50) The following figure is related to myosin monomer (meromyosin). Identify the parts from A to C.
(1) A; Head, B: Cross arm, C: GTP binding sites.
(2) A; Cross arm, B: ATP binding sites, C: Head.
(3) A: Head, B: Cross arm, C: ATP binding sites.
(4) A: Cross arm, B: Head, C: ATP binding sites.

51)

Cartilaginous joint found between _______ :-

(A) Atlas and axis
(B) Carpal and metacarpal
(C) Adjacent vertebrae
(D) Humerus and pectoral girdle

(E) Pubis symphysis

(1) A, B
(2) B, D
(3) C, E
(4) B, E

52)

During stimulation of skeletal muscle calcium is immediately made available for binding to troponin
from :-

(1) Blood
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lymph
(4) Bone

53)

The normal value of GFR is approximately :-

(1) 650 ml/min

(2) 180 ml/min
(3) 180 ml/day
(4) 125 ml/min

54) Which of the following is produced by kidney ?

(1) Renin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Calciferol
(4) Both 1 & 2

55)

CO2 dissociates from carbaminohemoglobin when-

(1) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↓

(2) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↑
(3) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↑
(4) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↓

56) Functional residual capacity is :-

(1) Volume of air remains in the lungs after forcible expiration.

(2) Volume of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(3) TV + ERV
(4) Both 2 and 3

57) In different parts of the body, different partial pressure exist which help in the movement of
gases. The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood is :-

(1) 159 mm Hg
(2) 40 mm Hg
(3) 46 mm Hg
(4) 95 mm Hg

58) Assertion : During the process of respiration oxygen is utilised by organisms,

Reason: It helps to breakdown nutrients and derive energy.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

59) Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of ___ which increases the volume of thoracic chamber
in anteroposterior axis.

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Intercostal muscles
(3) Diaphragm and External intercostal muscles
(4) Abdominal muscles

60)

Primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by :

(1) Complete cartilaginous rings
(2) Incomplete cartilaginous rings
(3) Complete chitinous rings
(4) Incomplete chitinous rings

61) Which of the following is the incorrect combination with respect to respiratory capacities.

(1) IC = TV + IRV
(2) TLC = Vital capacity + Residual volume
(3) FRC = ERV + RV
(4) VC = TLC + RV

62) An abnormal distension of bronchioles or alveolar sacs is encountered in :

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Bronchial asthama
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pneumonia

63) Most of the carbon - di - oxide is carried in the blood as

(1) Bicarbonates
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Carbonic acid
(4) Carbonates

64) Expiratory muscles are :-

(1) Diaphragm + IICM

(2) Diaphragm + EICM
(3) Abdominal muscles + IICM
(4) Abdominal muscles + EICM

65) Air is breathed through

(1) Trachea → lungs → larynx → pharynx → alveoli

(2) Nose → larynx → pharynx → bronchus → alveoli → bronchioles
(3) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
(4) Nose → mouth → lungs

66) The cells named podocytes occur on

(1) PCT
(2) Outer layer of Bowman's capsule
(3) Basement membrane of glomerulus
(4) Inner layer of Bowman's capsule
67)

Urine in a renal papilla of the kidney next travels to the

(1) ureter
(2) pelvis
(3) calyx
(4) urinary bladder

68) Each kidney of an adult human measures

(1) 6 – 8 cm in length
(2) 10 – 12 cm in length
(3) 5 – 7 cm in length
(4) 2 – 3 cm in length

69) If loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephron then urine will be -

(1) Concentrated
(2) Dilute
(3) No change
(4) No urine

70) Hormone called renin is released by

(1) Podocytes
(2) Liver cells
(3) JG cells
(4) Oxyntic cells

71) Choose the correct pair w.r.t. disorders given and it's corresponding descriptioner feature.

(1) Tetany - Rapid spasms in muscles due to low Ca++ in body fluid
(2) Gout - Decreased level of estrogen
(3) Osteoporosis - Increased bone mass
(4) Muscular dystrophy - Degeneration of smooth muscles

72) The excretory material in many bony fishes, aquatic amphibian larva that is generally eliminated
by diffusion across body surfaces or through gill surfaces is

(1) Guanine
(2) Ammonia
(3) Urea
(4) Uric acid

73) Choose the correct pair of substances responsible for maintaining the osmolarity gradient in the
medullary interstitium of kidney
(1) NaCI and HCI
(2) NaCI and urea
(3) Urea and KCI
(4) KCI and NaCI

74) The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule consists of modified simple squamous epithelial cells
called

(1) Mesangial cells

(2) Podocytes
(3) Juxtaglomerular cells
(4) Macula den sa

75) Given below are four statements (A-D) regarding the function of the kidneys:
A. Kidneys help in the maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of body fluids
B. They help in regulation of blood pH
C. They help in erythropoiesis, i.e. production of RBCs
D. They help in regulation of blood pressure and the blood volume
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) Only A
(2) A & B only
(3) A, B & C only
(4) A, B, C & D

76) Which of the fol lowing events occurs in the descending limb of loop of Henle?

(1) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by this segment

It is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate
(2)
as it moves down
Reabsorption of HCO3– and selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and
(3)
NH3 to maintain the pH
(4) It is impermeable to water but allows the transport of electrolytes actively or passively

77) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from choices given below
A. Angiotensin II reduces GFR
B. Atrial natriuretic factor increases GFR

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

78) Vasa recta are minute vessel of peritubular capillaries network, which is

(1) Also known as juxtaglomerular apparatus

(2) Running parallel to loop of Henle
(3) Running parallel to PCT
(4) Running parallel to DCT

79) Assertion : Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are indicators of diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Malfunctioning of kidney can lead to accumulation of urea in blood a condition called
uremia.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

80) Arrange the following parts of the nephron in a sequential manner and select the correct option
accordingly.
I. Glomerulus.
II. Ascending Henle’s loop.
III. Descending Henle’s loop.
IV. Proximal convoluted tubule.
V. Collecting duct.
VI. Distal convoluted tubule.
Choose the correct option.

(1) I → II → III → IV → V → VI
(2) I → IV → III → II → VI → V
(3) I → II → IV → III → V → VI
(4) VI → III → II → I → VI → V

81) Identify A-D in the diagram of Malpighian body (renal corpuscle) and choose the correct option

for A, B, C and D.

(1) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule, D–Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule, D–Distal convoluted tubule
(3) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule, D–Distal convoluted tubule
A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole, C–Proximal convoluted tubule, D–Distal convoluted
(4)
tubule
82) What will happen if the neuromuscular conduction pathway in heart is broken between S.A. node
and A.V. node :-

Auricles will contract due to impulse generated by S.A. node, while ventricles will not show any
(1)
activity
(2) No contraction or heart beat will be seen in heart
Auricles will contract at the rate set by the S.A. node while venticles will contract at the rate of
(3)
impulse generated by the A.V. node
(4) There will be no effect on the activity of heart

83) The valves of the heart are attached to papillary muscles by :-

(1) Columnae carnae

(2) Chordae tendinae
(3) Tendinae
(4) Pectinati muscles

84) Neurogenic heart is characteristic of

(1) Humans
(2) Invertebrates
(3) Rat
(4) Rabbit

85) Read the following four statements (A-D) :

(A) All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state
(B) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open
(C) Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and the right ventricle
respectively through the left and right atria
(D) The semilunaer valves are closed
How many statements are correct about joint Diastole ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

86) When the heart is not pumping the blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body, it is
called :

(1) Heart failure

(2) Cardiac Arrest
(3) Heart attack
(4) Angina

87) Select the incorrect statement about heart :

(1) Human heart has four chambers
(2) Left ventricle is largest
(3) S.A. node present in left ventricle
(4) Left auricle recieve blood from lungs

88) Microscopic examination of a blood smear reveals an abnormal increase in the number of
granular cells with multiple nuclear lobes. Which one of the following cell types has increased in
number ?

(1) Lymphocytes
(2) Monocytes
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Thrombocytes

89) Heart beat is accelerated by

(1) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine

(2) Cranial nerves and adrenaline
(3) Cranial nerves and acetylcholine
(4) Sympathetic nerves and nor epinephrine

90) Cells of human blood can be arranged in a series of increasing number (per cubic millimeter) in
blood as follows -

(1) Basophils → Monocyte → Eosinophil → Lymphocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte

(2) Basophils → Eosinophil → Monocyte → Lymphocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte
(3) Basophils → Eosinophil → Monocyte → Lymphocyte → Platelets → Neutrophil → Erythrocyte
(4) Basophils → Eosinophil → Lymphocyte → Monocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 1 4 1 3 3 4 4 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 1 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
On diff. we get

2)

Let x be increase in length of the spring. The particle would move in a circular path of radius
(ℓ + x).
Centripetal force = force due to the spring
m(ℓ + x) ω2 = kx

3) Linear speed at t = 2,
v = (2)2 × 2 = 8 m/s

4) (using the sign convention)

5) lies in the plane of circle and is always perpendicular to this plane

(always)
Hence is always zero.

6)

7)

tan θ =

tan θ =
∴ θ = 60°

8)

Explanation:
A car is negotiating a curved, banked road with a radius R. banked at an angle 0, and a
coefficient of friction We need to find the minimum safe velocity to avoid skidding.
Concept:
The minimum velocity is the speed at which the car can safely negotiate the curve without
sliding down, balancing the forces of friction, gravity, and the centripetal force.
Formula:
The correct formula for the minimum safe velocity is:

Brief Calculation:

9) In Balancing condition
Fcentritugal ≤ Friction force
mrω2 ≤ µmg

10) Asking about:

The question is about the relationship between a body in a rotating frame and the forces
acting on it.

Concept:
This involves the centrifugal force a fictitious force that appears in a rotating frame of
reference

Formula
• Centigugal force : Fn = m .ω2.r
(when m is mass ω is angular speed and r is the radius from the axis of rotation).

Calculation:
• Assertion (A): A body in a rotating frame appears to experience an outward force as if it
being thrown away from the center . This is true.
• Reason (B): The centrifugal force is the fictitious force that causes this perceived outward
motion.
This is also true.
• The reason correctly explains the assertion as centrifugal force is what gives the sensation of
being pushed outward in a rotating system.

Correct option: (4)

11)

Question Asking About:

The velocity ratio at points A, B and C in a vertical circle, given critical speed at C.

Key Concept:

• Energy Conservation =
• Critical Speed at C:

Formula & Calculation:

VA = ?, VB = ?, VC = ?
• At C:
• At B:

• At A:

• Velocity Ratio:

Final Answer:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

12)
By conservation of energy

mv2 = mg(r – h) .....(1)

as block leaves contact at B,
so normal reaction at B = 0

∴ = mg cos θ ⇒ = mg ×
2
⇒ mv = mgh substitute this in eqn (1) we get

= mg(r – h)

or r= h ⇒ h= r

13)

h = ℓ – ℓcos60° = ℓ – ℓ ×
= ℓ/2
by law of conservation of mechanical energy

∴ v2 = u2 –

m/s

14)
⇒ 8gR =
tension at top

Tt =

15) If the body strikes the sand floor with a velocity V, then Mgh = MV2
With this velocity V, when body passes through the sand floor it comes to rest after traveling a
distance x. Let F be the resisting force acting on the body. Net force in downward direction =
Mg – F

We know that work done by all the forces is equal to change in KE : (Mg – F)x = 0 – MV2
or (Mg –F) x = –Mgh or Fx = Mgh + Mgx
or F = Mg

16) Let at x = 2 m, U = U2

(KE + PE)x=2m = (KE + PE)x=5m

⇒ 0+6

17)

18)

ac = ,

∴ = k2rt2

KE = k =
By work-energy theorem, change in kinetic energy is equal to work done,

W = Δk =

∴P=

19)

20%

20)

187.5 kg s–1

21)

450 N
22) fL = 0.8 × 5 = 4 N
Mg = 0.2 × 10 = 2 N
fr = 2 N

23)

V1 → velocity of Preeti
V2 → velocity of escalator
ℓ → distance

24)

20 ms–1 at 30° from the horizontal

25)
from 0 to A

from A to B

from B to C

from C to D

So a3 is maximum

26)

x = (t3 – 3t2 + 2t + 5)m

∴
when a = 0, t = 1
so, at t = 1 sec, v = 3(1)2 – 6(1) + 2
v = –1 m/s

27)

28)

3F / 8

29)

30) Conceptual.

31)

Conceptual

32) Initial balance point will be at 40 cm & 60 cm

Now, if 3Ω is shunted with xΩ, balance point will be at more than 40 cm.

⇒ ⇒ x = 2Ω

33) Figure of Merit = C =

=C=
34)

35)

i1 =

i2 = = 20% of i1 =

⇒ =
5=n+1⇒n=4

36) Explanation : In mis question we have to tell which fell which bulb will glow brightest in
the given circuit diagram if all bulbs are identical.
Concept :- Electric power :-
Formula :- P = I2R
Calculation :- As all bulls are identical and the power (related by brightness) is given as P =
I2R so me bulb with the most current will be brightest. In Parallel connection, the current is
spilt between the branches while in series the current will be same.
So in figure we can set mat bulb 'C' will receive into maximum current while the bulbs A, B, D
will not get complete current as 'C' as m are connected in Parallel trenches. So bulb 'C' will
be the brightest.

Conclusion : The current answer option 3.

37)

Effective circuit is

RAB =
38)

Its balanced WSB

= ⇒ 2x = 2 ⇒ 2x = 2 ⇒ 7x = 1Ω

39) ⇒ P.d. = 30 V

40)

Effective circuit is
Let RAB = x
then

x=R+ ⇒ x2 + 2x = R2 + Rx + Rx
2 2
⇒ x – Rx – R = 0

x=+

x= =

41)

Ig = 1 mA ; G = 50Ω ;

V1(range) = 1V ; R1 = ; R1 = 950Ω
V2(range)=10V; n= 10; R2=(10 – 1) [950 + 50]
R2 = 9 × 1000 = 9000Ω
 42) G =

43)

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

0° C

47)

Explaining the Question :- The question asks to identify which of the given chemical
reactions will result in a positive change in entropy (ΔS>0).
Concept :- This question is based on Predicting the Sign of Entropy Change (ΔS) in Chemical
Reactions
Solution :- Entropy (ΔS) generally increases if the number of moles of gas increases (Δng > 0)
or if there's a phase change to a more disordered state (e.g., solid → gas).
1. NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(g): Δng = (1+2) – 0 = +3. Solid converts to gases. ΔS is
significantly positive.
2. HCl(g) + NH3(g) → NH4Cl(s): Δng = 0 – (1+1) = –2. Gases convert to solid. ΔS is significantly
negative.
3. H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g): Δng = 2 – (1+1) = 0.ΔS is relatively small (can be slightly positive or
negative depending on specific entropies).
4. MgO(s) + H2(g) → Mg(s) + H2O(l): Δng = 0 – 1 = –1. Gas consumed. ΔS is negative. Reaction
1 shows the largest increase in disorder and moles of gas.
Final Answer :- (1)

48)

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

49)

0
50) ΔG°= –2.303 RT log10 Kp,
= –2.303 × 8.314×298 1og 6.1×10–5
= +24048 J/mol = +24 kJ/mol

51)
Isothermal process

ΔS = nRh = nR log e

= 2.303 × nR log
Constant temperature

ΔS = nR log c

52)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

53)

+ 352 kJ mol–1

54) Eq(1) + Eq(2) – Eq(3)

ΔH = –2059 kJ/mol

55)

–23 kJ/mol

56)

1150 J
 57)

58)

Functional isomer

59) Metamers

60)

Functional isomers

61)

2,1,1

62)

63)

Molecule → unsymmetrical, n = 3

S.I. = 2n = 23 = 8

64)

ClCH=C=C=CH–Cl
65) Question Explanation :
This question is asking about strongest base is :

Concept :

This question is based on

Solution :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

∴ Kb = (2) > (1) > (3) > (4)

Final Answer :
Option (2)

66) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about acidic strength compassion.

Concept :

This question is based on

Solution :

Ka = d > c > a > b

Final Answer :
Option (3)

67)

9
68)

69)

2, 5, 16

70)

H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8

71)

+1

72)

73)

A3(BC4)2

74)

+2, 0

75)

32

76) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

77)
 Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

78)

Explanation

A. Le Chatelier's principle states that if a change of condition is applied to a system in

equilibrium, the system will shift in a direction that relieves the stress. 1

Concept

A. Temperature: The reaction is exothermic (ΔH° = -198 kJ), meaning heat is released. To favor
the forward reaction (formation of SO₃), we need to lower the temperature. This will shift
the equilibrium to produce more heat, counteracting the decrease in temperature.
B. Pressure: The number of moles of gas decreases in the forward reaction (3 moles on the
reactant side → 2 moles on the product side). To favor the forward reaction, we need to
increase the pressure. This will shift the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of
gas, reducing the pressure.

Therefore, the favorable conditions are low temperature and high pressure.

Answer option 1, (low temperature, high pressure).

79)

Question Explanation
The question asks to find the temperature at which the equilibrium constant in terms of partial
pressures (Kp) becomes equal to the equilibrium constant in terms of molar concentrations
(Kc).
Concept
This question is based on Relationship between Kp and Kc
Mathematical Calculation / Reasoning
The relationship between Kp and Kc is given by:
Kp = Kc
For Kp = Kc, the term must be equal to 1 .
This can happen if:
1. If , then for = 1, we must have RT = 1.
So, T = 1/R.
Substitute the value of R :
T = 1 (0.0821 L atm mo-1 K-1)
T 12.18
Final Answer
The value of Kp becomes equal to Kc at approximately 12.19 K .
Correct option: 3

80) Case I : PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

no : 1 0 0
ne : 1 – 0.4 0.4 0.4
∴ = 0.6
∴ Σne : 0.6 + 0.4 + 0.4 = 1.4

∴ KP =

=
Case II : PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
no : 1 0 0
ne : 1–0.8 0.8 0.8
= 0.2
∴ Σne : 0.2 + 0.8 + 0.8 = 1.8

∴ KP =
⇒ P = 0.21

81)

82) XY2(g) ⇌ XY(g) + Y

Given :
Po : 600 0 0
Pe : 600 – p p p
600 – p + p + p = 800
p = 200
=600–200 = 200 = 200
= 400

KP = = 100 mm of Hg

83)

1.8 × 10–7%

84)

4 × 10–2 M

85)

0.1 M CH3COONa

86)

3.3
 87)

88)

11.78

89)

11.3

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

i → c; ii → a; iii → d; iv → b

92)

Ribosome

93)

Two

94)

oocytes of some vertebrates

95)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

96)

97)

Structure of chromosome can be best studied at anaphase.

98)

The homologous chromosomes remain united by chiasmata

99)

Module-1, XI pg.# 215

100)

46, 23

101)

The correct answer is:

4. C → B → E → A → D
Explanation:
To understand the correct sequence, let's look at the events of meiosis in order:
1. (C) Synapsis → Occurs in Zygotene of Prophase-I, where homologous chromosomes pair up.
2. (B) Crossing over → Happens in Pachytene, where homologous chromosomes exchange
genetic material at chiasmata.
3. (E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex → Occurs in Diplotene, where the synaptonemal
complex dissolves, but chiasmata are still present.
4. (A) Terminalization of chiasmata → Happens in Diakinesis, where chiasmata shift towards
the chromosome ends.
5. (D) Disjunction of chromosomes → Occurs in Anaphase-I, where homologous chromosomes
separate and move to opposite poles.
Since C → B → E → A → D follows the correct meiotic sequence, option 4 is correct.

102) 2n = 8 after meiosis-I daughter cell n = 4 but each of these chromosomes has 2
chromatids so total chromatids = 8
2n = 8 अद्धसूी िवभाजन-I के बाद पु ी कोिशका n = 4 ले िकन इस ये क गु णसू म 2 ोमे िटड्स से होते ह अतः
कुल ोमे िटड्स = 8
103)

In animals meiosis occurs only in diploid cells but in plants it can occur in both haploid and
diploid cells

104)

Interphase

105)

Aleurone

106)

Brinjal

107)

a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i

108) NCERT XI # 72

109) NCERT Pg. # 65

110)

(P) and (Q) are dicot and monocot respectively

111)

Ncert Pg No: 35, 2021-22

112)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii

113)
 3

114)

Inferior ovary

115)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 85

116)

Stem and root tips, vascular cambium and cork cambium

117)

118) NCERT Pg. # 84-85

119)

These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified walls.

120)

NCERT-XI, English and िहदी पे ज # 208

Contribution of Van Niel [वाॅन नील का योगदान]

121)

Only A is correct

122) 12

123) By this overlapping it can be concluded that chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment of
photosynthesis
124) Downhill Uphill Downhill Uphill

125) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

126) 3 : 2 : 1

127) The assertion is true as CO2 fixation rates do increase linearly with light intensity only up
to a point, after which they level off due to other limiting factors. The reason is also true and is
the correct explanation for the assertion because light saturation occurs at about 10 percent of
full sunlight, indicating that light intensity beyond this point does not significantly increase the
rate of photosynthesis. Hence, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

128)

V → IV → III → I → II → VI

129) Question Explanation : The question asks you to count how many of the listed factors
are external factors that affect photosynthesis in plants.
Concept:
This question is based on FACTORS AFFECTING PHOTOSYNTHESIS.

Solution:
The correct answer is 3.4

Explanation :
External factors = 4
Light, CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water

Final answer: 3. 4

130) Cladophora

131)

These are involved in ingestion of food particles

132)

Golgi bodies

133)
Sites at which crossing over occurs

134)

Breakdown of electron gradient

135)

Magnesium

136)

Sphenoid

137)

(i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-c, (v)-a

138)

III → I → IV → VI → II → V

139)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 310

140)

A; Cross arm, B: ATP binding sites, C: Head.

141) NCERT Pg. # 312

142)

Here's why: Sarcoplasmic reticulum: The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized

endoplasmic reticulum within muscle cells that stores calcium ions (Ca2+). Upon stimulation of
the muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm. This calcium then
binds to troponin, which triggers the muscle contraction process.
The correct answer is 2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
143)

125 ml/min

144) Renin: The kidneys produce and secrete renin, an enzyme involved in blood pressure
regulation. Erythropoietin: The kidneys are the primary site for the production of
erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. Calciferol: The kidneys
play a crucial role in the final activation step of vitamin D into its active form, calcitriol. While
the kidney doesn't produce the precursor to vitamin D, it performs the final conversion to the
active hormone.

Final Answer : (4) Both 1 & 2

145)

PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↓

146)

Volume of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration.

147) NCERT Pg # 272

148)

If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

149) NCERT page no 270

150)

Incomplete cartilaginous rings

151)

VC = TLC + RV

152)

Emphysema
 153)

Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood as bicarbonates.

154) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about expiratory muscles are.

Concept :
This question is based on Mechanism of breathing.

Solution :
Abdominal muscles and IICM contracted in case of forceful expiration.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

155)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

This sequence accurately describes the pathway of air during respiration:

A. Nostrils: Air enters the body through the nostrils.

B. Pharynx: The shared pathway for air and food.
C. Larynx: The voice box and passage for air only.
D. Trachea: The windpipe that carries air down to the lungs.
E. Bronchi: Two large tubes branching from the trachea into each lung.
F. Bronchioles: Smaller branches within the lungs.
G. Alveoli: Tiny air sacs where gas exchange occurs.

This option outlines the correct respiratory pathway in humans.

156)

157)

calyx

158)

10 – 12 cm in length

159)
Dilute

160)

JG cells

161)

Tetany - Rapid spasms in muscles due to low Ca++ in body fluid

162)

163)

NaCI and urea

164)

Podocytes

165)

A, B, C & D

166)

It is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate
as it moves down

167)

Both A and B are incorrect

168)

Running parallel to loop of Henle

169)

170)

I → IV → III → II → VI → V

171)

A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent arteriole, C–Bowman's capsule, D–Proximal convoluted tubule

172)

Auricles will contract at the rate set by the S.A. node while venticles will contract at the rate of
impulse generated by the A.V. node

173)

Chordae tendinae

174)

Invertebrates

175)

Four

176)

NCERT XI, Pg # 288

177)

NCERT XI # 284,285

178)

Neutrophils
179)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 202

180)

NCERT Pg#194