DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
SURGERY
1. The earliest sign of hypovolemic shock is __________
2. The most reliable indicator of tissue perfusion in hypovolemic shock is
__________
3. First-line drug for anaphylactic shock is __________
4. The most common trigger of anaphylaxis in adults is __________
5. The defining feature of septic shock is hypotension despite adequate
fluid resuscitation requiring __________
6. The most common source of septic shock is __________
7. The Parkland formula uses 4 mL × %TBSA × body weight (kg) using
__________
8. Half of the calculated Parkland volume is given in the first __________
9. A clean-contaminated wound involves entry into the respiratory, GI, or
GU tract without __________
10. A penetrating injury of less than 6 hours duration is classified as
__________
11. Keloids extend beyond the boundaries of __________
12. The preferred treatment for keloids is intralesional __________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
13. Hypertrophic scars remain confined within __________
14. The first-line management for hypertrophic scars is __________
15. Healing by primary intention occurs when wound edges are
__________
16. Primary intention healing results in minimal __________
17. Healing by secondary intention occurs when there is tissue loss
and the wound heals by __________
18. Secondary intention healing results in a larger __________
19. Pilonidal sinus typically occurs in the __________ region
20. The definitive treatment of recurrent pilonidal sinus is
__________
21. Achalasia is caused by failure of relaxation of the __________
22. The classic radiologic sign of achalasia is a __________
appearance
23. The most common type of esophageal cancer worldwide is
__________
24. The strongest risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma is
__________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
25. Barrett esophagus is characterized by replacement of squamous
epithelium with __________
26. Barrett esophagus increases the risk of __________
27. Short bowel syndrome primarily leads to severe __________
28. The most critical nutrient deficiency in short bowel syndrome is
__________
29. Bacterial overgrowth is most commonly diagnosed by a positive
__________ test
30. The first-line treatment for bacterial overgrowth is broad-
spectrum __________
31. Crohn disease commonly affects the __________ region
32. The characteristic endoscopic appearance in Crohn disease is
__________
33. Ulcerative colitis always involves the __________
34. The definitive cure for ulcerative colitis is __________
35. Ischemic colitis most commonly affects the __________ flexure
36. The main risk factor for ischemic colitis is reduced __________
37. The most common cause of peptic ulcer disease is __________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
38. The most common location of duodenal ulcers is the __________
39. The earliest symptom of acute appendicitis is __________
40. The most accurate imaging modality for appendicitis in adults is
__________
41. The Alvarado score assesses the likelihood of __________
42. A score of ≥7 on the Alvarado score suggests probable
__________
43. The most common type of colon cancer is __________
44. The tumor marker used for follow-up in colon cancer is
__________
45. Grade II hemorrhoids prolapse but reduce __________
46. Grade IV hemorrhoids are irreducible and remain __________
47. The most common location of anal fissure is __________
48. First-line medical therapy for anal fissure is topical __________
49. The most common cause of fistula in ano is previous __________
50. The definitive treatment for fistula in ano is __________
51. The primary treatment of anal abscess is __________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
52. Anal abscess commonly originates from infection of the
__________ glands
53. The most commonly affected region in intestinal TB is the
__________
54. The gold standard treatment for intestinal TB is __________
55. The minimum score on the Glasgow Coma Scale is __________
56. A GCS score ≤8 indicates the need for __________
57. Glioblastoma multiforme is classified as WHO grade
__________
58. The hallmark imaging feature of GBM is a __________
59. The most common type of gallstone is __________
60. The most important risk factor for cholesterol stones is
__________
61. The diagnostic sign for acute cholecystitis on ultrasound is
__________
62. The first-line treatment for acute cholecystitis is __________
63. The classic triad of cholangitis is known as __________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
64. The definitive management of acute cholangitis is biliary
__________
65. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis worldwide is
__________
66. The first-line imaging for suspected pancreatitis is __________
67. The most common site of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is the
__________
68. The classic sign of painless jaundice is known as __________
sign
69. A pancreatic pseudocyst persisting beyond 6 weeks requires
__________
70. The most common location of a pancreatic pseudocyst is the
__________
71. Varicocele most commonly occurs on the __________ side
72. Varicocele feels like a __________ on examination
73. Epididymitis improves with elevation of the testis, known as
__________ sign
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
74. The most common causative organism in young males is
__________
75. Testicular torsion presents with absent __________ reflex
76. The definitive treatment for testicular torsion is urgent
__________
77. Hydrocele typically transilluminates due to __________
78. A communicating hydrocele is caused by a patent __________
79. Direct inguinal hernia protrudes through __________
80. Direct hernia is commonly seen in __________ men
81. Indirect inguinal hernia passes through the __________ ring
82. Indirect hernia is most common in __________ age group
83. Femoral hernia occurs below and lateral to the __________
ligament
84. Femoral hernias have the highest risk of __________
85. Incisional hernia occurs at the site of previous __________
86. The most important risk factor for incisional hernia is poor
__________ healing
87. Umbilical hernia is due to weakness in the __________ ring
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
88. Umbilical hernias are commonly associated with __________
89. Undescended testis is also called __________
90. The recommended age for orchidopexy is before __________
91. BPH most commonly affects the __________ zone of prostate
92. The hallmark symptom of BPH is urinary __________
93. First-line medical therapy for BPH is __________ inhibitors
94. Surgical treatment for BPH is typically __________
95. The most common type of kidney stone is __________
96. Stones associated with urease-producing bacteria are __________
stones
97. The most common type of breast cancer is __________
98. The most common site of breast cancer within the breast is the
__________ quadrant
99. Hormone-dependent breast cancer is positive for __________
receptors
100. The first-line hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women is
__________
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
ANSWER
1. Tachycardia
2. Urine output
3. Epinephrine
4. Drugs/medications
5. Vasopressors
6. Pneumonia
7. Ringer’s lactate
8. 8 hours
9. Gross contamination
10. Clean wound
11. Wound margins
12. Corticosteroids
13. Wound borders
14. Silicone sheets
15. Approximated
16. Scarring
17. Granulation tissue
18. Scar
19. Sacrococcygeal
20. Surgical excision
21. Lower esophageal sphincter
22. Bird-beak
23. Squamous cell carcinoma
24. Chronic GERD
25. Columnar intestinal metaplasia
26. Adenocarcinoma
27. Malabsorption
28. Vitamin B12
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
29. Hydrogen breath test
30. Antibiotics (Rafiximine)
31. Terminal ileum
32. Cobblestoning
33. Rectum
34. Colectomy
35. Splenic
36. Blood flow
37. H. pylori
38. Duodenal bulb
39. Periumbilical pain
40. CT scan
41. Appendicitis
42. Appendicitis
43. Adenocarcinoma
44. CEA
45. Spontaneously
46. Prolapsed
47. Posterior midline
48. Nitroglycerin
49. Abscess
50. Fistulotomy
51. Incision and drainage
52. Anal glands
53. Ileocecal region
54. Anti-tubercular therapy
55. 3
56. Intubation
57. Grade IV
58. Ring-enhancing
59. Cholesterol
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
60. Obesity
61. Murphy’s sign
62. Cholecystectomy
63. Charcot’s triad
64. Drainage (ERCP)
65. Gallstones
66. CT scan
67. Head
68. Courvoisier sign
69. Drainage
70. Lesser sac
71. Left
72. Bag of worms
73. Prehn’s sign
74. Chlamydia trachomatis
75. Cremasteric reflex
76. Orchidopexy
77. Fluid
78. Processus vaginalis
79. Hesselbach’s triangle (Fascia Transversalis)
80. Older men
81. Deep inguinal ring
82. Young males
83. Inguinal ligament
84. Strangulation
85. Surgical incision
86. Wound healing
87. Umbilical ring
88. Pregnancy
89. Cryptorchidism
90. 1 year
DOCTOR MEDICAL LECTURES ACADEMY
91. Transitional zone
92. Hesitancy
93. 5-alpha reductase
94. TURP
95. Calcium oxalate
96. Struvite
97. Invasive ductal carcinoma
98. Upper outer quadrant
99. Estrogen receptors
100. Aromatase inhibitors