12-10-2025

1803CMD303029250065 MD

PHYSICS

1) The ratio of momentum of an electron and an α-particle which are accelerated from rest by same
potential difference of 100 V is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Two spherical conducters B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charge in them repel
each other with a force F when kept at some distance. A third spherical conductors of same radii but
uncharged is brought in contact with B and brought in contact with C and finally removed away from
both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is :-

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8

3) 8 charged drops of mercury each of same radius and surface charge density σ are combined to
form a new drop. The new surface charge density becomes

(1) 8 σ
(2) 4 σ
(3) 2 σ
(4) σ

4) A charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q – q and separated by a distance R. The force of
repulsion between them will be maximum when :

(1) q = Q/4
(2) q = Q/2
(3) q = Q
(4) none of these

5) A charge Q is placed at the centre P of square ABCD. Find the work done to take a charge q0 from
A to C :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end-on position
experiences a force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting on the charge will be
:-

(1) 2F
(2) F/2
(3) F/4
(4) F/8

7) A and B are two points on the axis and the perpendicular bisector respectively of an electric
dipole. A and B are far away from the dipole and at equal distance from it. The field at A and B are
A and B .

(1) A = B

(2) A =2 B

(3) A = –2 B

(4)
, and B is perpendicular to

8) Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is rotated by 90° anticlock wise, the electric field
vector at P will rotate by :-

(1) 90° clock wise

(2) 180° clock wise
(3) 90° anti clock wise
(4) none

9) Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential. The ratio of charges on
the spheres is :

(1)
(2) R1 : R2
(3)
(4)

10)

A family of equipotential surfaces are shown. The direction of the electric field at point A is along–

(1) AB
(2) AC
(3) AD
(4) AF

11) A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The
electric potential at the point O lying at a distance L from the end A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The potential at a point P a distance y above the bottom negative plate of a parallel-plate
combination is V(y) – V(0) = ky. In this expression V(0) is the potential at the lower plate, and V(y) is
the potential at the height y above it. Magnitude of electric field between the parallel plates is :-

(1) Zero
(2) k
(3) k/2
(4) None of these

13) In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges
are placed at (n – 1) corners. At the centre, the intensity is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has
magnitude.

(1) r n
(2) r (n – 1)
(3) (n – 1)/r
(4) r(n – 1)/n

14) If a charged spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has potential V at a point distance 7 cm from its
centre, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3V

15) Electric potential in an electric field is given as V = K/r. (K being constant), if position vector
then electric field will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two concentric spherical conducting shells of radii R and 2R carry charges Q and 2Q
respectively. Change in electric potential on the outer shell when both are connected by a
conducting wire is :

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) Four dipoles each of magnitudes of charges ± e are are placed inside a sphere. The total flux of
coming out of the sphere is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18) The electric potential in a certain region of space is given by V = (4y2 – 3y), the equipotential
surface's are :

(1) planes parallel to x-z plane of uniform separation

(2) plane parallel to x-z plane of non-uniform separation
(3) planes parallel to y-z plane of non-uniform separation
(4) None of these

19) The maximum electric field that can be held in air without producing ionisation of air is 107 V/m.
The maximum potential therefore, to which a conducting sphere of radius 0.10 m can be charged in
air, is :

(1) 109V
(2) 108V
(3) 107V
(4) 106V

20) A positively charged body is brought near an uncharged gold leaf electroscope; then :-

(1) no charge is induced in the leaves

(2) positive charge is induced in both the leaves
(3) negative charge is induced in both the leaves
(4) positive charge is induced in one leaf and negative in the other

21) Two free positive charges 4q and q are a distance ℓ apart. What charge Q is needed to achieve
equilibrium for the entire system and where should it be placed form charge q ?

(1)
Q= distance

(2)
Q= distance

(3)
Q = q(positive) at distance

(4)
Q = q(negative) at distance

22) A charge of 5 C experiences a force of 5000 N when it is kept in a uniform electric field. What is
the potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 1 cm ?

(1) 10 V
(2) 250 V
(3) 1000 V
(4) 2500 V

23) Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10µC and –20µC respectively and
placed at a distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and
separated to the same distance, they experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is :-

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

24)

Find the magnitude of dipole moment of the following system.

(1)
(2) Zero
(3) 4 aq
(4) aq

25) There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown. How many labelled points have

the same electric potential as the fully shaded point :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) 11

26) n conducting small drops of the same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a
single large drop, then its potential will be :-

(1) (V/n)
(2) Vn
(3) Vn1/3
(4) Vn2/3

27) Consider equal and oppositely charged oppositely charge large parallel plates, with charge
density ±σ. A small charge q0 is moved along the rectangular path ABCDA where side AB = x and

side BC = y. Then correct statement(s) is (are) :-

(1) work done by electric field along path AB is positive and equal to q0σx/ε0.
(2) work done by electric field along path BC is zero
(3) work done by electric field along the path ABCDA is zero
(4) all of the above

28) A thin insulator rod is placed between two unlike point charges + q1 and –q2 (shown in figure).
The magnitude of electrostatic force on q1 in the absence of the insulator rod is F1 But the magnitude
of electrostatic force on q1 in the presence of the insulator rod due to (–q2) is F2 then:

(1) F1 = F2
(2) F1 > F2
(3) F1 < F2
(4) None of these

29) Find the electric flux entering in the given closed surface if electric field of magnitude E is

working uniformly parallel to its bottom surface ABCD.

(1) –Eλω
(2) –Ehω
(3) –Ebω
(4) Zero

30) V = x2y – y2 – x + 2y. Find at origin.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Find final charge on smaller sphere after closing switch :-

(1) 18Q
(2) 27Q
(3) 9Q
(4) zero

32) Two infinite plane sheets having charge densities σ1 & σ2 are placed in two perpendicular planes
whose two dimensional view is shown in figure. The charges are distributed uniformly on sheets in
electrostatic equilibrium condition. Four points are marked I, II, III & IV, the electric field intensities
at these points are respectivey. The correct expression for Electric field intensities is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge of 1.11 × 10–10 C distributed non-
uniformly on its circumference, producing an electric field everywhere in space. The value of the
line integral being the centre of the ring) in volts is :-

(1) +2
(2) –1
(3) –2
(4) 0

34) Across each of two capacitors of capacitance 1µF and 2µF a potential difference of 10V is
applied. Then, positive plate of one is connected to the negative plate of the other and negative plate
of one is connected to the positive plate of the other. After contact :-

(1) charge on each is zero

(2) charge on each is same but non-zero
(3) charge on each is different but non-zero
(4) none of the above

35) A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1μF can withstand maximum voltage V1 = 6kV (kilo-volt) and
another capacitor of capacitance C2 = 3μF can withstand maximum voltage V2 = 4 kV. When the two
capacitors are connected in series, the combined system can withstand a maximum voltage of :-

(1) 4kV
(2) 6kV
(3) 8kV
(4) 10kV

36) The capacitance of the capacitor of plate area A1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at a distance d as shown :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectrics as shown. This capacitor is connected
across a battery, then the ratio of potential difference across the dielectric layer is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference of V0. The charging battery is
disconnected and the capacitor is connected to a capacitor of unknown capacitance x. The potential
difference across the combination is V. The value of x should be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A body covers one-third of the distance with a velocity v1 the second one-third of the distance
with a velocity v2, and the last one-third of the distance with a velocity v3. The average velocity is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
capacitor plate is 1μC, then the force on each capacitor plate is

(1) 0.1N
(2) 0.05N
(3) 0.02N
(4) 0.01N

41) A capacitor with air between its plates is charged to 100 V and then disconnected from the
battery. When a glass slab is inserted in between the plates the voltage across capacitor drops to
25V. The dielectric constant of the glass slab is [Assume the glass slab completely fills the space
between the plates].

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) Information is insufficient, value of capacitance must be known

42) Two capacitors A and B are connected in series with a battery as shown in the figure. When the

switch S is closed and the two capacitors get charged fully, then :-

(1) The potential difference across the plates of A is 4V and across the plates of B is 6V
(2) The potential difference across the plates of A is 6V and across the plates of B is 4V
(3) The ratio of electrical energies stored in A and B is 2 : 3
(4) The ratio of charges on A and B is 3 : 2

43) A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected with a cell of 'E' e.m.f. When it is fully charged, a
dielectric medium of dielectric constant 'k' is introduced in it find it's final charge if cell is kept
connected with it :-

(1) CE

(2)

(3) kCE

(4)

44) As in figure shown, if a capacitor C is charged by connecting it with resistance R, then energy is
given by the battery will be

(1)

(2) CV2

(3)
Less than
(4) Zero

45) When a slab of dielectric medium is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor which
is connected with a battery, then the charge on plates in comparision with earlier charge :

(1) is less
(2) is same
(3) is more
(4) depends on the nature of the material inserted

CHEMISTRY

1) The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCHO ——→ RCH2OH

(1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7
(3) NaBH4
(4) PCC (Pyridinium chloro chromate)

2) Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3)
Find X, Y and Z respectively

(1)

CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CHO,
(2)

(3) CH3CH2–O–CH3, CH3CHO, CH3COOH

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2OH, CH3CH2CHO,CH3CH2COOH

4) CH3–C≡N C is:-

(1) CH3–CH2–OH
(2) CH3–COOH
(3) CH3–CHO
(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

5) Which reagent is best reagent for following conversion :-

(1) NaBH4
(2)
(3) LiAlH4
(4) All

6)
Product A,B and C are respectively.

(1)

(2) CH3–COOH, CHI3, H–COOH

(3) CH3–CHO, CHI3, H–CHO

(4)
CH3–CH3, CHI3,
7)
Which of the following is correct :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) H–COOH and CH3–COOH can be differentiated by

(1) NaOH/I2
(2) NaHCO3
(3) Tollen's reagent
(4) NaOH

9)
Product of the given reaction is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
Here A, B respectively are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) When an amide is reduced with sodium/alcohol, it yields :-

(1) Primary amine

(2) An alcohol
(3) Sec. amine
(4) Aldoxime

12)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Match the statements given in Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) LiAlH4

Zn-Hg/ conc.
(b) (q)
HCl

(c) (r) DIBAL-H

(d) (s) CH3MgBr

(1) a → p; b → q; c → r; d → s
(2) a → q; b → s; c → p; d → r
(3) a → p; b → q; c → s; d → r
(4) a → r; b → s; c → q; d → p

14) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Aldehydes are generally oxidised only under vigorous conditions

(2) Ketones are easily oxidised to carboxylic acids even under mild oxidising agents
Oxidation of ketones involves carbon-carbon bond cleavage to give a mixture of carboxylic acids
(3)
having lesser number of c-atoms than the parent ketones.
(4) All of the above

15) The major product ‘P’ for the following sequence of reactions is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) In esterification which of the following is the best combination for maximum rate of reaction.

(1) CH3–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

(2) (CH3)3C–OH, HCOOH
(3) CH3–OH, H–COOH
(4) (CH3)3C–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

17) + CO2
The above reaction is

(1) Kolbe's electrolysis

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Etard Reaction
(4) Kolbe Reaction

18) When chlorine reacts with carboxylic acid in the presence of red P then α-chloro carboxylic acid
will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction
19) Product C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) C6H5CCl3 X
In the above reaction X is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) Rate of hydrolysis maximum in :-

(1) CH3COCl
(2) CH3COOCH3
(3) CH3CONH2
(4) (CH3CO)2O
22) In the given reaction (x) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)
which of following product is not formed in given reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which of the following compound can react with NaBH4 but can not show haloform reaction :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) How many of CH3MgBr is to be taken for following conversion

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

26) Major product major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)
Product is

(1) Methanoic anhydride

(2) Ethanoic anhydride
(3) Acetone
(4) Butanone
28)
'A' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following acid will form anhydride on heating and Phthalimide on strong heating
with Ammonia.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Consider the given reactions

(P)
(Q)

(R)

(S)
Which of the following reaction give Ethyl alcohol product

(1) P, Q, R, S
(2) P, Q, R
(3) Q, S
(4) P, R

31) What is Z in the following sequence of reactions?

(1) Toluene
(2) Benzene
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Benzaldehyde

32) The amine that reacts with Hinsberg's reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which isomer among the following has highest boiling point ?

(1) n-Butylamine
(2) tert-Butylamine
(3) Ethyl dimethyl amine
(4) Diethylamine

34) Which among the following amines has highest value of ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Match List-I with List-II

is reacted with reagents in List-I to form products in List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

36) The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is

(1)
(2)
(3) HI
(4)

37) Statement-I: Aniline on reaction with at followed by coupling with phenol gives
orange coloured dye.
Statement-II: The orange coloured dye formed in the reaction of aniline
with at followed by coupling with phenol have extended conjugated system having both the
aromatic rings joined together through -N=N- bond.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

38) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion (A) : Aniline on nitration yields ortho, meta and para nitro derivatives of aniline.
Reason (R) : Nitrating mixture is a strong acidic mixture, protonates the aniline to anilinium ion
which contains -NH3+ a strong -I group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

39) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used in the preparation of:

(1) 1° amine
(2) 2° amine
(3) 3° amine
(4) 4° amine

40)
What is X ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) What is the major product obtained in the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:

(1) propylamine
(2) butylamine
(3) butanamide
(4) α–bromobutanoic acid

44) Which of the following reaction does not give primary amine as a produces -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)
Product C is :

(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
(2) CH3—CH2—OH
(3) CH3—CH2—CH2—OH
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by:

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) Bateson and Punnet
(3) T. H. Morgan
(4) Watson and Crick

2) Assume that gene a and b are linked and show 40% recombination. If ++ / ++ individual is
crossed with ab / ab, then types and proportions of gametes in F1 will be :-

(1) ++ 20% : ab 20% : +b 20% : a + 40%

(2) ++ 50% : ab 50%
(3) ++ 25% : ab 25% : + b 25% : a + 25%
(4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

3) The term linkage was coined by :-

(1) T. Boveri
(2) G. Mendel
(3) W. Sutton
(4) T.H. Morgan

4) A gene is said to be dominant, if:-

(1) It expresses as complete/unmodified product

(2) Its product is incomplete
(3) Its product is modified
(4) It has no product at all

5) External appearance of organism is called :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Phenocopy
(4) Factor

6) Mendel proposed that something was beings stably passed down, unchanged, from parent to
offsprings through gametes, over successive generation. He called these things as
(1) Factors
(2) Genomes
(3) Genes
(4) Alleles

7) Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from :-

(1) Cell to cell

(2) Zygote to cells
(3) Parent to progeny
(4) Husband to wife

8) If F1 individual of genotype (Tt) go through sexual reproduction, then it's gamete/pollengrain with
genotype (T) have what chances to fertilise eggs of the genotype (t)

(1) 25 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 100 %

9) An organism's genetic constitution is called its :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Holotype
(4) Homozygous

10) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

11) The degree by which the progeny differ from their parents is known as :

(1) Genetics
(2) Variation
(3) Heredity
(4) Inheritance

12) Regarding to genotype Tt select out the incorrect statement :-

(1) It is allelic gene pair

(2) Can be present on non-homologous chromosomes
(3) They share common locus of homologues
(4) They share same character.

13) Alleles are :-

(1) Slightly variable forms of genes present on same locus of homologous chromosomes.
(2) Slightly varible form of genes present on same chromosomes.
(3) Similar genes present at different locus of homologus chromosomes.
(4) Slightly different form of genes present on same locus of non homologous chromosomes.

14) Which of the following combination of character is not possible in pea plant -

(1) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – green

(2) Flower colour – white and seed colour – yellow
(3) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – white
(4) Flower colour – violet and seed colour – yellow

15) Select the correct statement for G.J. Mendel.

(1) He conducted hybridization experiments on garden pea for five years

He applied statistical analysis and mathematical logic for the first time to the problems in
(2)
biology
(3) His experiments had a small sampling size
(4) He conducted artificial self pollination experiments using several true breeding pea lines

16) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

17) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-
(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.
(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
phenotype.

18) Mendel's contribution for genetic inheritance was :-

(1) The idea that genes are found on chromosomes.

(2) Providing a mechanism that explains patterns of inheritance.
(3) Describing how genes are influenced by the environment.
(4) Determining that the information contained in DNA codes for proteins.

19) In garden pea a dihybrid cross was made. In F2 19/16 members where showing same phenotype
the phenotype was.

(1) Violet and terminal flower

(2) Violet flower and green pod
(3) Green and Round seed
(4) Tall stem and white flower

20) Mendel always used pure parents for crosses, He develops pure parents by :-

(1) Selfing of hybrids only

(2) Hybridization process
(3) Bagging & Tagging Technique
(4) Continuous selfing & Selection

21) How many dominant characteristics are present in pea plant from given list :-
Round seed, Green seed colour, full pod shape, yellow pod colour, terminal flower position, white
flower colour,

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) How many true breeding lines of garden pea were selected by Mendel ?

(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 21
(4) 28

23) When flowers are unisexual then emasculation is done in :-

(1) Female flower
(2) Male flower
(3) Either male or female flower
(4) None

24) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

25) A test cross enables us to -

(1) determine the viability of cross.

(2) distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant.
(3) determine whether two species can interbreed or not.
(4) determine the similarities in the DNA of two species.

26) The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in
a monohybrid cross in ..... and the expression of both in ..... .

(1) F1 and F2
(2) F2 and F3
(3) F1 and F3
(4) F2 and F1

27) In F2 generation of monohybrid cross dwarf plants obtained due to ?

(1) Segregation
(2) Linkage
(3) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(4) Incomplete dominance

28) Which of the following is basis of Mendel's law of dominance ?

(1) Monohybrid cross

(2) Dihybrid cross
(3) Trihybrid cross
(4) Reciprocal cross
29) When we make a cross between AABBCcDd with AABBCcDd then find out the phenotypic ratio
we obtained in next generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

30) Ratio of plants which are dominant for both characters and recessive for both characters in the
F2 generation of dihybrid cross is –

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

31) In the cross Aa Bb × Aa Bb.

What proportion of genotypes is homozygous for both characters :-

(1) 2/16
(2) 4/16
(3) 0/16
(4) 6/16

32) If a tall & pink flowered (TtRr) Mirabilis plant is self crossed, then the offsprings would be -

(1) 50% plants will be tall

(2) 50% plants will have Red flower
(3) 25% plants will have white flower
(4) 25% plants will have pink flower

33) Which of the following condition is true for co-dominance ?

(1) F1 didn't resemble either of two parents.

(2) F1 generation resembles both parents.
(3) F1 resembled either of two parents.
(4) Some blended phenotype appear in F1 generation.

34) Phenotype of an organism, for example skin color is the result of

(1) Mutations and linkages

(2) Genotype and environment interaction
(3) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(4) Environment changes and sexual dimorphism

35) What is the probability of obtaining the genotype TTrrYy from the cross between the parents
with genotype?
TtRrYy × Ttrryy

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The phenotype of any character will not be affected if the modified allele produces.

(1) No enzyme at all

(2) Non functional enzyme
(3) (1) & (2) both.
(4) Normal enzyme

37) Distance between the genes a, b, c and d in map units is

and . Find out the sequence of the genes.

(1) a d c b
(2) a c d b
(3) a b c d
(4) a c b d

38) Gene mapping is based on:

(1) Dominance of alleles

(2) Frequency of recombination
(3) Sex linkage
(4) Mutagenesis

39) Identify 'a' and 'b' in this figure

(1) a-Male, b-Female

(2) a-Female, b-Male
(3) a-Male, b-Male
(4) a-Female, b-Female

40) If there is complete linkage in F2 generation

(1) Parental types and recombinants appear in equal ratio

(2) Recombinants are less than parental types
(3) Recombinants are more than parental types
(4) There will be only parental types

41)

Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Closely located genes produce very few recombinants.

(2) Distantly located genes produce higher recombinants than closely located genes.
(3) 50% recombinants produced show results similar to independent assortment.
(4) Tightly linked genes produce more recombinants than loosely linked genes.

42) Assertion (A): The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is a 50% chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
Reason (R) : By the process of mitosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate from each other &
only one allele in transmitted to a gamete.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

43) Which statement is incorrect about linkage ?

(1) It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties

(2) It helps in forming new recombinants
(3) Knowledge of linkage helps the breeder to combine all desirable traits in a single variety
(4) It helps in locating genes on chromosome

44) Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in
the given example ?

(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds

(2) XO types of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(3) XO condition in humans as found in turner Syndrome, determines female sex
(4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

45) In the given diagram what is the frequency of recombination between AB gene ?
(1) 50%
(2) 30%
(3) 15%
(4) 10%

46)

ATPase enzyme, needed for muscle contraction is located in :

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Myosin

47) Cross arm of myosin is made up of :-

(1) Head + tail

(2) Tail + short arm
(3) Head + short arm
(4) Only short arm

48) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease in length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease in length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged

49) Match the column–I with column–II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Myosin (i) Troponin

(b) Z-line (ii) Intercalated Disc

(c) Actin (iii) ATPase Enzyme

(d) Cardiac muscle (iv) Actin

(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
50) Which one of the following is related with wild contractions in muscle due to low Ca++ in body
fluid ?

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Gout
(3) Tetany
(4) Osteoporosis

51) Assertion : Muscle fibre is the anatomical unit of muscle.

Reason : Each muscle fibre has many parallelly arranged myofibrils.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) Assertion (A) :- Calcium plays an important role in skeletal muscle contraction.
Reason (R) :- Ca+2 binds to sub-unit of troponin to remove the masking of active sites for myosin on
actin filaments.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

53) In the given four statements (1-4), select the incorrect one :-

(1) Voluntary movements are involved in locomotion.

Ciliary movements occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by squamous
(2)
epithelium.
(3) Muscles are effectively used for locomotion
Methods of locomotion performed by animals vary with their habitats and the demand of the
(4)
situation.

54) Which one of the following options shows the next stage of muscle contraction after the stage

given in question?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

55) Identify the following structures related with muscle shown below and select the right option :

(A) (B)
(1) Myosin Actin
(2) Meromyosin Actin
(3) Actin Myosin polymer
(4) Actin Meromyosin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Match the Column-I and Column-II and find out the correct matching

Column-I Column-II

(A) I band (i) Contains both actin & myosin

(B) A band (ii) Thin filaments are held together with the help of elastic fibres.

(C) Z line (iii) contains only Actin

(D) M line (iv) Thick filaments are held together with the help of fibrous membrane
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii,D-iv
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv,D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii,D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii,D-iv

57)

Match the pair :-

 Column–A Column–B

(a) Functional unit of contraction (i) Muscle fibre

(b) Thin filament (ii) Myosin

(c) Thick filament (iii) Sarcomere

(d) Muscle cell (iv) Actin

(1) a→i , b→ii , c→iv , d→iii
(2) a→iii, b→iv , c→ii , d→i
(3) a→ii , b→iv , c→i , d→iii
(4) a→ii , b→iv , c→iii , d→i

58) What percentage of body weight of adult human is contributed by muscles ?

(1) 60-70%
(2) 30-40%
(3) 40-50%
(4) 20-30%

59) In paramoecium, the movement of food through cytopharynx take place by :-

(1) Cilia
(2) Flagella
(3) Microvilli
(4) Myonemes

60) Which of the following gastro-intestinal tract hormone, act on exocrine pancrease and stimulate
secretion of water and bicarbonate ions :-

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) Gastric inhibitory peptide

61) Which of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through
the cell membrane :

(1) Somatostatin, oxytocin

(2) Cortisol, testosterone
(3) Insulin, glucagon
(4) Thyroxine, MSH

62) Glucocorticoids stimulates ?

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipolysis
(C) Proteolysis
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

63) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice ?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) GIP
(4) Cholecystokinin

64) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

65) Which of the following pair of hormones is not antagonistic ?

(1) Insulin and glucagon

(2) FSH and LH
(3) Calcitonin and PTH
(4) MSH and melatonin

66)

Which of the following stimulates glycogenolysis-

(1) Catecholamines and cortisol

(2) Cortisol ans insulin
(3) ADH and cortisol
(4) Both 1 & 2

67) Given below is a flow chart of hormonal action, identify the hormones / glands labelled as A,B, C
and D :-
 (1) A–Neurohypophysis B–TSH C–Thyroid gland

D-Metabolism
(2) A–Pituitary gland B-GnRH
of body

D-Sleep-wake
(3) B-TSH C-Adenohypophysis
cycle

C-Thyroid
(4) A-Adenohypophysis B-TSH
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Which one of the following is INCORRECT ?

(1) Normal level of insulin = Glycogenesis

(2) Normal level of Glucagon = Glucose level in blood
(3) Normal level of Cortisol = ↓ Glucose level in blood
(4) High level of ADH = ↓ H2O in urine

69) Which of the following characteristics is not mentioned in current scientific definition of
hormone ?

(1) Non-antigenic substance

(2) Non-nutrient chemical
(3) Act as intercellular messenger
(4) Produced in trace amount

70) Which of following is unorganised endocrine gland :

(1) Pituitary
(2) Gonad
(3) Kidney
(4) Thymus

71) The chemical co-ordination provide :-

(1) Rapid transmission

(2) Response is short lived
(3) Response is long lasting
(4) 1 & 2 both

72) Assertion : Oxytocin stimulates a vigrous contraction of uterus at the time of child birth.
Reason : Oxytocin acts on smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

73) Assertion (A) :- Thyroid hormones is increased to abnormal high levels leading to a condition
called hyperthyroidism.
Reason (R) :- Exopthalmic goiter is a form of hypothyroidism.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

74)

Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option-

Column I Column II

(A) Adrenaline (i) Pupillary dilation

(B) Glucagon (ii) Enhances cellular glucose uptake

(C) Aldosterone (iii) Hyperglycemic hormone

(D) Insulin (iv) Increase excretion of K+

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Pituitary gland (i) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Acromegaly

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Exopthalmic goitre

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

76) In the given figure identify A and B :-

(1) A → Receptor, B → Hormone

A → Secondary Messenger,
(2)
B → Ovarian growth
A → Ovarian growth,
(3)
B → Secondary messenger
A → Biological response,
(4)
B → Ovarian growth

77) Observe the given figure of pituitary gland :- Choose the correct answer about
marking sites.
 A B C D

Hypothalmic Portal Anterior Posterior

1.
neuron circulation pituitary pituitary

Portal Anterior Posterior

2. Hypothalamus
circulation pituitary pituitary

Portal Posterior Anterior

3. Hypothalamus
circulation pituitary pituitary

Portal Hypothalamic Posterior

4. Hypothalamus
circulation neuron pituitary
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Which of the following cause an increase in water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?

(1) Increase in insulin levels

(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

79) (A) Gland is located on the dorsal side of forebrain. Secretes hormone (B) & hormone (B)
regulate diurnal rhythm of our body & (C) in female. Choose the correct option for (A), (B) & (C).

(1) Pineal gland, Melatonin, Menstrual cycle

(2) Pituitary gland, GH, Menstrual cycle
(3) Pineal gland, Melatonin, Pigmentation
(4) Pineal gland, Melatonin, Metabolism

80) Anatomically pars distalis and pars intermedia are together included in

(1) Neurohypophysis
(2) Adenohypophysis
(3) Posterior lobe of pituitary
(4) Anterior lobe of hypothalamus

81) What will be the effect if adenohypophysis is removed ?

(1) Oxytocin and ADH will not be synthesized

(2) Oxytocin and ADH will be synthesized but could not be stored
(3) Thyroid gland will not be stimulated
(4) Oxytocin and ADH hormone will not be released properly

82) Given below is list of few glands. Find out incorrect for them.
(1) Adrenal medulla → Hormone stimulates glycogenolysis
(2) Corpus luteum → Hormone stimulate mammary gland development
Islets of langerhans → β-cell hormone that decreases protein synthesis and lipid synthesis in
(3)
target cell.
(4) Pineal gland → It’s secretion affects metabolism and play role in defense capability

83) Junction between muscle fiber and motor neuron is called as

(1) Myofibril
(2) Transverse tubules
(3) Neuromuscular junction
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

84) Which one is true for skeletal muscle fibre ?

(1) Divisible
(2) Syncytial
(3) Membrane less
(4) Uninucleated

85) Statement-A : Red muscles are also called as anaerobic muscles.

Statement-B : White muscles possess less quantity of myoglobin.
Statement-C : Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high in white muscles.
Choose the correct option below :

(1) Statements A, C are correct, B is incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct and B, C are incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B, C are correct
(4) Statements A, B are incorrect and C is correct

86)

Find out correct points with the regarding of cardiac muscle :-

(A) These are unstriated
(B) These are involuntary
(C) These are branched
(D) They have more mitochondria

(E) They have less blood supply

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) B, D, E
(4) A, C, E

87) Which of the following character represent skeletal muscle correctly ?

(A) Fascicles are held by fascia.
(B) Fascia is an elastic connective tissue layer.
(C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is structural and functional unit of muscle contraction.
(D) M-line connects myosin filaments together.

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and D only

88) Dark bands are

(1) A-band
(2) B-band
(3) I-band
(4) Z-line

89) Which points are correct about visceral muscles ?

(1) These are located in the inner walls of hollow visceral organs of the body.
(2) They do not exhibit any striations.
(3) Their activities are not under the voluntary control of the nervous system.
(4) All of the above

90)

Cross bridge dissociated when :-

(1) ADP & Pi dissociated from myosin head

(2) Removal of Pi from actin
(3) ADP & Pi dissociated from myosin head and a new ATP attached with myosin head
(4) Active site of actin get covered
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 1 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 3 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ∴ p =
Also. K = qV
∴ p=

∴ (∵ qα = 2qe)

2)

3)

4) Force is max when charges are equally distributed

5)

Here VA = VC
w = q0 [VC – VA] = 0

6)

F' =

7)

Separation oof two points

= = 10 m = r say
Hence, E = V/m = 4500 V/m

8) Energy of the metallic object equals work done in charging the object against electrostatic
forces. For the object completely surrounded in a medium of dielectric constant 'K', force or

electric field everywhere gets reduced by the factor 'K' & hence, changed energy would be
.

9)

10) (i) Electric field line ⊥ to surface

(ii) In direction of electric field line potential decreases therefore AF is correct.

11)

12)

The potential decreases along electric field.

Lesser the potential, greater the P.E. for (–ve) charged particle.

13)

Q=

∴
 But
∴

14) (Inside sphere) ................. (1)

15)

V=

16)

initially

ΔV = VA' – VA = 0

17) Net charge inside sphere is zero

⇒ flux = 0

18)

V = 4y2 – 3y ⇒ E = – 8y + 3
As V not depend on so it remain constant in x–z plane. Hence equipotential surface are parallel
to x–z plane and electric field is non-uniform so equipotential surface having equal difference
are non-uniformly separated.

19) E = = 107 ⇒ v = 0.1 × 107 = 106 volt

20) 1. Question Explain

A positively charged body is brought near an uncharged gold leaf electroscope. Determine the
induced charge on the leaves.
2. Concept Based
Electrostatic induction
3. Formula Used
Not applicable.
4. Calculation
When a positively charged body is brought near the cap of an uncharged electroscope, free
electrons in the electroscope are attracted towards the cap. This causes a deficit of electrons
in the leaves, resulting in a net positive charge on both leaves. Consequently, the leaves
diverge due to repulsion between these like charges

21)

For charge q :- – ⇒x=

For charge (4q) :-

⇒Q= (negative)

22) Force on charged particle in electric field E is given by

F = qE = q

∴ 5000 =
∴ V = 10 volt

23)
After contact

24)
25)

V-same for points perpendicular to field lines and lies on the same plane. Hence, N = 3

26) Asking about: The potential of a large drop formed by the coalescence of n identical
charged small drops.
Concept: Conservation of charge, capacitance of a spherical conductor, electric potential.
Formula:
Charge on a capacitor:
Capacitance of a sphere:

Potential of a sphere: V =

Volume of a sphere:

Explanation: Let the radius of each small drop be r and charge be q. Then , so q =
4πε0rV
Total charge on n small drops = nq = n(4πε0rV)
Let the radius of the large drop be R. Its volume is n times the volume of a small drops:

⇒
The total charge on the large drop is the same as the total charge on the small drops: Q =
n(4πε0rV)
The potential of the large drop V' is:

= = n1–1/3 V = n2/3V
Final answer: Vn2/3
Correct option: (4)

27)

it appears due east when,

28) Coulomb force is independent of medium.

29) |ϕin| = |ϕout| = E × A⊥

ϕin = –Ehω

30) Ex = –(2xy – 1)
Ey = –(x2 – 2y + 2)

31)

Here, V1 = V2, there is zero potential difference between two spheres, so no charge in
transfered.

32) Use principle of superposition and the fact that due to infinite plane sheet having surface

charge density σ on its one face is ,

So,

33)

34) A capacitor is an arrangement which can store sufficient quantity of charge. Suppose on
giving a charge q to a conductor the electric potential of the conductor becomes V. Then, the
capacitance of the conductor is When two capacitors are
connected as given, then charges will be redistributed in the ratio of their capacitance, so
charge on each capacitor will be different but non-zero.

35) (Qsafe)1 = 6 mc (Qsafe)2 = 12 mc

⇒ Qckt = (Qsafe)1 = 6 mc
⇒ V1 = 6 KV & V2 = 2 KV
⇒ Vcombination = V1 + V2 = 8 KV

36) As shown in figure, electric field between the two plates is pertendicular to the surface of

the conductor. Effective area of capacitor will be A1.

As

or

37) Since both the capacitors are in series, so charge passing across them would be same.
So, C1V1 = C2V2

or

or

38) Initial charge on capacitor C

q = CV0
When it is connected to uncharged capacitor of capacitance x then charge q gets distributed

on both capacitors So q = q1 + q2
CV0 = CV + xV

or x =
 39)

40) F = QE, E shall be of one plate only.

41) Q = constant [as capacitor is disconnected from battery after charging]. Let K be dielectric
constant and Co is initial capacitance, then
C0 × 100 = (KC0) × 25
⇒ K=4

42) ; Q1 = Q2 = Q
V1 = 6V ; V2 = 4V

43)

Q = C1 × E
Q = K.C.E

44) Some energy lost in the form of heat in resistance also.

45) Q = CV;
when a slab of dielectric medium is placed capacitance is increased
Q ∝ C so charge is also increased

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining the Question :- Question ask for most suitable reagent which can convert RCHO
—→ RCH2OH
Concept:- Reduction of aldehyde to alcohol.
Solution :- KMnO4 (Potassium permanganate) – This is a strong oxidizing agent, not
suitable for reducing aldehydes. It would oxidize RCHO further to a carboxylic acid (RCOOH).
K2Cr2O7 (Potassium dichromate) – Another oxidizing agent. It also converts aldehydes to
carboxylic acids, not to alcohols.
NaBH 4 (Sodium borohydride) – A mild reducing agent commonly used to reduce
aldehydes to primary alcohols. This is the correct reagent.
PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate) – A mild oxidizing agent, typically used to oxidize
primary alcohols to aldehydes. So it's used in the reverse direction.
Final Answer :- Option 3

47)

48)

49)

50)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the reagent- which is best for the following conversion.
Concept:- This question is based on Reduction
Solution :-

LiAlH4, NaBH4 and NH2-NH2/ reduce carbonyl compound into alkane, not reduce alkene.
So all the given reagents are best for the given conversion.
Final Answer :- (4)

51)

Answer is " "

52)

53)

H COOH + CH3 COOH

Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent and give silver mirror test.
CH3 COOH not give silver mirror test.

54)

Explaining the Question :-

Find out the product of the given reaction
Concept :- Reduction with NaBH4
Solution :-
NaBH4 reduce Aldehyde, ketone and acid halide into Alcohal.

NaBH4 can't reduce ester.

Final Answer :- Option (1)

55) A = B=

56)

57)

Explaination: Identification the final product of given reaction sequence starting from β-Keto
acid.
Concept: Decarboxylation Clemmensen's Reduction.
Solution:
 Final Answer: Option (1)

58)

a → q (Clemmenson reduction)
b → s (NAR)
c → p (reduction by LiAlH4)
d → r (specific reduction of ester)

59) A. Question Explanation:

We are asked to identify the correct statements about the oxidation of aldehydes and ketones.
B. Given Data:
We have four options:
1. Aldehydes are generally oxidized only under vigorous conditions.
2. Ketones are easily oxidized to carboxylic acids even under mild oxidizing agents.
3. Oxidation of ketones involves carbon-carbon bond cleavage to give a mixture of carboxylic
acids having a lesser number of carbon atoms than the parent ketones.
4. All of the above.
C. Concept:
We need to understand the reactivity of aldehydes and ketones towards oxidation.
D. Answer Explanation:

A. Option 1: This is incorrect because Aldehydes are generally oxidized to carboxylic acids under
mild conditions. This is because the carbonyl carbon in aldehydes is more electrophilic than in
ketones.
B. Option 2: This is incorrect because. They require strong oxidizing agents and harsh
conditions to undergo oxidation.
C. Option 3: The oxidation of ketones typically involves the cleavage of a carbon-carbon bond,
leading to the formation of carboxylic acids with lesser carbon atoms.

E. Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct statement is Option 3

60)

61)

rate of R–OH is
62)

Fact based

63) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-375

64)

65) -CCl3 is –M group

66) Acid halide most reactive & chlorine is good leaving group

67)

68)

69)

70)
71)

72)

73)

74)

75) Only (LiAlH4) and (B2H6 + H3O+) will give ethyl alcohol when react with ethanoic Acid.

76) X = Benzene, Y = Toluene and Z = Benzoic acid

77) Hinsberg's reagent is used to distinguish 1o,2o and 3o amine. Primary amines reacts with
Hinsberg's reagent to give precipitate which is soluble in alkali while secondary amines give a
product which is insoluble in alkali. Tertiary amines do not react with Hinsberg's reagent.

78)

n-Butylamine is a straight chain structure, which allows for stonger intermolecular forces.

79)

In general, arylamines are weaker bases than aliphatic amines.

Hence, aniline is the weakest base and its pKb value is the highest among the given amines.
 80)

81)

Certain mild reducing agents likehypophosphorus acid or ethanol reduces diazonium salts to
arene and themselves get oxidized to phosphorous acid and ethanol respectively.

82)

Question Explanation : The questions asks to evaluate statement.

Concept : Diazotization reaction.
Solution :

A. Aniline reacts with NaNO2/HCl at O°C → forms benzenediazonium chloride

 B. Coupling with phenol → forms azo dye.
C. The azo dye contains two aromatic rings connected via a – N = N – (azo) linkage, which allows
extended conjugation.
D. This extended conjugation is responsible for the orange color due to absorption in visible
region.

Both statement I and II are correct.

Final Answer : Option (1)

83)

Direct nitration of aniline yields trarry oxidation products in addition of the nitro derivatives.
Moreover, in the strongly acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form the anilinium ion which
conains strong -I effect group -NH3+. That is why besides the ortho and para derivatives,
significant amount of meta derivatives is also formed.

84)

Question Explanation : Identify which type of amine is prepared using Gabriel phthalimide
synthesis
Concept: This question is based on Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Solution : Gabriel synthesis uses phthalimide to selectively prepare primary aliphatic amines.
The reaction proceeds via SN2 mechanism with primary alkyl halides, followed by hydrolysis to
release the free amine.
It does not work for secondary, tertiary or quaternary amines (salt) due to steric hindrance
and lack of suitable reaction pathways.
Final Answer : Option (1)

85)
 86)

87) 1. Asking About: Product of given reaction.

2. Concept:

88)

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

92) Question Explanation–Types and proportions of gametes produced by an F1 individual.

Genes a and b are linked with 40% recombination

Concept – This question based on linkage and recombination.

 Solution –
If gene show x% recombination then
→ Parental types = (100 – x )
→ Recombination types = x

→ Each parental type =

each recombination type =

Recombination = 40%
so, Recombination + b = 20%
a+ = 20%
Parentals (100 – 40) = 60 %
each ++ = 30%
ab = 30%

Final Answer – Option (4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

93)

Answer (4)

94) NCERT-XII Pg. # 76

95)

The correct answer is 2: Phenotype

Explanation: The phenotype refers to the external appearance or characteristics of an

organism, which result from the interaction of its genotype with the environment.

96)

The correct answer is 1. Factors

Explanation: Mendel referred to the hereditary units that were passed from parent to
offspring as "factors". These factors are now known as genes. Mendel's experiments with pea
plants led him to propose that these "factors" determine traits, and they are inherited in
specific patterns.

However, it's important to note that today we refer to these "factors" as genes, but at the time
of Mendel, the term "factors" was used.

So, the correct historical term is factors.

97)

Explain Question : Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from.
Concept : This question is based on inheritance in biology refers to the transmission of
genetic information from one generation to the next through DNA.
This involves parents passing traits to their offspring via genes.
It is a fundamental concept in Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Explanation : (Parent to progeny) — correct definition of inheritance.
Final answer : 3

98)

Explain question : The question aks about the probability that a gamete carrying allele T
from an F1 heterozygote (Tt) will fertilise an egg carrying allele t.
Concept : This question is based on Monohybrid cross
Explanation : If pollen grain is T (given), the egg can be either T (50%) or t (50%) from a Tt
plant
Final answer :- 2

100)

Explain question : The question asks which mendelian trait appears in both homozygous and
heterozygous conditions
Concept : This question is based on Dominance
Explanation : Axial flower position → dominant → expressed in AA & Aa
Constricted pod shape, wrinkled seed shape, and green seed colour → recessive traits →
expressed only in homozygous recessive.
Final answer :- 1

101) NCERT-XII Page # 69, 3rd Para.

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 56

105) NCERT Pg. # 54, 65

106)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 81

107)

NCERT Pg No. - 75

108)

Answer (2)

109) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 78

110) Asking about:
This question is asking about the method Mendel used to ensure he was working with pure-
breeding (homozygous) parent plants for his crosses.

Concept:
The question involves the concept of:
Pure-breeding: Organisms that consistently produce offspring with the same traits as
themselves when self-fertilized or crossed with another individual of the same genotype.
Selfing: The process of self-fertilization in plants, where pollen from the same plant fertilizes
its own ovules.

Solution:
Mendel developed pure-breeding lines of pea plants through a process of:
Continuous selfing: He repeatedly self-fertilized plants over many generations. This leads to
an increase in homozygosity with each generation.
Selection: He carefully selected plants that consistently exhibited the desired trait (e.g., tall
or dwarf) for further selfing. This ensured that only the desired trait was passed down through
generations.

Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is 4. Continuous selfing & Selection

111)

Answer (1)

112)

Answer (2)

113)

Answer (4)

114)

Explain Question : If a Tt × Tt pea plant cross is made, what will be the offspring
distribution?
Concept : This question is based on T = Tall (dominant)
t = Dwarf (recessive)
Genotypic ratio in F₁ from Tt × Tt:
1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt
Phenotypic ratio:
3 Tall : 1 Dwarf
Explanation : Tall plants = TT + Tt = 3/4 = 75% (A correct)
Dwarf plants = tt = 1/4 = 25% (B correct)
Homozygous = TT + tt = 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2 = 50% (C correct)
Heterozygous = Tt = 2/4 = 50% (D correct)
Final answer : 2
 115)

Explain Question : A test cross enables us to.

Concept : This question is based on test cross = Crossing an individual showing dominant
phenotype with a homozygous recessive.
Explanation : Purpose: To find out whether the dominant phenotype individual is homozygous
dominant or heterozygous.
If all offspring show dominant trait → parent is homozygous dominant.
If 50% dominant & 50% recessive → parent is heterozygous.
Final answer : 2

116) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73

117) NCERT Pg. # 59

118) NCERT Pg. # 59

119)

In the cross AABBCCDd x AABBCCDd:

• A and B are homozygous dominant, so they don't show variation.
• C and D are heterozygous, leading to a 3:1 ratio for each of these genes.
Thus, the overall phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1.

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 62

122)

The correct answer is :

3. 25% plants will have white flower
Explanation:

A. For flower color (Rr x Rr), the possible outcomes are:

B. 25% red flowers (RR)
C. 50% pink flowers (Rr)
D. 25% white flowers (rr)

So, 25% of the plants will have white flowers.

123)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 61
124) NCERT_12_21-22_PG_85

125) Ncert Pg No: 73 - 80

126) Ncert Pg No: 76

127) NCERT page: 67

128) Explaining: Genes closer together recombine less.

Concept: Linkage mapping based on recombination percentage.
Solution: More recombination = more distance
Final Answer: (2)

129) Ncert Pg No: 67

130) NCERT_12_21-22_PG_84

131) Ncert Pg No: 60, 68

132) Ncert Pg No: 57

133) Ncert Pg No: 70, 71

134) Ncert Pg No: 70, 71

135) Ncert Pg No: 68

136)

The ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in myosin.

137)

The cross arm of myosin is made up of the head and short arm.

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 222

139)

NCERT XI - Pg# 305, 306

140) NCERT Pg. # 312

141) NCERT Pg. # 311

142) NCERT Pg. # 307

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 302, 303

144)

After cross bridge formation next stage is sliding/rotation of Head; than breaking of cross
bridge.

145) NCERT Pg. # 306

146) NCERT-XI, Page No.305

147)

NCERT (E) (XIth) Para-1, Pg. # 305,

Fig-20.1, Pg. - 304
NCERT (H) (XIth) Para-1, Pg. # 304

148) NCERT XI Pg. # 303

149) In Paramecium, food moves through the cytopharynx by cilia.

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247

151) NCERT Pg. # 339

152) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

153) Solution :
The hormone that stimulates of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice is cholecystokinin.

Correct Answer is :
Option (4)
Cholecystokinin
154)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
• Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.

155) NCERT Page No. 333, 334

156)

NCERT Page # 335

157)

The correct answer is 4. A - Adenohypophysis, B - TSH, C - Thyroid gland

Explanation:
The hypothalamus releases TRH, which stimulates the adenohypophysis (A) to release TSH (B).
TSH then acts on the thyroid gland (C) to produce thyroxin. Thyroxin's main function is the
regulation of the metabolism of the body.

158) NCERT Page # 332, 335, 336

159)

Current scientific definition as follows:

Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers and are
produced in trace amounts.
The new definition covers a number of new molecules in addition to the hormones secreted by
the organised endocrine glands.

160)

Here's why:

A. Unorganized endocrine gland: This refers to tissues or organs that produce hormones
but are not exclusively dedicated to endocrine function. They have other primary
functions.

B. Kidney: The kidneys produce several hormones, including erythropoietin (EPO)

(stimulates red blood cell production), renin (regulates blood pressure), and calcitriol
(active form of vitamin D, which regulates calcium absorption).
 A. However, their primary function is to filter waste products from the blood and
regulate fluid balance.

161) NCERT, [Link] - 331

162) NCERT XI Page No. # 332

163) NCERT, Pg # 335

164) NCERT Pg # 244, 245, 246

165) Acromegaly is caused due to hypersecretion of GH during adulthood. Diabetes mellitus is

caused due to hyposecretion of insulin from β-cells of Acromegaly is caused due to
hypersecretion of GH during adulthood. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to hyposecretion of
insulin from β-cells of pancreas. Addison’s disease is caused due to hyposecretion of hormones
of adrenal cortex. Hypersecretion of hormones of thyroxine and T3 leads to exophthalmic
goitre. pancreas. Addison’s disease is caused due to hyposecretion of hormones of adrenal
cortex. Hypersecretion of hormones of thyroxine and T3 leads to exophthalmic goitre.

166) NCERT Pg. # 339

167) NCERT Pg. # 241 (19.2.2)

168) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 332,333

169) NCERT Pg # 333

170) NCERT Page 333

171) NCERT XII Pg.# 332, para-22.2.2

172) NCERT Pg# 333, 335, 336

173)

NCERT XI Page no. 222

174) NCERT(XI) Page# 304 Para# 20.2

175) NCERT Pg.#308

176) NCERT XI Pg.#307 Para-6

177) NCERT Pg. # 304

178)

Explanation:
Dark bands are A-band.

A-band is the dark band in a sarcomere. It contains both thick (myosin) and thin (actin)
filaments. The overlap of these filaments makes the A-band appear darker.
Correct option: (1)

179) Question Explanation :

The question asking about which points are correct about visceral muscles.

Concept :
This question is based on Types of muscles.

Solution :
Visceral muscles are non-striated, involuntary, and found in walls of hollow internal organs.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : All of the above.

180) Explanation:
Cross bridges dissociate when ADP & Pi dissociate from the myosin head and a new ATP
molecule attaches to the myosin head.

Correct option:(3)