21-09-2025

1803CMD303029250062 MD

PHYSICS

1) A car is moving on a circular road of radius 100m. At some instant its speed is 20 m/s and is
increasing at the rate of 3 m/s2. The magnitude of its acceleration is

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

2) For a particle performing uniform circular motion, choose the incorrect statement from the
following.

(1) Magnitude of particle velocity (speed) remains constant.

(2) Particle velocity remains directed perpendicular to radius vector.
(3) Direction of acceleration keeps changing as particle moves.
(4) Magnitude of acceleration does not remain constant.

3) Find the maximum speed at which a vehicle can turn round a curve of 20 m radius on a level road
μs = 0.5:-

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

4) A particle of mass m is attached to a string of length L and given velocity in the horizontal
direction at the lowest point. Find tension in the string when the particle is at the highest position

(1) 4 mg
(2) 5 mg
(3) 11 mg
(4) 8 mg

5) A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The tensions in the string when passing through two
positions at angles 30° and 60° from vertical (lowest position) are T1 and T2 respectively, then :-

(1) T1 = T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 > T2
(4) Tension in the string always remains the same
6) In the given arrangement, there is no friction any where. Pulley and string are ideal. Acceleration
due to gravity is 10 m/s2 downward. Find out total work done by gravity in 2 sec, if system starts

from rest.

(1) 100 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 200 J
(4) 800 J

7) A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes displacement in it given by S = meters

where t is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is :-

(1) 12 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 3 J

8) A car of mass m has an engine which can deliver power P. The minimum time t in which car can
be accelerated from rest to a speed v is :-

(1)

(2) Pmv2
(3) 2Pmv2

(4)

9) The potential energy- position graph of a particle is shown in figure. Then particle :-

(1) is in stable equilibrium at x1

(2) is in stable equilibrium at x2
(3) is in unstable equilibrium at x2
(4) is in stable equilibrium at x3
10) Two moving particle P and Q are 10 m apart at a certain instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s
making an angle 30° with the joining P and Q and that of Q is 6 m/s making an angle 30° with PQ as
shown in the figure. Then angular velocity of P with respect to Q is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 0.1 rad/sec
(3) 0.4 rad/sec
(4) 0.7 rad/sec

11) A force is acting on a particle, the work done by this force in displacing
the body from (1, 2, 3) m to (3, 6, 1) m :-

(1) –10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 1 J

12) A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a smooth table such that a length of 50 cm hangs freely
from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the
entire chain slowly on the table :-

(1) 7.2 J
(2) 2.5 J
(3) 120 J
(4) 1200 J

13) Power due to a force acting on a block varies with time t as shown in figure. Then angle between

force acting on the block and its velocity is :-

(1) Obtuse at t = 1s
(2) 90° at t = 3s
(3) Acute at t = 7s
(4) 90° at t = 6s

14) Blocks A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal surface given equal speeds of 2 m/s in
opposite sense as shown in the figure. At t = 0 the position of
blocks are shown, then the co-ordinates of center of mass at t = 3s will be :-

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (3, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) (2.25, 0)

15) Find the maximum compression :

(Initially spring is in natural length)

(1)
m

(2)
m

(3)
m
(4) None of these

16) Two balls of equal mass have a head on collision with speed 4 m/s each travelling in opposite
directions. If the coefficient of restitution is 1/2, the speed of each ball after impact will be :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) data insufficient

17) One particle of mass m is at origin and second particle of mass 2m is at the point (3, 3) then co-
ordinate of centre of mass will be :-

(1) (1, 1)
(2) (2, 2)
(3) (3, 3)
(4) None of these

18) A ball is dropped on a horizontal floor from a height h = 50 m. The ball rebounds to a height of
32 m. The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is :

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.64
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.36

19) A particle of mass m is tied to a light string of length L and moving in a horizontal circle of

radius r with speed v as shown. The force acting on the particle are :-

(1) mg and T

(2)
mg, T, directed inwards

(3)
mg, T, directed outwards

(4)
only

20) Two particles of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are approaching towards each other with accelerations of
1 m/s2 and 2 m/s2 respectively, on a smooth horizontal surface. Find the magnitude of acceleration of
centre of mass of the system.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the
mutual attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t =1 s is :-

(1) x = 5 m
(2) x = 6 m
(3) x = 3 m
(4) x = 2 m

22) The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides the distance between them

(1) In inverse ratio of square of masses of particles

(2) In direct ratio of square of masses of particles
(3) In inverse ratio of masses of particles
(4) In direct ratio of masses of particles

23) For the system shown in the figure the acceleration of centre of mass is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If the block shown in the figure is in equilibrium, under the action of an external force. Then

choose the correct free body diagram of the block :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

25) Figure shows a thin metallic triangular sheet ABC. The mass of the sheet is M. The moment of

inertia of the sheet about side AC is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)

A particle is moving along a straight line with increasing speed. Its angular momentum about a fixed
point on this line :

(1) Goes on increasing

(2) Goes on decreasing
(3) May be increasing or decreasing depending on direction of motion
(4) Remains zero

27) Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and I2 about their respective axes, rotating with angular
frequencies ω1 and ω2 respectively, are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation
coincident. The angular frequency of the composite disc will be A

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A wheel of radius 10cm. can rotate freely about its centre as shown in fig. A string is wrapped
over its rim and is pulled by a force of 5.0N. It is found that the torque produces an angular
acceleration 2.0 rad/s2 in the wheel. What will be the moment of inertia of the wheel:-

(1) 0.25 kg-m2

(2) 1.35 kg-m2
(3) 2.54 kg-m2
(4) 3.25 kg-m2

29) A disc rolls on a table. The ratio of its KE of rotation to the total KE is :-

(1) 2/5
(2) 1/3
(3) 5/6
(4) 2/3

30) A dancer (gymnast) is taking turns with her arms and legs stretched. When she pulls her arms
and legs in :-

(1) The angular velocity decreases

(2) Her moment of inertia decreases
(3) The angular velocity stays constant
(4) The angular momentum increases

31) A particle having mass m is projected with a velocity from a point P on a horizontal ground
making an angle with horizontal. Find out the torque of the weight about the point of projection

acting on the particle when it is at its maximum height?

(1) 0
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If the apparent weight of the bodies at the equator is to be zero, then the earth should rotate
with angular velocity

(1)
rad/sec

(2)
rad/sec

(3)
rad/sec

(4)
rad/sec

33) The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is thrice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A

to B then :-
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 3t2

34) There is no atmosphere on moon as :-

(1) it is closer to earth.

(2) it revolves around the earth
(3) it gets light from the sun.
(4) The rms speed of gas molecules is greater than the escape speed.

35) Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the gravitational field (I)
with the distance (r) from the centre of spherical shell of mass M and radius a :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) If a graph is plotted between T2 and r3 for a planet, then its slope will be___

(1)

(2)

(3) 4πGM
(4)

37) If Kinetic energy of satellite in a circular orbit is E then its potential energy is :-

(1) – E

(2)

(3) –2E
(4) 2E

38)

A sample of metal weight 210 gm in air, 180 gm in water and 120 gm in liquid. The relative density
(RD) of :-

(1) Metal is 3
(2) Metal is 7
(3) Liquid is 7
(4) Liquid is 5

39) Water falls from a tap, down the streamline :

(1) Area decreases

(2) Area increases
(3) Velocity remains same
(4) Area remains same

40) A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in figure. Wire CD can slide without friction.
Maximum value of mass that can be hanged from CD without breaking the liquid film is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) T × ℓ

41) A and B are two wires made from same material. The radius of A is twice that of B. They are
stretched by the same load. Then, the stress on B is :-

(1) equal to that on A

(2) four times that on A
(3) two times that on A
(4) half that on A

42) A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.5 is submerged at a depth of 1.2 m in a vessel filled
with water. The vessel is accelerated upward with an acceleration of a = g/2. Time taken by block to
reach the surface is (g = 10 m/s2) -

(1) 0.6 sec

(2) 0.4 sec
(3) 1.2 sec
(4) 1 sec

43) A ring of area 0.04 m2 is dipped into soap solution and taken out with soap film formed inside.
Then surface energy is : (Surface tension T = 0.075 N/m)

(1) 6 mJ
(2) 3 mJ
(3) 0.15 mJ
(4) 0.08 mJ

44) If Young's modulus of a substance is 3.84 × 109 N/m2 and coefficient of rigidity is 1.6 × 109 N/m2,
then poission ratio will be :

(1) 0.18
(2) 0.23
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.12

45) A bar is subjected to equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure. PQ is plane making angle
θ with the cross-section of the bar. If the area of cross-section be 'a', then what is the tensile stress

on PQ ?

(1) F/a
(2) F cos θ/a

(3)

(4) F/a cos θ

CHEMISTRY

1) Correct match :-
 Mixture Purification technique
(A) Chloroform & aniline (P) Distillation
(B) Glycerol & Spentlye (Q) Chromatography
(C) Aniline & Water (R) Steam distillation
(D) Amino Acid (S) Distillation under reduced pressure
(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S
(2) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q
(3) A–P, B–R, C–S, D–Q
(4) A–R, B–S, C–P, D–Q

2) The internal energy changes when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system
goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be
the net change in internal energy?

(1) < 40 kJ
(2) Zero
(3) 40 kJ
(4) > 40 kJ

3) If work done by the system is 300 joule when 100 cal heat is supplied to it. The change in internal
energy during the process is:-

(1) –200 joule

(2) 400 joule
(3) 720 joule
(4) 120 joule

4) Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and density (IV), intensive properties are

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, III, IV
(4) All of these

5) Which of the following statements/relationships is not correct in thermodynamics changes?

(1)
(isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas)
(2) For a system at constant volume, heat involved merely changes to internal energy change

(3)
(isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas)
(4) ΔU = 0 (isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas)

6) Which of the following reaction defines ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) ΔH = + x kJ
ΔH = + y kJ
The enthalpy of formation of NO is

(1) (2x – 2y) kJ/mol

(2) (x – y) kJ/mol

(3)

(4)

8) Given:

(1)

(2)

The molar enthalpy of vaporisation of water will be:-

(1) 241.8 kJ mol–1

(2) 527.7 kJ mol–1
(3) 44.1 kJ mol–1
(4) 22.0 kJ mol–1

9) In which of the following electronic configuration, ionization energy will be maximum in

(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p1

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p5

10) Electron affinities of O, F, S and Cl are in the order

(1) O < S < Cl < F

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F
(4) S < O < F < Cl

11) Which one is not correct order of electronegativity

(1) F > Cl > Br > I
(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(3) Cl > S > P > Si
(4) None of these

12)

Choose the s-block element from the following:

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1

(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1
(4) All of the above

13) In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of
5s2 5p4 correspond to the element present in:

(1) Group 16 and period 5

(2) Group 17 and period 6
(3) Group 17 and period 5
(4) Group 16 and period 6

14) The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are):

(1) Cr2O3, SiO2, SnO, PbO

(2) NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2
(3) Cr2O3, BeO, SnO, SnO2
(4) ZnO, Al2O3, PbO, N2O

15)

In the following compound , the C2–C3 bond is of the type:

(1) sp–sp2
(2) sp3–sp3
(3) sp–sp3
(4) sp2–sp3

16) When 2s–2s, 2p–2p and 2p–2s orbitals overlap, the bond strength decreases in the order:

(1) p – p > s – s > p – s

(2) p – p > p – s > s – s
(3) s – s > p – p > p – s
(4) s – s > p – s > p – p
17) 0.24 g of the organic substance was Kjeldahlised and the ammonia formed was absorbed is 50
mL of 0.25 N H2SO4. The excess of acid required 77.0 mL of 0.1 N NaOH for complete
neutralisation. Find percentage of Nitrogen in the sample :

(1) 28%
(2) 56%
(3) 18%
(4) 52%

18) Statement-I: Octet rule does not account for the shape of molecule
Statement-II: Hydrogen atom never follow octet rule.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect

19) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II
(Species) (Bond order)

(A) NO (i) 1.5

(B) CO (ii) 2.0

(C) O2– (iii) 2.5

(D O2 (iv) 3.0

A B C D

1 ii i iv iii

2 i ii iii iv

3 iv iii i ii

4 iii iv i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Diagonal hybridisation is the another name of

(1) sp3 hybridisation

(2) sp2 hybridisation
(3) sp-hybridisation
(4) sp3d3 hybridisation
21) Predict the correct order of the repulsions among the following:-

(1) lone pair-lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(2) lone pair-lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(3) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair-lone pair
(4) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair-lone pair

22) Consider the reaction at 300 K

ΔH = –185kJ/mol
Calculate ΔU if 3 mole of H2 completely react with 3 mole of Cl2 to form HCl.

(1) 0
(2) –185 kJ
(3) 555 kJ
(4) –555 kJ

23) Assertion (A) : AgCl is more covalent than NaCl.

Reason (R) : Polarizing power of Ag+ is greater than Na+ ion.

(1) If both assertion and reason are false.

(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) If Assertion is true but reason is false.

24) The correct order of atomic or ionic size

(1) N < Li < B

(2) Cl < Mg < Ca
(3) Ca+2 < S–2 < Cl–
(4) Na+ < Mg+2 < Cl–

25) The correct order of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F is:

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) O > N > F > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(4) F > O > N > C

26) The process requires absorption of energy is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Match the column:

 Column-I Oolumn-II

(A) Cl (P) Metal

Highest negative
(B) F (Q) electron gain
enthalpy

Most
(C) Cu (R) electronegative
element

Highest ionization
(D) He (S)
energy
(1) A - P, B - Q, C-R, D-S
(2) A - Q, B - R, C-P, D-S
(3) A - R, B - S, C-S, D-P
(4) A - S, B - P, C-Q, D-R

28) Which of the following species are hypervalent?

(A) PCl5 (B) BF3 (C) XeF2 (D)

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, B

29) In the context of carbon, which of the following is arranged in the correct order of
electronegativity:

(1) sp > sp2 > sp3

(2) sp3 > sp2 > sp
(3) sp2 > sp > sp3
(4) sp3 < sp < sp2

30) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment?

(1) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I

(2) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
(4) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3I > CH3Br

31) Assertion (A) : BrF5 and SF6 both have same hybridisation
Reason (R) : BrF5 has square pyramidal shape, while SF6 molecule is octahedral

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

32) Match the column

Column-II
Column-I
(No,. of unpaired
(Species_
electrons)

(A) B2 (i)` 1

(B) C2 (ii) 2

(C) (iii) 0

A B C

1 i ii iii

2 iii i ii

3 ii iii i

4 ii i iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Match the column

Column-II
Column-I
(Attraction
(Species)
force)

(A) HCl + HCl (P) H-bond

(B) HF + HF (Q) Ion-dipole

(C) Na+ + H2O (R) Ionic bond

(D) (S) VWF

(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P

34) The value of log10K approx for a reaction A ⇌ B is :-

[Given: ΔH°r = –54.07 K J mol–1
ΔS°r = 10 J K–1 mol–1
T = 298 K
[ 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705 ]

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 95
(4) 100

35) Match list-I (Equations) with List-II (Type of process) :-

List-I List-II
(Equations) (Type of process)

(a) KP > Q (i) Non-spontaneous

ΔGº > –RT ln

(b) (ii) Equilibrium
Q

(c) KP = Q (iii) Spontaneous and endothermic

(d) (iv) Spontaneous

T>

Select the correct option :

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

36) For a irreversible adiabatic expansion process change in entropy of system :-

(1) = 0
(2) < 0
(3) > 0
(4) None of these

37) Consider the following statements and select the correct option
Statement-I : The laws of thermodynamics deal with energy changes of microscopic systems
involving a few number of molecules rather than macroscopic systems containing a large number of
molecules.
Statement-II : Laws of thermodynamics apply only when a system is in equilibrium or moves from
one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state.

(1) Statement- I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement- I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

38) Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is –106.7 kJ mol-1 using NaOH hence ΔH of :
H2C2O4 → + 2H+ is :-

(1) 5.88 kJ mol-1

(2) – 5.88 kJ mol-1
(3) –13.7 kcal mol-1
(4) 7.5 kJ mol-1

39) Which of the following compound will not give Lassaigne's test for nitrogen

(1) C6H5—NH—NH2
(2) CH3—CH2—NH2

(3)

(4) NH2 – NH2

40) Assertion: Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3 hybridised, yet H-N-
H bond angle is greater than that of H-O-H.
Reason: This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two lone pairs.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

41) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) NH3 (P) Non-polar

(B) BF3 (Q) Hypovalent

(C) CO2 (R) Polar

(D) PCl5 (S) Hypervalent

(T) Complete octet

(1) A → R,T ; B → P,Q ; C → P,T ; D → P,S
(2) A → P,Q ; B → P,T ; C → P,S ; D → R,T
(3) A → P,T ; B → P,S ; C → R,T ; D → P,Q
(4) A → P,S ; B → P,Q ; C → P,T ; D → Q,R

42) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) O-nitrophenol > P-nitrophenol ⇒ V.P

(2) O-nitrophenol < P-nitrophenol ⇒ B.P

(3)
(4) H2O < HF ⇒ B.P

43) The correct order of increasing bond angle is :-

(1) OF2 < ClO2 < H2O < Cl2O

(2) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O < ClO2
(3) OF2 < H2O < ClO2 < Cl2O
(4) ClO2 < OF2 < H2O < Cl2O

44) Match the compounds of Xe in column I with the molecular structure in column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) XeF2 (i) Square planar

(b) XeF4 (ii) Linear

(c) XeO3 (iii) Square pyramidal

(d) XeOF4 (iv) Pyramidal

(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)

45) Assertion : Size of anion is larger than their parent atom.

Reason : Zeff of anion is greater than that of their parent atom.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

BIOLOGY

1) The giant Redwood trees (Sequoia) is a/an ?

(1) Angiosperm
(2) Free Fern
(3) Pteridophyte
(4) Gymnosperms

2) The ovules are naked in :-

(1) Cycas
(2) Selaginella
(3) Wolfia
(4) Marchantia

3) A typical gymnosperm plant has 8 chromosomes in leaf cells, what will be the number of
chromosomes in the cells of its gametophytes:-

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 24

4) Cycas posses/shows :-

(1) Branched stem

(2) Monoecious condition
(3) Pinnately compound leaves
(4) Mycorrhiza

5) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

A. Sequoia is the tallest gymnosperm.
B. Pollen grain is reduced female gametophyte in conifers.

(1) Only statement A is incorrect

(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

6) Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with :-

(1) N2-fixing cyanobacteria

(2) Root hair and root cap
(3) Food and water conduction
(4) Fungi

7) Pteridophyte includes

(1) Mosses and Fern

(2) Horsetails and Fern
(3) Liverwort and Lycopodium
(4) Fern and Howrnwort

8) Sporophyte and gametophyte of gymnosperms is respectively :

(1) Both free living

(2) Free living and dependent
(3) Dependent and free living
(4) Both independent from each other
9) Pinus and cycas are gymnosperm plant and they both are :

(1) Monoecious
(2) Dioecious
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous

10) Gymnosperms include :-

(1) Medium sized trees

(2) Tall tree
(3) Shrubs
(4) All the above

11) Which one is not a xerophytic adaptation of gymnosperm ?

(1) Needle like Leaves.

(2) Symbiotic association with N2 fixing organisms.
(3) Sunken stomata
(4) Thick cuticle.

12) Which of the following phases are longest and shortest in mitosis

(1) Metaphase, Anaphase

(2) Prophase, Anaphase
(3) Telophase, Anaphse
(4) Prophase, Telophase

13) Read the following Statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A : The gymnosperms are heterosporous
Statement-B : In gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes have an independent free-
living existence.

(1) Only statement A is correct.

(2) Only statement B is correct.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

14) Choose the wrong option :

(1) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 μm)

(2) Bacteria could be 3 to 5 μm
(3) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich
(4) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.

15)
(i) Well define nucleus
(ii) The genetic material is basically absent
(iii) Nuclear membrane absent
(iv) Mesosome present
(v) Circular naked DNA
How many options are correct for prokaryotic cell?

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

16) Golgi complex is specialised for:

(1) Modification, Packaging & Secretion

(2) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
(3) Digestion of carbohydrates and proteins
(4) Aerobic respiration

17) Fluid nature of membrane is able to explain

(1) cell growth, cell division

(2) formation of intercellular junctions
(3) secretion and endocytosis
(4) All of the above

18) Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation of internal structure of centrioles.

(1) A-Interdoublet bridge, B-Central microtubule, C-Plasma membrane, D-Radial spoke

(2) A-Plasma membrane, B-Central microtubule, C-Interdoublet bridge, D-Radial spoke
(3) A Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge, C-Central microtubule, D-Radial spoke
(4) A-Plasma membrane, B-Interdoublet bridge C-Radial spoke, D-Central microtubule

19) Which one of the following cell organelles is not having any membrane ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) ER
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Centrosome

20) Identify structure A, B and C in given diagram :

(1) A – SER, B – Cytosol, C – RER

(2) A – RER, B – Nuclear pore, C – SER
(3) A – SER, B – Nuclear pore, C – RER
(4) A – RER, B – Ribosome, C – SER

21) Besides giving out secretory vesicles the golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
:

(1) Lysosome
(2) Plastids
(3) Grana of chloroplasts
(4) ER

22) Which one of the following is not component of cell wall of algae ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Galactans
(4) Mannans

23) During meiosis 'X' shaped structure called chiasmata appear in :

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Zygotene

24) Which of the following events listed below is not observed during mitosis ?

(1) Chromatin condensation

(2) Appearance of Recombination nodule
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere
(4) Movements of centrioles to opposite pole
25) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane proposes that

(1) A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins only

(2) A lipid bilayer with proteins on the outer surface only
(3) A lipid bilayer coated with proteins on both the surfaces
(4) A lipid bilayer with proteins of two types, embedded (intrinsic) and superficial (extrinsic)

26) Basal bodies are associated with the development of-

(1) Cilia and flagella

(2) Cell plate
(3) Phragmoplast
(4) Kinetochore

27) Mesosomes of prokaryotes are functionally similar to :-

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes

28) Once nerve cells become mature, they do not usually undergo cell division, the cell cycle of the
mature nerve cells become arrested and this phase of cell cycle is known as :-

(1) G2 - phase
(2) M - phase
(3) G1 - phase
(4) G0 - phase

29) The concept of "omnis cellula-e-cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by :-

(1) Rudolf Virchow

(2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Schleiden
(4) Aristotle

30) Semiautonomous cell organelle is :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosome
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Both (1) & (3)

31) Outer most covering of Human cheek cell is known as :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Slime layer
(4) Capsule

32) Ribosomes take part in protein synthesis in :

(1) Viruses
(2) Prokaryotes only
(3) Both prokaryotes and euaryotes
(4) Eukaryotes only

33) Observe the diagram given below and select correct answer

(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Interphase

34) The figure given below represents the stage of cell division. Read the following statements.

(i) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform

(ii) Chromatids move to opposite pole.
(iii) Activity of recombinase enzyme.
(iv) Homlogous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids associated at their centromere
(v) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
How many of the above statement are not true with respect to given figure.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

35) If the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell is 24, then find out the number of chromosomes
during anaphase :-
(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 48
(4) 36

36) No. of chromosome and content of DNA in S phase is n and 2C than calculate no. of chromosome
and content of DNA in G1 and G2

(1) n, C, n, 2C
(2) 2n 2C, n, 2C
(3) n 2C, n, 2C
(4) All of the above

37) A cell divides every minute. At this rate of division it can fill a 100 ml of beaker in one hour. How
much time does it take to fill a 25 ml beaker?

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 58 minutes
(4) 29 minutes

38) The S-phase of cell cycle is characterised by

(1) Separation of chromosome

(2) Shortening of chromosome
(3) Duplication of DNA
(4) Reduction in chromosome number

39) Which of the following cells in an adult animal do not appear to exhibit division?

(1) Bone marrow cells

(2) Upper layer of epidermis
(3) Heart cells
(4) All of the above

40) Centromere split and chromatid move to opposite poles in:

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

41) Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Pachytene

42) Tetrad of homologous chromosomes is clearly visible in

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

43) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between:

(1) Non-sister chromatids

(2) Sister chromatids
(3) Non-homologous chromosomes
(4) The genes those are completely linked

44) How many successive generations of mitosis must occur to produce 32 cells from a single cell ?

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

45) What is the small bristle like structures or fibres sprouting out of the cell?

(1) Flagella
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Pilli
(4) All of these

46) Head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of :-

(1) Six segments and tringular in shape

(2) Ten segments and tringular in shape
(3) Element segments and rectangular in shape
(4) Three segments and tringular in shape

47) Bidder's canal in frog is present in :

(1) Testes
(2) Kidney
(3) Ovary
(4) Brain

48) In cockroach the wings that help in flying are :-

(1) Fore wings
(2) Mesothoracic wings
(3) The hind wings which are transparent and membranous
(4) Tegmina

49) Fore wings of cockroach are articulated with :-

(1) Prothorax
(2) Mesothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Metathorax & 1st abdominal segment

50) Identify the given diagram and choose the incorrect option about it -

(1) a → Spermatheca
(2) b → Phallic gland
(3) c → Ovary
(4) d → Gonapophyses

51) See the diagram carefully and select the correct match :-

Anterior
(1) (A) Help in excretion
Aorta
Alary
(2) (B) Help in blood circulation
muscles
Alary
(3) (C) Help in excretion
muscles
Pulsatile
(4) (C) Help in blood formation
Ampulla
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Pick up the incorrect statement with regard to cockroach ?

(1) The body is segmented and divisible into three distinct regions – Head, Thorax and Abdomen.
(2) Body is covered by a hard calcareous exoskeleton.
(3) It is nocturnal, omnivorous that live in damp places throughout the world.
(4) Cockroaches are serious pests and vectors of several diseases.

53) How many structures in the list given below are present only in female cockroach but absent in
male cockroach. Collaterial gland, Seminal vesicle, Spermathecae, Phallic gland, Malpighian
tubules, Uricose gland, Gonapophyses, Phallomere, Anal cerci, Supra-Oesophageal ganglion,
Ovarioles, Nephrocytes

(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

54) Assertion : Cockroach has biting and chewing type of mouth parts.
Reason : Mandibles have teeth to cut and chew the food in cockroach.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

55) Assertion : Cockroaches are included in Class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.

Reason : They have chitinous exoskeleton and 3 pairs of jointed legs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) Respiration occurs in frog through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) All of these

57) Venous connection between kidney and lower parts of body in Rana tigrina is known as :-

(1) Hepatic portal system

(2) Renal portal system
(3) Hypophyseal portal system
(4) No connection

58) The length of alimentary canal in adult frog is :-

(1) Longer as it is a carnivores.

(2) Longer as it is a herbivores.
(3) Shorter as it is a carnivores.
(4) Shorter as it is a herbivores.

59) Which of the following statements is not true about frog?

(1) The body colour offers it protective colouration

(2) Summer sleep of frog is called aestivation
(3) Tail is present in tadpole larva.
(4) Mouth is bounded by upper lip & lower lip

60) Skin of frog is :-

(1) Moist, smooth & rough

(2) Dry, rough and slippery
(3) Moist, smooth and slippery
(4) Dry, moist and smooth

61)

Select the true statement regarding frog (Rana tigrina):-

(1) Frog is a homeothermal animal

(2) Frog drinks about 5 litres H2O per day
(3) poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.
(4) A very long tail is present in posterior part of frog's body.

62)

A frog lives in water or near water because :-

(1) It can get its food easily in water

(2) Its hindlimbs are webbed and help in swimming
(3) It can see through its transparent eyelids while swimming
(4) It respires through the skin

63) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Collagen
(1) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres

Collagen
(2) Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage
fibres

Collagen
(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
fibres

Collagen
(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast
fibres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64)

Which is false about frog ?

(1) Hind brain consist of medulla and cerebellum only

(2) Camouflage helps to hide them form enemies
(3) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(4) Body parts are Head, Neck and Trunk

65) Choose the incorrect option for the following animal.

(1) Cloaca present

(2) Dioecious, external fertilization, oviparous, indirect development
(3) Body divisible into head and trunk
(4) Eyes are without nictitating membrane

66) Compound epithelium occurs in ....... .

(1) Alveoli
(2) Pharynx
(3) Capillary
(4) PCT

67) Which of the following most abundant tissue ?

(1) Striated muscles

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Stratified epithelium
(4) Nervous tissue

68) How many statements are incorrect for bones?

(A) Bones have hard and non-pliable ground substances
(B) Osteoblast are present in lacunae
(C) Bone is specialized connective tissue
(D) They serve weight-bearing function

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

69) Find out correct match in the following columns:-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Areolar tissue (1) Fat cells
(B) Adipose tissue (2) Osteocytes
(C) Ligament (3) Loose connective tissue
Dense regular
(D) Bone (4)
connective tissue
(1) A→3, B→1, C→4, D→2
(2) A→1, B→2, C→3, D→4
(3) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→1
(4) A→2, B→1, C→4, D→3

70) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement(s).

(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption.
The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
(3)
epithelium.
(4) All of the above

71) Vocal sac and copulatory pads are found in -

(1) Female frog

(2) male cockroach
(3) male frog
(4) female cockroach

72)

The function of gap junction is to :-

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1)
of ions.
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(4) Separate two cells from each other.

73) Which type of epithelium is found in inner side of dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal
cavity, pharynx, salivary glands and ducts of pancreas:-

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Simple coloumnar

74) Match the following columns:-

Column-I Column-II

a. Adipose tissue (1) Blood

Dense regular Macrophages

b. (2)
tissue and mast

Fluid
c. connective (3) Fat storage
tissue

d. Areolar tissue (4) Tendon

(1) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(2) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(4) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

75) Read the following statements :-

(a) Made of more than one layer of cells and thus has unlimited role in secretion and
absorption.
(b) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(c) They cover the moist surface of the skin.
(d) They cover the dry surface of buccal cavity.
How many statements are correct regarding compound epithelium.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

76) Select the option with the correct identification of the structures labelled by alphabets (A-F) in

the given diagram of human skull :-

A - Temporal bone, B - Parietal bone,

(1)
C - Occipetal condyle
C - Occipetal condyle, D - Zygomatic bone,
(2)
E - Mandible
A - Parietal bone, D - Vomer bone,
(3)
F - Mandible
B - Temporal bone, C - Hyoid bone,
(4)
E - Mandible

77) Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation:

True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral

(1) X = 12, Y = 5
column and sternum on the two ends.

True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral

(2) X = 24, Y = 7
column but are free on ventral side.

True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral

(3) X = 24, Y = 12
column but are free on ventral side.

True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral

(4) X = 12, Y = 7
column and ventrally to the sternum.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Given below is a diagram of the bones of the right human hind limb as seen from front. It has
certain mistakes in labelling. Identify wrongly labelled bones are :

(1) Tibia and tarsals

(2) Femur and Fibula
(3) Fibula and phalanges
(4) Ilium and femur

79) Total number of tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges in human skeleton respectively is :-

(1) (7, 5, 14) × 2

(2) (8, 5, 14) × 2
(3) (9, 5, 14) × 2
(4) (5, 6, 7) × 2

80) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and middle ear are respectivey :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 6
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 3
(4) 8, 14, 2 and 3

81) Find out correct matching related to their group :-

(1) Actin, myosin, iodopsin – Muscle proteins

(2) Malleus, stapes, cochlea – Ear ossicles
(3) Ilium, ischium, clavicle – bones of pelvic girdle
(4) Ball-socket joint, pivot joint, hinge joint – Synovial joints

82) The disorder in which bone mass decreases and chances of fractures increases is :-

(1) Arthritis
(2) Osteoporosis
(3) Gout
(4) Tetany
83) Which option is incorrect synovial joint ?

(1) This is immovable joint

(2) Gap present between bones
(3) This is movable joint
(4) Knee joint is synovial joint

84) Coxal of pelvic girdle is formed by fusion of :-

(1) Ilium, ischium and pubis

(2) Scapula and clavicle
(3) Ilium and scapula
(4) Ilium, scapula and ischium

85) Which of the following statement is not true ?

The skull region articulate with the inferior region of the vertebral column with the help of two
(1)
occipital condyles (dicondylic skull)
(2) All locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotions
Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movement namely amoeboid, ciliary
(3)
and muscular
(4) All of the above

86)

The medulla oblongata passes out of brain through

(1) Foramen magnum

(2) Foramen ovale
(3) Foramen of Luschka
(4) Foramen of Monro

87) An example of gliding joint is :

(1) Humerus and glenoid cavity

(2) Femur and tibia - fibula
(3) Occipital condyle and odontoid processs
(4) Between carpals of wrist

88) Articulation of ulna with humerus at the elbow joint is :-

(1) Hinge
(2) Ball and socket
(3) Pivot
(4) Ellipsoid

89) A : Fibrous joints play a major role in locomotory processes.

B : Fibrous joint possess synovial fluid.

(1) Both statements A and B are true and the statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
Both statements A and B are true and the statement B is not the correct explanation of
(2)
statement A.
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) Both statement A and B are false.

90) Identify the incorrectly matched pair.

Pair of skeletal
Category
parts

Sternum and
(1) Axial skeleton
ribs

Clavicle and
(2) Pelvic girdle
glenoid cavity

Humerus and Appendicular

(3)
ulna skeleton

Malleus and
(4) Ear ossicles
stapes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 3 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 1 1 4 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 3 2 4 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

at = 3 m/s2 = 5 m/s2

2) For a particle performing uniform circular motion, magnitude of the acceleration remains
constant.

3) Maximum speed for no slipping or skidding

vmax = = = 10 m/s

4)
(i) At the lowest position :

⇒ T1 = 11 mg
(ii) At the highest position :
v2 = u2 – 2gh = u2 – 2g × 2L
= 10gL – 4gL = 6gL

T = 5 mg

5) At θ = 30°

T1 = mg cos30° +
and at θ = 60°
T2 = mg cos60° +
since v2 < v1 and cos60° < cos30°, T1 > T2

6) = 5 m/s2

∴ Wg = 40 × 10 = 400 J

7) s = \ ds = dt

F = ma = = 3N
Now

W= [(2)2 – (0)2]
= 3J

8)

t=

9) ∵ for equilibrium

and for minimum potential energy and stable equilibrium.

for maximum potential energy and unstable equilibrium.

10) = = 0.7 rad/s

11)

= [9 – 1] + [12 – 4] + [1 – 27]
 = 8 + 8 – 26 = 16 – 26 = – 10 J

12)

W.D. =

W.D. =

13)

P positive ⇒ θ < 90°

P negative ⇒ θ > 90°

P zero ⇒ θ = 90°

14) and aCOM = 0

Here vcm =

xcm =
ycm = 0

15) At maximum compression v1 = v2 = v, then

By COLM
(1) (5) + 2 (– 5) = 1(v) + 2(v)
– 5 = 3V

By COME

16)
Colm m(4) + m(–4) = – mv1 + mv2
v1 = v2

e=
⇒ v1 = 2m/s v2 = 2m/s
17)
ycm = 2

18)

19) Centripetal force is not a new kind force, centripetal force, i.e. a force acting towards
center.

20) The acceleration of centre of mass of the system

Since and are anti–parallel, so = = 1 m/s2.

Since m2a2 > m1a1 so the direction of acceleration of centre of mass is along in the direction of
a2.

21)

so, x = 5m

22) m1r1 = m2r2

23)

a= = 6 m/s2
m1 = 4 kg,
m2 = 6 kg,

24)
 Normal shfit towards point of rotation.

25) Moment of inertia of ABC about AC = × moment of inertia of square sheet ABCD about

AC = .

26)
L = 0 because angle between is always zero

27)

Question Explanation :

Two discs are rotating with different moments of inertia and angular frequencies. They are
brought together, their axes aligned, to form a single rotating system. find the final angular
frequency of this combined system.

Concept:
This question is based on conservation of angular momentum.

Formula :
Linitial​ = Lfinal​

Solution :
Total initial angular momentum of the two discs is Li = I1ω1 + I2ω2
When two discs are brought into contact face to face (one on top of the other) and their axes of
rotation coincide, the moment of inertia I of the system is equal to the sum of their individual
moments of inertia.
i.e., I = I1 + I2
Let ω be the final angular speed of the system.
The final angular momentum of the system is
Lf = Iω = (I1 + I2)ω As no external torque acts on the system, therefore according to law of
conservation of angular momentum, we get Li = Lf

I1ω1 + I2ω2 = (I1 + I2)ω ω=

Final answer: option (2)

28)

29) Explain Question : the ratio of the rotational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy of
a disc that is rolling on a table.
Concept : This question is based on Rolling Motion - Kinetic Energy.
Formula :

Solution :

Final answer : 2

30) As dancer applies torque by herself. So it is internal torque there is no external torque.
So L = Iω = constant by pulling arms & legs in, I↓ so ω

31) Question Explanation : Mass m is projected with velocity v0 at angle from the ground.
Find torque of the weight about the point of projection at maximum height.
Concept : Torque
Formula :
Solution :
At maximum height, horizontal displacement (range/2), so lever arm is R/2 :

Range
Torque here r = R/2, F = mg

Final Answer : Option (3)

32)

geq = g–ω2Re
O = g – ω2Re

w=

33) Areal velocity is constant so

⇒
∴ t1 = 3t2

34) Moon has no atmosphere because the rms speed of gas molecules is greater than the
escape speed (i.e. vrms > ve)
 35) Intensity will be zero inside the spherical shell.

36) We know

∴ Required slope =

37)

E = KE = , PE = – = –2E

38)

Explain Question : We need to find S.g. of metal and S.G. of liquid from the given date of WA,
WW and WL .
Concept : This question is based on Archimedes' principle.
Solution :
Wa = 210 gm
Ww = 180 gm
Wℓ = 120 gm

R.D. of liquid =

R.D. of metal =

=
Final answer : 2

39)

Av = const

v ∝ 1/area

40)

Weight of the body hang from wire (mg) = upward force due to surface tension (2Tl)

41)
 ⇒ (Stress)B = 4 × (Stress)A (As, F = constant)

42) arel = geff = 3g/2

1.2 = × 15 × t2 and t = = 0.4

43) E = T × 2 × (πR2)
= 0.075 × 2 × 0.04
= 0.006 J
= 6 mJ

44) Y = 2η (1 + σ)
3.84 × 109 = 2 × 1.6 × 109 (1 + σ)

1+σ=

σ = 1.2 – 1 = 0.2

45) Tensile stress =

CHEMISTRY

46)

Fact

47)

A. Given Data:

A. Internal energy change (ΔU) from A to B by a reversible path: 40 kJ/mole

B. Concept:

A. Internal Energy (U): A state function, meaning its value depends only on the current state of
the system and not on the path taken to reach that state. 1
B. State Function: A property whose value depends only on the current state of the system and
not on the path taken to reach that state.
 C. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Reversible Path (A to B): ΔU = 40 kJ/mole

B. Irreversible Path (B to A): Since internal energy is a state function, the change in internal
energy for the return path (B to A) will be -40 kJ/mole to ensure the overall change in internal
energy for the cycle is zero.

D. Final Answer:

A. Net Change in Internal Energy:

A. ΔU (A to B) + ΔU (B to A) = 40 kJ/mole + (-40 kJ/mole) = 0
B. The net change in internal energy for the entire cycle is zero.

E. Question Level: Medium: This question requires an understanding of the concept of state
functions and how they relate to internal energy changes in thermodynamic processes

48)

Question Explanation: The question provides the work done by the system and the heat
supplied to it. We need to find the change in internal energy.

Given Data:

A. Work done by the system (W) = 300 Joules

B. Heat supplied to the system (Q) = 100 calories

Concept: First low of thermodynamics.

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Convert calories to Joules: Q = 100 cal × 4.184 J/cal = 418.4 Joules

B. Apply the First Law of Thermodynamics: ΔU = Q – W = 418.4 J – 300 J = 118.4 Joules

Final Answer: The change in internal energy is approximately 118.4 Joules. The closest option
is 120 joules (Option 4).

49)

Question Explanation:

The question asks to identify which of the listed properties are intensive properties.

Concept:

This question is based on Intensive vs. Extensive Properties.

Solution :

We need to determine if each property depends on the amount of substance:

A. (I) Boiling point: Intensive (a characteristic physical constant, independent of amount).

 B. (II) Entropy (S): Extensive (depends on the amount of substance; more substance
generally means more disorder).

C. (III) pH: Intensive (a measure of concentration, which is intensive).

D. (IV) Density (ρ): Intensive (mass per unit volume; ratio of two extensive properties is
intensive).

Therefore, the intensive properties from the list are boiling point (I), pH (III), and density (IV).

Final Answer : option (3) I, III, IV

50) Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement or
relationship among the four given options concerning thermodynamic changes in processes.

Concept : First Law of Thermodynamics; Work, Heat, Internal Energy in Isothermal and
Isochoric Processes.

Solution :

1.q = –nRT In (isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas): For this process, ΔU = 0, so
q = – ω. Since ω = –nRT ln(V2 / V1) (work done on the system), then q = – (– nRT ln(V2 / V1)) =
+nRT ln(V2 / V1) for heat absorbed. The given statement has an incorrect sign for q. Thus, this
statement is not correct.

Final Answer : option (1) (isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas)

51)

Answer (2)
Standard state of carbon is graphite

52)

Answer (2)

Equation and equation and reverse equation 2

_____________________
53)
+285.9 – 241.8 = 44.1 kJ/mol

54)

Across a period zeff ↑es so

IE ↑ es
IE ; 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

55)

Answer (2)

56)

Answer (4)

57)

option (1) and (2) are d-block elements

58)

Valence shell no – 5 so 5th period it is p-block.

Group number = 10 + 4 + 2 = 16th

59)

Answer (3)

60)

Answer (4)

61)

Answer (2)

62)

%N =
= 28%

63)
 Factual

64)

Factual

65)

Factual

66)

Factual

67) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question asks to calculate the change in internal energy (ΔU) for the reaction given the
enthalpy change (ΔH) and the number of moles reacting.

Given Data:

A. Reaction: H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) → 2HCl(g)

B. ΔH = -185 kJ/mol (for 1 mole H₂ and 1 mole Cl₂)
C. Temperature (T) = 300 K
D. 3 moles of H₂ react with 3 moles of Cl₂

Concept:

A. Relationship between ΔH and ΔU: ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT

Calculation:

A. Calculate Δng for the given reaction: Δng = (2 moles HCl(g)) - (1 mole H₂(g) + 1 mole
Cl₂(g)) = 2 - 2 = 0
B. Since Δng = 0, ΔH = ΔU + (0)RT
C. ΔH = ΔU
D. Calculate the total ΔH for 3 moles of H₂ reacting: Total ΔH = 3 (-185 kJ/mol) = -555 kJ
E. Since ΔH = ΔU, the total ΔU is also -555 kJ: Total ΔU = -555 kJ

Final Answer:
The change in internal energy (ΔU) if 3 moles of H₂ react is –555 kJ. Option (4)

68)

Answer (2)

69)
N < B < Li
Ca+2 < Cl– < S–2
Mg+2 < Na+ < Cl–

70)

Answer (3)

71)

Poly negative ion formation is endothermic

72)

Answer (2)

73)

BF3 – hypervalent
– complete octet

74)

∊n × % S-character
sp – 50%S, sp2 – 33.3% s,
sp3 – 25% s

75)

Answer (1)

76)

BrFs – Sp3d2 – one lp on Br

SF6 – sp3d2 – No lp on 'S'

77)

Answer (3)

78)

Answer (1)

79) ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS°

 ΔG° = –57050
ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10 K
log10 K ≈ 10

80)

Theory based

81) ΔSsyst > 0, ΔSsurr = 0 ΔST = ΔSsys + ΔSsurr > 0

82)

A: Question Explanation

The task is to evaluate two statements regarding the scope and applicability of the laws of
thermodynamics and determine the correct option.

B: Concept

A. Scope of Thermodynamics, Thermodynamic Equilibrium

C: Reasoning

A. Statement-I is incorrect. Classical thermodynamics studies macroscopic properties of

matter (like pressure, temperature, volume) which arise from the collective behavior of a large
number of molecules. It does not concern itself with the properties of individual molecules
(microscopic systems).
B. Statement-II is correct. The laws of classical thermodynamics are defined for systems in a
state of internal equilibrium. They describe the net effect of a process as a system transitions
from one equilibrium state to another, not the path or rate of the change.

D: Final Answer

Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

The correct option is 2.

83) H+ + OH– → H2O ; ΔH = –57.1 KJ mol–1 ...(i)

H2C2O4 + 2NaOH → Na2C2O4 + 2H2O
OR
H2C2O4 + 2OH– → C2O4–2 + 2H2O ;
ΔH = – 106.7 kJ mol–1 ...(ii)
H2C2O4 —→ C2O4–2 + 2H+ ; ΔH = ?
eq (iii) = eq (ii) –2 × eq (i)
ΔH3 = –106.7 – 2(–57.1)
ΔH3 = 7.5 kJ

84) NH2—NH2 does not have carbon to form NaCN needed for +ve Lassaigne’s test
 85)

Asking for:
Whether the Assertion and Reason regarding the bond angles in NH3 and H2O are true, and if
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Concept:
VSEPR theory explains molecular geometry based on the repulsion between electron pairs
around a central atom. Lone pairs exert a greater repulsive force than bond pairs, affecting
bond angles. Hybridization determines the basic electron geometry, while lone pair repulsion
causes deviations from ideal bond angles.

Formula: Not directly applicable, based on VSEPR principles.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Assertion: The central atom in both NH3 and H2O is sp3 hybridized, leading to a tetrahedral
electron geometry. However, the H-N-H bond angle in NH3 (approximately 107°) is indeed
greater than the H-O-H bond angle in H2O (approximately 104.5°).
B. Thus, the Assertion is true.

A. Reason: Nitrogen in NH3 has 5 valence electrons, forming 3 bonds with hydrogen and having
1 lone pair. Oxygen in H2O has 6 valence electrons, forming 2 bonds with hydrogen and having
2 lone pairs.
B. Lone pair-bond pair repulsion is greater than bond pair-bond pair repulsion, and lone pair-lone
pair repulsion is the greatest. The presence of more lone pairs on the central atom leads to
greater distortion of the bond angles from the ideal tetrahedral angle (109.5°).
C. Since oxygen in H 2 O has two lone pairs and nitrogen in NH 3 has only one, the lone pair
repulsion is greater in H2O, causing a greater compression of the H-O-H bond angle compared
to the H-N-H bond angle.
D. Therefore, the Reason is also true and correctly explains why the H-O-H bond angle is smaller
than the H-N-H bond angle despite both central atoms being sp3 hybridized.

Conclusion: Both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct
explanation for the Assertion.

Answer : Option : 4

86)

Explanation -
The question asks to match molecules (NH3, BF3, CO2, PCl5) with their properties (polar/non-
polar, hypo/hypervalent, complete octet) from two columns.
Concept - (Octet Rule & Covalnecy)
(A) NH3 (Ammonia):

A. Polar: Nitrogen has a lone pair, making the molecule asymmetrical and resulting in a net
dipole moment.
B. Complete octet: Nitrogen has 8 electrons around it (3 bonds + 1 lone pair).
(B) BF3 (Boron Trifluoride):

A. Non-polar: Due to its trigonal planar geometry, the dipole moments cancel each other
out.

B. Hypovalent: Boron has only 6 electrons around it (3 bonds), not a complete octet.

(C) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide):

A. Non-polar: Due to its linear geometry, the dipole moments cancel each other out.

B. Complete octet: Carbon has 8 electrons around it (2 double bonds).

O=C=O

(D) PCl5 (Phosphorus Pentachloride):

A. Hypervalent: Phosphorus has 10 electrons around it (5 bonds), exceeding the octet rule.

B. It is Non polar in the gaseous and solid state.

Final Answer - Option (1)

87)

Explanation -
The question presents four comparisons between pairs of chemical substances and their
respective physical properties (vapor pressure, boiling point, or viscosity). You are asked to
identify the incorrect comparison.

Concept - (Physical properties)

The incorrect match is 4. H2O < HF => B.P. Water has a higher boiling point than HF due to
its extensive hydrogen bonding network, despite HF stronger individual hydrogen bonds.

Final Answer - Option (4)

88)

As per VSEPR

89)

XeF2 → Linear
XeF4 → Square planar
XeO3 → Pyramidal
XeOF4 → Square pyramidal

90)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks whether an anion (a negatively charged ion) is larger
in size than its neutral parent atom, and whether the effective nuclear charge (Zeff) on the
anion is greater than that on the parent atom. It then asks to evaluate the truth of these
statements and whether the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Underlying Concept: The problem revolves around atomic structure, particularly how
gaining electrons to form an anion affects atomic size and effective nuclear charge. The size of
an ion depends on electron-electron repulsions and nuclear attraction. Effective nuclear
charge (Zeff) is the net positive charge experienced by an electron, calculated by subtracting
electron shielding from the total nuclear charge. When an atom gains electrons, the electron
repulsion increases and the electrons are less tightly held, affecting size and Zeff.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Zeff = Z - S, where Z is the nuclear charge and S is the
shielding from other electrons. Adding electrons increases shielding but nuclear charge
remains constant, so Zeff usually decreases for anions.

Common Mistakes: A typical error is assuming the effective nuclear charge increases with
more electrons, leading to a smaller ion size, which is incorrect. Another mistake is confusing
ionic size trends with other periodic properties without considering electron repulsion.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers suggesting Zeff increases for anions are wrong
because added electrons increase shielding and repulsion, decreasing Zeff. Also, stating that
anion size decreases is incorrect because electron repulsion of added electrons expands the
size.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Pg. # 32

92)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

93)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

94) NCERT-XI Page # 38

95)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

96) NCERT (XI) Pg # 32

97)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

98)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

99) NCERT XI Pg. # 33

100)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

101)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32
102)

NCERT XI Pg. # 122-123

103)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

104) Question Explanation :

This Question is asking a bout the select wrong option with reference of size of organism/cells

Concept :
This question is based on An overview of the cell.

Solution :
Wrong option (4) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.
Correct is - Nerve cells are some of the longest cells.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg#128,129

106) Question Explanation :

The question asks about the specialized function of the Golgi complex in a cell.

Concept :
Golgi Complex.

Solution :
• Golgi complex (Golgi apparatus) is a membranous organelle involved in processing and
trafficking macromolecules.
• Its main roles are :
• Modification of proteins and lipids (e.g. glycosylation, phosphorylation)
• Secretion or transport to other cell compartments or outside the cell.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

107)

The correct answer is:

4. All of the above
Explanation:
The fluid nature of the cell membrane refers to the ability of the lipid bilayer to allow
movement of lipids and proteins within the membrane. This flexibility is crucial for several
 cellular processes, including:
1. Cell growth and division:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows it to expand and reorganize during cell growth and
division, enabling ·the formation of new membranes during cell division.

2. Formation of intercellular junctions:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows cells to interact and form junctions like tight junctions,
gap junctions, or desmosomes, which are essential for cell-to-cell communication and
adhesion.

3. Secretion and endocytosis:

A. Membrane fluidity facilitates processes like vesicle formation (for secretion) and vesicle fusion
with the membrane (for endocytosis), allowing the cell to take in or release substances.

Thus, the fluid nature of the membrane is key to all of these processes.

108)

NCERT XI Pg. # 99

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126, 8.3

110) A - SER (Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum) → No ribosomes, lipid synthesis.

B - Nuclear pore ➔ Regulates material exchange between nucleus and cytoplasm.
C - RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum) → Has ribosomes, protein synthesis.

111)

NCERT, XI, Page No.- 96

112)

Hemicellulose is a major component of plant cell walls but is not typically found in the cell
walls of algae.

113)

NCERT, XI, Page No.- 126

114) NCERT XI, Page no. 122-124

115)

NCERT XI, Page no.-93

116)

NCERT XI, Page no.-99

117)

NCERT XI, Page no.-91

118)

NCERT XI, Page no.-122

119)

Question Explanation: The question is asking who first proposed the concept “omnis cellula
e cellula” (all cells arise from pre-existing cells) regarding cell division.

Concept: – Cell Theory

Solution: Rudolf Virchow proposed that all cells arise from pre-existing cells, summarised as
“omnis cellula e cellula.”

Final Answer: 1. Rudolf Virchow

120)

NCERT XI, Page no.: 97-98

121)

NCERT XI, Page no.-88

122)

Question Explanation: The question is asking in which type of organisms ribosomes are
involved in protein synthesis.
Concept: Ribosomes
Solution : Ribosomes are universal cell organelles found in both prokaryotic (70S ribosomes)
and eukaryotic (80S ribosomes) cells.
They are the sites of protein synthesis.
Final Answer: Option (3)

123)

NCERT XI, Page no.-123

124) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 166

125)

SOLUTION —
In anaphase of mitosis, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart to opposite
poles. Each chromatid is considered an individual chromosome at this point.

If the diploid number of chromosomes is 24 (i.e., 2n = 24), the cell starts with 24
chromosomes. During anaphase, the chromatids separate, so the total number of
chromosomes temporarily doubles to 48 (24 × 2).

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) 48

126) Information Given:

• In S-phase:
• The number of chromosomes is n (haploid number).
• The DNA content is 2C (since the DNA has replicated).
Breakdown for other phases:
1. G1-phase:
• The cell has n chromosomes (still in a single set).
• The DNA content is C (before replication starts).
2. S-phase:
• The number of chromosomes is n
• The DNA content is 2C (after replication, each chromosome now consists of two sister
chromatids).
3. G2-phase:
• The number of chromosomes remains n (because chromosome count doesn't change).
• The DNA content is 2C (the DNA has already been replicated).
Correct Answer:
1: n, C, n, 2C
Explanation:
• G1-phase: n chromosomes, C DNA content.
• S-phase: n chromosomes, 2C DNA content (DNA replication occurs).
• G2-phase: n chromosomes, 2C DNA content (since the chromosomes have been duplicated
but not yet divided).

127) Explanation

A. The 100 mL beaker is filled in 60 minutes.

B. The 50 mL mark is reached at 59 minutes.

C. The 25 mL mark is reached at 58 minutes.

Correct Answer: 3 (58 minutes)

128)
 NCERT XI, Page no.-121

129)

NCERT XI, Page no.-91

130)

NCERT, XI Pg. # 124

131) The question is asking about the stage of meiotic prophase where chiasmata (the points
of crossover between homologous chromosomes) become visible at the ends of chromosomes,
a feature known as terminalization.
Explanation - In diakinesis, chiasmata terminalize – This means they move toward the ends
of the chromosomes, making the crossover points clearly visible.
Correct Answer: 3. Diakinesis

132)

The question asks whether the Tetrad of homologous chromosomes is clearly visible in
Correct Answer: 2. Zygotene
Explanation

A. In Zygotene, homologous chromosomes begin to pair and form bivalents or tetrads (each
consisting of four chromatids).

B. This stage marks the start of the synapsis process, where homologous chromosomes
align closely.

133) Crossing over is a key event in prophase-1 of meiosis that increases genetic variation.
It occurs during the pachytene stage, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic
material.
Analyzing the options:
1. Non-sister chromatids →Correct

A. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

B. This allows for genetic recombination.

Correct Answer: Option 1 (Non-sister chromatids).

134) The correct breakdown for producing 32 cells:

A. After 0 generations: 1 cell (initial cell).

B. After 1 generation (1 mitosis): 2 cells.
C. After 2 generations (2 mitoses): 4 cells.
D. After 3 generations (3 mitoses): 8 cells.
E. After 4 generations (4 mitoses): 16 cells.
 F. After 5 generations (5 mitoses): 32 cells.

It indeed takes 5 generations of mitosis to produce 32 cells from a single cell.

So, Option 1 (5 generations) is the correct answer

135)

The correct answer is:

2. Fimbriae
Explanation:
Fimbriae are small, bristle-like structures or fibers that sprout out from the surface of certain
bacteria. They are used for attachment to surfaces or host cells, which is important for the
pathogenicity of some bacteria.
• Flagella: These are long, whip-like structures used for movement, not for attachment.
• Pilli: These are similar to fimbriae but usually longer and involved in conjugation (transfer of
genetic material between cells).
So, the fimbriae are the small, bristle-like structures you're referring to.

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

137)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 83

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

139) NCERT Pg. # 112, 1st para

140) NCERT XIth Pg # 115

141)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 83 (old)

142) NCERT XIth Pg.#111

143) NCERT Pg.#112

144) NCERT XI Page No. # 111

145) NCERT XI Page No. # 111

146) NCERT Pg. # 118

147)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 82

148) NCERT (Eng) Pg. # 116

149) NCERT Eng- Page - 116

150) NCERT Pg.# 116

151)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 80

152)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 80

153) Allen module page-207

154)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 80

155) NCERT, XI Pg. 80

156)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 102

157)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 102

158)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 104, 120

159)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 103

 160)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 101

161)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 81

162)

Explanation :
Gap junctions are specialized intercellular connections that:

A. Allow direct communication between neighboring cells.

Enable the transfer of ions, small molecules, and electrical impulses by connecting the
cytoplasm of adjacent cells.
Correct Answer (1) : Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the
cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions.

163)

NCERT-XI Pg.102 Para-2

164) Old NCERT XI Page # 103,104

165) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

166)

Let's analyze the provided image and the options to correctly identify the structures labeled A-
F in the human skull diagram. The correct identification is

A-Parietal bone
B-Temporal bone
C- Occipital condyles
D-zygomatic Bone
E- Mandible bone
F- Hyoid bone

So, the correct answer is option 2.C - Occipital condyle, D - Zygomatic bone, E - Mandible:

167)

NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 125

168)
 NCERT, Class-XI, Pg. 226

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 311

170)

The correct answer is Option 1: 14, 8, 1, and 3.

• Cranium: 14 bones
• Face: 8 bones
• Hyoid: 1 bone
• Middle ear: 6 bones (3 on each side)

172)

Question Explanation:
Identify the disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and increased fracture risk.

Solution Explanation:
Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones become weak and brittle, leading to an increased
risk of fractures.
This occurs due to a decrease in bone mineral density and deterioration of bone tissue.

The correct answer is 2. Osteoporosis.

173) Question Explanation:

Identify the incorrect statement about synovial joints.
Solution Explanation:

A. Synovial joints are characterized by a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. This fulid lubricates
the joint and allows for a wide range of motion. Therefore, synovial joints are movable joints.
B. Gap present between bones: This is a characteristic of ynovial joints. The joint cavity
represents the gap cavity represents the gap between the bones.
C. This is a movable joint: This is true, as explained above. Snovial joints are designed for
movement.
D. Knee joint is a synovial joint: This is also true. The knee is a complex synovial joint that allows
for flexion, extension, and some rotation.

The incorrect statement about synovial joints is 1: This is an immovable joint.

174)

NCERT, XI Pg. 226

175) NCERT, Pg#309, Last-Line para 20.1

177)

An example of a gliding joint among the options is between carpals of wrist.

178) Hinge joints allow for movement in only one plane, like a door hinge. This is exactly the
type of motion we see at the elbow.
So, the correct answer is 1.

179)

Question Explanation:
To evaluate the truthfulness of two statements (A and B) regarding fibrous joints and their role
in locomotion.
Solution Explanation:
Statement A: Fibrous joints play a major role in locomotory processes.

A. False: Fibrous joints are characterized by the presence of dense fibrous connective
tissue between the bones. This type of joint allows for minimal to no movement.

Statement B: Fibrous joints possess synovial fluid.

A. False: Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity filled with
synovial fluid. This fluid lubricates the joint and reduces friction during movement.
Fibrous joints lack this synovial cavity and therefore do not possess synovial fluid.

Therefore, both statements A and B are false.

180) NCERT, Page No. 222