(AR-oor)

@
I
Test Date: 28-12-2025 a a

Medical I llT-lEE I Foundations

o
c
o
N

RIATS
ALL IIIDIA AATASH TEST SERIES

(
l*"
Medical Entrance Exam '2026
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)

TEST No.5
(Xll Studying Students)

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDI DATES

1. Read each question carefullY' 8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator' candidate
should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
2. lt is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the
marked correctlY.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle' 9. lmmediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet'
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer 10. (i) The question paper consists of 180 compulsory questions
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed' (45 questions each in Physics and Chemistry and 90 questions in
Studentcannot use log tables and calculators or any other material Biology (Botany & Zoology)). The total duration of the examination
6.
in the examination hall. will be 180 minutes (3 Hrs). (ii) Each correct answer carries four
that marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer from
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure
the test paper contains all pages and no page ls mlsslng' the total score.

Note : lt is compulsory to fill Roll No. and rest Booklet

code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered
 Test No. 5

TOPICS OF THE TESI

Physics Laws of Motion, Work, En-qrgy and Powel of Particles & Rotational Motion

T
\
!3

Chemistry Thermodynamics, Equi

tt

Botany Biological of F loweri ng Plants

Zoology Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory products
and Their Elimination
 Test-S (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026
E

MM:720 TEST. OS Time : 3 Hrs

IPHYSTCSI
Choose the correct answer:
1. tf a vector A = tZi + ej - S[) and vector (3)e=*ll#B)
a = 1ei -2j *s[1, tnen I l, a I is

(1) J19 units (2) J819 units (4)e='""lrr*ffi)

(3) J17 units (4) .F11 units
4 A constant power P is applied to a car of mass
2. Given below are two statements :
m = 25A0 kg. The velocity of the car increases from
Statement A : When a particle moves in a vertical v = 4 mls to v = 6 m/s when car travels a distance of
circle with the help of a string, then its tangential 250 m. The value of power P is nearly
acceleration is always variable. (1) 507w (2) 605W
Statement B : When a particle moves in a vertical (3) 400 w (4) 100 w
circle with the help of a string, then its radial
5. are two statements : one is labelled as
acceleration is always variable.
and the other is labelled as Reason
ln the light of the above statements, clpose,,the
most appropriate answer from the optiorls $iven potential energy of a system
below.
done against a conservative
(1) Both statements are false
(2) Statement A is true but statement B is false Reason (R) ::tlVork done by a conservative force on
(3) Statement A is false but statement B is a system is equal to negative of change in potential
(4) Both statements are true energy.

3 lf the magnitude of resultant of ln the light of the above statements, choose the
most appro priate answer from the options given
and (Fr - Fz) is given as rl +r| below.
between these two forces is
Wt,r (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1)e=r,.,[ffi) (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)

(2)o=*",[ffi) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-1 3, Sector-1 8, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

@
ffi
6.
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

A wheel is rotating with a speed of 420 rev/minute.

After being switched off, it comes to rest in 10 s.
o Figure shows a
Test-S (Gode-A)

uniform rectangular plate from

which identical small circular portions are removed
Assuming constant angular deceleration, the from the corners. After circles 1, 2 and 3 are
number of revolutions made by it before coming to removed, the C.O.M. of remaining portion will be
rest, will be iy
(1) 37
(2) 3s
x'--- --x
(3) 45
(4) 47
7 . ln the given figure if acceleration of wedge (of mass v
M = 10 kg) with respect to ground is a = 2 m/s2, then (1) At O (2) ln lll quadrant
the acceleration of m = 2 kg block with respect to /Vl
and ground respectively, are
(3) ln lV quadrant (a) On Oil axis
10. The potential energy function of an object of mass
5 kg moving in xy-plane in a conservative field is
given by g = (3x + 4y) joule, where x and y are
coordinates of object (in metre). The magnitude of
a
its acceleration is
M- 10
(1) 2:m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 1 m/s2
(1) 2mts2,4mls2 (4 2$ mls2,2 m/s2
11. A par{icle is moving with constant speed of 2 m/s
along the line y = 2 in positive x-direction. The
(3) 2 m/s2, 2mls2 (4) 2Ji mls2,4 , magnitude of its angular velocity about origin when
B. Consider the given spring-pulley system as its position makes 30'with x-axis is
in figure. Then acceleration of pulley im (1) 0.25 radls (2) 0.35 rad/s
after string (1) is cut, will be pu to (3) 0.5 rad/s (4) 0.75 rad/s
ideal) 12. Consider the given statements:

(1) q Statement A : Potential energy of a system can be

2 positive, negative or zero.
Statement B : Work done by tension in the string,
Q\ ?g connected to a block performing uniform circular
2
motion, is zero.
(3) g String (1) Statement C : The area under force-displacement
(4) Zero curve gives distance.

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze C ampus-2, Plot- 13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana -12201
s

@
 Test-S (Code-A)

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below.
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

17. For the given force-time (F-t) graph, the impulse

from t = 0 to t = 20 s and the final momentum
ffi
(1) Only statement A is true respectively are (initial momentum is 10 kg-m/s)
(2) Only statements A & B are true F N)

(3) Only statements B & C are true

( ) Only statement C is true 2A

13. ln a case where a 2 kg body collides head-on

elastically with another body of mass m, the kinetic
energy transferred is maximum when (m is at rest
initially) 0 10 2A f (in s)
m=4kg
(1) (2) m=2kg (1) 200 N s,210 kg m s-t
(3)m=1kg (4)m=Skg (2) 210 N s, 200 kg m s-r
14. A particle has instantaneous velocity of (3) Zero,200 kg m s-t
tZi -gj + +[; m/s under the influence of a constant (4) 110 N s, 100 kg m s-t
force of (zi +3j +s[;N. The instantaneous power
18. A ball of mass 500 g strikes a surface with speed
40 m/s at an angle of 60'from normal and rebounds
supplied is with same speed in 0.4 s. The average force applied
(1) 20w (2) 15w by surface on ball is
(3) 25 w (4) 26 w (1) 500 N (2) 200 N
15. A particle moves along a circle with speed u = 2t, (3},,5O N (4) 60 N
where f is time. The total acceleration of the pa rticle
th
t$' n mcf is released from rest at the top of an inclined
at a time when it has traced (i) of .,,, plane which later curves smoothly into a circular
'rr:::r':
track of radiue 1 m as shown in figure. The minimum
circumference is height h frorn which it should be released so that it
, is able to complete the circle, is
6 4,1fi1 (2) $-" (Friction is absent everywhere)
(3) ./i + 2?r (4) Leto
16. The correct statement describing the action-
reaction pair of forces under NeMon's third law of
motion is h
(1) They are equal in magnitude
(2) They may have same direction
(3) They may not act on different bodies (1) 5m (2\ 2.5 m
(4) All of these (3) 1.5 m (4) 0.5 m

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

@
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

20 A car starts from rest on a 500 m long horizontal 23. A shell at rest on a smooth horizontal surface
bridge. The coefficient of friction between the tyre explodes into two fragments of masses 1 kg and
and bridge is 1. The minimum possible time taken 6 kg. lf just after explosion, the 1 kg fragment moves
to cross the bridge is with speed 2 mls, then work done by internal forces
during the explosion is
(1) 2s (2) 5s o7
(3) 4s (4) 10s (1) :J "3 ;J
Q)
3
21 An object of mass 5 kg is moving along x-axis such
(3) 3J (4) 5J
that its position x varies with time t as x? = 2513, with
x in metre and f in second. Work done (t4l) on the 24. Choose the incorrect statement among the
following.
object in time f can be shown as
(1) Linear momentum of system of colliding bodies
W W remains conserved in all types of collisions
(1) (2)
(2) ln inelastic collision all the forces involved in the
collision are not conservative
(3) When a heavy body collides elastically against
t t a light body at rest, the heavy body slightly
W w slows down whereas light body moves with the
(3) (4) speed nearly double of heavier body
(4) W,Bqn body A collides elastically against body B
afequal mass at rest, then both bodies A and B
tt to rest '
22. A body is displaced from position x= 6 m tox= 3m 25. of rnasses 0.2 kg and 0.5 kg possess
along the x-axis. For the forces mentidned in of 5i m/s and (10i + 10i ) m/s
column-|, match the corresponding work done (LV)
F.I6c{iWV. The velocity of their centre of mass is
by each force on the body in column-ll. 0rt.g6* " q
Column-l Column-ll fu 20fufo8 ,r, 3oi +zoi
il m*&ffi 7
a F=sir.t (i) Positive
60i + 50i soi + 60j
(4)
b (ii) 7 7
F=ejr.t
26. A disc is rotating with angular velocity 6 . A force F
c. F: -5r'N
(iii) Zero acts at a point on the disc whose position vector with
respect to axis of rotation is .
f The power
d (iv) W=24 J associated with torque due to the force is given by
F = 1-ei + sj1 rrt

(1) (Fxf)x6 (2) (toxF).i

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(i,iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(i,iv)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii,iv) (3) (r*r;.ro (4) (i.F).,
Space for Rough Work

@
27
Test-S (Code-A)

. Two discs of moment of inertia 2kg m2 and 4 kg m2

having angular speeds 4 rad/s and 2 radls
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

30. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of

moment of inertia 4 kg m2 and radius 1 m. The wheel
ffi I

respectively are rotating in same sense about a is free to rotate about its axis. lnitially wheel is at rest
common axis passing through their centre of mass and the string is then pulled tangentially by a force
and perpendicular to their plane. lf the two are F = 40 N. The angular velocity of the wheel after 5 s
slowly brought in contact with each other and then is
they start rotating together along same axis, then (1) 100 radls
the final rotational kinetic energy of system will be
(2) 200 radls
et T' (3) 50 rad/s
t',1
T, (4) 250 rad/s

trl (4) Zero 31. Five forces are acting perpendicular to the axis of a
T, rod as shown in figure at distances of 20 cm, 40 cm,
28. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis inclined 60 cm, 80 cm and 100 cm respectively from one end
of the rod. Under the influence of these forces, the
at an angle of 60' with the rod and passing through
rod
one end as shown in figure, is
*.} 30N 40N
(1) 125 kg m2 20 cm 20 cm 20 cm 20 cm 20
o
o
(2) 4kg 60
m2 5kg,5m
N 1 N N
1a1
f rs m'z

(4) 225kgm2 Undergoes rotational motion only

29. Choose the correct statement among the fol ) Undergoes translatory motion only
(1) ln a rigid body, angular velocity of any (4) Undergoes translational as well as rotational
the body with respect to any other motioh
body keeps changing and is 5Z A thin wire of length 2 m and uniform linear mass
angular velocity of the body density 3 g/m is bent into a circular loop with centre
(2) Radius of gyration (k) for an of O as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about
mass M with inner and outer radius as Rr and the axis xx' is [take n2 = 10]
R2 respectively, about an axis perpendicular to x---"-*----" '"."-"""'X'
disc and passing through center is 'n? -n3
(3) Radius of gyration does not depend on
distribution of mass of body (1) 9 x 102 kg m2 (2) 0.9 kg m2
(4) Torque is an axialvector (3) 0.9 x 10-3 kg m2 (4) 0.9 x 10-2 kg m2

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL,3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar Gurug ram, Hary ana-1 2201 5

@
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

33 A solid sphere is rotating in free space. lf the sphere 37. A block of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity of 2mls
is shrinking keeping its mass constant, then the on a horizontal rough surface, for which coefficient
physical quantity that will not be affected is .,

(1) Angular velocity of friction is I4', tnen distance travelled by the block

(2) Moment of inertia before coming to rest is

f,
(3) Angular momentum A
t''l (2)
(4) Rotational kinetic energy 1m
34 A belt moves without slipping over two pulleys A and
B which are mounted on two fixed horizontal axles (3) 9m r+t
\'/ im
11 11
as shown in the figure. Radii of the pulleys A and B
are25 cm and 50 cm respectively. Pulley A is driven 38. A block of mass 2 kg is acted upon by a force
at constant angular acceleration of 0.2 rad/s2. The F = 100 N at an angle 53" with horizontal against a
acceleration of a point C on the belt and angular vertical wall as shown below. The coefficient of
acceleration of pulley B are respectively are static friction (p5) between the block and wall is 0.5
and coefficient of kinetic friction (p*) between block
and wall is 0.4. The acceleration of the block is

(1) 0.2 mlsz,0.2radls2

(2) 0.3 mlsz,0.2radlsz
100 N
(3) Zero, zero
(4) 0.05 m/s2, 0.1 rad/s2
35. The power output of an automobile eng (1) 20m/s2 (2) 45 m/s2
advertised to be 200 HP at 6000 rpm. (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 18 m/s2
corresponding torque generated is nearly
39 A block of metal of mass 3 kg is resting on a
(1) 237.5 N m (2) 337.5 N m frictionless horizonal plane. lt is struck by a jet
(3) a00 N m (4) 113.5 N,rm' releasing water at a rate of 2 kg/s and at a speed of
36 The coefficient of static friction between a block and 5 m/s, in a direction perpendicular to the surface of
1 block but along the horizontal plane. The water
an inclined plane is then the angle of repose
,5, comes to rest relative to block after impact. The
for the inclined plane is initial acceleration of the block is
(1) 60" (2) 45" (1) 5.33m/s2 (2\ 20 mls2
(3) 30" (4) 90' (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 3.33 m/sz

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Orfce ; AESL, Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

@
 Test-S (Code-A) All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026
I

40. A chain of mass M and length 4 m is placed on a 42. A force F = (6 + 2x) acts on a particle along
horizontal table such that, some part of it is hanging x-direction where F is in neMon and x in metre. The
outside the table. lf coefficient of friction between work done by this force during displacement of the
chain and table is 0.1, then the maximum length of particle from x = 2 m to x = 5 m, is
chain which can be hung outside the table so that
the chain does not slide is
(1) 4e J (2) 5e J
(3) 6e J (4) 3e J
43. A ball of mass 20 kg is thrown in air with speed
vr = 3 m/s from a height of 20 cm and at a height of
40 cm its speed becomes vz = 2 mls. The work done
on the ball by air resistance is

(1) 25 J (2) 20 J
(3) -1s J (4) -10 J
(1) 0.46 m 44. Consider the following statements A and B and
(2) 0.36 m identify the correct answer:

(3) 0.56 m A : A force is said to be conservative, if work done

by the force in moving a body from one position
(a) 0.86 m
between
41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as these two positions.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
B : Force of friction is a conservative force.
(R).
(1 IS true but B is false
Assertion (A) A safe turn by a cyclist should
neither be fast nor be sharp. (2) A is false but B is true
Reason (R) : The bending angle of the (3) Both A and B are true
the verticalwould decrease with increase in
() Both A and B are false
ln the light of the above statemeflts, choose the
of masses 3m,2m and m are pushed
correct answer from the options given below.
12 N as shown in figure given below
force which 2rn exerts on m, to that
(2) A is false but R is true exerted by 3m on 2m is

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 12N

3m 2m m
explanation of A
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) 1 :3 (2) 1 :4
explanation of A (3) 1:6 $) 1:2
Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2' Plot-13, Sector- 1 8, Udyog Vihar, Guru g ram, Hary ana-1 2201 5

@
ffi AII lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

lcHEMrsTRYl
Test-S (Code-A)

46. ldentify the correct relation between Cp and C, for 51 Given below are two statements :

two moles of an ideal gas. (Cp and Cu are molar heat Statement I : For irreversible isothermal process
capacity at constant pressure and constant volume AU = 0 (for an ideal gas)
respectively, for an ideal gas)
Statement ll : Both for reversible and irreversible
(1) Cp+Cv=R (2) Cr-Cv=2R expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal
(3) Cp=2R-C, (a) Cp-Cv=R conditions, AStot.r is zero.
47. Two moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K ln the light of the above statements, choose the
compressed at constant temperature by applying
correct answer from the options given below.
constant external pressure of 4 bar. The work done
(1) Both Statement land Statement llare incorrect
on the system is
(1) 14.86 kJ (2) 49.88 kJ (2) Statement I is correct but Statement ll is
incorrect
(3) 1.486 kJ (4) 4.e8 kJ
48. Four moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K is (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is

expanded into vacuum to double the volume. The correct

work done will be (a) Both Statement I and Statement ll are correct
(1) -sRT (Vz - Vr) (2) _4Rr 2.3SM 52. Match lwith List-ll
(3) -sRT ln4Y'
v
(4) Zero S**- List-l
(Condition)
List-ll
(Spontaneity of

a a
49. Among the following, the set which re presents path reaction)
functions, is a. (i) Spontaneous only at
&Ho. o
(A)H-rS (B)U+PV and low temperature
(c) q (D) w
D 4SO> g,.
Choose the correct option. ,/, b (ii) Spontaneous at
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only A,H@.0 all
I

,rOnd temperatures
(2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only s' Aso. o

(4) (A), (C) and (D) only I

I c. a"HO, O
(iii) Spontaneous only at
high temperature
50. At 60"C, NzO+(g) is 50% dissociated as given and
AS@.
NzOa (g);- 2NOr(g)
O

d 4H@, o (iv) Non-spontaneous at

The value of AG' at 60'C and at 3 atm pressure is
and alltemperatures
(1) -3.84 kJ/mol (2) -2.73 kJ/mol
(3) -1.06 kJ/mol (4) -7.41 kJ/mol 4SO, O

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-l8, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-12I015

@
 Test-S (Code-A)

Choose the correct option.

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

55. Consider the following statements

(a) The energy of an isolated system is constant.
ffi I

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (b) Heat capacity and temperature are intensive
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) properties.

(a) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (c) Standard enthalpy of formation of S1"1, rhombic
and Pt"t, white are zero.
53. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under
The correct statement(s) isiare
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are shown in
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c) only
the figure
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
A(Po, Vo, To)
56. ldentify the incorrect statement(s) among the
t following.
(A) For a system of constant volume, heat involved
P
B(P", V", T")
directly changes to internal energy.
C(P.' V"' T")
(B) According the third law of thermodynamics, the
entropy of any pure crystalline substance
V+ approaches zeto as the temperature
Which of the following options is correct? approaches absolute zero.
(1) Tn = Tc c free expansion of an ideal gas,
(2) AC -+ lsothermal expansion =0andAU*0
) e correct option
(3) Wisottrermal ) Wadiabatic
(B)only (2) (C) only
(4) ASaoiaoatic ) ASisothermal
only (a) (A)only
54. Predict in which of the following processes, entropy
conditions, if the change in the enthalpy
increase(s).
for the following reaction is -109 kJ mol-l
(a) 2NaHCOr(s)-------+NarCO,(s) + COr(g)+ HrO(g)
H, (o) +. Brz (o) -----+ 2H Br( g )

(b) 4Fe(s) + 30, (g)-------+ 2FerOr(s) The,&r,id,bnergy of Brz(g) and HB(g) is 192 kJ mol-1
and,388 kJ mol-l respectively. The bond energy of Hz
(c) Hr(g)-------+2H(g) {inkJ mol-l) is

(d) Nz(g) + 3Hr(g)-------+2NHr(g)

(1) 518 (2) 25e
(3) 435 (4) 736
The correct option(s) is/are
(1) (a)and (c) only
{hry 58 One mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally
and reversibly to half of its initial pressure. The
(2) (b) and (d) only change in entropy for the process is
(3) (c) only (1) 5.74 J K-l mol-1 (2) 3.94 J K-1 mol-1
(4) (a), (b) and (c)only (3) 7.96 J K-1 mol-1 (4) 4.38 J K-1 mol-1

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2 , Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

@
ffi
59.
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

Given below are two statements: 62.

Test-S (Code-A)

The equilibrium constant for the reversible reactions

are given as,
Statement I : During stretching of rubber, entropy
decreases. (l) 2A(g)i-B(g)+2C(s) ; Kr
Statement ll : lf the standard enthalpies of formation
of COz(g), HzO(l) and glucose(s) at 25'C are -400 kJ 1rr1
|n1s1r-xt,n,*i.,n,' *
mol-l, -300 kJ mol-1and -1300 kJ mol-1 respectively,
then the standard enthalpy of combustion per gram of Then Kr and lG are related as
glucose al25"C is -16.11 kJ g-t. (1) Kr = JG
ln the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Kz =.K
correct answer from the options given below.
3
(1) Both Statement land Statement ll are incorrect (3) Kr =(Kr)r
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement ll is
3
incorrect
@) Kz=(K,)a
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is
correct
63. ln which one of the following equilibria, Kp*Kc?

(a) Both Statement land Statement ll are correct

1r I ]Nr1sy
+
lor,n,=-No(g)
60. Equal volumes of two diatomic gases, A and B are
mixed at same temperature and pressure.''Tfre ratio (2) 2C(s)+ Oz(g).-2co(g)
rc^ )
'
of specific heats |
=r I
[c,,
of the mixture will be (3) NOr(g) + SOr(g);-NO(g) + SO.(g)
.

(1) 1.66 (2) 1.33 (a) 2Hl(g)i.-;-Hr(g) + lr(g)

(3) 1.40 (4) 0.83
,: ,,
64. Two solids dissociate as follows
6'1 Consider the following processes, A(s)--------+B(g)+C(g) ; Ko, =,
AH(kJ mol-1)
D(s)--.---.+C(g)+ E(g) : Kr, =y
1 +150
-A
2
----->B The total pressure when both the solids are kept in
same container and dissociate simultaneously is
38 , +2C+D +i25
(1) .[+yatm
E+ A--------+2D +350 (2) (x + y) atm

For B + 3D--------+2C +2E+ A , AH will be (3) I"[+v

z^:atm
(1) 775 kJ mol-1 (2) 275 kJ mol-1
(3) -275 kJ mol-l (4) -775 kJ mol-1 (a) 2Jx+y atm

Space for Rough Work

?f,tat
 Test-S (Gode-A)

65. The standard

reaction
Gibbs energy change at 300 K for
Al! lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

Choose the correct option.

(1) (A) and (E) only
ffi
2A(g). -B(g) (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
+ C(g)
(3) (B), (C) and (E) only
is 2500 J. At a given time, composition of reaction
(4) (c), (D) and (E) only
mixture is tAl= mof f', [e] = 2 mol L-l and 68. NzO+(g);-2NOr(g)
]
[C] = Z mol L-1. The reaction proceeds in At a fixed temperature, the volume of reaction
container is halved.
[Antilog(-0.436) = 9.36,
(1) Backward direction , Q" > K" Choose the correct statement regarding the
equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation
(2) Backward direction , Qc < Kc (").
(3) Forward direction i Qc > K" . (1) Kp decreases and cr increases
(4) Forward direction , Qc < K" (2) Neither Kp nor cr changes
66. ln which of the following reactions, an increase in (3) K, remains constant and o decreases
the volume of the container will favour the (a) Kp increases and cr decreases
equilibrium shifts in forward direction?
69. Given below are two statements:
(1) 2Nor(g)r-zttolg)+oz(g) .:,.......
Statement I: Upon addition of oxalic acid to the
on mixture
(2) aNH.(s) + 5Or(g)r-aNO(g) +
i-tFe(SCN)12. (aq)
(aq)
(3) 3Or(g)i-2O.(g) sity of deep red colour of the solution
kd,
(4) Nz(g) + 3Hr(g)r-2NH.(g) Statement ll : Addition of aqueous HgClz to the
"4,
67. The following reaction occurs in a blast furnace foltowing reaction mixture.
where iron ore is reduced to iron metal: ,,,,,:,,, Fer* (aq) + SCN- (aqh-[Fe(SCN)]2. (aq)
FerO,(s)+3CO(g). -2Fe(l)+3CO.(g) The,eOlitinrium shifts from left to the right.

Which one of the following changes will not affect ln the light of the above statements, choose the
the state of equilibrium? correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement ll are incorrect
(A) Removal of COz(g)
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement ll is
(B) Addition of an inert gas at constant volume
incorrect
(C) Addition of FezOe (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is
(D) Addition of an inert gas at constant pressure correct
(E) Addition of CO(s) (4) Both Statement I and Statement ll are correct

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, I ncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-1 3, Sector-1 g Udyog
Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-12201 i
@
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

70. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid (NaH) is 74. Match List-lwith List-tl
(1) N3- (2) Nt [Given pKa (CHgCOOH) = 4.76, pKu(NH+OH) = 4.751
List-l List-ll
(3) N' (4) HNt
(Solution) (Type of buffer,
71 ln the following reaction pH)

HC2O; +POf- ;-HPO?- +CrO2o- a 50 mL of 0.1 M (i) Basic, 9.25

Which pair can act as Bronsted base only? HCI + 100 mL of
0.1 M CHgCOONa
(1) Hc2o; and PO!-
b. 100 mL of 0.2 M (ii ) Acidic,4.76
e) c2o1- and HPol- NHnOH + 50 mL of
0.2 M HCt
(3) Hc2o; and HPol-
g) Po!- c. 200 mL of 0.2 M (i ii) Basic, 9.85
c2o1- and
CHoCOOH + 50
72 For the reaction, AzOaOr-2AOr(g) mL of 0.2 M NaOH

AU = 1.1 kJ, AS = 11 J K-1 at 300 K hence, AG is d. 100 mL of 0.2 M (iv) Acidic,4.28

./ NH4OH + 20 mL of
(1) -2.78kJ (2) -5.s6 kJ
df% 0.1 M HzSO+
(4) 2.78kJ.f,**
(3) 5.56kJ
n w.t
%

73 Given below are two statements: q tr d .dEgiffico€rit oPtion.

Statement I : A mixture of benzoic aciohq&rdm ffilrQ,$tivl,otiiil

-ffi)
solution. & d
benzoate can act as a buffer
a(iI,+{U, c(iii), d(iv)

Statement ll : On 50% neutralisation of Cffaffi ffi ,XaWi b-(lfrd;(ii), d(i)

F {t} Jtiiiufu,&ii), d(i)
with NaOH, pH of the solution is indeOeSffifi n
CHgCooNa concentration. *- ffiu ,SYf e\# monobasic acid HA is 1o-s and
ln the light of the above stat"rrffi \ glpilration of A- is thrice than that of HA. The pH
correct answerTrom me opflons g'ffF - {pe solution is
(1) Both Statement land Statem""t [Link] .ffiy [Link] e) 4.s2

(2) StatementI is correct but Stale$q{tYl

.q is
%Y s.+a1s1 (4) 5.15
incorrect 76. Which among the following salt solutions is most
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is basic in nature?
conect (1) Ammonium acetiate (2) Ammonium cyanide
(4) Both Statement land Statement llare conect (3) Potassium nitrate (4) Calcium cyanide

Space for Rough Work

, Plot-13, , Udyog Vihar, rugram, Haryana- 15

office : AESL, 3rd Floor, ncuspaze
Elra
-corporate
 Test-S (Code-A)

77. The heat required to raise the temperature

of aluminium from 45'C to 65"C is
of 54.0 g
(Molar heat
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

81. The pH of one litre of a buffer solution is 8.26. The

amount of ammonium chloride to be dissolved in
ffi
capacity of Al is 24 J K-1 mol-1) 0.2 M ammonia solution to make one litre of the
(1) e60 J (2) e6 kJ buffer is
(3) 480 J (4) 48 kJ (PKo (NH+OH) = 4.74)
78. The pKu of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are (1) 107 s
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T(K). The pH of (2) 87.5 s
dimethylammonium acetate solution is (3) 72.3 s
(1) 6.25 g\ 126 s
(2) 8.50 82. A solution contains a mixture of Ag* (0.1 M) and
(3) 5.50 HgZ* @.1M) which are to be separated by selective
(4) 7.75 precipitation. The maximum concentration of iodide
79. The percentage of pyridine that forms pyridinium ion ion at which only one of them gets precipitated is
in a 0.20 M aqueous pyridine solution is (Ko for [Given K.p (Agl) = 8.5 x 10-17 , K"p (Hg2l2)
CsHsN ='1./ x'lQ-s) = 2.5 x 10-26)I
(1) 0.006% (1) 8.5 x 10-6 M
(2) 0.0092o/o (2) 5 x,,lQ-ts Y
(3) 0.770/"
(3) 1.7 x 10-4 M
(4\ 0.004o/o r (4) 6;10-sM
83. Given are two statements
80. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Phosphoric acid has more than one I : N, (g) + 3Hz (gh-. 2NH, (g) + heat ;

ionizable proton per molecule of the acid. the equilibrium shifts in backward direction by
Statement ll : lonisation constant Kr., is higher,thafl increasing temperature.
Staterrent Il : Both BFa and CHa molecules behave
K^rfor carbonic acid. ::
as Lewis acid.
ln the light of the above statement-*, cloose the , In the light of above statements, choose the correct
correct answer from the options given below. :r::::,. answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement ll are inconect (1) Both Statement I and Statement ll are incorrect
.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement ll is (2) Statement I is correct but Statement ll is
incorrect incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is
correct correct
(a) Both Statement I and Statement ll are correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement ll are correct

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, plot,- 1 3, Sector-1 8, Udyog Vihar, Gurugra m, Hary ana-12201 S

ldFt.l
ffi All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

84. Match List-lwith List-ll 88. Which

Test-S (Code-A)

of the following expressions is not applicable

to the following hydrolysis equilibrium?
List-l List-ll
(Salt) (Degree of CN- +H2O;-HCN+OH-
hydrolysis)

a CHgCOONa (i) No hydrolysis

(1) Kn=^^&
b NH+Cl (ii )
(2)h=\E
,|

c. NaCl (iii) (3) pH =t -

,(OK^(HCN)+logC)

(4)tH.l=,F
d CHsCOONH+ (iv)
89. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)z is 11. The
value of solubility product (K"p) of Ba(OH)z is
Choose the correct option. (1) 5x 1O-g
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) 5 x 10-to
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (a) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 5 x 1O-z
85 Which of the following solutions will undergo
(4) 5 x 10+
cationic hydrolysis?
(1) Na2CO3 (2) KzSOa 90. Ksp of following salts have been given as
(3) NaCN (4) (NH+)zSOr Salts Ksp
B6 Calculate the pH of 0.05 M (CHaCOO)zCa solution. AgzCrO+ 1.1 x 10-tz
(Given, pK" (CHgCOOHI = 4.74',
10.51 (2) 8.87 AgCl 1.$ x 'lQ-to
(1) *W
(3) 6.42 (4) 13.1e * ffi AgBr 5x 10-13

st. For the equitibrium, NH3 +Hro€fuftFF, Agl 8.3 x 10-rz

the equitibrium constant at 25'C ,r ldentify the salt which will precipitate last if AgNOs
(Given : NH| +HrO-NH4OH+H*W
W "S solution is added to the solution containing equal
.".
*\L*
,*\*o moles of NaCl, NaBr, Nal and NazCrOa.
Kn = 10110)
5.5 x
"';&C'
(1) 1.8 x 1O-4 % (1) AgzCrO+
(2) 1.8 x 104 (2) Asl
(3) 1.8 x 10-5 (3) AsCl
(4) 1.8 x 10-7 (a) AgBr

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, UdYog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana -12201 5

@
 Test-S (Code-A) All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026
ffi
IBoTANYI
91. Select the incorrectly matched pair. 95. Select odd one out w.r.t. imperfect fungi.
(1) Mycoplasma - Resistant towards the (1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum
antibiotics that break (3) Trichoderma (4) Agaricus
the cellwall
96. Match Column-l with Column-ll and select the
(2) Agaricus - Karyogamy followed by
correct option.
meiosis, spores are
produced endogenouslY Column -l Column - Il

(3) Diatoms - Chief producers in the a Viruses (i) Mad cow

ocean disease tn

(4) Lichens - Symbiotic association of cattle

algae and fungi b. Bacteria (i i) Potato
92. Five kingdom classification was given by spindle tuber
disease
(1) Aristotle (2) [Link]
(3) R.H. Whittaker (4) W.M. Stanley c. Viroids (iii ) Mosaic
formation in
93. Read the following statements and select the
plants
correct option.
Statement A: Archaebacteria differ from other d Prions (iv) Citrus canker
bacteria in having a different cellwall structure. (1) ), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
Statement B: Some archaebacteria are capable"of d(iv) (a) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
converting COz, methanol and formic acid into
Read the following Assertion(A) and Reason(R)
methane.
and $elect the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct
Assertion (A) : Viruses did not find a place in the
(2) Only statement B is correct
five kiqgdom classifi cation
(3) Both statements A and B are cone*t ,'
Reasiih (R) : 'Viruses' are not considered truly
(a) Both statements A and B are incorred
. 'living'
94. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t.
smallest prokaryotic cell known?
',, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) They are heterotrophic in nature
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) They can survive without oxygen
correct explanation of (A)
(3) They have peptidoglycan cell membrane
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(a) They are pathogenic to autotrophic organism as
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
well as to heterotrophic organism

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015
qHFTI
ffi
98.
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

Read the following Assertion(A) and Reason(R)

and select the correct option.
(e) lt
Test-S (Code-A)

utilizes the coordinated movement

locomotory structure to steer the food in the
of its

Assertion (A): Both cyanobacteria and higher cavity found in the body.
plants perform oxygenic photosynthesis. (1) (b), (c) and (d) only
Reason (R) : Cyanobacteria have most of the (2) (a), (c) and (e) only
pigments identical to higher plants.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) (b), (d) and (e) only

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 100. State True(T) or False(F) and select the correct
correct explanation of (A) option.

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) During unfavourable conditions, the
plasmodium of slime moulds differentiates and
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips.
99. Observe the following diagram:
(B) Rhizopus commonly known as bread mould,
produces asexual spore called zygospore.
(C) Puccinia asexually reproduce by conidia.

lA B c
(1)l r F F

"d (2)
I r F T

(3)
- IF F T

(4) T T
]
ldentify the above organism and select the correct
statements for it. 101. Read the following statements(A-D).

(a) lt is an actively moving organism. (A) All the members of ascomycetes sexually
reproduce by ascospores formed in ascocarp.
(b) lt captures its prey with the help of pS'euOopoOia
(B) White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to
(c) According to R.H. Whittaker's classffication
a fungus that have coenocytic mycelium.
system, it is placed in the same kingdom in
which Chlorel/a is placed. (C) Protozoans are found only in fresh water.

(d) lt possesses cell wall having stiff cellulose (D) Dinoflagellates are mostly fresh water
plates on the outer surface. organisms and float actively in water.

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

',lrFA
 Test-S (Code-A) All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

ln the light of above statements select the correct 106. ln which of the following type of aestivation, margin
statement(s) from the options given below. of petals or sepals overlap one another but not in
(1) any particular direction?
only (B)
(2) only (B) and (C) (1) Valvate (2) Twisted
(3) only (A) and (D) (3) lmbricate (4) Vexillary
(4) only (C) and (D) 107. Match Column-l with Column-ll and select the
correct option.
102. Select odd one out w.r.t. plants showing racemose
inflorescence. Column-l Columnll
(1) Belladonna (2) Trifolium (Gohesion of (Plant)
(3) Sweet pea (4) Sesbania stamens)
103. ldentify the incorrectly matched pair. a. Monoadelphous (i) Citrus
(1) Zygomorphic flower Pea
b Diadelphous (ii) Mustard
(2) Perigynous flower Rose
c Polyadelphous (iii ) Pea
(3) Twisted aestivation of Cotton
petals d. Polyandrous (iv) China rose

(4) Flowers have bilateral Ashwagandha (1 b(iii), c(i),d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
symmetry b(iv), c(i ),dl(ii) (a) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
104. Which of the following statement is not corqgf w.r.t 108. featu some fungi in below given table
regions of the root? suitable option for A-F
(1 ) The apex of the root is covered by a thffile
llke
Puffball Colletotrichum
Mucor Aspergillus
structure which is multicellular and is made up
of parenchymatous cells t I Coenocytic A Septate Septate

(2) Some epidermal cells from the

elongation form very fine and del Fruiting Asc,ocarp Basidiocarp B
body
like structures
(3) The cells proximal to the meristematic reg Sexual c Meiospore Basidiospore D
Spore
towards the base of the ste m are responsible
the growth of roots in length Asexual Non motile Conidia E F
spore
(4) The layer which is few millimetre above the root
cap divide repeatedly to produce newcells (1) A-Coenocytic, D-Meiospore, F-Motile
105. Select odd one out w.r.t. alternate phyllotaxy. (2) B-Oospore, D-Absent, F-Conidia
(1) China rose (2) Solanum (3) B- Absent, C-Present, E-Absent
(3) Calotropis (4) Sunflower (4) A-Septate, B-Absent, F-Sporangiospore

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

@
ffi All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

109. Read the following statements. Select the correct ones:

Test-S (Code-A)

(A) Flower bisexual and zygomorphic (1) (b), (c) and (e) only
(B) Petals five, persistent and with valvate (2) (a) and (b) only
aestivation (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(C) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary and (4) (c) only
axile placentation 1 13. Placentation that is found in marigold is
(D) Fruit type capsule or berry (1) Axile (2) Parietat
(E) Stem glabrous or hairy (3) Free central (4) Basat
How many of the above features are true for the 114. Which of the following statements is true for both
plant family to which tobacco belongs? mango and coconut?
(1) 4 (2) 2 (1) They have fleshy edible mesocarp
(3) 3 (4) 5 (2) Pericarp is not wetl differentiated
110. The arrangements of veins and veinlets in the (3) They develop from monocarpellary superior
lamina or leaf blade is termed as ovaries
(1) Placentation (a) They have outer stony hard epicarp
(2) Phyllotaxy 1 15. ldentify the correct symbol that represent
(3) Venation epipetalous stamens.
(4) lnflorescence ^.
11'1. All are functions of roots, except
(1) Absorption of water and minerals from soil
(2) Provide anchorage to the plant parts (3)

(3) Synthesis of plant groMh regutators (a) A,r

116. Which of the following statements is correct for
(4) Bears and support leaves, flowers and fruits
dinoflaggllates?
112.|n which of the following aspects mustard:,air:td;
(1) Thery/ havea protein rich layer called pellicle as
Sol an u m shows similarity?
outer covering of body which make their body
(a) Phyllotaxy
flexible.
(b) Floralsymmetry (2) The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the
(c) Type of flower based on position of gynoecium outer surface
w.r.t. other floral whorls (3) ln absence of sunlight, they behave like
(d) Type of placentation heterotrophs
(e) Variation in the length of filament of stamens of (a) They are microscopic and float passively in
a flower water current

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office ; AESL ,3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

llilFji|
 Test-S (Code-A)

1 17. Multicellular organism with loose tissue body

organisation having heterotrophic mode of nutrition
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

A B c
ffi
D
I

is (1 ) T T F F

(1) Plantae (2) Fungi

(2) F F T T
(3) Monera (4) Protista
(3) T F F T
118. Which of the following pair of fungi called smut and
rust fungi respectively? (4) T T
T F
(1) Agaricus and Usf/ago
(2) Ustilago and Neurospora 122. Malch Column-! with Column-ll and select the
correct option.
(3\ Ustilago and Puccinia
(4) Puccinia and Ustilago Column-l Golumn-ll
119. All are sexual spores, except a Leaf base (i) Ashwagandha
(1) Oospores (2) Ascospores become swollen
(3) Basidiospores (4) Conidia
b Tricarpellary and (ii ) Argemone.
120. Read the following statements and select the
syncarpous
correct option.
gynoecium
Statement A: W.M. Stanley showed that viruses
could be crystallised and crystals consist lql,gqly of c. Frasence of (iii) Asparagus
proteins. persistent
Statement B: Viruses are obligate parasites. outermost whorl
(1) Only statement A is correct of the flower and
swollen placenta
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct d The ovules (iv) Pea
() Both statements A and B are incqryect develop on the
121. State True(T) or False(F) and select the ihher wall of the
option. ovary or
peripheral part
(A) A sterile stamen is called staminode.
(B) Stamens are attached to the petals in lily. (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(C) Epiphyllous stamens and persistent calyx are
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
seen in brinjal.
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(D) Petals are usually brightly coloured to attract
insects for pollination. (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

ldDa
ffi
123.
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

A large shield shaped cotyledon found in maize

seeds is known as
Test-S (Code-A)

ln the light of above statements, select the correct

option.
(1) Micropyle (2) Scutellum (1) (b), (c) and (f) only (2) Allexcept (d)
(3) Epiblast (4) Tegmen (3) (b), (e) and (g) only (4) (b) and (e) only
124. Select odd one out w.r.t. non-endospermic seeds. 128. How many statements are correct w.r.t. member of
(1) Castor Monera?
(2) Pea (A) Bacteria reproduce sexually by adopting a
primitive type of DNA transfer
(3) Bean
(4) Gram (B) Eubacteria such as cyanobacteria are
characterised by presence of a rigid cell wall
125. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
and if motile, a flagellum
Types of Example (C) Some of the cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric
Placentation nitrogen in specialised wall less cells called
heterocyst
(1) Marginal Pea (D) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise
(2) Axile
various inorganic substances such as nitrates,
Primrose
nitrites and ammonia
(3) Basal Sunflower
ffi ic bacteria are helpful in making
milk and fixing nitrogen in legume
(4) Free central Dianthus
(2) 4
126. Choose the odd one w.r.t. modification of m (4) 5
(1 ) Tendril of watermelon
(2) Tuber of potato
(3) Thorn of citrus
tl 129. ln six kingdom classification, how many kingdoms
have organ isms with autotrophic mode of nutrition?
r.2ft)'fivg4fb F (2) rwo
(4) Spine of cactus ,Sol E*F (4) rhree
127. Mustard and China rose show U:ffi-efi) or False(F) and select the conect
(a) Placentation
(b) Floralsymmetry
(c) Adhesion of stamen
tr (A) lnfectious agents discovered by T.O. Diener are
devoid of DNA.
(B) According to R.H. Whittaker, heterotrophs with
(d) Aestivation of corolla
tissue/organ/organ system level of body
(e) Union of carpels organisation have higher orders of complexity
(f) Type of fruit than the multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall
(g) Number of carpels made of chitin.

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

20t28
 Test-S (Code-A)

(C) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and

All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

133. Choose the correct match.

ffi I

LSD.
(1) Testa The inner protective
(D) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding covering of seed
structures in sporozoans.
(2) Hilum Scar on the seed coat
A B c D through which
developing seeds are
(1) T F F T attached to the fruit

(2) T T T F (3) Coleoptile Sheath enclosing

radicle in monocot seed
(3) F F T T
(4) Aleurone Outer covering of
(4) T F T F
layer embryo that separates
the endosperm from a
proteinaceous layer

131. Guava, Peach, Cucumber, ray florets of 134. Read the statements (A-D) and select the correct
Sunflower, rose, grass, onion, Tulip, Mulaithi, option.
Belladonna, Petunia, Tobacco, Chilli, A/oe, (A) All protozoans are heterotrophic and live as
China rose, Mustard, Plum or parasites

rt}
How many of the above given plants superior protozoans have silica shells on
ovary?
(1) 15 (2) 11 possess thousands of cilia for
in their freshwater habitat.
(3) 10 (4) 12
have an infectious spore like stage
132.|n tomato
in their life cycle.
(a) Petals show valvate aestivation (1) Only,:{A), (B) and (D) are correct
(b) Ovary is bilocular (2) Oh$l(C) and (D) are correct
(c) Stamens are epiphyllous (3) Onli (A)and (D) are correct
(d) Placenta is present at periphery .* (4) Only (B) and (D) are correct
ln the light of above statements se correct 1 35. Pinnately compound leaves can have all the
option. following features, except
(1) Only (a) and (d) are true (1) Leaflets are attached to rachis
(2) Only (a) and (b) are true (2) Possess a bud in its axil
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are true (3) Leaflets may be attached at the tip of petiole
(4) (a), (b) and (d)are true (4) Stipules may be present at the base of leaf

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Cam pus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

iflFF
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

lzooLoGYI
136. Which among the following is not a secretion of 140. ln humans, how many of the substances mentioned
sweat glands? in the box below are present in glomerular blood but
(1) Urea (2) Lacticacid absent in fluid present in lumen of Bowman's
capsule, under normal conditions?
(3) NaCl (4) Hydrocarbons
137. ln counter current mechanism, NaCl is transported Na*, Glucose, Globulin, Fibrinogens, K*, H*
by the ascending limb of Henle's loop which is Choose the correct option.
exchanged with the
(1) One (2) Five
(1) Descending limb of vasa recta
(3) Two (4) Four
(2) Ascending limb of vasa recta
141. Select the correct option to complete the analogy
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop w.r.t. osmolarity of glomerular filtrate in different
(4) Collecting duct parts of nephrons in human.
138. In humans, the ascending limb of loop of Henle is Descending limb of loop of Henle: Hypertonic to
to water but allows transport of electrolytes blood plasma ::

Proximal convoluted tubule: to blood

Select the correct option to fill in the respective plasma
blanks. (1) lsotonic
(1) lmpermeable, actively or passively (2) Hypotonic
(2) lmpermeable, only actively {3) Hypertonic
e3
(3) Permeable, only passively ._. (4) lnitially hypertonic then hypotonic
(4) Permeable, only actively rffi Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. human excretory
139. Assertion (A): Decrease in GFR can activate the system.
JG cells to release renin. (1) current
Counter Henle's loop and
Reason (R): Renin can inhibit the glomerular blood mechanism vasa recta
flow and thereby bring the GFR back to the normal (2) Descending Completely
by decreasing glomerular blood pressure. limb of loop of impermeable to
ln the light of above statements, select the correct Henle electrolytes
option.
(3) Distal Osmolarity of
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the convoluted filtrate may be
correct explanation of (A) tubule less than 300
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct mOsmolL-1
explanation of (A) (4) Bowman's Contains
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false capsule epithelial cells
(4) Both (A) and (R)are false called podocytes

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-1 8, Udyog Vihar, Gu rugram, Hary ana-1 2201 5

irrFil
 Test-S (Code-A) All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

143. The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight 147. Which of the following is associated with the
tube called collecting duct, many of which converge disorder caused due to hyposecretion of ADH?
and open into the _ through medullary pyramids (1) Hyperglycemia
in the calyces.
(2) Uremia
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(3) Diuresis
(1) Ureter (2) Renalcortex (4) Ketonuria
(3) Renal pelvis (4) Renalcolumn 148. Select the correct match.
144. Conditional reabsorption of Na* and water takes
place in
(1) Planaria Green glands

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Pheretima Protonephridia

(2) Distal convoluted tubule (3) Periplaneta Malpighian

(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle tubules
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (4) Palaemon Nephridia
145. Which of the factors listed below are responsible for 149. During the process of haemodialysis in humans, the
concentration of glomerular filtrate in juxtamed ullary blood is usually drained from
nephron? (1) Any convenient blood vessel which carries
a. The proximity between the Henle's loop and ., deoxygenated blood from heart
vasa recta (2) A,convenient artery which carries oxygenated
b. Flow of filtrate in opposite direction in limb* of . blood
loop of Henle '1$1:[Link]
c. Long length of loop of Henle (4),Pulmonary artery
d. lncreasing osmolarity from inner 150. Select the odd one w.r.t. nitrogenous excretory
interstitium to renal cortex waSte. 'j:ri::,

Choose the correct option. (1) Land snails

(1) a, b, conly (2) b,c,donly (2) Mammals
(3) c, d only (4) a, c, O,?,ft, ,($,,.Many terrestrial amphibians
146. ln a hypothetical situation, the loop of Henle are ($ Uarine fishes
removed from all the juxtamedullary nephrons of 151. Consider the following pulmonary volumes and
human kidneys. This will lead to capacities
(1) No urine formation a. VC=TLC-RV
(2) Production of more diluted urine b. lC = TLC - FRC
(3) Production of more concentrated urine c. FRC = ERV + RV
(a) No change in osmolarity of urine d. TLC=RV+TV
Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office: AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Ca mpus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

iFra
I
ffi All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

Which of the above representations are correct? Select the correct option.
Test-S (Code-A)

(1) a, b and c only (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(2) bandconly (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) b, c and d only
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) aandconly
'152. Assertion (A): There is a negative pressure in the (a) aO, b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure during 154. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. humans.
inspiration.
(1) Normalexpiration is a passive process.
Reason (R): During inspiration, increase in the
volume of thoracic chamber decreases the (2) lnspiration is an active process.
intra-pulmonary pressure to less than the
atmospheric pressure.
(3) Thoracic chamber is laterally formed by
diaphragm
ln the light of above statements, select the correct
option w.r.t. humans. (4) We cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 155. All of the following sets of respiratory volumes and
explanation of (A) capacities can be directly measured by a simple
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the spirometer, except
correct explanation of (A)
(1) rRV, ERV
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
h..1 (2) EC, TV, rRV
(3) vc, rc
153. Match column I and column ll w.r.t. respiratory
volumes in an adult human under normalconditions (4) FRC, TLC
Column I Column ll
156. Consider the given reaction
a. Respiratory (i) 1000-1 100
minute mL Hro + Co, ;-l!-Hrco, -I-nco. * n.
volume \ Select the incorrect option w.r.t. enzyme 'X'
b. Expiratory (ii ) 1 I 00-1200 tX' belongs to the class lV of enzymes
reserve mL
volume 'X' facilitates the above reaction in forward
direction in tissue
c. Residual (iii) 6000-8000
volume mL (3) 'X' facilitates the above reaction in backward
(iv) 2500-3000 direction in alveoli
d lnspiratory
reserve mL (4) 'X' is abundantly present in RBCs as well as in
volume WBCs

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-1 3, Sector- 1 8, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana"l22O15

@
 Test-S (Code-A)

157. lncomplete cartilaginous rings are absent in all of

the following structures w.r.t. human respiratory
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026
ffi
160. Choose the option that correctly represents the path
of air flow in respiratory passage of humans during
system, except inspiration.
('l) lnitial bronchiole (1) Nasal chamber -+ Pharynx -+ Larynx -)
(2) Terminal bronchiole Trachea -+ Bronchi -r Terminal bronchioles -+
Alveoli
(3) Alveoli
(4) Alveolar ducts (2) Nasal chamber -+ Larynx -+ Trachea -+
Pharynx -+ Bronchi -+ Terminal bronchioles -+
158. Consider the following statements and select the
Alveoli
correct option.
(3) Nasal chamber -+ Trachea -+ Pharynx -+
Statement (A): Breathing is defined as intake of Oz
Larynx -+ Bronchi -+ Terminal bronchioles -+
rich air and removal of COz rich air.
Alveoli
Statement (B): Cellular respiration is defined as
oxidation of food to form COz, HzO and energy.
(4) Nasal chamber -) Trachea -+ Larynx
+ Pharynx -+ Bronchi -+ Terminal bronchioles
Select the correct option.
-+ Alveoli
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
161. Peripheral chemoreceptors that help in regulation of
(2) only statement (A) is correct breathing are present in
,. ::,;i.:,

(3) Only statement (B) is correct (a) Aortic arch

(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incor@., (b) Carotid artery
159. Assertion (A): ln adult humans, vendlsblibd has (c) Medulla oblongata
low pH as compared to arterial blood, €)$rept in
Choose the correct option
pulmonary vein.
(1) (a) only ,,.
Reason (R): Venous blood has more COz
concentration as compared to arteria t Otooffimifi (2) (b)only
in pulmonary vein. &* ffi;ffi= (3) (a) and (b) only
or above statements' (4) (a) and (c) only
:iff"]'t" ffi 162. All of the following are observed during inspiration
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (Rm; Sedt r,,: in a healthy adult human under strenuous condition,
explanation of (A) 'ri"
,,'[Link] except
*not
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (Rffi the (1) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
conect explanation of (A) (2) Contraction of internal inter-costal muscles
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) lncrease in volume of thoracic chamber
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Contraction of diaphragm
Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-1 3, Sector-1 8, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-12201 S

jga
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

163. ln a healthy adult man, the partial pressure of COz Statement (B): Rate of diffusion of gases depends
in systemic artery is same as the partial pressure of only on thickness of diffusion membrane and not on
(1) Oxygen in blood drained by superiorvena cava the solubility of the gases.
(2) COz in blood drained by inferior vena cava Select the correct option.

(3) COz in tissues

(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(4) Oxygen in atmospheric air
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
164. What is the approximate partial pressure of oxygen (3) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(in mm Hg) when haemoglobin is 50% saturated (4) Only statement (A) is correct
with oxygen in a healthy adult human? 168. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. humans.
(1) 25-30 (2) 40-50 (1) Reverse ratio of heart beat rate per minute is
(3) 50-60 (4) 60-70 duration of a cardiac cycle
165. Select the correct set of favourable conditions (2) Eosinophils have bilobed nucleus
required for the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin at (3) Megakaryocytes are precursors of thrombocytes
the tissue level in a healthy adult human.
(4) All leucocytes generally live for a longer duration
(1) Low pOz, high pCOz, high H+ and high
than erythrocytes
temperature
169. lf the cardiac output of a person is 7.2 L/min, end
(2) High pOz, high pCOz, high H* and high
diastolic volume of left ventricle is 150 mL and end
temperature
syatoliO volurne of left ventricle is 50 mL, then what
(3) Low pOz, low pCOz, low H* and low temperature is tfre heart rate of this person?
(4) High pOz,low pCOz, low H'and lowtemperature ','t1l' 72 beats per minute
166. A healthy adult human has 'X' grams of
' {2, 80 beats per minute
haemoglobin in every 100 mL of blood. Numerically
'X' is equalto
' (4) 100 beats per minute
(1) Percentage of neutrophils in total leucocyte
count 170. Consider the given features.
(2) Percentage of plasma protein a. Tunica media is thicker in them as compared to
(3) Percentage of monocytes in total leucocyte arteries
count ,, b Their lumen is narrower as compared to arteries
(4) Respiratory rate in healthy adult human during c. They always carry blood towards the heart
normalcondition d. They always carry deoxygenated blood
167. Consider the given statements. How many of the above given feature(s) is/are
Statement (A): Exchange of Oz and COz between correct w.r.t. veins?
blood and tissues is mainly based on their (1) One (2) Two
pressure/concentration gradients. (3) Three (4) Four
Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015
iEtFF
 Test-S (Gode-A)

171. All of the following play a role in mechanism of blood

coagulation in humans, except
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026

176. Which of the following occurs during atrial systole?

ffi
(A) 'Dub' heart sound is produced due to closure of
(1) Thrombokinase (2) Fibrinogen semilunar valves
(3) Prothrombin (4) Serotonin (B) lncreased flow of blood into ventricles by about
172. ln human heart, atrium and ventricle of same side 30 per cent
are separated by the (C) 'Lub' heart sound is produced due to the closure
(1) Thin elastic tissue of atrio-ventricular valves

(2) Thick fibrous tissue (D)'Lub' heart sound is produced due to the
opening of atrio-ventricular valves
(3) Thin cartilaginous tissue
Select the correct option.
(4) Thick cartilaginous tissue
(1) (A) and (B) (2) only (B)
173. A person with AB*'" blood group can accept blood (3) (c) and (D) (a) only (D)
from persons with AB-'" blood group and other
groups because he/she has 177. Select the blood vessel among the following in
which blood flows with maximum pressure.
(1) No antibodies corresponding to any blood group
(1) Pulmonary vein (2) Renal vein
antigens in his/her blood plasma
(3) Hepatic vein (4) Coronary artery
(2) No antigen on his/her RBC
178. columns w.r.t. disorders of circulatory
(3) Anti-A, Anti-B antibodies in his/her plasma
(4) Antibody against Rh antigen
Column I Column ll
174. Plasma without clotting factors has
(1) Antibodies (2) RBCs d- Coronary (i) Heart stops
artery beating
(3) WBCs (4) Platelets
disease
175. A student was studying about an organ that
blood and another organ that stores b. Angina (ii) Congestion of
humans. Which of the following lungs

(1) Former is characterised by Heart failure (iii) Acute chest

nodaltissue pain
(2) Latter is characterised by the presence of d Cardiac (iv) Atherosclerosis
fusiform muscle fibres arrest
(3) Former has branched muscle fibres
Select the correct option
(4) Latter is characterised by muscle fibres which
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
show striated appearance when viewed under
the microscope (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (a) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, P lot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015

inat
 All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2026 Test-S (Code-A)

179. An athlete went for routine medical examination. lt 180. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein can be
was observed by doctor that his heart rate is around differentiated from one another on the basis of all of
66 beats/min at rest. The most possible reason the following facts, except
behind this is (1) Partial pressure of Oe
(1) Greater stroke volume (2) The blood they carry is oxygenated or
(2) Hypertension deoxygenated
(3) Lower stroke volume (3) Number of layers in their walls
(4) Atherosclerosis () Partial pressure of COz

tr tr tr

Space for Rough Work

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, lncuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122015
a*a
 For Answers & Solutions
Please visit our website: [Link]
iu

\
,-i
Lc-al
[ ,6iE, I

t$'l
M
 @
Aakash
Medical I llT-IEE I toundations

mffisHr[1rs N I I I

I I
I I I I I
EIIPETI IE[8HER$

ilRS
HARSH KEDAWAI
IIR
:

KRISHANG JOSHI
E
r
m
UTKARSH AWADHIYA
2 [IR
AVIKA AGGARWAL
AIR
AARAV AGNAWAL
I YEAa CUSSROOM I'ltDf,.ll lmlB3f, ltlDEI 3 YEAA CU$nOOU r YilB CUSSnOOM
3 YEAR CLASSBOOM 3 YEAF CLASSROOM rErimr:??rr:n:r::l
)
ouR NATTONAL TOPPERS rN NEET (UG) 20.25

ll tr
AIR Arn

Ar6h cnndhi Rupayoa Pol Gdrdv Ydddv

$r,:*';xxl I [Link] Cld.s@m 3 Y6. ClolBrM

Sdronrh Mlltdl
69

f
I
E
Affin 8€ry [Link](our Aryiro I
J{*m;*s E
d

Download Aakash App CALI ([Link]) Visit our website:

@r1. r I
I
r800 -la2-2727
I
[Link]